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192 Cards in this Set

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What is the largest family of medically important gram - rods?
enteric bacteria
Enteric bacteria - how do they survive?
faculative anaerobes that ferment glucose
Enteric bacteria - catalase and oxidase?
Catalase positive

Oxidase negative
What are the most significant pathogenic genera in enterobacteriaceae?
Escherichia

Klebsiella

Proteus

Salmonella

Shigella

Yersinia
Describe the virulence of enteric bacteria.
Endotoxin: lipid A protion of LPS in wall

Capsule: protects against phagocytosis

Type II secretion systems: "molecular syringes" that inject virulence factors into target cells

Drug resistance: common among enteric bacteria; usually transferred on plasmids
Epidemiology of E. Coli
abundant in GI tract

Most strains cause disease that ahve spricifc virulence factors (typically coded on plasmids, pathogenicity islands, or lysogenic pahge)

MOST FREQUENT CAUSE OF GRAM NEGATIVE SEPSIS

Cause of >80% of community acquired UTIs and many nosocomial UTIs
How many groups of E.coli cause gastroenteritis?
Five

ETEC
EPEC
EAEC
EHEC
EIEC
What causes travelers diarrhea?
ETEC (enterotocigenic E. Coli)
How is ETEC transmitted?
indirect fecal oral route (through consumption of fecally contaminated food or water)
What are the symptoms of ETEC?
Incubation period: 1-2 days

Watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps common (self limiting within 3 days)

Possible dehydration

nausea and vomiting less common

Non-inflammatory (no inflammatory cells, blood or mucus in stool) and afebrile. -- this points to a toxin and NOT INVASIVE INFECTION
What are the two ETEC toxins?
Heat labile toxin LT-I

Heat Stable toxin Sta
What is heat labile toxin LT-1
toxin of ETEC

A-B exotoxin similar to cholera toxin but less potent

Causes increase in levels of intracellular cAMP, which causes hypersecretion of fluids and diarrhea
What is heat stable toxin Sta?
Toxin of ETEC

Monomeric peptide

causes increases in levels of intraceullar cGMP which causes hypersecretion of fluids and diarrhea.
Symptoms of EHEC?
Incubation period: 3-4 days

Initial symptoms: non-bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain (+vomiting in about 50% of cases)

Within 2 days: bloody diarrhea and severe abdominal pain (hemorrhagic colitis - tissue damage)

Resolution in 4-10 days i nuntreated patients
What is the Shiga-Toxin-Producing E.coli strain?
EHEC aka STEC
What is Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)? what is it caused by?
Caused by EHEC/STEC

Develops 2-14 days after diarrhea starts

Symptoms: acute renal failure, thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic anema

Usually resolves in 4-10 days but has a 3-5% mortality rate with proper treatment including dialysis

Sequelae (permanent after effects): renal impairment, CNS manifestations (encephalopathy), hypertension.
Describe Shiga Toxin.

Acquired?

Mechanism?
(STX-1, STX-2)

Acquired by infection with lysogenic bacteriophage.

A-B exotoxin (1A subunit and 5 B subunits)

B subunits bind to glycolipid that is especially abundant on intestinal villus and renal epi cells

A subunit enters cell and is cleared.

A1 fragment binds to 28S rRNA and blocks protein synthesis (interferes with ribo function.)

Most HUS cases associated with STX-2
What is the most frequent cause of E.coli gastroenteritis cases originating in US?

What is the most common strain?

Transmission?
EHEC/STEC

Strain O157:H7

Mostly by ingestion of food or water contaminated with animal manure

Secondary spread by person-to-person transmission
What does EAEC cause?
Cause of persistent watery diarrhea and dehydration in infants in developing countries and travelers.

Might also be important cause of childhood diarrhea in developed countries.
What is the most frequent extraintestinal E.Coli disease?

How does it manifest?

What are the strains that are most likely cause the most severe infection?
UTIs

Ascending infections (bacteria from colon --> urethrea --> bladder and possibly --> kidney or prostate)

Strains that adhere to uroepi cells more likely to cause kidney prostate infections.
What is cystitis?
most commonly caused by E.Coli

Dysuria, frequency, suprapubic pain

More frequent in women
What is pyelonephritis?
Kidney infection caused by E.coli

symptoms of cystitis and fever and back pain

Can take take 5-7 days to resolve with proper treatment
What is the second most frequent extraintestinal E.coli infection?

Other E.coli infections?
abdominal and pelvic infections

Include: peritonitis, diverticulitis, appendicitis, visceral abscesses (liver, pancreas, or spleen), cholangitis.

Others:
Cellulitis

Musculoskeletal

pneumonia

can infect nearly every organ and anatomic site, depending on circumstances
What are the two leading causes of neonatal meningitis?
E.Coli and Group B streptococci

Rare after first month of life
What gives you bacteremia and sepsis?

Where does it arise from?
E.coli

Often arises from UTI or intestinal perforation

High mortality in compromised patients
What are the general properties of pseudomonas?
Non-fermentative and OXIDASE POSITIVE

Extremely widespread in nature (can live almost anywhere, including hospitals)

It has simple growth requirements and nutritionally versatile

Primarily opportunistic pathogens
P.aeruginosa virulence factors?
Adhesions: flagella, pili, LPS

Capsule: protects against phagocytosis and antibios

Antibio resistance: many strains have resistance or multiple resistance which make them very hard to treat.

LasA and LasB: enzymes that degrade elastin.
What are LasB and LasA?
virulence factors of P.aeruginosa

Damage elastin containing tissues

Cause hemorrhagic lesions (ecthyma gangrenosum) that develop in disseminated infections
What causes ecthyma gangrenosum?

What is it?
P.aeruginosa

Hemorrhagic lesions that develop in disseminated infections
Major disease of P. aeruginosa?
Pulmonary

Asymptomatic colonization leads to necrotizing broncho-pneumonia

Colonization mostly in pts with cystic fibrosis and other chronic lung diseases or neutropenia

Invasive disease in immunocompromised patients
What are some skin and soft tissue infections that P. aeruginosa causes?
Burn wound infections

Folliculitis: from immersion in water

Fingernail infections: immersion in water (nail salon)

Osteocondritis of foot after penetrating injury
Can P. aeruginosa cause UTIs?
Yes, but they are usually nosocomial and associated primarily with indwelling catheters and/or multiple courses of antibios
What kind of infection can P. aeruginosa cause in the eye?

Ear?
Eye: following injury to cornea; corneal ulcers lead to eye-threatening disease

Ear: External otitis (swimmer's ear) or malignant external otitis (invades underlying tissues and affect cranial nerves, bones)
How can you get bacteremia and sepsis from P. aeruginosa?
From infections of lower respiratory tract, urinary tract, or skin/soft tissue infections (especially burn infections)

Occurs most often in patients who are compromised

Sometimes can lead to ecthyma gangrenosum

Relatively high mortality rate
Properties of haemophilus?

What are the most clinically important species?
Small, pleomorphic, gram-negative rods, commonly on mucus membranes of humans.

Very weird growth requirements

Most important:
H. Influenzae: superpathogen
H.aegypticus: conjuntivitis
H. ducreyi: STD (chanchroid)
H. parainfluenzae --> bacteremia leading to endocarditis
What are the two distinct types of H. influenzae?

What are the virulence factors?
Nonencapsulated H. Influenzae - low virulence

Type B (encapsulated) - high virulence

Adhesions: pili and other surface proteins (colonization of oropharynx)

LPS and glycopeptide in cell wall: damage epithelium, facilitate movement --> epi and endo cells and entry into bloodstream (mostly type b)

Polyribitol phosphate (PRP) capsule (type b only): prevents phagocytosis
What are some diseases that H. Influenzae type B can cause:
Meningitis (pediatric, but there is a vaccine now)

Epiglottitis (celulitis and swelling)

Cellulitis - reddish blue patches on periorbital area of cheeks (vaccine)

Arthritis; infection of single large joint secondary to bacterima (mostly pediatric before vaccine)
What are some diseases that nonencapsulated H. influenzae causes?
Sinusitis and otitis media: acute and chronic forms most often caused by H. influenzae or S. penumoniae

Lower respiratory disease: in pts with chronic pulmonary disease
What are some opportunistic gram negative rod diseases?
Respiratory infections

Periodontal disease

Bran abscesses

Intraabdominal infections

Gynecologic infections

Skin and soft tissue infections

Bacteremia

Gastroenteritis
Properties of the Human herpes viruse?
Large, enveloped viruses with DOUBLE STRANDED DNA genomes and icosadeltahedral capsids

Infections very common

Usually cause benign diseases, but some infections --> significant morbidity and mortality, especially in imunocompromised patients

8 types (HHV1-HHV8)
Describe the pathogenesis of HSV-1 and HSV-2.
1. Infections --> mucuous membranes or breaks in skin
HSV 1 - usually infects above waist
HSV 2 - usually infects below waist

2. Replication (lytic infection) in mucoepi cells
-Cell death from degradation of host cell DNA, inhibition of host cell macromolecular synthesis
- Viral damage to tissues and inflammatory and cell mediated responses --> vesicular lesions and other symptoms
-Lesions usually heal without scarring

3. Establishment of latent infection in neurons
- infects neuron innervating initial site of active infection and travels to trigeminal ganglia (oral herpes) or sacra gangia (genital)
- in neruons, one small region of viral genome transcribed, generates LATENCY ASSOCIATED TRANSCRIPTS (not transcribed into proteins and viral replication cycle does not proceed)
- no detectable cell/damage from latent infection

4. Reactivation of infection --> recurreances
- stimuli that may activate virus: stress, trauma, exposure to sunlight
- virus replicates in single nerve and travels down nerve to mucoepi surface
- active replication (lytic infection) in mucoepi cells --> recurrence of lesions
Host responses of HSV1 and HSV2.
Innate responses (interferon, NK cells) can limit progression of initial infection

T helper associated and CD8 killer T cells responses REQUIRED to kill infected host cells and RESOLVE active infection

Antibody responses neutralize extracellular viruses (limiting spread) but cannot RESOLVE active infection

Combined defenses cannot resolve latent infections
How are HSV-1 and HSV2 transmitted?

How is infection site determined?
vesicle fluid, saliva, vaginal secretiosn, primarily during close contact ("mixing and matching of mucous membranes"

Infection site determined by which membranes mix (both types cause oral and genital lesions)
HSV1 and HSV2 lesions
Typically progress from clear vesicles on reddened base --> pustular lesions --> umbilicated (depressed) ulcers --> crusted lesions
What is gingivostomatitis? What is it caused by?
Massive outbreak of cold sores in mouth area

Primarily in young kids or immunocompromised pts

Caused by HSV1 or 2
What is herpetic Whitlow?
INfection of fingers (virus --> break in skin)

Occurs in nurses/physicians attending patients with HSV infections, thumb sucking children, and persons with genital herpes
What is herpes gladitorum?
herpes infection of the body
What is eczema herpaticum?
Occurs in children with active eczema - opens skin up for herpes infection

relatively rare in adults

underlying disease promotes spread of viral infection
Herpetic keratitis?
typically limited to one eye

Recurrances leads to corneal scarring and damage and possible blindness

May be transferred to eye on fingertips from oral or genital infection
What is herpes encephalitis? WHat strain is it associated with?
HSV1

Limited to one termproal lobe

Destruction of temporal lobe --> RBCs in CSF, seizures and focal neurologic abnormalities

Most frequent form of viral sporadic encephalitis (no vector like insect)

Significant morbidity and mortality
What is herpes meningitis? What strain is it associated with?
HSV 2

Usually a complication of HSV2 genital infection

Self, resolving with minimal mortality
What is neonatal herpes?
Infection occurs in utero, during birth (most often) or postnatally (from family or hospital personnel)

HSV2 --> liver lungs, CNS

Infection of CNS --> death, neuro disabilities, or mental retardation
General properties of adenoviruses
Nonenveloped viruses with icosadeltahedral capsids

linear DOUBLE STRANDED DNA
What are adenoviruses capable of causing (generally)?
Lytic infections (mucoepi cells)

Latent Infections (lymphoid, adenoid cells)

Transforming infections (in hamsters, not humans)
Pathogenesis of adenoviruses
Initial infection of eye, upper respiratory, or GI epi cells (site of infection determines what kind of infection)

Possible viremia and spread to visceral organs and/or skin

Laten infection of lymphoid and other tissues (adenoids, tonsils, Peyer's patches)

Latent infections sometimes reactivate in immunocompromised patients)
How do the adenoviruses differ from herpes in structure?
Adeno is nonenveloped and therefore more hardy
Transmission of adenoviruses?
aerosols, fingers, fomites, decal-oral route

No animal reservoirs

Many asymptomatic infections
What are some adenovirus respiratory diseases?
1. Pharyngitis
2. Pharyngoconjunctival fever
3. acute respiratory disease
4. other respiratory diseases (colds)
Adenovirus in the eye causes?
Conjunctivitis with some hemorrhaging.
What are the viruses in the Picornavirus family?
Hepatoviruses (hep A)

Rhinoviruses

Enteroviruses that include:
- Poli
Coxsackie A
Coxsackie B
Echoviruses
Basic properties of the enteroviruses
Nonenveloped viruses with icosahedral capsids and very small positive sense SINGLE STRAND RNA genome

Capsids highly resistant to harsh environment conditions and toxic substances in human GI tract.

Transmitted via decal-oral route, but rarely cause GI diseases

Most infections mild or asymptomatic
Pathogenesis of enteroviruses
Portals of entry: upper respiratory tract, oropharynx, and intestinal tract

Initial infection in mucosa, lymphoid tissues of tonsils and pharynx.

Later infection of lymphoid cells and Peyer pateches underlying intestinal mucosa

Viremia: virus --> reticuloendo cells of lymph nodes, spleen, liver --> secondary amiplifcation

Secondary viremia: virus --> ultimate target tissue --> symptoms
How are enteroviruses spread?
Human pathogens

Fecal oral route

Asymptomatic shedding of viruses in feces for up to 30 days puts viruses in enviro

Coxsackie and echoviruses also spread by respiratory droplets
Coxsackievirus/Echovirus Diseases
Mild upper respiratory and flu like diseases - MOST FREQUENT

Pleurodynia (Bornholm disease, "devils grip")

Herpangina

Hand-foot-and-mouth disease

Myocarditis and pericarditis

Viral meningitis

Fever, rashes, common colds
What is Pleurodynia (Bornholm disease)? What is it caused by?
Caused by Coxsackie B

Sudden onset of fever and excruciating low thoracic, pleuritic chest pain

Muscles on affected side extremely tender

Possible vomiting and abdominal pain

Resolves after about 4 days (but may relapse)
What is herpangina? What is it caused by?
Caused by Coxsackie A (not related to herpesviruses)

Fever, sore throat, pain on swallowing, anorexia, vomiting

Ulcerated lesions around soft palate and uvula

Self limiting
What is hand-foot-mouth disease? What is caused by?
Caused by coxsackievirus A16

Vesicular lesions on hands, feet, mouth, and tongue

Self resolves
What is bordetella?
A small strictly aerobic, gram negative coccobacilli

Four species that infect humans:
- B. pertussis (whooping cough - pertussis)
- B parapertussis: mild pertussis
- B. bronchiseptica: respiratory infections (rare)
- B. holmesii: sepsis (rare)
Virulence and pathogenesis of B. pertussis?
Adhesions: facilitate attachment in respiratory tract

Pertussis toxin: increased production of mucus and respiratory secretions

Tracheal cytotoxin: damages/kills ciliated cells
- disrupts clearance mechanism in upper respiratory tract
- with excess mucus production as a result of the infection leads to characteristic pertussis paroxysmal cough
Epidemiology of B. pertussis
Transmission via respiratory droplets

No animal reservoirs
What causes whooping cough?
B. pertussis
What are the characteristics of whooping cough? (incubation stage, catarrhal stage, paroxysmal stage)
Incubation: 7-10 days (asympto)

Catarrhal stage: 1-2 weeks (cold like symptoms with very high risk of transmission)

Paroxysmal stage: 2-4 weeks. Series of repetitive coughs usually followed by characteristic "whoop" sound on inspiration. This results as airway constriction from mucus accumulation. Paroxysms (up tp 50/day) often lead to vomiting, exhaustion.
What is the last stage of whooping cough?
Convalescent stage: 3-4 weeks

Paroxyms diminish in frequency and severity

Secondary complications possible (viral infections)
What is corynebacterium?
Aerobic or facultative, gram +, coryneform (irregular, club shaped) rods

Normal colonizers of skin and mucous membranes (several opportunistic species)
What is the most important human pathogen species of corynebacterium?
C. diphtheriae
What is virulence factor of C. diphtheriae?
diphtheria toxin

produced at the sight of infection and goes to bloodstream (produces systemic effects of diphtheria)
What is the diphtheria toxin coded for by?
tox gene from lysogenic phage (b-phage)

Classic A-B exotoxin
Describe the structure of the diphtheria toxin
B subunit binds to heparin-binding epidermal growth factor (on many types of Euk cells, especially in HEART AND NERVE cells)

A subunit inactivates elongation factor 2 required for movement of growing peptide chain on ribosome.

Net effect of toxin: stops protein synthesis which leads to death of target cell.
Epidemiology of C. diphtheriae
Occurs worldwide

Human pathogen with no known animal reservoirs

maintained by asymptomatic carriage in oropharynx and/or on skin of immunocompromised individuals

Transmission: respiratory droplets

Virtually eliminated in US
Describe Respiratory Diphtheria
Incubation period: 2-4 days

Sudden onset of malaise, low grade fever, exudative pharyngitis, sore throat
- bacteria grows on epitheial surfaces in thrat area
- exotoxin --. localized cell/tissue damage

Development of thick PSEUDOMEMBRANE
- dirty grey, leathery looking layer of material covering tonsils, uvula, palate
- adheres firmly to underlying tissues
- membrane eventually dislodges on its own (expectorated)
What is a unique symptom of respiratory diphtheria?
- dirty, gray, leathery looking layer of material covering tonsils, uvula, palate
What can severe cases of respiratory diphtheria lead to?
Systemic symptoms (from toxin)

Myocarditis which can lead to CHF, arrhythmias, death

Neuropathy: initially in soft palate and pharynx, but later --> oculomotor and ciliary paralysis --> peripheral neuritis
What are the "typical" community acquired pneumonias?
Strep pneumoniae (most likely)

Haemophilus influenzae

Morazella catarrhalis

Oral anaerobes (porphyromonas, prevotella)
What are the "atypical community acquired pneumonias?
legionella pneumophila

mycoplasma penumoniae

chlamydophila pneumoniae
What are the hospital acquired (nosocomial) pneumonias?
Gram negative rods: most likely (enteric bacteria and P. aeruginosa)

Staph aureus

Oral anaerobes
What is legionella?
Slender, pleomorphic, GRAM NEGATIVE ROD

Do not stain with usual reagents in clinical specimens
What is the most important Legionella pathogen?
L. pneumophila
What is the pathogenesis of L. pneumophila?
facultattive intraceullar parasite; replicates in alveolar macrophages, monocytes and alveolar epi cells

Bacteria ingested, but prevents phagolysosome fusion, replicates and eventually kills cell

Infected macros release cytokines --> strong inflammatory response.
What is the epidemiology of L. pneumophila?
Common habitats: lakes and streams, air conditioning cooling towers and condensers, water systems (shower heads, hot tubs)

Humans infected from environment via inhalation of contaminated aerosols -- NOT TRANSMITTED PERSON TO PERSON

25% of US cases nosocomial (high-risk population)
What is Legionnaries Disease caused by? Discuss the progression.
L. pneumophila

Incubation period: 2-10 days

Abrupt onset of fever, chills, headache, and fatigue --> dry, only slightly productive cough and chest pain

Primary manifestation: pneumonia often leading to multilobar consolidation (visible in x-rays)

GI symptoms: abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

Mortality: 15-75% depending on pt status
What is mycoplasma? What are the important human pathogens?
very small pleomorphic bacteria that LACK CELL WALLS

Cell membranes contain steroids

Important human pathogens:
M. Pneumoniae - primary atypical pneumonia

M. genitalium - nongonococcal urethreitis (NGU), PID

M. hominis - UTIs, postpartum fever
Epidemiology of M. pneumoniae?
it is a mycoplasma

respiratory disease cocurs world wide and year long

Most frequent in school kids

Transmission: respiratory droplets, especially among classmates, family members

Many infections asymptomatic
What causes tracheobronchitis?
mycoplasma pneumoniae

Most common symptomatic presentation

Incubation period: 2-3 weeks (relatively long)

Mild fever, malaise, headache, non-productive cough (pharyngitis in some cases)

Symptoms worsen and persist for 2 weeks or longer (can be very persistent)
What is primary atypical pneumonia caused by?
M. penumoniae
What is primary atypical pneumonia? What are some possible complications
"Walking pneumonia"

Patchy brochopneumonia

Chest radiographs typically appear more impressive than would be expected from ausculatation of chest

Possible complications:
Neurologic abnormalities
Pericarditis
Hemolytic anemia
arthritis
mucocutaneous lesions
What is chlamydiaceae?
very small, GRAM NEGATIVE, pleomorphic bacteria

Cell walls lack peptidoglycan layer

obligate intracellular parasite

Two distinct cell forms:
- Elementary body (EB): metabolically INACTIVE, infectious form (resistant to harsh environment factors)
- Reticulate body (RB): metabolically ACTIVE, noninfectious form. (fragile, cant survive outside host cell)
What is a unique structural element of clamydiaceae?
lack peptidoglycan layer in cell walls
What kind of organism is chlamydiaceae?
obligate intracellular parasite
What are the human pathogens of chlamydiaceae?
Chlamydia trachomatis: NGU, trachoma, inclusion conjunctivities, lymphogranuloma venereum

Chlamydophila pneumonia: respiratory diseases

Chlamydophila psittaci: psittacosis (orinthosis)
Epidemiology of C. pneumoniae?
Chlamydiaceae

Human pathogen with no known animal reservoirs

Peack incidence of initial infections in early adulthood

Transmission: probably person to person
What are some diseases that are caused by chlamydiaceae pneumoniae?
Acute respiratory infections: pharyngitis, sinusitis, bronchitis

Atypical pneumonia: similar to mycoplasma pneumonia
- fever, non productive cough, mold to moderate illness
- can be very severe in elderly patients however

MAY be involved with atherosclerosis
Epidemilogy of C. psittaci
Chlamydiaceae

Cause of orinthosis

Common pathogen of birds

Present in blood and tissues, feathers, feces of infected birds

Humans and animals infected by inhalation of contaminated aerosols
What is orinthosis? What is it caused by?
Disease caused by c.psittaci

Also caused by psittacosis

Incubation period: 6-14 days

Very high fever, severe chills

Dry hacking cough, cervical adenopathy, mild sore throat, pharyngitis

Some pts have GI symptoms

Serious: can lead to CNS involvement --> encephalitis, convulsions, coma, death in untreated cases
What is epidemiology?
formal study of mechanisms/factors involved in appearance/spread of infectious diseases within human population
What is meant by etiology?
cause/origin of infectious disease
What is meant by transmission?
how a disease is spread
What is meant by reservoirs of infection?
any living or nonliving materials in or on which some infectious agent is able to survive, multiply, and develop (and that, as a result, can be a source of disease caused by that agent)
You check for a pulse and there is none. AED is beside the patient. What is the next step.
connect the AED and analyze.
What is meant by recovery period?
period near end of disease cycle;
what is meant by a carrier?
healthy individuals that can transmit disease to others
What is a passive carrier?
Release pathogens without ever having any signs or symptoms of disease

Pathogen part of normal floa; host immune to it
What is an active carrier?
release pathogens for a long period of time after fully recovering from infectious disease

Individual no longer infected

Pathogen becomes part of normal flora; host gained immunity during disease
What is zoonoses?
diseases that can be transmitted between animals and humans
What are non-living things primary reservoirs for?
non-communicable diseases (diseases that are most often acquired directly from environment)
Name some non-living reservoirs of infection?
Soil
Water
Foods
How do most pathogens exit humans?
secretions
What is vertical direct contact transmission?
transmission from parents to offspring
What is horizontal direct contact transmission?
most often occurs by kissing, handshaking, contact with sores/wounds, sexual contact.

also occurs as result of poor hygenic practices (direct fecal-oral transmission)
What is fomite transmission?
any inanimate object on which pathogen can survive -- considered indirect contact transmission
What are some modes of indirect contact transmission?
Fomites

Droplet
What are droplet nuclei?
droplets that settle dry into droplet nuclei and can be re-suspended in air as dust and inhaled.
What are some ways of transmission by vehicles?
airborne

foodborne

waterborne
what is a vector?
living organisms that transmit disease from one host to another
What is a mechanical vector?
passively transmit pathogens on feet or body; not infected
What is a biological vector?
actively transmit pathogens that spend part of life cycle in vector; vector infected by pathogen
What are three medically important groups of gram positive cocci?
Aerobic, catalase positive: staph

Aerobic, catalase negative: strep, entero

Strictly anaerobic: petostrep
Describe staph (gram, shape, metabolism, catalase)
Gram positive

Cocci

Aerobic

Catalase positive
Describe Strep (gram, shape, metabolism, catalase)
gram positive

cocci

aerobic

catalase negative
Describe enterococcus (gram, shape, metabolism, catalase)
gram positive

cocci

aerobic

catalase negative
Describe peptostreptococcus? (gram, shape, metabolism)
gram positive

cocci

strictly anaerobic
Is staph aureus coagulase positive or negative?
positive

ONLY COAGULASE POSITIVE species to infect humans
Is Staph epidermidis coagulase positive or negative?
negative
Is staph saprophyticus coagulase positive or negative?
negative
What are S. aureus's virulence factors associated with cell components?
capsule/slime layer: inhibits phagocytosis and allows adherence to foreign surfaces

Petidoglycan: stimulates production of pyrogens. Mild endotoxin like activity which leads to cytokine production, activates complement. Also promotes abscess formation

Adhesins: teichoic acids and adhesin proteins facilitate binding to molecules on host tissues. MSCRAMM

Protein A: binds to Fc receptor of IgG 1, 2, and 4. Prevents antibody mediated clearance of bacteria from site of infection.
What is MSCRAMM? what bacteria is it associated with?
microbial surface components recognizing adhesive matrix molecules

S. aureus
What are S. aureus's virulence factors associated with cytotoxins?
Alpha toxin

Beta toxin (spingomyelinase C)

Gamma Toxin

Panton-Valentine (P-V) leukicidin

Delta toxin

---These lead to membrane damage and lysis/cell death
What are S. aureus's virulence factors associated with exfoliative toxins (ETA, ETB)?
Serine proteases that cleave desmoglein 1

Disrupt intercellular bridges in stratum granulosum epidermis (destabilizes dermis)

Cause large areas of skin to peel off

Cause symptoms of staphylococcal skin syndrome
What aspect of S. aureus's virulence causes SSSS (Ritter's syndrome)?
Exfoliative toxins (EFA, EFB)
What causes SSSS (Ritter's Syndrome)?
S. aureus
What are S. aureus's virulence factors associated with enterotoxins?
heat stable and resistant to hydrolysis by GI tract enzymes

mild superantigens: nonspecific stimulation of T cells which cause release of cytokines

Diarrhea, vomiting, and nausea

Associated with staph food poisoning
What are S. aureus's virulence factors associated with toxic shock syndrom toxin?
(TSST-1)

Strong superantigen (cytokine storm)

Leakage or killing of endo cells (depending on concentration) leads to loss of fluid from circulatory system

Penetrates mucosal barriers (migrates from site of infection and produces systemic effects)

Can result in death from hypovolemic shock which can lead to multiorgan failure
What are S. aureus's virulence factors associated with enzymes?
Coagulase: clumping factor which converts fibrinogen to fibrin

Hyaluronidase: spreading factor which hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid between tissue cells and facilitates the spread of bacteria through tissues.

Lipases: hydrolyze lipids which allows survival of pathogen in sebaceous areas and promotes skin infections.
What is a coagulase and what pathogen is it a virulence factor for?
clumping factor which converts fibrinogen to fibrin

probably plays a role in abscess formation.

S. aureus
What is a hyaluronidase and what pathogen is it a virulence factor for?
spreading factor which hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid between tissue cells and facilitates the spread of bacteria through tissues.

S. Aureus
What are the general factors of virulence for S. aureus?
Cell components

Cytotoxins

Exfoliative toxins

Enterotoxins

Toxic shock syndrome toxin

Enzymes
Where does S. aureus colonize?
oropharynx, nasopharynx, GI tracts, and genitourinary tract

transient colonizer of skin
Symptoms of which S. aureus diseases almost solely result from toxin activity?
Staph scalded skin syndrome

Staph food poisoning

toxic shock syndrome
What is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (Ritter's)? What is it caused by?
abrupt onset of perioral erythema that spreads over entire body within 2 days

Bullae (large blisters) form, with clear fluid (typical of toxin related disease)

Desquamation of epithelium

Slight pressure displaces skin (Nikolsky's sign)

Most cases related to exfoliative toxin ETB

Resolution: 7-10 days with no scarring and occurs most often in neonates and young children

may lead to serious secondary bacterial infections

caused by S. aureus
What is bullous impetigo? what is it caused by?
Caused by S. aureus

Localized form of SSS, typically arising from S. aureus skin infection

Most cases associated with exfoliative toxin ETA

Localized bullae that DO contain bacteria

No positive Nikolsky's sign

Highly communicable
Which disease is associated with ETA? Which bacteria?
S. Aureus

Bullous impetigo
Which disease is associated with ETB? Which bacteria?
S. aureus

SSSS
How is food contaminated in Staph food poisoning?
by humans - sneezing, contaminated fingers

Food must remain at room temp or higher for bacteria to grow and produce toxin

not destroyed by cooking
What is toxic shock syndrome? What is it caused by?
Caused by S. aureus' toxin shock toxin

Growth of bacterium in vagina or wound leads to release of toxin into bloodstream

Early symptoms: fever, hypotension, diffuse macular erythematous rash

Later symptoms: vomiting, diarrhea, ab pain and myalgias. Skin desquamates during convalescence
What is non-bullous impetigo? What is it caused by?
caused by S. aureus

Superficial infection, usually on face and/or limbs

Occurs most often in young children

Pustular lesions that create thick, honey-colored crusts

CAN ALSO BE CAUSED BY STREP PYOGENS
What are some minor skin issues that S. aureus can cause?
Folliculitis

Stye

Furuncle (boil): extension of folliculitis

Carbuncle (large boil)
What mediates the resistance of MRSA to pens?
mecA gene

One staph cassette chrom SCCmec

Codes for modified PBP that is not bound by pens but retains normal activity
Where do streptococcus bacterium grow best?
blood or serum enriched media
What are the serologic differentiations of streptococcus based on?
Lancefiled groups A--> W are based on cell wall antigens (carbs)

Some species lack antigens that cant be grouped
What are the three classificiations of streptococcus on blood agar?
Hemolytic patterns

Alpha: partial hemolysis (green)
Beta: complete (clear)
gamma: none
What are the basic characterisitcs of S. pyogenes?
Streptococcus!

Strongly b-hemolytic cocci

Lancefield GROUP A

M protein:major type specific protein
What is M protein? what pathogen is it associated with?
Strep pyogene

Major type specific protein

Two polypeptide chains complexed in alpha-helix

anchored in membrane and extends through cell wall

portion inside cell wall highly conserved

2 classes:
- class 1: shared exposed antigens
- class 2: lack shared exposed antigens

binds to beta globulin factor H, which degrades complement component C3b when it binds to cell near M protein. Binds fibrinogen and blocks activation of complement by alternative pathway.
What are the virulence factors of S.pyogene associated with mechanisms for avoiding opsonization and phagocytosis?
Hyaluronic acid capsule: interferes with phago

M protein: binds to beta globulin factor H, which degrades complement component C3b when it binds to cell near M protein. Binds fibrinogen and blocks activation of complement by alternative pathway.

C5a peptidase: inactivates complement componenet C5a which is a chemoattractant of neutrophils and mononuclear phagos. Inhibits abscess formation in early stages of infection.
S. pyogene virulence factors associated with adherence to and invasion of host cells.
Strepto!!!

Adherence:
- initial weak interaction bw lipoteichoic acid and fatty acid binding sites on fibronection and epi cells
- M protein, F protein nad other adhesins interact with host cells to complete adherence process

Invasion:
- M protein and F protein stimulate cells to internalize bacteria
- important for maintaining persistent infections and invasion into deep tissues
S. pyogene virulence factors associated with pyrogenic exotoxins?
SpeA, B, C, F

Superantigens: stimulate macros and T-helpers to secrete proinflammatory cytokines

Considered responsible for manifestations of severe streptp diseases and for scarlet fever
S. pyogene virulence factors associated with enzymes
Streptolysins S and O: lyse leuckocytes, erythrocytes, and platelets (streptolysin S --> Beta hemolysis.

Streptokinases A and B: degrade blood clots and fibrin deposits (facilitates spread of bacteria in infected tissues.

DNAases A, B, C, and D: depolymerize free DNA in pus (reduces viscosity and facilitates spread of bacteria)
What do streptolysins S and O do? What pathogen are they associated with?
Streptococcus pyogene

lyse leuckocytes, erythrocytes, and platelets (streptolysin S --> Beta hemolysis.
What do streptokinases A and B do? What pathogen are they associated with?
Strep. pyogene

degrade blood clots and fibrin deposits (facilitates spread of bacteria in infected tissues.
DNAases A, B, C, and D. What pathogen?
Strep pyogenes

depolymerize free DNA in pus (reduces ciscosity and facilitates spread of bacteria)
What are the general virulence factors of S. pygoenes?
Mechanisms for avoiding opsonization and phagocytosis

Adherence and invasion of host cells

Enzymes

pyrogenic exotoxins
What is streptococcal pharyngitis? What is it caused by?
Strep pyogenes

Strep throat

Sudden sore throat, fever, malaise, headache

Posterior pharynx typically erythematous, often with exudate on tonsils

Cervical lymphadenopathy may be prominent

mild cases very similar to viral pharyngitis; must use diagnostic test to confirm strep throat
What are the diagnostic tests for streptococcal pharyngitis?
Rapid streptococcal antigen test (throat swab): tests for Lancefield group A antigen

Confirm negative results by culturing throat swab
What is scarlet fever? What is it caused by?
Strep pygenes

Caused by strains carrying lysogenic phage (mediates production of pyrogenic toxin)

Diffuse erythematous rash

Complication of strep throat
What disease is strawberry tongue associated with?
Scarlet fever caused by strep pyogenes
What is rheumatic fever and what is it caused by?
Strep pyogenes

Triggered by specific types of Class 1 M proteins that provoke unusually vigorous antibody response.

Heart manifestations: pancarditis, possible chronic, progressive damage to heart valves

Inflammatory reactions in joints
Why can rheumatic fever affect the heart?
antibodies to M protein of S pyogenes cross react with heart tissue
What disease can both S. aureus and S pyogene cause?
non-bullous impetigo

Strep: pyoderma
Staph: non bullous impetigo
What is erysipelas?
S. pyogenes

acute skin infection

localized pain, inflammation, lymphadenopathy

systemic signs

involved skin areas often raised and clearly differentiated
What is cellulitis?
infection of skin and underlying tissues
What is necrotizing faciitis?
Strepotococcal gangrene caused by S. pyogenes

Infection of deep subQ tissue that spreads along fascial planes

Extensive destriction of muscle and fat

Minor cut or trauma --> cellulitis, bullae, gangrene --> toxicity, multiorgan failure --> death

Prompt, aggressive surgical debridement of infected tissue necessary to save patient
What is the difference between staph toxic shock and strep toxic shock?
Most pts with strep also have necrotizing fasciitis
What is acute clomerulonephritis
acute inflammation of renal glomeruli with edema, hypertension, hematuria, proteinuria

caused by specific nephrogenic strains of S. pyogenes
Basic properties of S. pneumoniae
Cocci in PAIRS (Diplococci) or short chains

alpha-hemolytic on blood agar --> GREEN COLOR

No lancefield group

Capsule polysaccarides used for serologic grouping of strains
S. pneumoniae virulence factors
colonizes oropharynx; then amy go to lung, middle ear, or paranasal sinuses

Surface adhesin proteins: mediate initial binding to epi cells in oropharynx

Virulence factors that can defeat major mechanism that defends sensitive parts of respiratory system (flow of mucus away from sensitive areas)
- secretory IgA protease: degrades secretory IGA and prevents binding of bacteria to mucin
- Pneumolysin: lyses ciliated epi cells
- facilitate migration to lungs, sinuses and middle ear

Teichoic acid and petidogylcan fragments: activate alternative complement pathway

Avoiding phagocytosis: capsule, pneumolysin, phosphocholine in cell wall
How is most damage done by S. pneumoniae?
host responses rather than by toxins

Teichoic acid and petidoglycan fragments

pneumolysin
What is pneumolysin? What pathogen is it associated with?
S. pneumoniae

activates classic complement pathway

Production of C3a and C5a --> inflammatory processes

cytokines (IL-1, TNF-alpha) produced, stimulate additional inflammatory cells to migrate to site of infection

Inflammatory response leads to fever and tissue damage

also kills some types of phagocytic cells
What is phosphocholine? Pathogen?
S. pneumoniae

Binds to receptors leukocytes, platelets, endo cells and tissue cells in lungs and meninges

allows bacteria to enter cells (protected from phagocytosis and invade bloodstream or CNS
What is pneumococcal pneumonia? Pathogen?
S. pneumoniae

Bacteria grows rapidly in alveolar spaces which causes:
- accumulation of erythrocytes, neutrophils, and alveolar macros
- consolidation of alveolar spaces

often in lower lobes

fever, chest pain, blood tinged sputum

Resolution requires production of antibodies against capsule polysaccharides
Other than pneumonia, what other diseases are associated with S. pneumoniae?
Sinusitis and otitis media: often follows viral infection of URT

Bacteremia

Meningitis
What is the most frequent cause of meningitis in adults over age 20?
S. pneumoniae
What is the most important anaerobic gram positive cocci?
peptostreptococcus
What is the largest family of medically important gram negative rods?
enteric bacteria

faculative anaerobes that ferment glucose

Catalase-positive and virtually all oxidase negative
Virulence factors for enterobacteriaceae
Endotoxin: lipid A potion LPS in wall

Capsule: protects against phagocytosis

Type 3 secretion systems: molecular syringes that inject virulence factors into target cells

Drug resistance: common among enteric bacteria; usually transferred on plasmids