Usmle First Aid Microbiology

Front 1

What is the charge on DNA?

Back 1

Rigid support and protection against osmotic damage

Front 2

What chemical component in the cell wall of gram-positive organisms induces tumor necrosis factor-1 and interleukin-1?

Back 2

teichoic acid

Front 3

What is the chemical composition of the bacterial peptidoglycan layer?

Back 3

A sugar backbone with cross-linked peptide side chains

Front 4

What is the bacterial structure that provides rigid support and protection against osmotic pressure?

Back 4

peptidoglycan

Front 5

What is the major surface antigen in gram-positive bacteria?

Back 5

cell wall

Front 6

Which two cytokines does teichoic acid induce?

Back 6

TNF-alpha and IL-1

Front 7

What structure in gram-negative bacteria induces TNF and IL-1?

Back 7

the lipid A component of lipopolysaccharide

Front 8

What is the major surface antigen in gram-negative bacteria?

Back 8

Outer membrane (polysaccharide component of lipopolysaccharide)

Front 9

What is the chemical composition of a ribosome?

Back 9

RNA and protein subunits

Front 10

Where is endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide) located in gram-negative bacteria?

Back 10

In the outer membrane

Front 11

What is the function of the bacterial plasma membrane?

Back 11

It is the site of oxidative and transport enzymes

Front 12

What is the chemical composition of the bacterial plasma membrane?

Back 12

The lipoprotein bilayer

Front 13

What are the subunits of a bacterial ribosome?

Back 13

30S and 50S ribosomal subunits-- total = 70S

Front 14

What is the space between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria called?

Back 14

the periplasm

Front 15

What kinds of enzymes are in the periplasmic space?

Back 15

Hydrolytic enzymes (eg, β-lactamases)

Front 16

What is the function of the bacterial capsule?

Back 16

It is antiphagocytic (hard to grab onto--slipper sucker)

Front 17

What is the chemical composition of most bacterial capsules?

Back 17

polysaccharide

Front 18

What is the chemical structure of a plasmid?

Back 18

circular double stranded DNA

Front 19

Which bacterium has a nonpolysaccharide capsule?

Back 19

bacillus anthracis

Front 20

What bacterial structure mediates adherence to the host cell surface?

Back 20

fimbriae (pili)

Front 21

What bacterial structure establishes attachment between two bacteria during conjugation?

Back 21

sex pili

Front 22

What is the chemical composition of fimbriae/pili?

Back 22

Glycoprotein

Front 23

What bacterial structure provides motility?

Back 23

flagella

Front 24

What is the chemical composition of flagella?

Back 24

protein

Front 25

What bacterial structure establishes attachment between two bacteria during conjugation?

Back 25

sex pili

Front 26

What bacterial structure provides resistance to desiccation, heat, and chemicals?

Back 26

spores

Front 27

What is the chemical composition of fimbriae/pili?

Back 27

Glycoprotein

Front 28

What is the chemical composition of a spore?

Back 28

Keratin-like coat and dipicolinic acid

Front 29

What bacterial structure provides motility?

Back 29

flagella

Front 30

What kind of genetic information is stored in the bacterial plasmid?

Back 30

Genes for antibiotic resistance, enzymes, and toxins

Front 31

What is the chemical composition of flagella?

Back 31

protein

Front 32

What bacterial structure mediates adherence to inert surfaces (eg, indwelling catheters)?

Back 32

Glycocalyx

Front 33

What bacterial structure provides resistance to desiccation, heat, and chemicals?

Back 33

spores

Front 34

What is the chemical composition of glycocalyx?

Back 34

Polysaccharide

Front 35

What five structures are common to both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms?

Back 35

flagellum (on some bacteria), pili (on some), cytoplasmic membrane, peptidoglycan, and capsule (on some)

Front 36

What is the chemical composition of a spore?

Back 36

Keratin-like coat and dipicolinic acid

Front 37

What structures are unique to gram-positive organisms?

Back 37

cell wall, techoic acid

Front 38

What kind of genetic information is stored in the bacterial plasmid?

Back 38

Genes for antibiotic resistance, enzymes, and toxins

Front 39

What structures are unique to gram-negative organisms?

Back 39

outermembrane with endotoxin/lipopolysaccharide (LPS) of which lipid A is a component, periplasm (location of many beta-lactamases)

Front 40

What bacterial structure mediates adherence to inert surfaces (eg, indwelling catheters)?

Back 40

Glycocalyx

Front 41

What is between the capsule and peptidoglycan layers in gram-negative organisms?

Back 41

the outer membrane with endotoxin/lipopolysaccharide(LPS)

Front 42

What is the chemical composition of glycocalyx?

Back 42

Polysaccharide

Front 43

What is the difference between the peptidoglycan layer of gram-positive organisms and that of gram-negative organisms?

Back 43

The peptidoglycan layer in gram-positive bacteria is much thicker than that of gram-negative bacteria

Front 44

What is the innermost layer of the bacterial cell envelope?

Back 44

the cytoplasmic membrane

Front 45

What is between the peptidoglycan and cytoplasmic membrane in gram-negative organisms?

Back 45

periplasmic space (location of many beta lactamases)

Front 46

Name the two major gram positive cocci.

Back 46

streptococcus and staphylococcus

Front 47

What are the major gram negative cocci?

Back 47

neisseria

Front 48

Clostridium is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (coccus/bacillus) .

Back 48

gram positive; bacillus

Front 49

Bacillus is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (coccus/bacillus).

Back 49

gram positive; bacillus

Front 50

Listeria is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (coccus/bacillus).

Back 50

gram positive bacillus

Front 51

Mycobacterium is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (coccus/bacillus).

Back 51

gram positive bacillus

Front 52

What unique staining characteristic do Mycobacterium and Nocardia possess?

Back 52

mycobacterium and nocardia are both acid fast

Front 53

Haemophilus is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (coccus/bacillus).

Back 53

gram negative bacillus

Front 54

Legionella is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (cocci/bacillus).

Back 54

gram negative bacillus

Front 55

Bordatella is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (coccus/bacillus).

Back 55

gram negative bacillus

Front 56

Yersinia is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (coccus/bacillus).

Back 56

gram negative bacillus

Front 57

Francisella is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (coccus/bacillus).

Back 57

gram negative bacillus

Front 58

Brucella is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (cocci/bacillus).

Back 58

gram negative bacillus

Front 59

Pasteurella is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (coccus/bacillus).

Back 59

gram negative bacillus

Front 60

Bartonella is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (cocci/bacillus).

Back 60

gram negative bacillus

Front 61

Gardnerella is a _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (coccus/bacillus).

Back 61

gram negative bacillus (gram staining variable)

Front 62

The enteric bacteria are _____ (gram positive/gram negative) _____ (coccus/bacillus).

Back 62

gram negative bacilli

Front 63

What are the two types of gram positive branching, filamentous bacteria?

Back 63

actinomyces and nocardia (weakly acid fast)

Front 64

Name the two types of pleomorphic gram negative bacteria.

Back 64

rickettsia and chlamydiae (giemsa stain)

Front 65

Name three types of spirochetes.

Back 65

leptospira, borrelia (giemsa) and treponema

Front 66

Which type of bacteria has no cell wall?

Back 66

mycoplasma (can give you cold antibody hemolytic anemia-intravascular IgM mediated)

Front 67

What type of bacteria contains sterols but lacks cell walls?

Back 67

mycoplasma

Front 68

What type of bacteria contains mycolic acid and has high lipid content?

Back 68

mycobacterium

Front 69

True or False: Mycoplasma contains mycolic acid and has high lipid content.

Back 69

False; Mycobacteria contain mycolic acid and have high lipid content; Mycoplasma contain sterols but lack cell walls

Front 70

Name six organisms that do not stain well by Gram stain.

Back 70

Treponema, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma, Mycobacteria, Legionella, Chlamydia ("These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color")

Front 71

Which organism is too thin to be visualized by Gram stain?

Back 71

treponema (t. pallidum causes syphillus)

Front 72

Name two methods used for visualizing treponemes.

Back 72

darkfield microscopy and fluorescent antibody staining

Front 73

Name three predominantly intracellular parasites that do not Gram stain well.

Back 73

Rickettsia, Legionella and Chlamydia

Front 74

Mycobacteria can be visualized by acid-fast stain as a result of what characteristic?

Back 74

high lipid content in the cell wall

Front 75

True or False: Mycobacteria are acid fast.

Back 75

true

Front 76

What is the reason that Mycoplasma do not Gram stain?

Back 76

they do not have a cell wall

Front 77

Which primarily intracellular organism does not Gram stain well and requires silver stain?

Back 77

legionella pneumophilla

Front 78

What kind of stain is required to visualize Legionella?

Back 78

silver stain

Front 79

Chlamydia does not Gram stain well because it lacks what substance in its cell wall.

Back 79

muramic acid

Front 80

Borrelia, Plasmodium, Trypanosoma, and Chlamydia species are stained using what type of stain?

Back 80

giemsa stain

Front 81

Periodic acid-Schiff staining is used to stain what types of metabolic substances?

Back 81

glycogen and mucopolysaccharides (sugars)

Front 82

True or False: Periodic acid-Schiff staining is used to diagnose Whipple's disease.

Back 82

true

Front 83

Glycogen and mucopolysaccharides are stained using what type of stain?

Back 83

periodic acid schiff (PAS)

Front 84

Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used to stain what?

Back 84

acid fast bacteria (mycobacteria and nocardia)

Front 85

India ink is used to visualize what pathogen?

Back 85

cryptococcus neoformans

Front 86

Silver stain is used to stain what organisms?

Back 86

fungi and legionella

Front 87

Haemophilus influenzae requires what medium to grow?

Back 87

chocholate agar with factors V (NAD+) and factor X (hematin)

Front 88

Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires what medium to grow?

Back 88

Thayer-Martin (or VPN) media -- VPN= vancomycin, polymyxcin and nystatin

Front 89

Bordetella pertussis requires what medium to grow?

Back 89

Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar

Front 90

Which media are used to culture Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

Back 90

Loeffler's media and Tellurite plate

Front 91

Mycobacterium tuberculosis requires what medium to grow?

Back 91

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

Front 92

Lactose-fermenting enterics on MacConkey's agar grow colonies that are what color?

Back 92

pink

Front 93

Legionella requires what medium to grow?

Back 93

charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine

Front 94

Fungi require what medium to grow?

Back 94

sabouraud's agar

Front 95

In what media can Mycoplasma pneumoniae grow?

Back 95

Eaton's agar

Front 96

Which drug category inhibits DNA gyrase (a specific prokaryotic topoisomerase)?

Back 96

eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar-- has a metallic green sheen

Front 97

What is the appearance of E. coli when it is grown on eosin-methylene blue agar?

Back 97

Colonies with blue-black color and metallic green sheen

Front 98

What cellular process is oxygen-dependent in obligate aerobes?

Back 98

ATP synthesis

Front 99

Which of the following are obligate aerobes: Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Bacillus?

Back 99

They are all obligate aerobes (remember: Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Bacillus = Nagging Pests Must Breathe)

Front 100

Mycobacterium tuberculosis has a predilection for which part of the lung?

Back 100

the apices of the lung as that is where PO2 is the highest

Front 101

Which aerobe is commonly associated with burn wound infections?

Back 101

pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 102

Which aerobe is commonly associated with nosocomial pneumonia, and pneumonias in patients with cystic fibrosis?

Back 102

pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 103

What do Clostridium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces have in common?

Back 103

they are obligate anaerobes- remember Clostridium, Bacteriodes, and Actinomyces Cannot Breathe Air

Front 104

The lack of which enzymes makes obligate aerobes susceptible to oxidative damage?

Back 104

catalase and superoxide dismutase

Front 105

Which type of organisms are generally foul smelling, are difficult to culture, and produce carbon dioxide and hydrogen gas in tissue?

Back 105

obligate anaerobes- clostridium, bacteriodes, and actinomyces

Front 106

The generation of what substance by anaerobes makes them foul smelling?

Back 106

short chain fatty acids

Front 107

In what part of the body are anaerobes considered normal flora?

Back 107

the gastrointestinal tract

Front 108

Why are aminoglycosides ineffective against anaerobes?

Back 108

AminOglycosides require Oxygen to enter a bacterial cell

Front 109

Which organisms are obligate intracellular organisms that cannot make their own ATP?

Back 109

Rickettsia and Chlamydia (remember: Stay inside (cells) when it is Really Cold)

Front 110

The inability to generate what substance makes Rickettsia and Chlamydia obligate intracellular organisms?

Back 110

ATP

Front 111

Are Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, and Yersinia facultative, intracellular, or extracellular organisms?

Back 111

facultative intracellular organisms

Front 112

Name 8 facultative intracellular organisms.

Back 112

Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacteria, Legionella, Franciella, Listeria and Yersinia (remember: Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY)

Front 113

Name four encapsulated bacteria.

Back 113

Klebsiella, Salmonella, Streptococcus pneumonia, Haemophilus influenza type B, Neisseria
remember: Kapsules Shield SHiN

Front 114

A polysaccharide capsule adds virulence by what mechanism?

Back 114

it is protective against phagocytosis

Front 115

Which test is used to see if an organism is encapsulated?

Back 115

the Quellung reaction

Front 116

Which coagulase-positive organism produces a yellow pigment when cultured?

Back 116

staphylococcus aureus

Front 117

What happens to the capsule when specific anticapsular antisera are added during the Quellung reaction?

Back 117

It swells (remember: Quellung = capsular "swellung")

Front 118

Which oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod produces a blue-green pigment when cultured?

Back 118

pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 119

What part of the bacteria is used as antigen in vaccines against Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type B, and Neisseria meningitidis?

Back 119

the capsule

Front 120

What slow lactose fermenter produces a red pigment when cultured?

Back 120

Serratia marcescens

Front 121

In synthesis of vaccines against encapsulated bacteria, conjugation with protein has what effect on the body's immune response?

Back 121

Increases immunogenicity and T-cell-dependent response (protein = adjuvent)

Front 122

What obligate anaerobe produces yellow "sulfur" granules?

Back 122

actinomyces israelii (remember israel has yellow sand)

Front 123

Which four bacteria are urease-positive?

Back 123

Proteus, Klebsiella, Helicobacter pylori, Ureaplasma (remember: Particular Kinds Have Urease)

Front 124

True or False: Bacterial virulence factors promote evasion of host immune response

Back 124

true

Front 125

Protein A in Staphylococcus aureus binds to which region of immunoglobulin?

Back 125

Fc region of IgG

Front 126

The binding of protein A from S. aureus to Ig results in the disruption of what two immune functions?

Back 126

opsonization and phagocytosis

Front 127

IgA protease, an enzyme that cleaves IgA, is secreted by which bacteria?

Back 127

Streptococcus pneumonaie, Hemophilus influenza, and Neisseria (SHiN)

Front 128

Polysaccharide capsules are considered virulence factors in the bacteria that contain them because they inhibit _____.

Back 128

phagocytosis

Front 129

True or False: Group A streptococcal M protein promotes phagocytosis by the body's immune cells.

Back 129

False; M protein helps the bacteria evade phagocytosis

Front 130

Exotoxins are found in which of the following: gram-negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria, or both?

Back 130

both

Front 131

In what structures and what type of bacteria are endotoxins found?

Back 131

outer membrane of gram negative bacteria and listeria (gram +) (lipopolysaccharide)

Front 132

True or False: Exotoxins are secreted.

Back 132

true

Front 133

True or False: Endotoxins are secreted.

Back 133

False; they are part of the bacterial structure (lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane)

Front 134

What is the chemical composition of exotoxin?

Back 134

polypeptide

Front 135

What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?

Back 135

lipopolysaccharide

Front 136

Where are the genes for exotoxin located?

Back 136

in the plasmid or bacteriophage

Front 137

Where are the genes for endotoxin located?

Back 137

in the bacterial chromosome

Front 138

Which bacterial toxin (endotoxin or exotoxin) is more toxic (ie, has a lower fatal dose)?

Back 138

exotoxin; it has a fatal dose of 1 microgram

Front 139

What are the major clinical effects of endotoxin?

Back 139

fever and shock

Front 140

How does endotoxin mediate fever and shock?

Back 140

By inducing tumor necrosis factor and interleukin-1

Front 141

What are antitoxins?

Back 141

High-titer antibodies against exotoxins

Front 142

True or False: Endotoxin is highly antigenic.

Back 142

False; endotoxin is poorly antigenic

Front 143

True or False: Exotoxin is antigenic.

Back 143

true;exotoxin induces antitoxins (high-titer antibodies)

Front 144

Which bacterial toxin (endotoxin or exotoxin) can be used as a vaccine?

Back 144

exotoxin; toxoid is used as a vaccine against exotoxin-producing organisms

Front 145

True or False: Exotoxins are heat stable.

Back 145

False; exotoxins (except for staphylococcal enterotoxin) are destroyed rapidly at 60°C

Front 146

True or False: Endotoxins are heat stable.

Back 146

True; endotoxins are stable at 100°C for 1 hour

Front 147

Which organism produces an exotoxin that is heat stable?

Back 147

staph aureus- heat stable toxin

Front 148

Bacteria that cause tetanus, botulism, and diphtheria involve which kind of toxin?

Back 148

exotoxin

Front 149

Gram-negative rods that cause meningococcemia and sepsis involve which kind of toxin?

Back 149

endotoxins

Front 150

Superantigens directly bind to which two receptors?

Back 150

MHC II and T-cell receptors

Front 151

The binding of superantigens to MHC II and T-cell receptor results in the widespread release of what factors?

Back 151

Interferon (IFN) gamma and IL-2

Front 152

True or False: Superantigens and adenosine diphosphate ribosylating A-B toxins are endotoxins.

Back 152

False; they are exotoxins that are secreted by the bacteria

Front 153

Superantigens stimulate the release of proinflammatory cytokines (interleukins 1 and 2) by activating which cells?

Back 153

t lymphocytes

Front 154

Name two organisms with superantigens.

Back 154

Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

Front 155

Staphylococcus aureus can cause disease in humans with either of which two superantigens?

Back 155

Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 and enterotoxin

Front 156

Which superantigen produced by Staphylococcus aureus causes toxic shock syndrome?

Back 156

Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 (TSST1)

Front 157

What are the symptoms of toxic shock syndrome?

Back 157

fever, rash, and shock

Front 158

Which toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus causes food poisoning?

Back 158

enterotoxin (preformed toxin- rapid onset of symptoms)

Front 159

Staphylococcus aureus exfoliatin can cause what illness?

Back 159

staphylococcus scalded skin syndrome

Front 160

The superantigen released by S. pyogenes causes what syndrome?

Back 160

toxic-shock like syndrome

Front 161

What are the functions of the two components of adenosine diphosphate ribosylating A-B toxins found in certain bacteria, such as Corynebacterium diphtheriae and Bordetella pertussis?

Back 161

B (binding) component -to allow for endocytosis and A (active) component (ADP ribosylation to alter protein function)

Front 162

What is the function of the B component of an adenosine diphosphate ribosylating A-B toxin?

Back 162

The B (binding) component binds to a host cell surface receptor and enables endocytosis

Front 163

What is the function of the A component of an adenosine diphosphate- ibosylating A-B toxin?

Back 163

The A (active) component ribosylates a host cell protein, thereby altering protein function

Front 164

Name four organisms that have adenosine diphosphate ribosylating A-B toxin.

Back 164

Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Vibrio cholerae, Escherichia coli, and Bordetella pertussis

Front 165

Which two organisms' adenosine diphosphate ribosylating A-B toxins stimulate adenylate cyclase?

Back 165

vibrio cholera and e. coli

Front 166

True or False: Diphtheria toxin and Pseudomonas exotoxin A cause disease by activating elongation factor 2.

Back 166

False; they both inactivate elongation factor 2

Front 167

Diphtheria toxin causes pharyngitis and a pseudomembrane in the throat by the adenosine diphosphate ribosylation of what factor?

Back 167

elongation factor 2 (EF2)

Front 168

What two signs and symptoms does diphtheria toxin cause?

Back 168

Pharyngitis and a pseudomembrane in throat

Front 169

By what biochemical mechanism does cholera toxin stimulate adenylate cyclase?

Back 169

The adenosine diphosphate ribosylation of G protein

Front 170

The stimulation of adenylate cyclase by cholera toxin increases the concentration of which ion in the host's gut?

Back 170

Chloride

Front 171

What toxin released by what bacterium produces what is commonly referred to as rice-water diarrhea?

Back 171

cholera toxin (vibrio cholera)

Front 172

Which toxins produced by heat-labile Escherichia coli and Vibrio cholerae cause watery diarrhea by stimulating adenylate cyclase?

Back 172

Adenosine diphosphate ribosylating A-B toxins

Front 173

What does the E. Coli heat-labile toxin have in common with cholera toxin?

Back 173

It causes watery diarrhea by the adenosine diphosphate ribosylation of G protein and the stimulation of adenylate cyclase

Front 174

Heat-labile Escherichia coli toxin stimulates which enzyme in the host?

Back 174

adenylate cyclase
(labile as the Air, stable as the Ground)

Front 175

Heat-stable Escherichia coli toxin stimulates which enzyme in the host?

Back 175

guanylate cyclase (labile as the Air, stable as the Ground)

Front 176

Which organism causes whooping cough?

Back 176

bordetella pertussis

Front 177

How does Bordetella pertussis toxin cause lymphocytosis?

Back 177

By the inhibition of the chemokine receptor

Front 178

Pertussis toxin causes the _____ (stimulation/inhibition) of Gαi, which results in an _____ (increase/decrease) in cAMP

Back 178

inhibition; increase

Front 179

Which organism causes gas gangrene?

Back 179

clostridium perfringens

Front 180

What toxin produced by Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene?

Back 180

α-Toxin (lecithinase)

Front 181

What type of hemolysis is caused by Clostridium perfringens on blood agar?

Back 181

Double zone of hemolysis

Front 182

Which organism blocks the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters glycine and GABA?

Back 182

clostridium tetani

Front 183

True or False: Glycine is an excitatory neurotransmitter.

Back 183

False; it is inhibitory

Front 184

Clostridium tetani tetanus causes lockjaw by decreasing the level of which neurotransmitters?

Back 184

GABA and Glycine

Front 185

How does Clostridium botulinum toxin cause anticholinergic symptoms and central nervous system paralysis?

Back 185

By inhibiting the release of acetylcholine

Front 186

True or False: It is the spores of Clostridium botulinum that are found in canned food and honey.

Back 186

true

Front 187

The inhibition of acetylcholine release by Clostridium botulinum toxin results in what symptoms?

Back 187

Anticholinergic symptoms (red as beet, hot as a hare, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, dry as a bone etc) and central nervous system paralysis

Front 188

What organism causes floppy baby syndrome?

Back 188

clostridium botulinum

Front 189

True or False: Bacillus anthracis produces a toxin complex that includes adenylate cyclase.

Back 189

true

Front 190

What is the name of the factor released by B. anthracis?

Back 190

edema factor

Front 191

Name two organisms that produce Shiga toxin.

Back 191

Shigella and Escherichia coli O157:H7

Front 192

What does Shiga toxin cleave in the host cell?

Back 192

Shiga toxin cleaves host cell rRNA

Front 193

What does Shiga toxin bind to cleave host cell RNA?

Back 193

The 60s ribosomal subunit

Front 194

Shigella produces what kind of toxin?

Back 194

shiga toxin- binds to the 60S ribosomal subunit and cleaves host cell rRNA

Front 195

What toxin is associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome?

Back 195

shiga toxin from Escherichia coli O157:H7

Front 196

Shiga toxin _____ (increases/decreases) cytokine release.

Back 196

Increases cytokine release, leading to hemolytic uremic syndrome

Front 197

Which toxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes is a hemolysin?

Back 197

Streptolysin O

Front 198

What kind of toxin is streptolysin O?

Back 198

hemolysin (antigen for ASO antibody--check titers of this when suspicious of PSGN?)

Front 199

Which antibody is used to help diagnose rheumatic fever?

Back 199

Anti-streptolysin O antibody

Front 200

Vibrio cholerae toxin causes watery diarrhea by permanently activating which protein?

Back 200

Gs (turns the on on)

Front 201

Pertussis toxin causes whooping cough by permanently disabling which protein?

Back 201

Gi (Turns the off off)

Front 202

Pertussis toxin promotes lymphocytosis by inhibiting which receptors?

Back 202

Chemokine receptors

Front 203

Both cholera and pertussis toxins act by adenosine diphosphate ribosylation that permanently _____ (activates/inactivates) adenyl cyclase, thereby _____ (increasing/decreasing) cAMP.

Back 203

activates; increasing

Front 204

True or False: Vibrio cholerae toxin inhibits the cAMP system, which leads to its toxic effects.

Back 204

False, the toxin induces the cAMP system

Front 205

True or False: Pertussis toxin induces the cAMP system, which leads to its toxic effects.

Back 205

true- by inhibiting Gi

Front 206

True or False: Escherichia coli heat-labile toxin induces the cAMP system, which leads to its toxic effects.

Back 206

true

Front 207

What does the Bacillus anthracis edema factor include that causes its toxic effects?

Back 207

a bacterial form of adenylate cyclase

Front 208

True or False: Endotoxin induces the cAMP system, which leads to its toxic effects.

Back 208

False; this toxin is immune mediated

Front 209

What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?

Back 209

lipopolysaccharide

Front 210

In which bacterial structure is endotoxin found?

Back 210

the cell wall of a gram negative bacteria = outer membrane

Front 211

What type of bacteria has endotoxins, gram-positive or gram-negative?

Back 211

gram negative

Front 212

True of False: Endotoxin is heat stable.

Back 212

true

Front 213

What is the most active part of an endotoxin?

Back 213

Lipid A

Front 214

Which cell type is activated by endotoxins?

Back 214

macrophages

Front 215

Which complement pathway is activated by endotoxins?

Back 215

the alternate pathway

Front 216

Endotoxins activate the coagulation cascade via what factor?

Back 216

hageman factor = factor XII- initiates the intrinsic pathway (measured by aPTT)

Front 217

The activation of macrophages results in the release of which cytokines and substances?

Back 217

IL-1, TNF, and NO

Front 218

The release of which cytokines by endotoxin-activated macrophages results in fever?

Back 218

IL-1 and TNF

Front 219

What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?

Back 219

lipopolysaccharide

Front 220

In which bacterial structure is endotoxin found?

Back 220

the cell wall of a gram negative bacteria = outer membrane

Front 221

What type of bacteria has endotoxins, gram-positive or gram-negative?

Back 221

gram negative

Front 222

True of False: Endotoxin is heat stable.

Back 222

true

Front 223

What is the most active part of an endotoxin?

Back 223

Lipid A

Front 224

Which cell type is activated by endotoxins?

Back 224

macrophages

Front 225

Which complement pathway is activated by endotoxins?

Back 225

the alternate pathway

Front 226

Endotoxins activate the coagulation cascade via what factor?

Back 226

hageman factor = factor XII- initiates the intrinsic pathway (measured by aPTT)

Front 227

The activation of macrophages results in the release of which cytokines and substances?

Back 227

IL-1, TNF, and NO

Front 228

The release of which cytokines by endotoxin-activated macrophages results in fever?

Back 228

IL-1 and TNF

Front 229

The release of which cytokine by endotoxin-activated macrophages results in hemorrhagic tissue necrosis?

Back 229

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

Front 230

The release of nitric oxide by endotoxin-activated macrophages results in what condition?

Back 230

hypotension (shock)

Front 231

Which component of the alternative complement pathway causes hypotension and edema?

Back 231

C3a

Front 232

Which component of the alternative complement pathway causes neutrophil chemotaxis?

Back 232

C5a

Front 233

The activation of the coagulation cascade by endotoxins results in what condition?

Back 233

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Front 234

What are the four phases of the bacterial growth curve?

Back 234

Lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, and death phase

Front 235

During which phase of the bacterial growth curve is there metabolic activity without division?

Back 235

lag phase

Front 236

During which phase of the bacterial growth curve is there rapid cell division?

Back 236

log phase

Front 237

What is the cause of slowed growth during the stationary phase of the bacterial growth curve?

Back 237

Nutrient depletion

Front 238

During which phase of the bacterial growth curve does spore formation occur in some bacteria?

Back 238

stationary phase

Front 239

What are the causes of the decrease in the number of cells during the death phase of the bacterial growth curve?

Back 239

Prolonged nutrient depletion and a buildup of waste products

Front 240

The process of direct DNA transfer from one bacterium to another is called what?

Back 240

conjugation

Front 241

What type of conjugation occurs when an F+ plasmid containing specific DNA is transferred through a pilus to a F- bacteria?

Back 241

F+ x F- conjugation

Front 242

In bacterial genetics, the two types of transduction are generalized and specialized.

Back 242

true

Front 243

True or False: Eukaryotes are involved in transduction.

Back 243

False; only prokaryotes are involved

Front 244

What type of bacterial genetic transfer involves the phage-mediated transfer of DNA between prokaryotes?

Back 244

transduction

Front 245

What kind of DNA is transferred during transformation: chromosomal, plasmid, or both?

Back 245

both

Front 246

True or False: Only prokaryotic cells are involved in transformation.

Back 246

False; both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are involved

Front 247

What type of bacterial genetic transfer involves the direct uptake of purified DNA by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Back 247

transformation

Front 248

True or False: Transfer of chromosomal and plasmid genes occur in F+ × F- conjugation.

Back 248

False; no chromosomal genes are transferred in F+ × F- conjugation; chromosomal and plasmid genes are transferred in Hfr × F- conjugation

Front 249

What is the name of the process by which DNA is transferred from one chromosome (or plasmid) to another within the same cell?

Back 249

transposition "jumping gene"

Front 250

What kind of DNA is transferred during transposition: chromosomal, plasmid, or both?

Back 250

both

Front 251

The process by which prokaryotic cells transfer DNA by direct cell-to-cell contact is called _____.

Back 251

conjugation

Front 252

The process by which the phage-mediated transfer of DNA between occurs between prokaryotes is called _____.

Back 252

transduction

Front 253

The direct uptake of purified DNA by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes is called _____.

Back 253

transformation

Front 254

When DNA is transferred from one chromosome (or plasmid) to another within the same cell it is called _____.

Back 254

transposition

Front 255

In F+ × F- conjugation (plasmid/chromosomal) _____ DNA is transferred.

Back 255

plasmid

Front 256

When an F+ plasmid is incorporated into the chromosomal DNA of a bacterial cell, that cell is then termed an _____ cell.

Back 256

Hfr (high frequency recombination)

Front 257

Hfr × F- conjugation involves (chromosomal/plasmid/both) _____ DNA segments.

Back 257

both

Front 258

When a lytic phage infects a bacteria, cleaves the bacterial DNA, and possibly includes cleaved DNA in viral capsids, what type of transduction has occurred?

Back 258

generalized

Front 259

When a lysogenic phage infects a bacteria and inserts DNA into the bacteria's chromosomal DNA, what type of transduction has occurred?

Back 259

specialized

Front 260

True or False: Flanking chromosomal DNA can be incorporated into transferred DNA in generalized and specialized transduction, F+ × F- and Hfr × F- conjugation and transposition.

Back 260

False, there is no transfer of flanking DNA in F+ × F- conjugation

Front 261

In terms of bacterial genetics, what is the term for when the DNA for a specific bacterial toxin is encoded in a lysogenic phage?

Back 261

lysogeny

Front 262

True or False: Botulinum toxin is an example of lysogeny.

Back 262

true

Front 263

True or False: Cholera toxin is an example of lysogeny.

Back 263

true

Front 264

True or False: The transfer of Shiga-like toxin between bacteria is an example of lysogeny.

Back 264

true

Front 265

True or False: Diphtheria toxin is an example of lysogeny.

Back 265

true

Front 266

True or False: The erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes is an example of lysogeny.

Back 266

true

Front 267

True or False: The cytotoxin of Clostridium difficile is an example of lysogeny.

Back 267

False; the cytotoxin of Clostridium difficile is encoded in the normal genome

Front 268

Name 5 bacterial toxins coded for by a lysogenic phage.

Back 268

shigA toxin, Botulinum toxin, Cholera toxin, Diptheria toxin, Erythrogenic toxin of S. pyogenes (ABCDE)

Front 269

When a lysogenic phage infects a bacteria and inserts DNA into the bacteria's chromosomal DNA, what type of transduction has occurred?

Back 269

specialized

Front 270

True or False: Flanking chromosomal DNA can be incorporated into transferred DNA in generalized and specialized transduction, F+ × F- and Hfr × F- conjugation and transposition.

Back 270

False, there is no transfer of flanking DNA in F+ × F- conjugation

Front 271

In terms of bacterial genetics, what is the term for when the DNA for a specific bacterial toxin is encoded in a lysogenic phage?

Back 271

lysogeny

Front 272

True or False: Botulinum toxin is an example of lysogeny.

Back 272

true

Front 273

True or False: Cholera toxin is an example of lysogeny.

Back 273

true

Front 274

True or False: The transfer of Shiga-like toxin between bacteria is an example of lysogeny.

Back 274

true

Front 275

True or False: Diphtheria toxin is an example of lysogeny.

Back 275

true

Front 276

True or False: The erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes is an example of lysogeny.

Back 276

true

Front 277

True or False: The cytotoxin of Clostridium difficile is an example of lysogeny.

Back 277

False; the cytotoxin of Clostridium difficile is encoded in the normal genome

Front 278

Name 5 bacterial toxins coded for by a lysogenic phage.

Back 278

shigA toxin, Botulinum toxin, Cholera toxin, Diptheria toxin, Erythrogenic toxin of S. pyogenes (ABCDE)

Front 279

Gram-positive organisms are commonly classified into which two shapes?

Back 279

Cocci or rods (bacilli)

Front 280

Name four gram-positive rods.

Back 280

Clostridium, Corynebacterium, Listeria, Bacillus (possibly mycobacterium as well, which is acid fast and sometimes intracellular in macs)

Front 281

Name one gram-positive anaerobic rod.

Back 281

Clostridium

Front 282

Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are differentiated by which enzyme?

Back 282

catalase; staph is catalase positive and strep is catalase neg

Front 283

Which gram-positive cocci are found in clusters?

Back 283

Staphylococcus

Front 284

Which gram-positive cocci are found in chains?

Back 284

Streptococcus

Front 285

Which enzyme differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from Streptococcus and other Staphylococcus species?

Back 285

coagulase- staph aureus is coagulase positive, while strep and other staph species are not

Front 286

Name two coagulase-negative Staphylococcus species.

Back 286

S. saprophyticus and S. epidermidis

Front 287

What method is used to differentiate among coagulase-negative Staphylococcus species?

Back 287

novobiocin sensitive or resistant

Front 288

Which Staphylococcus species is novobiocin sensitive?

Back 288

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Front 289

Which Staphylococcus species is novobiocin resistant?

Back 289

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Front 290

What characteristic of their growth on blood culture can be used to differentiate between species of Streptococcus?

Back 290

Patterns of hemolysis

Front 291

What three types of hemolysis do Streptococcus species demonstrate?

Back 291

α-Hemolysis, β-hemolysis, and γ-hemolysis

Front 292

If agar shows clear/complete hemolysis, which Streptococcus species could be present?

Back 292

Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus agalactiae

Front 293

Partial (green) hemolysis on agar is called what?

Back 293

α-Hemolysis

Front 294

Clear hemolysis around colonies on agar is called what?

Back 294

β-Hemolysis

Front 295

No hemolysis on agar is called what?

Back 295

γ-Hemolysis

Front 296

Which Streptococcus species appear green on blood agar?

Back 296

Streptococcus pneumoniae and viridans streptococci (eg, Streptococcus mutans)

Front 297

What pattern of hemolysis do Streptococcus pneumoniae and viridans streptococci (eg, Streptococcus mutans) demonstrate?

Back 297

alpha hemolysis

Front 298

How are α-hemolytic Streptococcus species differentiated?

Back 298

By the presence of capsule, optochin sensitivity, and bile solubility

Front 299

Which organism is encapsulated, optochin sensitive, and bile soluble?

Back 299

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 300

Which organism has no capsule and is optochin resistant and bile insoluble?

Back 300

Viridans streptococci (eg, Streptococcus mutans)

Front 301

True or False: Streptococcus mutans belongs to the viridans family of streptococci.

Back 301

true

Front 302

How is the presence of a capsule demonstrated?

Back 302

By a positive Quellung test

Front 303

What type of hemolysis do both group A and group B streptococci have in common?

Back 303

β-Hemolysis

Front 304

True or False: Streptococcus pyogenes belongs to a group A Streptococcus species.

Back 304

true

Front 305

True or False: Streptococcus agalactiae is a group A streptococci.

Back 305

false; it is group B strep

Front 306

How are β-hemolytic streptococci differentiated from each other?

Back 306

By their bacitracin sensitivity

Front 307

Which β-hemolytic streptococci are bacitracin sensitive?

Back 307

Streptococcus pyogenes

Front 308

Which β-hemolytic streptococci are bacitracin resistant?

Back 308

Streptococcus agalactiae

Front 309

Which Streptococcus species can be either α- or γ-hemolytic?

Back 309

Enterococcus (e. faecalis)

Front 310

Which streptococci are γ-hemolytic?

Back 310

Enterococcus and Peptostreptococcus

Front 311

True or False: Peptostreptococcus is an anaerobic, gram-negative cocci.

Back 311

False; Peptostreptococcus is a gram-positive cocci- it is anaerobic though

Front 312

True or False: Enterococcus faecalis is a γ-hemolytic, gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci.

Back 312

true

Front 313

Which β-hemolytic streptococcal species is bacitracin resistant?

Back 313

Group B Streptococcus (S. agalactiae)

Front 314

Which β-hemolytic streptococcal species is bacitracin sensitive?

Back 314

Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes)

Front 315

How are coagulase-negative Staphylococcus species (S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus) differentiated?

Back 315

By their sensitivity to Novobiocin

Front 316

True or False: Staphylococcus epidermidis is novobiocin-resistant.

Back 316

False; (remember: On the staph retreat there was NO StRES; NOvobiocin)

Front 317

Are group A streptococci resistant or sensitive to Bacitracin?

Back 317

Sensitive: Bacitracin- group B are Resistant while group A are Sensitive

Front 318

Are group B streptococci resistant or sensitive to bacitracin?

Back 318

Resistant; (remember: Bacitracin [group B] are Resistant, while group A are Sensitive (B-BRAS)

Front 319

Name the two types of α-hemolytic bacteria.

Back 319

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Viridans streptococci

Front 320

What laboratory test is done to distinguish Streptococcus pneumoniae from viridans streptococci?

Back 320

Optochin sensitivity

Front 321

Which organism is α-hemolytic, catalase negative, and optochin sensitive?

Back 321

Streptococcus pneumoniae (OVRPS- overpass-- optochin viridans resistant, pneumonia sensitive)

Front 322

Which organism is α-hemolytic, catalase negative, and optochin resistant?

Back 322

Viridans streptococci

Front 323

Name four β-hemolytic bacteria.

Back 323

Staphylococcus aureus, S. pyogenes, S. agalactiae, and Listeria monocytogenes

Front 324

What kind of laboratory test is done to distinguish Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus agalactiae?

Back 324

Bacitracin sensitivity

Front 325

Which β-hemolytic organism has tumbling motility, causes meningitis in newborns, and is found in unpasteurized milk?

Back 325

listeria monocytogenes

Front 326

Which β-hemolytic organism is both catalase and coagulase positive?

Back 326

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 327

What enzyme degrades hydrogen peroxide?

Back 327

catalase

Front 328

Which type of cells produce hydrogen peroxide?

Back 328

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

Front 329

What antimicrobial product produced by polymorphonuclear leukocytes is a substrate for myeloperoxidase?

Back 329

hydrogen peroxide

Front 330

Are staphylococci catalase positive or catalase negative?

Back 330

catalase positive

Front 331

What differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus saprophyticus?

Back 331

Coagulase positivity

Front 332

What Staphylococcus aureus virulence factor binds to Fc-immunoglobulin G?

Back 332

protein A

Front 333

What bacteria produces the virulence factor protein A?

Back 333

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 334

Which gram-positive bacteria can cause both inflammatory disease and toxin-mediated disease?

Back 334

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 335

Staphylococcus aureus can cause what kind of inflammatory conditions?

Back 335

Skin infections, organ abscesses, and pneumonia

Front 336

Staphylococcus aureus can cause what kind of toxin-mediated conditions?

Back 336

Toxic shock syndrome (toxic shock syndrome toxin 1), scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin), and rapid-onset food poisoning (preformed enterotoxins)

Front 337

Which organism is associated with toxic shock syndrome and its toxin, toxic shock syndrome toxin 1?

Back 337

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 338

What kind of antigen causes toxic shock syndrome?

Back 338

Superantigen (toxic shock syndrome toxin 1)

Front 339

Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 binds which molecules?

Back 339

Major histocompatibility complex II and T-lymphocyte receptor

Front 340

The binding of major histocompatibility complex II and T-lymphocyte receptor results in what?

Back 340

Polyclonal T-lymphocyte activation

Front 341

What gram-positive organism is associated with rapid-onset food poisoning?

Back 341

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 342

Staphylococcus aureus can cause rapid-onset food poisoning as a result of what kind of toxins?

Back 342

Preformed enterotoxins

Front 343

What gram-positive organism is associated with acute bacterial endocarditis?

Back 343

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 344

What gram-positive and coagulase, catalase positive organism is associated with osteomyelitis?

Back 344

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 345

What immune functions does protein A from S. aureus inhibit?

Back 345

Complement fixation and phagocytosis

Front 346

Methicillin-resistant S. aureus is resistant to methicillin because of its altered structure of what protein?

Back 346

Penicillin-binding protein

Front 347

What bacterium found in the normal skin flora most commonly infects prosthetic devices and catheters?

Back 347

Staphylococcus epidermis

Front 348

What bacterium found in the normal skin flora most commonly contaminates blood cultures?

Back 348

Staphylococcus epidermis

Front 349

True or False: Staphylococcus epidermis is part of the normal skin flora.

Back 349

true

Front 350

True or False: Staphylococcus epidermis commonly causes upper respiratory infections.

Back 350

False; S. epidermis most commonly infects prosthetic devices and catheters by creating a BIOFILM

Front 351

Which organism is the most common cause of meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia, and sinusitis?

Back 351

Streptococcus pneumoniae (remember: MOPS are Most OPtocin Sensitive: Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia, and Sinusitis)

Front 352

What gram-positive organism is associated with pneumonia that involves the production of rusty-colored sputum?

Back 352

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 353

Which optochin-sensitive organism is associated with rusty-colored sputum?

Back 353

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 354

Which organism that is identified with a positive Quellung test causes sepsis in patients with sickle cell anemia?

Back 354

Streptococcus pneumoniae- since they have autoinfarcted their spleens

Front 355

What enzyme is a virulence factor produced by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Back 355

Immunoglobulin A protease

Front 356

Streptococcus pneumoniae is associated with sepsis in what two patient populations?

Back 356

Sickle cell anemia and splenectomy

Front 357

Name two ways Streptococcus pneumoniae evades the immune system.

Back 357

IgA protease, encapsulation

Front 358

Which group of organisms are part of the normal flora of the oropharynx and can cause dental caries and subacute bacterial endocarditis?

Back 358

Viridans group streptococci

Front 359

Which causes dental caries, Streptococcus mutans or Streptococcus sanguis?

Back 359

Streptococcus mutans

Front 360

Which causes subacute bacterial endocarditis, Streptococcus mutans or Streptococcus sanguis?

Back 360

Streptococcus sanguis

Front 361

Sensitivity to which substance differentiates Streptococcus pneumoniae from viridans streptococci?

Back 361

optochin- viridans group strep live in the mouth because they are not afraid of-the-chin (optochin resistant)

Front 362

What is another name for vitamin B12?

Back 362

cobalamin

Front 363

Megaloblastic anemia may be caused by a deficiency of what B vitamin?

Back 363

vitamin B12

Front 364

Subacute combined degeneration can be caused by a deficiency of what vitamin?

Back 364

vitamin B12

Front 365

Subacute combined degeneration, paresthesia, and optic neuropathy can all be caused by a deficiency of what vitamin?

Back 365

vitamin B12

Front 366

True or False: Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause glossitis.

Back 366

true

Front 367

True or False: Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause optic neuropathy.

Back 367

true

Front 368

Which vitamin is a cofactor for homocysteine methylation?

Back 368

vitamin B12 (cobalamin)

Front 369

Which vitamin transfers a methyl group to form methionine from homocysteine?

Back 369

Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)

Front 370

Which vitamin is needed for the conversion of methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl-CoA?

Back 370

Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)

Front 371

In which organ is vitamin B12 stored?

Back 371

the liver (stores last years)

Front 372

Vitamin B12 has a very large reserve pool of several (days / months / years).

Back 372

years

Front 373

True or False: Vitamin B12 is only synthesized by microorganisms (not plants).

Back 373

True

Front 374

Is vitamin B12 found only in animal products or only in plant products?

Back 374

animal products (thus strict vegans may be endanger of deficiency from inadequate intake- wheres as they would have plenty of folate)

Front 375

True or False: Vitamin B12 deficiency can be caused by malabsorption.

Back 375

true- in fact it usually is caused by malabsorption-- not inadequate intake

Front 376

Name 3 diseases which cause vitamin B12 malabsorption.

Back 376

Sprue, enteritis, Diphyllobothrium latum infection
(also bowel resection secondary to crohn's)

Front 377

True or False: Vitamin B12 deficiency can be caused by a lack of intrinsic factor.

Back 377

true

Front 378

Pernicious anemia can cause vitamin ____ deficiency as a result of a lack of _____ _____.

Back 378

B12; intrinsic factor

Front 379

True or False: Vitamin B12 deficiency can be caused by the absence of a functional ______ ______.

Back 379

terminal ileum

Front 380

What test is used to detect the cause of a deficiency of vitamin B12?

Back 380

The Schilling test

Front 381

True or False: Abnormal myelin is synthesized in patients with vitamin B12 deficiency.

Back 381

true- thus the neurological symptoms

Front 382

Vitamin B12 has a very large reserve pool of several (days / months / years).

Back 382

years

Front 383

True or False: Vitamin B12 is only synthesized by microorganisms (not plants).

Back 383

True

Front 384

Is vitamin B12 found only in animal products or only in plant products?

Back 384

animal products (thus strict vegans may be endanger of deficiency from inadequate intake- wheres as they would have plenty of folate)

Front 385

True or False: Vitamin B12 deficiency can be caused by malabsorption.

Back 385

true- in fact it usually is caused by malabsorption-- not inadequate intake

Front 386

Name 3 diseases which cause vitamin B12 malabsorption.

Back 386

Sprue, enteritis, Diphyllobothrium latum infection
(also bowel resection secondary to crohn's)

Front 387

True or False: Vitamin B12 deficiency can be caused by a lack of intrinsic factor.

Back 387

true

Front 388

Pernicious anemia can cause vitamin ____ deficiency as a result of a lack of _____ _____.

Back 388

B12; intrinsic factor

Front 389

True or False: Vitamin B12 deficiency can be caused by the absence of a functional ______ ______.

Back 389

terminal ileum

Front 390

What test is used to detect the cause of a deficiency of vitamin B12?

Back 390

The Schilling test

Front 391

True or False: Abnormal myelin is synthesized in patients with vitamin B12 deficiency.

Back 391

true- thus the neurological symptoms

Front 392

A 42-year-old woman with a history of gastric bypass surgery 5 years ago presents with visual disturbance and numbness in her fingers. She is found to have macrocytic anemia. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

Back 392

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Front 393

True or False: The neurologic sequelae of vitamin B12 deficiency are easily reversible with vitamin supplementation.

Back 393

False; a prolonged deficiency of cobalamin leads to irreversible nervous system damage

Front 394

Crohn's disease may cause a deficiency of what vitamin as a result of the decreased function of the terminal ileum?

Back 394

Vitamin B12

Front 395

What is the most common vitamin deficiency in the United States?

Back 395

Folic acid deficiency

Front 396

A deficiency of folic acid can cause what type of anemia?

Back 396

macrocytic, megaloblastic (oval macs and hypersegmented neutrophils)

Front 397

True or False: Megaloblastic anemia may be caused by folic acid deficiency.

Back 397

true

Front 398

True or False: Folic acid commonly causes megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined neurologic degeneration.

Back 398

False; folate deficiency does not cause neurologic symptoms

Front 399

What is the function of tetrahydrofolate (THF)?

Back 399

It is a coenzyme for 1-carbon transfer/methylation reactions

Front 400

Can folic acid in its digested form function as a coenzyme for 1-carbon transfers?

Back 400

No, it must first be converted to tetrahydrofolate

Front 401

True or False: Folic acid is important for the synthesis of nitrogenous bases in DNA and RNA.

Back 401

true

Front 402

A 42-year-old woman with a history of gastric bypass surgery 5 years ago presents with visual disturbance and numbness in her fingers. She is found to have macrocytic anemia. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

Back 402

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Front 403

True or False: The neurologic sequelae of vitamin B12 deficiency are easily reversible with vitamin supplementation.

Back 403

False; a prolonged deficiency of cobalamin leads to irreversible nervous system damage

Front 404

Crohn's disease may cause a deficiency of what vitamin as a result of the decreased function of the terminal ileum?

Back 404

Vitamin B12

Front 405

What is the most common vitamin deficiency in the United States?

Back 405

Folic acid deficiency

Front 406

A deficiency of folic acid can cause what type of anemia?

Back 406

macrocytic, megaloblastic (oval macs and hypersegmented neutrophils)

Front 407

True or False: Megaloblastic anemia may be caused by folic acid deficiency.

Back 407

true

Front 408

True or False: Folic acid commonly causes megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined neurologic degeneration.

Back 408

False; folate deficiency does not cause neurologic symptoms

Front 409

What is the function of tetrahydrofolate (THF)?

Back 409

It is a coenzyme for 1-carbon transfer/methylation reactions

Front 410

Can folic acid in its digested form function as a coenzyme for 1-carbon transfers?

Back 410

No, it must first be converted to tetrahydrofolate

Front 411

True or False: Folic acid is important for the synthesis of nitrogenous bases in DNA and RNA.

Back 411

true

Front 412

Supplemental folic acid is given during early pregnancy to reduce the incidence of _____ _____ _____.

Back 412

neural tube defects

Front 413

True or False: Ingestion of leafy greens provides a dietary supplement of folic acid.

Back 413

true

Front 414

_____ (Folate/vitamin B12) is found in leafy greens, whereas _____ (folate/vitamin B12) is found in animal products.

Back 414

folate; vitamin B12

Front 415

Name 3 drugs that can cause a folic acid deficiency.

Back 415

phenytoin, methotrexate, and sulfonamides

Front 416

Both folic acid and vitamin B12 deficiencies can cause megaloblastic anemia; what symptom distinguishes the two?

Back 416

There are no neurologic symptoms in folate deficiency- also serum MMA would be normal in folate deficiency, whereas it would be elevated in B12 deficiency

Front 417

S-adenosylmethionine is formed from what two precursors?

Back 417

ATP and methionine

Front 418

The regeneration of methionine and SAM from homocysteine is dependent on which two vitamins?

Back 418

vitamin B12 and folate

Front 419

What is the functional group involved in S-adenosylmethionine reactions?

Back 419

SAM tranfers methyl units (remember: SAM the methyl donor man)

Front 420

What enzyme uses SAM to create homocysteine from methionine?

Back 420

Homocysteine methyltransferase

Front 421

What organism is associated with pharyngitis, cellulitis, and impetigo?

Back 421

Streptococcus pyogenes

Front 422

What organism is associated with scarlet fever and toxic shock syndrome?

Back 422

Streptococcus pyogenes

Front 423

What organism is associated with rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis?

Back 423

Streptococcus pyogenes
(remember: PHaryngitis gives you rheumatic "PHever" and glomerulonePHit is)

Front 424

Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with what three major classes of disease?

Back 424

1. pyogenic (pharyngitis, impetigo, and cellulitis
2. toxigenic (scarlet fever and toxic shock syndrome)
3. immunologic (rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis)

Front 425

Antibodies to what enhance host defenses against Streptococcus pyogenes?

Back 425

M proteins- but this can also lead to development of rheumatic fever

Front 426

What blood test would detect a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection?

Back 426

ASO titer (antistreptolysin O- the toxin/hemolysin produced by s. pyogenes)

Front 427

Subcutaneous nodules, polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, chorea, and carditis are associated with which immunologic disease that is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

Back 427

Rheumatic fever (remember: no "RHEUM" for SPECCulation: Subcutaneous nodules, Polyarthritis, Erythema marginatum, Chorea, and Carditis)

Front 428

S. agalactiae are bacitracin _____ (sensitive/resistant) and _____(α/β/γ) -hemolytic.

Back 428

resistant; beta

Front 429

In what population does group B Streptococcus mainly cause pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis?

Back 429

Babies (remember: B for Babies)
group B strep = s. agalactiae

Front 430

What gram-positive organisms that are β-hemolytic and bacitracin resistant can cause pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis, mainly in babies?

Back 430

Group B streptococci
(strep agalactaie)

Front 431

Which gram-positive group D organisms that are a part of normal colonic flora and that are penicillin G resistant can cause urinary tract infection and subacute endocarditis?

Back 431

enterococci

Front 432

Which Lancefield group do enterococci belong to?

Back 432

Lancefield group D

Front 433

How can Lancefield group D enterococci be differentiated from nonenterococcal group D streptococci?

Back 433

Enterococci, which are hardier than nonenterococcal group D, can grow in 6.5% sodium chloride (laboratory test)

Front 434

Lancefield grouping is based on differences in what components of the bacteria?

Back 434

C carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall

Front 435

Which organisms belong to Lancefield group D?

Back 435

Enterococci and nonenterococcal group D streptococci

Front 436

Lancefield group D organisms exhibit what kind of hemolysis?

Back 436

Variable hemolysis

Front 437

True or False: Enterococci are Lancefield group D organisms that can cause urinary tract infection and subacute endocarditis.

Back 437

true

Front 438

True or False: Penicillin G is effective treatment against enterococci.

Back 438

False; enterococci are resistant to penicillin G

Front 439

Enterococci resistant to which antibiotic are an important source of nosocomial infection?

Back 439

vancomycin (VRE- vancomycin resistent enterococci)

Front 440

What types of infections/ailments can be caused by enterococci?

Back 440

UTIs and subacute endocarditis

Front 441

Which gram-positive group D organisms that are a part of normal colonic flora and that are penicillin G resistant can cause urinary tract infection and subacute endocarditis?

Back 441

enterococci

Front 442

Which Lancefield group do enterococci belong to?

Back 442

Lancefield group D

Front 443

How can Lancefield group D enterococci be differentiated from nonenterococcal group D streptococci?

Back 443

Enterococci, which are hardier than nonenterococcal group D, can grow in 6.5% sodium chloride (laboratory test)

Front 444

Lancefield grouping is based on differences in what components of the bacteria?

Back 444

C carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall

Front 445

Which organisms belong to Lancefield group D?

Back 445

Enterococci and nonenterococcal group D streptococci

Front 446

Lancefield group D organisms exhibit what kind of hemolysis?

Back 446

Variable hemolysis

Front 447

True or False: Enterococci are Lancefield group D organisms that can cause urinary tract infection and subacute endocarditis.

Back 447

true

Front 448

True or False: Penicillin G is effective treatment against enterococci.

Back 448

False; enterococci are resistant to penicillin G

Front 449

Enterococci resistant to which antibiotic are an important source of nosocomial infection?

Back 449

vancomycin (VRE- vancomycin resistent enterococci)

Front 450

What types of infections/ailments can be caused by enterococci?

Back 450

UTIs and subacute endocarditis

Front 451

Presence of which bug in the blood is indicative that colon cancer is present?

Back 451

streptococcus bovis (group D streptococci)-colonizes the gut and can cause bacteremia and subacute endocarditis in colon cancer patients

Front 452

The club-shaped organism that causes pseudomembranous pharyngitis grows on which medium?

Back 452

tellurite agar (you can tell ur rite that a pt has corynebacterium diptheria when you see a pseudomembrane)

Front 453

Diphtheria is caused by what kind of toxin (exotoxin or endotoxin)?

Back 453

exotoxin

Front 454

How does diphtheria toxin inhibit protein synthesis?

Back 454

ADP ribosylation of elongation factor 2

Front 455

What encodes the diphtheria toxin?

Back 455

beta-prophage

Front 456

What disease is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

Back 456

diptheria- Pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane) with lymphadenopathy

Front 457

How is the diagnosis of diphtheria made?

Back 457

A laboratory diagnosis is made on the basis of the presence of gram-positive rods with metachromatic granules

Front 458

What kind of granules are seen in the exotoxin-producing organism that causes pseudomembranous pharyngitis?

Back 458

metachromatic (red and blue) granules

Front 459

Metachromatic granules are seen with which club-shaped organism?

Back 459

corynebacterium diptheriae

Front 460

What type of bacteria form spores?

Back 460

some Gram-positive rods

Front 461

In which form are bacteria highly resistant to destruction by heat and chemicals?

Back 461

spores

Front 462

Bacterial spores have what kind of chemical in the core?

Back 462

Dipicolinic acid
True or False: Spores are metabolically active.

Front 463

True or False: Spores are metabolically active.

Back 463

False; spores have no metabolic activity

Front 464

What procedure that is done to surgical equipment is required to kill spores?

Back 464

autoclave

Front 465

What three soil-dwelling, gram-positive rods are spore formers?

Back 465

bacillus anthracis, clostridium tetani, clostridium perfringens
(Bacillus cereus and Clostridium botulinum can also form spores)

Front 466

True or False: Bacillus cereus and Clostridium botulinum are spore-forming bacteria.

Back 466

true

Front 467

In what stage of the bacterial growth curve do bacteria produce spores?

Back 467

Near the end of the stationary phase, when nutrients become limited

Front 468

What organisms are gram-positive, spore-forming, obligate anaerobic bacilli?

Back 468

clostridium

Front 469

What organisms are gram-positive, spore-forming, obligate anaerobic bacilli?

Back 469

Clostridia

Front 470

Name four clostridia species that produce exotoxins.

Back 470

Clostridium tetani, C. botulism, C. perfringens and C. difficile

Front 471

Which organisms cause toxin-induced illnesses such as tetanus, botulism, gas gangrene, and pseudomembranous colitis (with exotoxins)?

Back 471

clostridium

Front 472

Which gram-positive bacillus is responsible for paralysis caused by exposure to exotoxins via the soil or a rusty nail?

Back 472

clostridium tetani

Front 473

What kind of toxin produced by Clostridium tetani causes tetanus?

Back 473

Exotoxin (spores)

Front 474

What kind of disease is caused by Clostridium tetani?

Back 474

tetanus- tetanic paralysis

Front 475

How does toxin produced by Clostridium tetani cause tetanus?

Back 475

It blocks glycine (inhibitory neurotransmitter) release from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord

Front 476

Which gram-positive bacilli are responsible for the flaccid paralysis caused by exposure to improperly canned foods?

Back 476

clostridium botulinum (remember: BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey)

Front 477

What kind of toxin is produced by Clostridium botulinum?

Back 477

Preformed, heat-labile toxin

Front 478

What is the predominant symptom of botulism?

Back 478

flaccid paralysis

Front 479

How does the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum cause flaccid paralysis?

Back 479

It inhibits acetylcholine release at neuromuscular junction

Front 480

Ingestion of what food by babies is commonly associated with floppy baby syndrome?

Back 480

honey

Front 481

Which exotoxin-producing, gram-positive bacilli are responsible for gas gangrene?

Back 481

clostridium perfringens (remember: PERFringens PERForates a gangrenous leg)

Front 482

What kind of toxin is produced by Clostridium perfringens?

Back 482

α-Toxin (lecithinase)

Front 483

Clostridium perfringens causes what conditions?

Back 483

Myonecrosis, gas gangrene, and hemolysis

Front 484

Which gram-positive bacilli are responsible for pseudomembranous colitis?

Back 484

clostridirum dificile (remember: DIfficile causes DIarrhea)

Front 485

Pseudomembranous colitis often follows a course of which antibiotics?

Back 485

Clindamycin or ampicillin

Front 486

What kind of toxin is produced by Clostridium difficile?

Back 486

A cytotoxin, which is an exotoxin that kills enterocytes and causes pseudomembranous colitis

Front 487

What is the treatment of choice for pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile?

Back 487

metronidazole

Front 488

Where does the preformed toxin released by C. botulinum inhibit acetylcholine release?

Back 488

At the neuromuscular junction

Front 489

What gram-positive, spore-forming rod that produces a toxin causes a respiratory illness that is associated with black skin lesions and exposure to animal hides and fur?

Back 489

Bacillus anthracis

Front 490

What organism causes anthrax?

Back 490

Bacillus anthracis

Front 491

What kind of organism is Bacillus anthracis?

Back 491

A gram-positive, spore-forming rod
- obligate aerobe

Front 492

Contact with Bacillus anthracis toxin leads to what kind of disease?

Back 492

black eschar- painless ulcers that can lead to bacteremia or death

Front 493

Bacillus anthracis toxin causes what kind of skin lesion?

Back 493

Black skin lesions- black eschar (necrosis) surrounded by edematous ring- caused by lethal factor and edema factor

Front 494

The inhalation of Bacillus anthracis spores leads to which symptoms?

Back 494

Flu-like symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, mediastinitis, pulmonary hemorrhage, and shock

Front 495

What are the modes of anthrax transmission?

Back 495

Contact and inhalation

Front 496

What is Woolsorters' disease?

Back 496

Pulmonary infection of Bacillus anthracis due to inhalation of spores from contaminated wool

Front 497

How is the capsule produced by B. anthracis unique?

Back 497

polypeptide/Protein capsule contains D-glutamate whereas other capsules are composed of polysaccharide

Front 498

What bacteria can cause amnionitis, septicemia, and spontaneous abortions in pregnant women?

Back 498

listeria monocytogenes

Front 499

What bacteria can cause granulomatosis infantiseptica, meningitis in neonates and immunocompromised patients, but only mild gastroenteritis in healthy individuals?

Back 499

listeria monocytogenes

Front 500

True or False: Listeria monocytogenes can be acquired by ingestion of unpasteurized milk and cheese or deli meats or vaginal transmission during birth.

Back 500

true

Front 501

What is the function of "actin rockets" on Listeria monocytogenes?

Back 501

"Actin rockets" help the bacteria move from cell to cell- it is a facultative intracellular organism

Front 502

Listeria monocytogenes exhibits what type of characteristic motility?

Back 502

tumbling motility

Front 503

What is the only gram-positive bacteria that contains an endotoxin?

Back 503

listeria monocytogenes

Front 504

Which two bacteria are gram-positive rods that form long-branching filaments that resemble fungi?

Back 504

Actinomyces israelii and Nocardia asteroides

Front 505

Which is an anaerobe: Actinomyces israelii or Nocardia asteroides?

Back 505

actinomyces (Cannot Breathe Air- Clostridium, Bacteriodes, and Actinomyces)
nocardia is an obligate aerobe (Nagging Pests Must Breathe- Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacteria, and Bacillus)

Front 506

Which is a weakly acid-fast aerobe in soil: Actinomyces israelii or Nocardia asteroides?

Back 506

Nocardia asteroides

Front 507

What gram-positive rod causes oral and facial abscesses with "sulfur granules"?

Back 507

Actinomyces israelii

Front 508

How do abscesses caused by Actinomyces israelii drain?

Back 508

Through sinus tracts in the skin

Front 509

True or False: Actinomyces are part of the normal oral flora.

Back 509

true

Front 510

What gram-positive rod causes pulmonary infections in immunocompromised patients?

Back 510

Nocardia asteroides

Front 511

How are infections with Actinomyces israelii and Nocardia asteroides treated?

Back 511

Sulfa for Nocardia and Penicillin for Actinomyces (remember SNAP)

Front 512

Infection with what organism causes tuberculosis?

Back 512

mycobacterium tuberculosis

Front 513

In a nonimmune host, what kind of tuberculosis occurs after infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Back 513

primary TB

Front 514

In a partially immune, hypersensitized host, what kind of tuberculosis occurs after reinfection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Back 514

secondary TB

Front 515

In a nonimmune host, what kind of tuberculosis occurs after infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Back 515

primary TB

Front 516

What type of lesion is seen on x-ray of the lung fields of a patient with primary tuberculosis?

Back 516

ghon complex- TB granulomas (ghon focus) with lobar and perihilar lymph node involvement

Front 517

What type of lesion is seen on x-ray of the lung fields of a patient with secondary tuberculosis?

Back 517

Fibrocaseous cavitary lesion (usually in the upper lobes)- granuloma

Front 518

Is a fibrocaseous cavitary lesion seen in primary or secondary tuberculosis?

Back 518

secondary TB

Front 519

Is a Ghon complex seen in primary or secondary tuberculosis?

Back 519

primary TB

Front 520

What are two ways of contracting secondary tuberculosis?

Back 520

Reinfection or reactivation

Front 521

What are four possible outcomes of primary tuberculosis?

Back 521

Fibrous healing, progressive lung disease, severe bacteremia, and preallergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination

Front 522

What is the immunologic result of fibrous healing in a patient with primary tuberculosis?

Back 522

Immunity and hypersensitivity (tuberculin positive)

Front 523

True or False: A person who has developed immunity and hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis is tuberculin positive.

Back 523

True

Front 524

A host with tuberculosis who develops severe bacteremia has what kind of tuberculosis?

Back 524

miliary

Front 525

True or False: Death commonly results from miliary tuberculosis, while death from progressive pulmonary disease is rare.

Back 525

true

Front 526

Preallergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination of tuberculosis results in what?

Back 526

Dormant mycobacterium tuberculosis seeded in several organs

Front 527

The reactivation of dormant tuberculosis infection in the lungs results in what condition?

Back 527

Secondary tuberculosis with a fibrocaseous cavitary lesion

Front 528

Name five common sites of extrapulmonary tuberculosis.

Back 528

Central nervous system (parenchymal tuberculoma or meningitis), vertebral body (Pott's disease), lymphatic system (lymphadenitis), renal system, and gastrointestinal system

Front 529

Extrapulmonary tuberculosis involving the vertebral body is called what?

Back 529

Pott's disease

Front 530

In what populations does tuberculosis most frequently develop into progressive lung disease?

Back 530

HIV positive or malnourished individuals

Front 531

What are three reasons an individual would have a positive PPD test?

Back 531

Current tuberculosis infection, previous exposure, BCG vaccination

Front 532

When would a patient who has been exposed to tuberculosis have a negative PPD test?

Back 532

If the patient is anergic- fails to develop a sufficient immune response

Front 533

What are four reasons a patient with tuberculosis exposure may have a negative PPD test due to anergy?

Back 533

Steroids, malnutrition, immunocompromised, sarcoidosis

Front 534

Tuberculosis granulomas with lobar and perihilar lymph node involvement are called what?

Back 534

ghon complex

Front 535

Ghon complex is seen in patients with what condition?

Back 535

Primary tuberculosis (primary infection or exposure)

Front 536

The granulomas that are part of Ghon complex are called what?

Back 536

ghon focus

Front 537

In what part of the lung is Ghon complex involved?

Back 537

The lobar and perihilar lymph nodes

Front 538

Name four clinically important mycobacteria.

Back 538

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M. kansasii, M. avium-intracellulare, and M. leprae

Front 539

All mycobacteria have what staining property?

Back 539

acid fast

Front 540

What two mycobacteria species are often resistant to multiple drugs?

Back 540

Mycobacterium tuberculosis and M. avium-intracellulare

Front 541

What symptoms are caused by Mycobacterium kansasii?

Back 541

Pulmonary tuberculosis-like symptoms

Front 542

What mycobacteria species commonly causes disseminated disease in patients with AIDS whose CD4+ cell counts are <50/mm³?

Back 542

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare

Front 543

What are the symptoms of tuberculosis?

Back 543

Fever, night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis

Front 544

What nontubercular mycobacteria species can cause pulmonary tuberculosis-like symptoms?

Back 544

Mycobacterium kansasii

Front 545

Because Mycobacterium leprae likes cool temperatures, it infects only what areas of the body?

Back 545

The skin and the superficial nerves

Front 546

What is the treatment of choice for leprosy?

Back 546

Long-term oral dapsone

Front 547

What toxicity is associated with long-term oral dapsone treatment?

Back 547

Hemolysis and methemoglobinemia

Front 548

What are two alternative treatment options for leprosy?

Back 548

Rifampin and the combination of clofazimine and dapsone

Front 549

What are the two forms of Hansen's disease?

Back 549

lepromatous and tuberculoid

Front 550

Which of the two forms of leprosy indicates failed cell-mediated immunity and has a worse prognosis?

Back 550

LEpromatous= LEthal

Front 551

Which of the two forms of leprosy is self-limited?

Back 551

tuberculoid

Front 552

True or False: Mycobacterium leprae can be grown in vitro.

Back 552

false

Front 553

What type of organisms stain pink with Gram staining?

Back 553

Gram-negative organisms

Front 554

Gram-negative organisms can be classified into what three shapes?

Back 554

Cocci, coccoid rods, and rods

Front 555

Name four organisms that are gram-negative, coccoid rods.

Back 555

Haemophilus influenzae, Bordetella pertussis, Pasteurella, and Brucella

Front 556

What is a common source of Pasteurella infections?

Back 556

animal bites (eg cat or dog bites)

Front 557

What disease is caused by Brucella?

Back 557

Brucellosis

Front 558

True or False: Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are gram-positive cocci.

Back 558

False; they are gram-negative cocci

Front 559

How are gram-negative cocci differentiated from each other?

Back 559

By maltose fermentation

Front 560

Which gram-negative cocci ferment maltose?

Back 560

Neisseria meningitidis

Front 561

Which gram-negative cocci do not ferment maltose?

Back 561

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Front 562

Gram-negative rods are differentiated by the fermentation of what substance?

Back 562

Lactose

Front 563

True or False: Klebsiella is a fast lactose fermenter.

Back 563

true

Front 564

True or False: Escherichia coli is a slow lactose fermenter.

Back 564

False; it is a fast fermenter

Front 565

True or False: Enterobacter is a fast lactose fermenter.

Back 565

true

Front 566

True or False: Serratia is a slow lactose fermenter.

Back 566

true

Front 567

True or False: Citrobacter is a fast lactose fermenter.

Back 567

False; it is a slow fermenter

Front 568

Are Klebsiella, Escherichia coli, and Enterobacter fast or slow lactose fermenters?

Back 568

Fast (EEK you're going to fast)

Front 569

Are Citrobacter and Serratia fast or slow lactose fermenters?

Back 569

slow (both start with s sound)

Front 570

True or False: Pseudomonas is a non-lactose-fermenter that is oxidase positive.

Back 570

true

Front 571

True or False: Serratia is a slow lactose fermenter.

Back 571

true

Front 572

True or False: Citrobacter is a fast lactose fermenter.

Back 572

False; it is a slow fermenter

Front 573

Are Klebsiella, Escherichia coli, and Enterobacter fast or slow lactose fermenters?

Back 573

Fast (EEK you're going to fast)

Front 574

Are Citrobacter and Serratia fast or slow lactose fermenters?

Back 574

slow (both start with s sound)

Front 575

True or False: Pseudomonas is a non-lactose-fermenter that is oxidase positive.

Back 575

true

Front 576

True or False: Proteus is a non-lactose-fermenter that is oxidase positive.

Back 576

False; it is oxidase negative

Front 577

True or False: Shigella is a non-lactose-fermenter that is oxidase negative.

Back 577

true

Front 578

True or False: Salmonella is a non-lactose-fermenter that is oxidase negative.

Back 578

true

Front 579

Among non-lactose-fermenters, the presence of what substance can be used to differentiate Pseudomonas from Shigella?

Back 579

oxidase

Front 580

Among lactose fermenters, what characteristic can be used to differentiate Citrobacter and Serratia from E. coli and Klebsiella?

Back 580

Slow vs. fast lactose fermentation

Front 581

What type of bacteria grows pink colonies on MacConkey's agar?

Back 581

Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria

Front 582

Klebsiella, Escherichia coli, Enterobacter, and Citrobacter are what kind of bacteria?

Back 582

Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria

Front 583

What type of agar is used to determine whether a bacteria is lactose fermenting or non-lactose fermenting?

Back 583

MacConkey's agar

Front 584

Which bacteria produce pink colonies on MacConkey's agar?

Back 584

Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter, Citrobacter and Serratia
(remember Lactose is KEE, test with maConKEE'S)

Front 585

Is benzyl-penicillin-G resistance seen in gram-negative or gram-positive organisms?

Back 585

Gram-negative organisms

Front 586

True or False: Gram-negative organisms are resistant to penicillin and all of its derivatives.

Back 586

False; some gram-negative organisms are susceptible to penicillin derivatives such as ampicillin

Front 587

What part of gram-negative organisms inhibits the entry of penicillin G and vancomycin?

Back 587

The outer membrane

Front 588

Name two examples of gram-negative cocci species.

Back 588

Neisseria gonorrhoeae, N. meningitidis

Front 589

Which gram-negative cocci have polysaccharide capsules?

Back 589

Neisseria meningitidis

Front 590

Against which of the two Neisseria species (N. gonorrhoeae or N. meningitidis) does a vaccine exist?

Back 590

Neisseria meningitidis

Front 591

Which gram-negative cocci ferment maltose?

Back 591

Neisseria meningitidis

Front 592

Which gram-negative cocci cause pelvic inflammatory disease, septic arthritis, and neonatal conjunctivitis?

Back 592

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Front 593

Which gram-negative cocci cause septicemia, meningitis, and Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome?

Back 593

Neisseria meningitidis

Front 594

How is N. gonorrhoeae transmitted?

Back 594

Sexually transmitted

Front 595

How is N. meningitidis transmitted?

Back 595

Respiratory and oral secretions

Front 596

Which Neisseria species is associated with Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

Back 596

N. meningitidis (waterhouse friderichsen is adrenal hemorrhage and acute adrenal insufficiency associated with sepsis from n. meningitis)

Front 597

Name four diseases that can be caused by Haemophilus influenzae.

Back 597

Epiglottis, Meningitis, Otitis media. and Pneumonia (remember: HaEMOPhilus)

Front 598

Which small, gram-negative rod (coccobacillus) can cause epiglottis, meningitis, otitis media, and pneumonia?

Back 598

haemophilus influenza

Front 599

What is the method of transmission of Haemophilus influenzae?

Back 599

Aerosol

Front 600

Which capsular type of Haemophilus influenzae causes the most invasive disease?

Back 600

Capsular type B

Front 601

What kind of virulence factor is produced by Haemophilus influenzae?

Back 601

Immunoglobulin A protease

Front 602

What kind of culture is required to grow Haemophilus influenzae?

Back 602

Chocolate agar with factors V (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) and X (hematin)- when a child has the "flu"- mom goes to the five (V) and dime (X) store to buy some chocolate

Front 603

What is the treatment of choice for meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae?

Back 603

ceftriaxone

Front 604

What prophylactic measure is taken for close contacts of a patient with meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae?

Back 604

Rifampin

Front 605

True or False: Haemophilus influenzae causes the flu.

Back 605

False; influenza virus causes the flu
h. flu causes epiglottis, meningitis, otitis media and pneumonia

Front 606

Vaccine against Haemophilus influenzae contains what kind of antigen?

Back 606

Type B capsular polysaccharide + diptheria toxoid or other proteins as adjuvant

Front 607

The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine antigen is conjugated to what compound?

Back 607

Diphtheria toxoid or other proteins

Front 608

The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine antigen is given to which age group?

Back 608

Patients between the ages of 2 and 18 months

Front 609

Why is the type B capsular polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxin or other protein in the H. influenzae vaccine?

Back 609

To increase the immature immune system's ability to recognize the toxin and promote Ig class switching

Front 610

What poorly gram-staining, gram-negative rod causes a pulmonary disease that is transmitted through aerosol droplets from environmental water sources?

Back 610

Legionella pneumophila

Front 611

How is Legionnaires' disease transmitted?

Back 611

Via aerosol transmission from an environmental water source; no person-to-person transmission occurs

Front 612

What kind of stain is used to detect Legionella pneumophila?

Back 612

Silver stain

Front 613

What kind of medium is used to grow Legionella pneumophila?

Back 613

Charcoal yeast extract culture with iron and cysteine

Front 614

What is the treatment of choice for Legionnaires' disease?

Back 614

Erythromycin

Front 615

Legionella pneumophila causes Legionnaires' disease as well as a milder disease called _____.

Back 615

Pontiac's fever, a mild influenza

Front 616

How does Legionnaire's disease present clinically?

Back 616

Severe pneumonia and fever

Front 617

Hot tub folliculitis is commonly associated with which oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod?

Back 617

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 618

True or False: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly associated with pneumonia in patients with diabetes.

Back 618

False; Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly associated with pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis

Front 619

What nonlactose fermenter is commonly associated with wound and burn infections as well as diabetic osteomyelitis?

Back 619

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 620

True or False: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a lactose fermenter.

Back 620

False; it is a nonlactose fermenter

Front 621

Which pyocyanin-producing organism causes external otitis as well as sepsis with black skin lesions?

Back 621

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 622

Which non-lactose-fermenting, oxidase-positive, aerobic, gram-negative rod produces pyocyanin (blue-green) pigment?

Back 622

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 623

Which nonlactose-fermenting, oxidative-positive, aerobic, gram-negative rod produces a grape-like odor?

Back 623

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 624

What is the aerobic, gram-negative rod associated with swimmer's ear (external otitis)?

Back 624

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 625

What pigment is produced by the gram-negative rod associated with swimmer's ear (external otitis)?

Back 625

Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces pyocyanin (blue-green) pigment (think about the connection of water and the blue-green pigment)

Front 626

True or False: Water is a common infection source for Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Back 626

true

Front 627

What type of toxin causes fever and hypotension in pseudomonas sepsis?

Back 627

endotoxin

Front 628

Exotoxin A produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa inactivates what factor that is used in protein synthesis?

Back 628

elongation factor 2 (also inactivated by corynebacterium diptheriae)

Front 629

What is the treatment of choice for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?

Back 629

Aminoglycoside plus an extended-spectrum penicillin (eg, piperacillin, ticarcillin)

Front 630

True or False: UTIs are not typically caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Back 630

False (PSEUDO- pneumonia (esp in CF pts, Sepsis (with black skin lesions), External otitis (swimmer's ear), UTIs, Drug use or Diabetic Osteomyelitis -- also burns, wounds and hot tub foliculitis

Front 631

True or False: Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections are associated with drug use.

Back 631

true

Front 632

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an _____ (aerobic/anaerobic) gram- _____ (positive/negative) _____ (rod/cocci).

Back 632

aerobic; gram negative; rod

Front 633

Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa oxidase positive or oxidase negative?

Back 633

oxidase positive

Front 634

Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Shigella, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, and Proteus belong to which bacterial family?

Back 634

Enterobacteriaceae

Front 635

All species in the enterobacteriaceae have what type of antigen?

Back 635

Somatic (O) antigen

Front 636

All enterobacteriaceae species ferment what type of sugar?

Back 636

glucose

Front 637

All enterobacteriaceae species lack what type of enzyme?

Back 637

oxidase

Front 638

Which bacterial family are oxidase negative, have somatic (O) antigen, and ferment glucose?

Back 638

enterobacteriaceae

Front 639

What is the polysaccharide of endotoxin called?

Back 639

Somatic (O) antigen

Front 640

K antigen is found on what bacterial structure?

Back 640

the capsule

Front 641

Which antigen is related to the virulence of enterobacteriaceae species?

Back 641

Capsular (K) antigen

Front 642

H antigen is found on what bacterial structure?

Back 642

The flagella

Front 643

Motile enterobacteriaceae species have what type of antigen?

Back 643

Flagellar (H) antigen