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55 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is normal hematocrit and oxygen saturation?
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Adult males Ht: 42%-54%
Adult women Ht: 38%-46% Normal oxygen saturation values are 97% to 99% in the healthy individual. |
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Under what conditions do we see nucleated RBCs in blood smear?
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Regenerative anemia: In this case, the nRBCs will be accompanied by polychromasia or a reticulocytosis.
Bone marrow injury, e.g. endotoxemia, lead poisoning (plumbism) Bone marrow neoplasia, e.g. primary myelodysplasia, acute myeloid leukemia Extramedullary hematopoiesis Altered splenic function, e.g. splenectomy, splenic hemangiosarcoma |
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Name one test and one physical observation that will support the diagnosis of polycythemia vera
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Polycythemia vera is an overproduction of red blood cells by the marrow (as well as sometimes of white blood cells and platelets). Most of the health concerns associated with polycythemia vera are caused by a blood-thickening effect that results from an overproduction of red blood cells.
Blood test: Erythropoetin is low. Phys. finding: itching, especially upon exposure to hot water |
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Name five tumor types associated with increased hematopoesis
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1. Hepatocellular carcinoma
2. Renal cell carcinoma 3. Hemangioblastoma 4. Pheochromocytoma 5. Uterine Myomata |
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When do we see Reactive Polycythemia and what test would suggest it's presence?
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With long-standing tissue hypoxia, like in smokers or with COPD. Decreases oxygen saturation on pulse oxymetry is suggestive of reactive polycythemia
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What is cystinuria?
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Cystinuria is an inherited autosomal recessive metabolic disorder characterized by the formation of cystine stones in the kidneys, ureter, and bladder.
Caused by defective transepithelial transport of cystine and dibasic amino acids in the kidney and intestine. Test: Positive Nitroprusside test identifies the presence of cysteine in the urine |
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Mosaic pattern of newly formed woven bone is usually suggestive of?
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Paget's disease.
There could also be increased hat size During early lytic phase Paget's disease is characterized by patchwork areas of bone resorption with bizarre, large osteoclasts. In the middle phase (blastic and lytic) there is a mosaic pattern of new bone formation. Late phase (sclerotic) the bone is dense and "burned out" Complication: osteosarcoma, high output heart failure |
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What is the most common cause of acute bacterial endocarditis?
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Staph Aureus
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Name several major and minor criterias for endocarditis
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Major:
- Positive bacterial cultures - Echo positive for new cardiac lesions or new murmors Minor: - Fever - Presence of immunologic conditions (like glomerulitis) - Evidence of embolism |
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Brain absess producing ring enhancing lesions associated with a new onset of murmurs is indicative of what infection?
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A complication of Staph Aureus caused bacterial endocarditis where vegetative fragments become released and produce septic emboli
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Cranial nerve V function
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Trigeminal Nerve (Mixed sensory and motor)
Sensory: Face, cornea, nasal cavity, palate, anterior 2/3 of the tongue and teeth. Motor: muscles of mastication, anterior belly of the digastric, tensor tympani and tensor palate |
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Decreased corneal reflext suggests damage to which cranial nerve?
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Trigeminal or facial nerve
The nasociliary branch of the ophthalmic division (V1) of Trigeminal nerve is sensing the stimulus on the cornea The 7th cranial nerve is initiating motor response. |
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What cranial nerves are involved in gag reflex?
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Gag reflex is a reflex contraction of the back of the throat evoked by touching the soft palate.
Afferent - Glossopharyngeal nerve. Efferent - Vagus nerve |
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Congenital blood vessel weakness can lead to what pathology?
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Berry aneurysms - rupture leads to stroke
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Cystic media necrosis is associated with what pathology?
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Disecting aneurysms as seen in Marfan's syndrome
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Syphilitic aneurysm usually involves what vessel and in what location?
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Cardiovascular manifestation of tertiary syphillis.
Usually involves the aortic root as it leaves the heart. |
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What additional findings are likely to be present in a person with this vascular birthmark>
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A port-wine stain or naevus flammeus is a vascular birthmark consisting of superficial and deep dilated capillaries in the skin.
Must evaluate for the presence of Sturge-Weber Syndrome often associated with meningeal angiomatosis that can result in seizures, hemiparesis etc |
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What disease are acoustic neuromas associated with?
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Neurofibromatosis Type II
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What disease are cerebellar hemangioblastomas associated with?
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Von Hippel - Lindau Syndrome
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What disease are neurofibromas associated with?
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Neurofibromatosis Type I
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Karyolysis
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Degenerative change affecting nuclei seen as decrease in nuclear basophilia presumably as a result of DNAse activity.
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Pyknosis
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Nuclear shrinking and basophilia
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Karyorrhexis
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Is a pattern of degradation in which pyknotic or partially pyknotic nuclei undergo fragmentation followed by complete lysis
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The greatest risk factor for laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma?
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Smoking (followed by alcohol consumption, radiation, HPV infection)
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Name the traid of symptoms seen in Wegener's granulomatosis
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1. Necrotizing granulomas of the upper respiratory tract
2. Vasculitis affecting small to medium size vessels 3. Renal disease Positive c-ANCA (cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil Abs) |
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Name several diseases associated with immune complex deposition (Type III Hypersensitivity)
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- Postinfectious glomerulonephritis
- Lupus nephritis - Henoch - Schonlein purpura - Cryoglobulenemia - Bacterial endocarditis |
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Describe these nuclear and cytoplasmic changes. What are they indicative of?
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HPV infection of the cervix is characterized by the presence of koilocytosis (nuclei with irregular contours that appear raisin-like, cytoplasm vacuolization creates a perinuclear halo)
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Name the high risk HPV types and why are they higher risk?
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HPV Type 16 and 18. They carry with them proteins E6 and E7 that inactivate tumor supressor genes p53 and Rb.
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What infection type is koilocytosis indicative of?
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HPV. Koilocytosis is a low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
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What infection is associated with itching and frothy white vaginal discharge in women and usually asymptomatic in men?
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Trichomonas infection
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What is a male pseudohermaphridite?
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Phenotypic female with 46 XY karyotype
Could be due to testicular feminization syndrome when the body fails to respond to Testosterone |
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What is female pseudohermaphrodite
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Phenotypic male with 46 XX karyotype. Usually due to adrenal tumors producing virulizing hormones
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What is true hermaphrodite?
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Rare. Have both male and female structures
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Name three symptoms commonly seen in cardiac tamponade
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Hypotension
Jugulovenous distension Muffled heart sounds Rupture of left ventricular wall is a frequent complication of an MI --> blood rushes our, filles myocardial sac --> compression of the left ventricle --> cardiac tamponade --> person dies from cardiogeneic shock |
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Define ischemia
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Decreased arterial blood flow to tissues (ex. due to coronary artery stenosis or decreased cardiac output)
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Define hypoxemia
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Low arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2)
Ex. in respiratory acidosis, atelectasis, pulmonary embolization etc, |
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Describe what happens to Hb concentration, SaO2 and PaO2 in anemia
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Hb - decreased due to decreased production or increased destruction
SaO2 and PaO2 are normal |
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Describe what happens to Hb concentration, SaO2 and PaO2 in methemoglobinemia
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Methemoglobin (MetHb) is a heme with Fe3+ - cannot bind oxygen (happens due to oxidant stresses - nitrite and sulfur containing drugs, sepsis)
Hb - normal SaO2 low because heme cannot bind oxygen PaO2 normal |
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CO Poisoning
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Decreased O2 content in blood
Hb normal SaO2 decreased because CO has higher affinity for heme than oxygen PaO2 normal |
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Name three causes of tissue hypoxia with normal oxygen content
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1. Ischemia - MCC
2. Cyanide Poisoning 3. Uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation (alcohol, salycilates, dinitrophenol) |
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Ghon focus
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primary TB
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Gilbert's syndrome
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benign congenital unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
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Gillian Barre
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Ascending musle paralysis. Lose motor function but not sensory function. Also see albuminocytologic disssociation.
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HCG elevation is seen in
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HCG:
Hydaditiform mole Choreocarcinoma Germ cell tumors |
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Heinz bodies
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Denatured Hb (in G6PD defficiency, severe Alpha thalassemia - beta chains ppt out, Chronic liver disease)
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Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
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1. lower extremiry purpura
2. artharlgia 3. joint pain 4. abdominal pain 5. IgA nephropathy |
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High Output cardiac failure with dilated cardiomyopathy is most often caused by?
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Wet BeriBeri (Thiamine, B1 defficiency)
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Ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis are manifestations of what disease?
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Horner syndrome - usually due to a tumor at the apex of the lung that interrupts sympathetic fibers.
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Huntigton's disease
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Caudate degeration
Crazy - dimentia Chromosome quatro - Chromosome 4 Decreased Ach Chorea CAG repeat disorder |
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Hyperpigmentation of the skin is seen in
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Primary adrenal insufficiency - Addison's disease
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Hypersegmented neutrophils
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Macrocytic anemia (B12 or Folate defficiency)
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What is the pathology behind Marfan's syndrome?
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Aut dominant disorder due to a defect in Fibrillin gene, major component of elastin associated microfibrils (common in large blood vessels and suspensory ligaments of the lens) - could lead to cystic medial necrosis of the aorta or sublixation of the lens, mitral valve prolapse and shortened life span
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Describe the signs and symptoms of secondary syphillis and name the best diagnostic test for detecting 2ry syphillis
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Maculopapular bronzing rash that coveres the entire body including hands and feet. Also, candyloma lata (flat wart-like growth on perineal skin).
Best initial test - Venerial Disease Lab Test - detect the presence of Abs |
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Name the stages of syphilis
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1. 10 days to 3 mo after infection - nontender chancres with indurated edges - infectios - can dx with darkfield microscopy
2. Secondary syphillis (1-3 mo later) - broze, maculopapular rash that includes hands and feet, canduloma lata - dx - use VDLT 3. Gummas - happens in 30% of infected years later (syphillitic granulomas, aortitis) |
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Describe the mechanism behind pseudohypoparathyroidism
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Usually due to tissue insensitivity to PTH. This most frequently stems from defective Gs. Since PTH signals via activating cAMP cascade, absence of functional Gs prevents an increase in cAMP levels. This could be proven by injecting cAMP and then checking cAMP levels in urine
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