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63 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Unhappy triad
MCL tear
ACL tear
Lateral meniscus
Abnormal passive abduction indicates what?
torn MCL
Postive anterior drawer sign indicates what?
torn ACL
What is the source of osteoblasts?
mesenchymal stem cells in the periosteum.
What type of bone is decreased in osteoporosis?
Trabecular (spongy) bone
Osteopetrosis
Failure of osteoclasts and bone resporption. See thickened, dense bones that are prone to fracture.

Serum Ca, phosphate, and ALP are NORMAL.

Decreased marrow space leads to anemia, thrombocytopenia, and infection.

Genetic deficiency of CARBONIC ANHYDRASE II in OCLs!

X-rays show erlenmeyer flask bones that flare out.

Can result in cranial nerve impingement and palsies due to narrowed foramina.
Osteomalacia/rickets
Defective mineralization/calcification of osteoid leading to soft bones.

Vit D def in adults --> dec Ca levels --> inc PTH --> dec serum phosphate.

maybe Low Ca
Low Phosphate
normal ALP
What is the histo of rheumatoid nodules?
fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading histiocytes.
RA: what type of hypersensitivity?
Type III (immune complex mediated)
Gout vs. pseudogout: joints
Gout: Asymmetric, swollen, red, painful. Classic is painful MTP joint of the big toe (podagra).

Pseudogout: large joints (classically the knee)
Gout vs. pseudogout: crystals
Gout: monosodium urate crystals. Needle shaped and negatively birefringent.

See yellow crystals under parallel light and blue when perpendicular

Pseudogout: calcium pyrophosphate. Basophilic, rhomboid crystals that are weakly positively birefringent.

Crystals are yellow when perpendicular and blue when parallel
Gout vs. pseudogout: demographics
Gout: more common in men

Pseudogout: equal in both sexes.
Infectious arthritis: joints
monoarticular, migratory arthritis with an asymmetrical pattern.

Think STD: Synovitis (knee), Tendonitis (hand), Dermatitis (pustules)

Although, Neisseria gonorrhea can cause a RECURRENT infection because of its phase variation.
What drug can cause decreased excretion of uric acid?
Thiazide diuretics.
Pts with lupus give false positives for what antibody tests?
RPR/VRDL tests b/c of antiphospholipid antibodies which cross react with the cardiolipin used in these tests.
SLE: characteristics of antinuclear antibodies
sensitive but not specific for SLE
SLE: characteristics of anti-dsDNA
Very specific, poor prognosis
SLE: Anti-Smith antibodies (anti-Sm)
Very specific, but not prognostic
SLE: Antihistone antibodies
Indicate drug induced lupus
Pseudogout: assoc w what diseases?
Wilson's disease, hemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism
Sarcoidosis: see inc levels of what 2 things?
ACE
Calcium (due to elecated conversion of vit D to its active form in epithelioid macrophages)

GRAIN

Gammaglobulinemia
Rheumatoid arthritis
ACE increase
Interstitial fibrosis
Noncaseating granulomas
Myasthenia gravis: assoc w what malignancy?
Thymoma
What NMJ disorder can be caused by a paraneoplasm?
Eaton-Lambert syndrome (antibodies to the presynaptic Ca2+ channels)
Antibodies to U1RNP
Mixed connective tissue disorder
Diffuse scleroderma: antibodies?
assoc w anti-Scl-70 (ant-DNA topoisomerase I antibody)
CREST: what does it stand for? associated antibodies?
Calcinosis
Raynaud's syndrome
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia

More benign clinical course, assoc w anti-Centromere abs
Rhabdomyoma of the heart: think what?
tuberous sclerosis
Acantholysis: what does it mean and what disease do you see it in?
separation of the epidermal cells

Seen in pemphigus vulgaris
Acanthosis: what does it mean?
Epidermal hyperplasia
Allergic contact dermatitis: what type of HSR?
HSR type IV that follows an exposure to allergen.

From Th1 lymphocytes sec IFN-
Atopic dermatitis: what type of HSR?
Type I HSR. Immediate reaction.
SSSS: destroys attachments of what type and in what cell layer?
Destroys keratinocyte attachments in the granulosum layer only!
Pemphigus vulgaris: what type of immunoglobulin against what?
IgG against desmosomes (anti-DSG-3 +/- anti-DSG-1)

Acantholysis
Positive Nikolsky's sign
Bullous pemphigoid: what type of immunoglobulin against what?
IgG against hemidesmosomes

Shows LINEAR immunofluorescence.

See esosinophils within blisters

Spares oral mucosa

Negative nikolsky sign
Dermatitis hepatiformis: see Ig where?
IgA deposits at the tips of the dermal papillae

Assoc w celiac disease
Lichen planus: histo? assoc w what disease?
Histo is sawtooth infiltrate of lymphocytes at the dermal-epidermal junction

associated with HCV
Pityriasis rosea: assoc w what diseases? r/o what? txt?
assoc w HHV-7
prodromal URI
check RPR to rule out secondary syphilis!

Can give erythromycin
What is a leukotriene that is a neutrophil chemotactic agent?
LTB4
Function of LTC4, D4, E4
bronchoconstriction, vasoconstriction, contraction of smooth muscle and INC vascular permeability
Prostacyclin (PGI2): function
inhibits platelet aggregation and promotes vasodilation
Prostaglandins (PGE2): function
DEC vascular tone
INC pain
INC uterine tone
INC temperature
Aspirin: main function
irreversibly binds cyclooxygenase by covalent binding, which dec the synthesis of prostaglandins and thromboxane
Aspirin: main tox
Acute renal failure/interstitial nephritis
GI upset


Reye's syndrome
Aspirin induced athsma (leukotriene receptor blockers (Zafirlukast, Montelukast) especially good for treating this.)
NSAIDs: MOA
block prostaglandin synthesis (thereby blocking pain) by reversibly binding COX-1, COX-2
Inhibiting COX-2 has what effects?
Inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins without inhibiting thromboxane.

COX-2 is found in inflammatory cells and vascular endothelium.
Acetaminophen: major tox?
Hepatic necrosis!
Bisphosphonates: MOA?
Inhibit OCLs
Drug for acute gout? MOA?
colchicine. binds and stabilizes tubulin to inhibit polymerization, impairing leukocyte chemotaxis and degranulation.

Indomethacin also good for acute gout. Is a reversible inhibitor of COX. Dec prostaglandins, so DON'T use in renal failure (use sulindac instead - no renal toxicity)
Drugs to use in chronic gout?
probenacid and allopurinol
Etanercept: what does it do?
TNF decoy receptor
Infliximab: what does it do?
Anti-TNF antibody. Best one for Crohn's
Adalimumab: what does it do?
Directly binds TNF-α sites
Trendelenburg sign tests what muscles of the hip?
The abductors: the gluteus medius and the gluteus minimus
Estrogen therapy: how does it help to prevent osteoporosis?
By inhibiting OCLs
Psoas muscle: insertion
Lesser trochanter of femur
Gluteus maximus: insertion
Gluteal tuberosity of femur
Gluteus minimus, medius, piriformis: insertion
Greater trochanter of the femur
Anterior compartment of the leg: innervated by what? Action?
The deep peroneal nerve
Dorsiflexes the foot
Lateral compartment of the leg: innervated by what? Action?
Superficial peroneal nerve
Everts the ankle
Posterior compartment of the leg: innervated by what? Action?
Tibial nerve
Plantarflexes and inverts foot
Most of the venous drainage of the lower limb goes through what vessel?
The long saphenous vein
Most of the lymphatics of the lower limb drain into where?
Into the superficial group of the inguinal lymph nodes
The lymph nodes draining into the popliteal fossa come from what area of the lower limb?
From the lateral aspect of the foot --> lymphatics assoc w the short saphenous vein --> lymph nodes in the popliteal fossa