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94 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
174
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174
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What are the three components of an angiomyolipoma
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Blood vessels, smooth muscle and fat.
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What are the important etiologies of renal cell carcinoma
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Smoking, Loss of VHL suppressor gene, 3P mutation
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von Hippel Lindau Disaese
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Loss of VHL suppressor --> Clear cell carcinoma, cysts, and rare pheochromocytoma
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Hereditary papillary renal cell carcinoma involves what?
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Overexpression of C-Met oncogene.
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Hereditary Leiomyomatosis/papillary renal cell carcinoma involves what?
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Fumurate Hydratase gene. Gives papillary RCCs and leiomyomas
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What is Birt Hogg Debe syndrome?
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Defective BHD tumor suppressor - RCC (oncocytic mostly, sometimes clear or chromophobe), renal oncocytoma, hair follicle tumors and lung cysts
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What is the triad of RCC presentation
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Hematuria, Palpable mass, and Pain (Not actually usually present nowadays)
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Sarcomatoid RCC automatically is what grade?
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Grade 4 - the worst.
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Common clinical pres of RCC
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occult hematuria, anemia, increased hematocrit, increased serum Ca
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Clear cell - cytogentics
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"-3p"
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papillary cytogenetics
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"+7, +17, loss of sex chromosome"
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Aggressive type cytogenetics
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9p, 14q, multiple abn in RCC
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Which two (4) tumors are benign?
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Oncocytoma, angiolipomyoma (Clear cell and papillary adenomas can be too)
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Characteristic LM for oncocytoma
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Granular. Round central bland nuclei. Nests & trebeculae
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What 4 renal tumors can be malignant
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Clear, Papillary, Chromophobe, Collecting duct
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4 risk factors for urothelial carcinoma
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1. Industrial chemicals/carcinogens 2. Smoking 3. Schistosoma infection 4. Drugs
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Good prognosis genetic abnormalities in urothelial carcinoma
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TCC -9p
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Bad prognosis genetic abnormalities in urothelial carcinoma
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TCC -17p, TCC -13q, -14q (Carcinoma in Situ)
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175
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175
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What defines superficial versus invasive urothelial carcinoma?
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Whether it invades the tunica muscularis propria or not. (if it does, T2 or greater.)
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BCG Therapy
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Affected area is treated with bovine tuberculosis virus.
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Indications for renal biopsy
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1. Rule out lymphoma 2. Rule out foreign metastasis 3. Establish tissue diagnosis for non-surgical treat. 4. Rule out cancer in post inflammatory pseudotumro
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Which renal tumor can be treated immunologically?
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Clear cell RCC
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176
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176
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Explain eureter blood supply
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Above iliac it's from the mdial side, bleow iliac its from the lateral side
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Difference b/t obstructive uropathy and obstructive nephropathy
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Nephropathy implies damage to renal perenchyma
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Hydronephrosis
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Describes the radioligic findings associated with renal obstruction
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Gross changes in obstruction
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Hydronephrosis possible, compression of papillae/calyceal blunting, thinning of perenchyma
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3 phases of acute obstruction:
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1. Increased BF and ureter pressure. 2. Decreased BF and increased ureter. 3. Decreased both
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How long until an obstruction does permananet damage
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2 weeks ("so you can follow up to 1 week")
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What is diagnostic for a stone in Diuretic Renography
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t1/2 > 20 (t1/2 = 10-20 is inconclusive)
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What is diagnostic for a stone in a whitaker test?
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> 22 cmH20
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How much is too much w/ postobstructive diuresis
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> 200 ml/hr for more than two hours requires treatment (D5 saline)
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Which type of stone is radiolucent
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uric acid
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Which stones are the most common?
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Calcium oxalate +/- calcium phosphate
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Citrate & kidney stones?
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Citrate inhibits stone formation (as does alkaline urine)
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Which diuretics prevents calcium stone formation?
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Thiazide
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Name 4 urease producing bacteria
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Proteus, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Staph
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What amino acids are responsible in cystinuria
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Cystine, Ornathine, Lysine, Arginine.
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Thiola
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Treatment for hypercystinuria --> prevents deposition.
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177
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177
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Secretory status and recurr UTI
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Recessive (a-b-) and nonsecreter (a+b-) are more disposed to recurrent UTI (Referes to secretion of Ab's)
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Four factors that promote UTI
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SEAS - Sex, Estrogen dep, Antimicrobials, Spermicide
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Common pathogens in outpatient
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E COLI, Staph, Proteus/Klebs/Enterococci
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Common pathoegens in inpatient
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E coli, Proteus/Klebs/Entercocci, Pseudomonas/Serratia/Achinetobacter
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Where can you find quiescent bacteria in the bladder?
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In the intermediate cells (below the umbrella cells)
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What counts as a 'Complicated' urinary tract infect.
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Immunocomp, Diabetic, Pregnant, Catheterized, Resistant bacteria.
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First and second line UTI treatment
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1: TMP 2. Usually Fluorquinolone or Fosfomycin (or nitrofurantoin)
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178
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178
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Where is most BPH
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periurethral region
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Where is most Prostatic Cancer
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Peripheral zone
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Condyloma Acuminatum
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Epithelial proliveration from HPV (venereal warts)
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Which HPV strains cause condyloma acuminatum
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HPV-6, 11, and sometime 16
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What are the three zones of the prostate, and how are thye correlated w/ cancer/BPH
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Central, Transition(BPH) and peripheral (Cancer or inflam)
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Which type of cell most commonly develops prostatic adenocarcinoma?
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Acinar type cells (And rarely - large duct, trans cell, small cell, mucinous)
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PIN
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Basically carcinoma in situ of the prostate. Hasn't broken the BM.
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Which HPV strains cause squamous cell carcinoma?
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HPV 16, 18
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Where in the prostate does cancer usually develop?
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Posteriorly
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Name 3 penile in situ lesions
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1. Erythroplasia of Queyrat(glans, 50-70) 2. Bowen's (shaft 40-60) 3. Bowenoid (shaft 30-50)
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Which penile lesion is associated w/ malignancy
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Bowen's
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Koilocyte
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Cell with shrunken hyperchromatic nucleus, esp in condylomas
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179
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179
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Indications (4) for intervention in BPH
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recurrent UTI, pers or rec hematuria, stones, obstructive uropathy
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2 most common therapies for BPH
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alpha blockers and 5 alpha reductase inhibitors
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When should you use alpha blockers vs 5-a reductase inhibitors?
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Alpha blockers for small prostate, 5 a red. Inhibt for large prostate (because efficacy of 5-a's is correlated w/ size)
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Presentation for any prostatic inflammation
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"HI FUN" - Hesitancy, incontinence/intermittency/incomplete, frequency, urgency, nocturia
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How are bone scans relevant to prostatic cancer
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Rapid bone turnover is indicative of prostatic metastases
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Which a-adrenergic receptors are found in the prostate, bladder, respectively
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alpha 1a in prostate, alpha 1d in bladder.
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Which two a-blockers principally block a1a's
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Tamsulosin, Alfuzosin
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finasteride
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5-a reductase inhibitor.
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How does TUNA work
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Heat ablation using a needles
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How does TUMT work?
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Microwave ablation
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180
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180
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LDH as a testicular tumor marker
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Nonspecific. Indicates tumor burden
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AFP as a testicular tumor marker
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Indicates yolk sac tumor
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HCG as a testicular tumor marker
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Chorocarcinoma or syncytiotrophoblastic tumor.
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Treatment of seminoma
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Small - Radiation - even after successful removal (10-15% have micro metastases). Large - PEB chemo.
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Treatemnet of Non-sominoma
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Chemo
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Whats the common genetic abnormality in testicular germ cell tumors
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i12 (cdkA)
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What are the 4 types of nonseminoma?
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Embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma
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Which type on sonseminomatous GCT is the worst?
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Embryonal carcinoma
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What are the two types of nongerm cell tumors in the testes?
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Sertoli and Leydig.
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Rheinke crystals
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Indicative of leydig cell carcinoma
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181
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181
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Which types of cysts transilluminate?
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Epididymal, spermatocele (Varicocele do not)
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Which type of hernia can present as a scrotal mass?
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Indirect
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4 predisposing factors for testicular torsion
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Mobile, anomalous suspension, abnormal anatomy, undescended testes.
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How do you test for torsion
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Doppler ultrasound
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Microlithiasis
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Visible on ultrasound. If infertile also, increases cancer risk
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2 reasons testicular cancer surgery is done via inguinal region
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1. Have to get whole spermatic cord. 2. Not to open up 2 sets of lymphatics.
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Where are the normal sites of testicular cancer lymphatic involvement?
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Landing zone - between renal and iliac arteries
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Which type of HPV is common in penile cancer
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HPV16
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What is required in evaluation of penile cancer
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Bilateral inguinal node dissection.
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