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46 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
lymphatic drainage of rectum and anal canal above pectinate line
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internal iliac
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lymphatic drainage of anal canal below pectinate line
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superficial inguinal
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lymphatic drainage of testes
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superficial and deep plexuses --> para-aortic
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lymphatic drainage of scrotum
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superficial inguinal
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lymphatic drainage of thigh (superficial)
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superficial inguinal
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lymphatic drainage of lateral side of the dorsum of the foot
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popliteal
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right lymphatic duct drains...
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right arm and right 1/2 of head
thoracic duct drains everything else |
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red pulp of the spleen
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mechanical filtration of RBCs
reserve of monocytes |
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white pulp of spleen
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active immune response via T cells (PALS) and B cells (follicles)
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splenic dysfunction
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decreased IgM --> decreased complement activation --> decreased C3b opsonization --> increased susceptibility to encapsulated organisms (S. pneumo, H. flu, Salmonella, N. meningitidis)
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When are T cells determined to be helper or cytotoxic
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during positive selection when pro-thymocytes interact with self MHC complexes
selected on MHC I --> CD8 MHC II --> CD4 |
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HLA for hemochromatosis
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HLA A3
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HLA B8
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Graves dz
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NK cells are enhanced by
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IL-12, INF alpha, INF beta
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superantigens Mx
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crosslinks B-region of TCR to MHC II on APCs
--> release of INF gamma from Th and subsequent release of IL-1, IL-6, and TNF alpha from macrophages |
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endotoxin receptor
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CD14
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Th activation
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foreign body is phagocytosed by APC and antigen is presented on MHC II and recognized by TCR on Th cell
co-stimulation signal given by interaction between B7 and CD28 both are required |
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Tc activation
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antigen presented on MHC I and recognized by TCR on Tc
IL-2 from Th cell activates Tc to kill virus infected cell |
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what is required to stimulate immunologic memory
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peptide component
CD40 receptor on B cells and CD40 ligant on Th2 cells --> immunologic memory |
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IL-10
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activates Th2 and inhibits Th1
so, this is pro-humoral and anti-cell mediated |
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IL-12
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secreted by B cells and macrophages
activates NK and Th1 cells |
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CD3
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Th or Tc cells
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CD40L
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Th cells
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CD28
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Th cells
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CD14
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macrophages
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CD16
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NK, binds Fc portion of IgG
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CD56
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NK cells
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what cells do not have MHC I
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mature RBCs
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primary opsonins
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C3b and IgG
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decay-accelerating factor (DAF) deficiency
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complement-mediated lysis of RBC --> PNH
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passive immunization is for...
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To Be Healed Rapidly
Tetanus Botulinum HBV Rhabies |
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what bacteria show antigen variation
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Salmonella (2 flagellan variants)
Borrelia (relapsing fever) N. gonorrhea (pilus protein) |
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Arthus reaction
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swelling and inflammation following tetanus vaccination
Type III hypersensitivity rxn |
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anti-glutamate decarboxylase antibodies
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type 1 DBM
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anti-U1 RNP antibodies
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MCTD
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anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies
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Sjogrens
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anti-Scl-70 (anti-DNA topoisomerase I) antibodies
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Scleroderma (diffuse)
vs. anticentromere (scleroderma-CREST) |
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cause of hyper IgM syndrome
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defective CD40L on Th cells --> inability to class switch
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Job's syndrome
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hyper IgE
Th cells fail to produce INF gamma --> inability of neutrophils to respond to chemotactic syndrome FATED coarse Facies cold (non-inflamm.) staph Abscesses retained primary Teeth increased IgE Derm problems (eczema) |
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cyclosporine MoA
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inhibits calcineurin, thus preventing production of IL-2 and it's receptor
nephrotoxic (prevent with mannitol) |
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Tacrolimus (FK506) MoA
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binds FK-binding protein and inhibits secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines
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Azothioprine MoA
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precursor to 6MP
interfers with nucleic acid synthesis metabolized by xanthine oxidase, toxicity increases with allopurinol |
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Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3) MoA
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monoclonal antibody to CD3 on T cell surface
blocks cellular interaction with CD3 responsible for T cell signal transduction |
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Sirolimus (rapamycin) MoA
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binds mTOR and inhibits T cell proliferation in response to IL-2
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Mycophenolate mofetil MoA
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inhibits de novo guanine synthesis and inhibits lymphocyte production
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Daclizumab MoA
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monoclonal with high affinity to IL-2 on activated T cells
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