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46 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
lymphatic drainage of rectum and anal canal above pectinate line
internal iliac
lymphatic drainage of anal canal below pectinate line
superficial inguinal
lymphatic drainage of testes
superficial and deep plexuses --> para-aortic
lymphatic drainage of scrotum
superficial inguinal
lymphatic drainage of thigh (superficial)
superficial inguinal
lymphatic drainage of lateral side of the dorsum of the foot
popliteal
right lymphatic duct drains...
right arm and right 1/2 of head

thoracic duct drains everything else
red pulp of the spleen
mechanical filtration of RBCs

reserve of monocytes
white pulp of spleen
active immune response via T cells (PALS) and B cells (follicles)
splenic dysfunction
decreased IgM --> decreased complement activation --> decreased C3b opsonization --> increased susceptibility to encapsulated organisms (S. pneumo, H. flu, Salmonella, N. meningitidis)
When are T cells determined to be helper or cytotoxic
during positive selection when pro-thymocytes interact with self MHC complexes

selected on MHC I --> CD8

MHC II --> CD4
HLA for hemochromatosis
HLA A3
HLA B8
Graves dz
NK cells are enhanced by
IL-12, INF alpha, INF beta
superantigens Mx
crosslinks B-region of TCR to MHC II on APCs

--> release of INF gamma from Th and subsequent release of IL-1, IL-6, and TNF alpha from macrophages
endotoxin receptor
CD14
Th activation
foreign body is phagocytosed by APC and antigen is presented on MHC II and recognized by TCR on Th cell

co-stimulation signal given by interaction between B7 and CD28

both are required
Tc activation
antigen presented on MHC I and recognized by TCR on Tc

IL-2 from Th cell activates Tc to kill virus infected cell
what is required to stimulate immunologic memory
peptide component

CD40 receptor on B cells and CD40 ligant on Th2 cells --> immunologic memory
IL-10
activates Th2 and inhibits Th1

so, this is pro-humoral and anti-cell mediated
IL-12
secreted by B cells and macrophages

activates NK and Th1 cells
CD3
Th or Tc cells
CD40L
Th cells
CD28
Th cells
CD14
macrophages
CD16
NK, binds Fc portion of IgG
CD56
NK cells
what cells do not have MHC I
mature RBCs
primary opsonins
C3b and IgG
decay-accelerating factor (DAF) deficiency
complement-mediated lysis of RBC --> PNH
passive immunization is for...
To Be Healed Rapidly

Tetanus
Botulinum
HBV
Rhabies
what bacteria show antigen variation
Salmonella (2 flagellan variants)

Borrelia (relapsing fever)

N. gonorrhea (pilus protein)
Arthus reaction
swelling and inflammation following tetanus vaccination

Type III hypersensitivity rxn
anti-glutamate decarboxylase antibodies
type 1 DBM
anti-U1 RNP antibodies
MCTD
anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies
Sjogrens
anti-Scl-70 (anti-DNA topoisomerase I) antibodies
Scleroderma (diffuse)

vs. anticentromere (scleroderma-CREST)
cause of hyper IgM syndrome
defective CD40L on Th cells --> inability to class switch
Job's syndrome
hyper IgE

Th cells fail to produce INF gamma --> inability of neutrophils to respond to chemotactic syndrome

FATED

coarse Facies
cold (non-inflamm.) staph Abscesses
retained primary Teeth
increased IgE
Derm problems (eczema)
cyclosporine MoA
inhibits calcineurin, thus preventing production of IL-2 and it's receptor

nephrotoxic (prevent with mannitol)
Tacrolimus (FK506) MoA
binds FK-binding protein and inhibits secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines
Azothioprine MoA
precursor to 6MP

interfers with nucleic acid synthesis

metabolized by xanthine oxidase, toxicity increases with allopurinol
Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3) MoA
monoclonal antibody to CD3 on T cell surface

blocks cellular interaction with CD3 responsible for T cell signal transduction
Sirolimus (rapamycin) MoA
binds mTOR and inhibits T cell proliferation in response to IL-2
Mycophenolate mofetil MoA
inhibits de novo guanine synthesis and inhibits lymphocyte production
Daclizumab MoA
monoclonal with high affinity to IL-2 on activated T cells