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69 Cards in this Set

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– Recurrent bacterial infections after 6 mo.
– All Ig's decreased-> Opsonization dfx
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

–defective tyrosine kinase
–X-linked recessive
–immature B cells
– Severe pyogenic infections EARLY in life
– Increased IgM
– Very low IgE, IgA, & IgG
Hyper-IgM Syndrome

–Defective Th2 CD40 Ligand->
–Inability to class switch (^IgM^)
–Often X-linked
–Anaphylaxis upon exposure to IgA (blood products)

–Often sinus/lung infections, milk allergy, diarrhea
Selective Ig (A!) Deficiency

–Defective isotype switching in a specific class
– IgA by far most common
– Show low levels of secretory IgA
– Young Adults (20s & 30s)
– Normal # B-cells
– Decreased # Plasma cells
– Decreased Ig levels (duh)
– Co-morbid AI Dx
Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)

–B-cell maturation defect (multi-factoral)

–Often co--morbid AI dx
• Rh Arthritis
• Addison Dx
• Thyr
– Congenital+Great Vessel dfx
– Recurrent viral/fungal infec.
– Absent cardiac shadow
– Hypocalcemia (+tetany +Trousseau/Chvostek)
Velocardialfacial Syndrome (thymic aplasia)

–Deletion of 22q11
– Failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch development

– No Tcells (thymus) and No PTH (parathyroid)
–"Cold" (non-inflammatory) Abcesses, usually staph.
–Eczema

–Retained baby teeth
–Coarse facies+frontal bossing

–Increased IgM levels
Hyper-IgE Syndrome OR
Job Syndrome

– Th1 cells fail to make IFN-g
– Inability for PMNs to respond to chemtoxis stim.
C ardiac abnormality
A bnormal face
T hymic aplasia
C left palate
H ypocalcemia

22 chr. deletion
CATCH 22 = Velocardiofacial Syndrome = DiGeorge Syndrome
–Recurrent viral, fungal, bacterial infections

–Absent thymic shadow
–No germinal centers on lymph node biopsy
–No Bcells on blood smear
– Only cure is bone marrow transplant
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)

–X-linked adenosine deaminase deficiency (adenine is toxic to B/T cells)
–Failure to synthesize Ag's onto MHC II

–Many types, defective IL-2 receptor most common
–Recurrent sinusitis (peds)
–Cerebellar dfx
–Poor smooth pursuit

–IgA deficiency

–Telangiectasia (spider angiomata)
Ataxia-Telangiectasia

–DNA repair enz dfx (ATM gene)
–CT/X-rays are CONTRAINDICATED for both dx pts AND gene carriers!



PEARL: Don't wait for telangiectasias; pay attn for smooth pursuit dfx (they are first!)
–Recurrent infections
–Eczema
–Thrombocytopenic purpura

–Incr/Norm IgE/IgA
– Low levels IgM (weird!)
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

–Progresssive deletion of B/Tcells
–WASP gene dfx
–X-linked recessive
Three most important X-linked Immunodeficiencies?
WBS

W iskott-Aldrich
B rutons agammaglobulinemia
S evere Combined Imm. Def


BONUS: What other Imm Def is X-linked 70% of the time?





(answer=hyperIgMsyndrome)
Bee Sting/Food Allergy
Type I
Atopic dxs
–Hay fever
–Eczema
–Asthma
Type I
Hemolytic Anemia
Type II
Pernicious Anemia
Type II
ITP
Type II
Erhythroblastosis fetalis ("HDN")
Type II
Acute hemolytic transfusion rxn
Type II
Rheumatic fever
Type II
Bullous pemphigoid
Type II
Pemphigous vulgaris
Type II
Graves dx
Type II
Myasthenia Gravis
Type II
SLE
Type III
Rh Arthritis
Type III
Polyarteritis nodosum (PAN)
Type III
Post Strep GLN
Type III
Serum sickness
Type III
Arthus rxn (e.g. swelling/inflamm post tetnus vax)
Type III
Farmer's Lung (aka Hypersensitivity pneumonitis)
Type III
Type 1 DM
Type IV
Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
Type IV
Prior exposed T-cells encounter Ag's and release cytokines (Mø's then activate)
Type IV
Guillian-Barre
Type IV
Hashimoto Thyroiditis
Type IV
Graft versus host dx (GVH)
Type IV
PPD sin test for TB
Type IV
Contact dermatitis
• Urushiol
• Nickel
• Latex
Type IV
Prior exposed T-cells encounter Ag's and release cytokines (Mø's then activate)
Type IV
Anti-bodies bind to host cells
Complement activated (MAC)
Mø's & PMN cause dmg
Type II
Ag-Ab complexes deposit & activate complement

PMNs release lysosomal enz.
Type III
Free Ag cross links IgE on PRE-SENSITIZED Mast cells/Basophils

What substance is released?
Where?
Type I rxn

Histamine released
@Post-capillary venule
FOUR important LIVE (attenuated) vaccines:

1.)
2.)
3.)
4.)
1.) MMR
2.) Polio (oral; Sabin)
3.) VZV (chix pox vax)
4.) Yellow Fever
What is one + and one – to a LIVE (attenuated) vaccine?
+ Lifelong immunity
– Can revert to virulent form if immuno comprimised
FIVE important KILLED (inactivated) vacines:

1.)
2.)
3.)
4.)
5.)
CHIRP

1.) Cholera
2.) Hepatitis A
3.) Influenza
4.) Rabies
5.) Polio (injection; Salk)
Vaccine type that induces a CELLUAR (CD8) response?
LIVE vax
Vaccine type that grants HUMORAL immunity
KILLED vax
What is one + and one – to KILLED (inactivated) vaccine?
+ Safer and more stable
– Weaker imm resp: boosters required
IFN-a and IFN-b inhibit viral ptn synthesis by DEGRADING viral mRNA


How do they do this?
IFNa/IFNb induce the production of ribonuclease that will cleave viral mRNA but NOT host mRNA (cool huh?)
Unique cytokine marker for NK cells?
CD 56
What drug(s) fit this description?

–similar to cyclosporine
–SIDE FX:
Nephrotoxicity
Pleural Effusion
Neuropathy
HTN
Tacrolimus
Pimicrolimus
What drug(s) fit this description?

–binds to FK-binding ptn; blocks IL-2 secretion
Tacrolimus
Pimicrolimus
What drug(s) fit this description?

–calcineurin inhibitor; blocks IL-2 production
Cyclosporine
What drug(s) fit this description?

–binds cyclophilins
–SIDE FX:
Gout
Nephrotoxicity
(prevented w/mannitol)

Increased viral infections, lymphoma
Cyclosporine
What drug(s) fit this description?

–binds to FK-binding ptn; inhibits mTOR causing decreased T-cell response to IL-2 (decreased proliferation)
Sirolimus (rapamycin)
What drug(s) fit this description?

–monoclonal AB that blocks IL-2 receptors

(receptors located on activated T-cells)
Daclizumab
What drug(s) fit this description?

–blocks nucleic acid synthesis
–toxic to proliferating lymphocytes
–Upstream cousin of 6-MP (precursor)
Azathiaprine

(allopurinol contraindicated, why?)
What drug(s) fit this description?

–monoclonal AB to CD3 marker (epsilon chain)

(CD3 is responsible for all T-cell signal transduction)
Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3)
What drug(s) fit this description?

–Anti-TNF-alpha AB
1.)_____________
2.)_____________
1.) Infliximab
2.) Adalimumab
What drug(s) fit this description?

–Anti-CD20 AB
–used in B-cell Hodgkin dx
Rituximab
What drug(s) fit this description?

–Anti-IIb/IIIa glycoprotein AB
–used for unstable angina
Abcixumab
What drug(s) fit this description?

–Anti-erb-B2 AB
–used on +HER2 breast cancers
Trastuzumab (HERCEPTIN)
What drug(s) fit this description?

–Anti-IgE AB
–used for severe refractory asthma
Omalizumab
Name 6 diseases treated with Anti-TNF-a ABs:

1.) ________________
2.) Rhematoid Arthritis
3.) P______________
4.) A______________
5.) I_______________
6. R_______________
1.) Crohn Dx
2.) Rheumatoid Arthritis
3.) Psoriatic Arthritis
4.) Ankylosing Spondylitis
5.) IBD
6.) Reiter Syndrome
What disease(s) is IFN-alpha useful for?

1.) Hep B
2.) ____________
3.) ____________
4.) ____________
5.) ____________
Hep B
Hep C
Kaposi Sarcoma
Leukemias
Malignant Melanoma
What disease is IFN-ß useful for?
Multiple sclerosis
What disease is IGN-g useful for?
Chronic Granulomatous Dx
What drug(s) fit this description?

–inhibits Inosine Monophosphate Dehydrogenase

–Prevents production of GUANINE
Myocphenolate
What drug(s) fit this description?

–Anti Angiogenesis properties
–Useful in Multiple myeloma (separate mechanism)
Thalidomate