Ucf Human Physiology Test 1 Summerb

Front 1

Head of a phospholipid is

Back 1

lipophobic = hydrophilic

Front 2

Tail of a phospholipid is

Back 2

hydrophobic = lipophilic

Front 3

Function of glycocalyx?

Back 3

short chain of carbohydrates that functions in cell-to-cell binding and
recognition.

Front 4

Proteins extending from the vesicle membrane _______, bind with plasma membrane proteins, the ______ (t for target), this causes the lipid layers of the vesicle and cell membrane to join together.

Back 4

Proteins extending from the vesicle membrane vSNAREs, bind with plasma membrane proteins, the tSNAREs (t for target), this causes the lipid layers of the vesicle and cell membrane to join together.

Front 5

In endocytosis, _________, found on the cytoplasmic side of the infolding is responsible for deforming the membrane.

Back 5

Clathrin protein

Front 6

In phagocytosis, parts of plasma membrane form _______ and flow around large molecules such as bacteria or cellular debris and engulf it.
By this way, a membranous vesicle, called a ______ is formed.

Back 6

-pseudopodes/pseudopodia

-phagosome

Front 7

main function of cells lining the small intestine, absorption
of the nutrients

Back 7

pinocytosis

Front 8

Free ribosomes make the protein used ________.
Ribosomes attached on the surface of rER make the proteins used ____________ or ______________.

Back 8

-in the cytosol

-for cell membrane or exported out of the cell

Front 9

__________ is a ribosome-studded system of membrane-walled envelopes in cytosol, called ________.

Back 9

-rough ER

-cisternae

Front 10

___________ produces steroids and lipids; ______ is the precursor to steroids

Back 10

-smooth ER

-Cholesterol

Front 11

___________ is a stack of 3-10 disc-shaped envelopes, or ________, which are bound by membrane

Back 11

-golgi

-cisternae

Front 12

Cisternae have a ______ and a _________ face

Back 12

-cis (convex)

-trans (concave)

Front 13

__________ inner membrane is folded into projections called cristae

Back 13

mitochondria

Front 14

_______ are spherical, membrane-walled sacs containing digestive enzymes called _________

Back 14

-lysosomes

-Acid hydrolases

Front 15

Lysosomes fuse with _________ and empty their enzymes into them.

Back 15

phagosomes

Front 16

___________ a fatal genetic lipid storage disorder in which harmful quantities of a fatty substance called ___________ build up in tissues and nerve cells in the brain.

Back 16

-Tay-Sachs

-ganglioside GM2

Front 17

In Tay-Sachs, __________
accumulate in the cell membrane specially on neurons, resulting in mental retardation, blindness, spastic movements and death within 1.5 years from birth.

Back 17

glycolipids

Front 18

In ________ the lack of the ____________ enzyme causes harmful substances to build up in the liver, spleen, bones, and bone marrow. The substances prevent cells and organs from working properly.

Back 18

-Gaucher's

-glucocerebrosidase

Front 19

Gaucher's type 1

Back 19

involves bone disease, anemia, an enlarged spleen and thrombocytopenia; affects both children and adults.

Front 20

Gaucher's type 2

Back 20

usually begins in infancy with severe neurologic involvement. This form can lead to rapid, early death

Front 21

Gaucher's type 3

Back 21

disease may cause liver, spleen, and brain problems. Patients may live into adulthood.

Front 22

Symptoms of gauchers

Back 22

Bone pain and fractures
Enlarged spleen
Enlarged liver
Lung disease
Seizures

Front 23

_________ are membrane-walled, enzyme-containing sacs and contain oxidase and catalase enzymes.
________ use oxygen to neutralize aggressively reactive substances called free radicals, by converting them to hydrogen peroxide.

Back 23

-peroxisomes

-oxidases

Front 24

___________ are cylindrical structures made of ___________. They radiate out from the centrosome region close to the nucleus. They give the cell its shape and they organize the distribution and transport of various organelles within the cytoplasm

Back 24

-microtubules

-tubulin protein

Front 25

________ are fine filaments of contractile protein called _______; they are labile

Back 25

-microfilaments (actin filaments)

-actin

Front 26

_________ are tough insoluble and stable protein fibers which act to resist tension placed on the cell.

Back 26

intermediate filaments

Front 27

________ is a spherical structure in the
cytoplasm near the nucleus. It consists of an outer cloud of protein called ______ and an inner pair of __________

Back 27

-the centrosome

-matrix and an inner pair of centrioles

Front 28

Matrix protein is involved in?

Back 28

the elongation of microtubules and mitotic spindle of microtubules radiates from it in dividing cells.

Front 29

Impermanent structures in the cytoplasm such as lipid droplets and glycogen containing glycosomes.

Back 29

Cytoplasmic inclusions

Front 30

centrioles?

Back 30

paired perpendicular cylindrical bodies composed of micotubules

Front 31

________ are paired cylindrical bodies perpendicular to one another and each composed of _______ of microtubules

Back 31

-centrioles

-nine triplets

Front 32

______ make spindles

Back 32

asters

Front 33

______ and _____ also contain microtubules

Back 33

cilia and flagellum

Front 34

_____________ has pores and
is continuous with endoplasmic reticulum

Back 34

nuclear envelope

Front 35

dark staining body within the nucleus; contains parts of chromosomes and is
cell’s ribosome producing machine (has
genes that code for rRNA

Back 35

nucleolus

Front 36

_____is the granular thread-like
material in the nucleus composed of DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid)
and histone proteins

Back 36

chromatin

Front 37

chromatin is

Back 37

non dividing

Front 38

DNA helix wraps around clusters of _______ spherical proteins called ______

Back 38

-eight

-histones

Front 39

Each cluster of DNA and histones is called a _________.

Back 39

nucleosome.

Front 40

centrioles begin to replicate in?

they finish in?

Back 40

G1

G2

Front 41

enzymes for cell division are synthesized in?

Back 41

G2

Front 42

In _______microtubule arrays called ________, extending from the centrosome.

Back 42

-prophase

-asters

Front 43

the chromatids are held together by __________ and a protein complex called ________

Back 43

-centromere

-cohesin

Front 44

spindles push the centrioles farther apart. spindles connected to the chromosome are called ______ and others are called ______

Back 44

-kinetochores

-polar spindles

Front 45

_________, an enzyme which cleaves ________, start to separates the chromatids

Back 45

-Separase

-cohesin

Front 46

Is anaphase short or long?

Back 46

short

Front 47

For a short period, the cell has 2 nuclei until it is completely separated by the process of ?

Back 47

CYTOKINESIS

Front 48

synapis? what is it and when?

Back 48

pairing of 46 homologs at arms-end. occurs in Meiosis 1

Front 49

crossing over occrus when?

Back 49

meiosis 1

Front 50

ploidy after meiosis 1?

meiosis 2?

Back 50

-haploid replicated

-haploid unreplicated

Front 51

does synapsis or crossing over occur in meiosis 2?

Back 51

no b/c meiosis 2 is like mitosis

Front 52

Ploidy of the following:

Down syndrome?

Klinefelter?

Turners?

Back 52

Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)

Turner syndrome (XO) is monosomy

Front 53

Diseases like turner's and Klinefelter occur because?

Back 53

because of non-disjunction in meiosis 2

Front 54

Klinefelter genotype and phenotype?

Back 54

genotype is male

phenotype is female

Front 55

Monosomy signs and symptoms?

Back 55

Turner's signs and symptoms:
Webbed neck
Mental retardation
Speech and learning problems
Deafness

Front 56

What can restrict aging according to the mitochodrial theory?

Back 56

-Vitamin C & E

-restriction of caloric intake

Front 57

Genetic theories of aging proposes that aging is programmed into our genes ; aka?

Back 57

senescence

Front 58

apoptotic bodies

Back 58

membrane enclose cell framents after apoptosis

Front 59

common features of apoptotic cells?

Back 59

condensed chromatin, broken up nucleus and membrane

Front 60

Certain ________, such as _________, may also activate _________ that degrade regulatory and structural proteins in the nucleus and cytoplasm, leading to the morphological changes characteristic of apoptosis.

Back 60

-cytokines

-tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

-caspases

Front 61

Too much apoptosis?

Back 61

Alzheimer disease

Front 62

too little?

Back 62

cancer and other autoimmune diesease

Front 63

difference between benign and malignant neoplasm

Back 63

benign is encapsulated and slow growing

malignant isn't encapsulated and grows fast

Front 64

_________ or ________may lead to the formation of oncogenes.

Back 64

Genetic accidents or viruses

Front 65

Notable diseases caused by oncogenes?

Back 65

Bladder cancer and acute myelogenous leukemia are caused by occogenes

Front 66

Muscle is contractile tissue of the body and is derived from the ___________ of embryonic germ cells

Back 66

mesodermal layer

Front 67

Simple epithlelium = ?

Stratified = ?

Back 67

Simple epithlelium = one layer

Stratified = multiple layers

Front 68

There is only a single layer of cells, but the position of the nuclei gives the impression that it is stratified.

Back 68

Pseudostratified with cilia/pseudostratified columnar epithelium

Front 69

Location and Function of simple squamous

Back 69

diffusion

located in alveoli, lining of body cavities, and capliaries

Front 70

Location and Function of simple cuboidal

Back 70

secretion and absorption

glands and ducts, kidney tubules, surface of female ovaries and male testes

Front 71

simple cuboidal epithelium also constitute the ___________ which produces the egg cells in the female ovary and the sperm cells in the male testes.

Back 71

-germinal epithelium

Front 72

Location and Function of simple columnar - non-ciliated

Back 72

secretion

lines most of digestive tract (stomach to rectum)

Front 73

Location and Function of simple columnar - ciliated

Back 73

secretion

lines uterine tubes; bronchioles

Front 74

Location and Function of stratified squamous - non-keratin

Back 74

protection

vagina

Front 75

Location and Function of stratified squamous - keratin

Back 75

protection

epidermis of skin

Front 76

Location and function of stratified cuboidal

Back 76

protection and secretion

large exocrine gland ducts (sweat glands and male urethra)

Front 77

Location and function of stratified columnar

Back 77

protection and secretion

large exocrine gland ducts (salivary glands and male urethra)

Front 78

Location and function of pseudostratified columnar - non-ciliated

Back 78

RARE

male epididymis; male vas deferins

Front 79

Location and function of pseudostratified columnar - ciliated

Back 79

Secretion

Lines upper respiratory tract including nasal cavity, part of pharynx, larynx and bronchi

Front 80

Location and function of transitional epithelium

Back 80

relaxtion and stretching to accommodate urine volume changes

lines urinary bladder, ureters, part of urethra

Front 81

most common form of secretion?

Back 81

merocrine secretion

Front 82

merocrine secretion

Back 82

form membrane-bound secretory vesicles internal to the cell. These are moved to the apical surface where the vesicles coalesce with the membrane on the apical surface to release the product.

Front 83

apocrine secretion

Back 83

apical portions of cells are pinched off and lost during the secretory process.  This results in a secretory product that contains a variety of molecular components including those of the membrane.

Front 84

example of apoceine secretion

Back 84

mammary glands

Front 85

holocrine secretion

Back 85

involves death of the cell.  The secretory cell is released and as it breaks apart, the contents of the cell become the secretory product.  

Front 86

most complex secretory product?

examples?

Back 86

-holocrine

-sweat glands located in the axillae, pubic areas, and around the areoli of the breasts; Sebaceous glands also

Front 87

tight junctions are formed by _______ and ________ proteins

Back 87

claudin and occludin

Front 88

two disc like plaques connected across intracellular space

Back 88

demosomes

Front 89

In a desmosome, ______inserts into plague at cytoplasmic side; the palques are connected across intracelluar junction by ________

Back 89

-keratin

-cadherins

Front 90

________ are passageways between two adjacent cells. They are made up ____ proteins called ______ to make a pore called _____

Back 90

They are made up 6 proteins called connexins to make a pore called connexon

Front 91

Basal lamina + reticular fibers =?

Back 91

basement membrane

Front 92

marfan syndrome

Back 92

is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder of the connective tissue characterized by disproportionately long limbs, long thin fingers, a relatively tall stature, and a predisposition to cardiovascular abnormalities, specifically those affecting the heart valves and aorta

Front 93

Marfan syndrome has been linked to a defect in the gene on ________ which encodes a ______ called ________.

Back 93

-chromosome 15

-glycoprotein

-fibrillin-1

Front 94

__________ syndrome is a group of rare genetic disorders affecting humans and domestic animals caused by a defect in ________ synthesis .

Back 94

-Ehlers-Danlos

-Collagen I and III

Front 95

Most common location of gauchers

Back 95

bone marrow

Front 96

About 20% of the extracellular fluid is contained the _________________, where it comprises the fluid portion of the blood aka _________.

Back 96

-vessels of cardiovascular system

-plasma

Front 97

fluids, as interstitial, or tissue, fluid, within a matrix of glycoproteins and proteoglycans

Back 97

extracellular matrix

Front 98

extracellular matrix consists of the protein fibers ______ and ________

Back 98

-collagen

-elastin

Front 99

Intergrins

Back 99

are a class of glycoproteins that extend from the cytoskeleton within a cell, through its plasma membrane, and into the exracellular matrix. By binding to components within the matrix, they serve as adhesion molecule between cells and the extracellular matrix

Front 100

Does permeability increase with concentration difference?

oil/water partition coefficient?

Back 100

-no it decreses

-yes

Front 101

Example of competition in carrier-mediate transport?

Back 101

galactose is a competitive inhibitor of glucose transport in the small intestine.

Front 102

Insulin binds to target cell receptor -> activates ______, which then _________

Back 102

activates GLUT4 which inserts into the membrane and allows glucose to enter

Front 103

Specific inhibitors of Na+, K+-atpase are ?

Back 103

the cardiac glycoside drugs ouabain and digitals.

Front 104

Ca2+ ATPase in most cells?

Ca2+ ATPase in SR of muscle cells cells?

Back 104

-Pumps calcium to ECF

-pumps calcium to the lumen of the SR or ER

Front 105

H+/K+ ATPase location/function?

Inhibited by?

Back 105

-in gastric parietal cells transports H+ into lumen of the stomach against its electrochemical gradient.

-It is inhibited by omeprazole.

Front 106

examples of cotransport

Back 106

Na+-glucose cotransport in the small intestine and Na+-K+-2Cl- cotransport in the renal thick ascending limb.

Front 107

example of countertransport

Back 107

Na+-Ca2+ exchange

Front 108

colligative property can be measured by freezing point depression

Back 108

Osmolarity

Front 109

The higher the osmotic pressure of a solution ?

Back 109

the greater the water flow into it.

Front 110

oncotic pressure

Back 110

is the osmotic pressure created by proteins (plasma proteins).

Front 111

Reflection coefficient (RC)

Back 111

is a number between zero and one that describes the ease with which a solute permeates a membrane.

Front 112

If the RC is one

Back 112

the solute is *impermeable*. Therefore, it is retained in the original solution, it creates an osmotic pressure, and it causes water flow. Serum albumin (a large solute) has a reflection coefficient of nearly one.

Front 113

If RC is zero

Back 113

the solute is *completely permeable*. Therefore, it will not exert any osmotic effect, and it will not cause water flow. Urea (a small solute) has a reflection coefficient of close to zero and it is, therefore, an ineffective osmole.

Front 114

If the reflection coefficient is one, the solute will exert _______ effective osmotic pressure. If the reflection coefficient is zero, the solute will exert _______ effective osmotic pressure.

Back 114

-maximal

-no

Front 115

genetic defect in CF involves

Back 115

a particular glycoprotein that forms chloride (Cl-) channels in the apical membrane of the epithelial cells. This protein known as CFTR ( for cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator)

Front 116

CF mechanism

Back 116

CTFR gene is mutated or alterated -> CFTR cannot control excess production of chloride -> patient has excess excretion of Cl into lumen of different organs -> sodium follows Cl -> osmotic pressure increases in the lumen and causes reabsorption of fluid and excretion of fluid into lumen -> leads to local inflammation and accumulation of neutrophils and other WBCs and formation of mucus inside the lumen -> causes obstruction of the lumen -> if occurs in the respiratory system the pt will have respiratory disorder -> if it occurs in the lumen of spermaticor the patient will have infertility -> if it occurs in the pancreatic lumen and causes pancreatitis -> if it occurs in the small or large intestine it causes diarrhea

Front 117

_______ and primarily ________ transmit change in osmolarity to CNS

Back 117

Glosopharyngeal nerve (cranial 9)

Vegus nerve (cranial 10)

Front 118

central osmoreceptor is located in the ______. The two nuclei are ____ and _____.

Back 118

-hypothalamus

-supraotic

-paraventricular

Front 119

two hypothalamic nuclei secrete ADH which has receptors on

Back 119

collecting tubule of nephron

Front 120

ADH binds to receptor and causes stimulation of the _______, which reabsorbs water from the urine into the blood stream -> ADH corrects dehydration via reabsorption of fluid and decreases osmotic pressure and dilutes concentrated blood.

Back 120

peritubullar capillary

Front 121

_______ may occur, for example, when a damaged _______ as in ________ is unable to produce sufficient amounts of ________, the major protein in the blood plasma

Back 121

-edema

-liver as in cirrhosis

-albumin

Front 122

Ligand-gated channels

Back 122

open or closed by hormones, second messengers, or neurotransmitters.

Front 123

equilibrium potential of Na

Back 123

+65mV

Front 124

equilibrium potential of Ca

Back 124

+120mV

Front 125

equilibrium potential of K

Back 125

-85mV

Front 126

equilibrium potential of Cl

Back 126

-85mV

Front 127

Inward current is ?.

Inward current ________ the membrane potential.

Back 127

Inward current is the flow of positive charge into the cells. Inward current depolarizes the membrane potential.

Front 128

Outward current ________ the membrane potential.

Back 128

hyperpolarizes

Front 129

Action potentials have

Back 129

stereotypical size and shape, are propagating, and are all-or-none

Front 130

_________ blocks action potentials in nerves by binding to the voltage-gated, fast sodium channels in nerve cell membranes, essentially preventing any affected nerve cells from firing by blocking the channels used in the process.

Back 130

Tetrodotoxin

Front 131

Inhibitory neurotransmitters ________ the postsynaptic membrane; excitatory neurotransmitters _________ the postsynaptic membrane.

Back 131

-hyperpolarize

-depolarize

Front 132

___________ catalyzes the formation of Ach from acetyl coenzyme A (CaA) and choline in the presynaptic terminal.

Back 132

Choline acetyltransferase

Front 133

Ach is stored in synaptic vesicles with _____ and ______ for later release.

Back 133

ATP and proteoglycan

Front 134

One-half of the choline is taken back into the presynaptic ending by ___________ and used to synthesize new Ach

Back 134

Na+-choline cotransport

Front 135

Ach inhibitors- ________ and ________ blocks choline reuptake and depletes the presynaptic endings of Ach stores.

Back 135

neostigmine, and Hemicholinium

Front 136

myasthenia gravis

Back 136

-caused by presence of antibodies to the Ach receptors.-characterized by skeletal muscle weakness and fatigability resulting from a reduced number of Ach receptors on the muscle end plate.
-The size of the EPP is reduced; therefore, it is more difficult to depolarize the muscle membrane to threshold and to produce action potentials.-Treatment : AChE inhibitors (neostigmine)

Front 137

inhibitory neurotransmitters?

Back 137

gama-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and glycine.

Front 138

dopamine produced by basal ganglia of brain (limbec system) controls pleasure feelings. What increases dopamine in this area of the brain?

Back 138

– cocaine increases dopamine in this part of the brain

Front 139

dopamine produced by hypothalamus has endocrine effect – what is it?

Back 139

decreases prolactin excretion (prolactin produces milk in females during breast feeding; small amount of prolactin is in males and important for sexual behior – like kindness)

Front 140

dopamine deficiency in _____ causes problem solving disorders?

Back 140

frontal lobe (ADD)

Front 141

dopamine deficiency in _____ causes parkinsons

Back 141

brain stem

Front 142

tumor causes excess prolactin - what can treat it?

Back 142

dopamine

Front 143

increased prolactin has what effect on sex hormones?

Back 143

decreases them
females can't get pregnant
males act like girls

Front 144

excess dopamine can cause

Back 144

schizophrenia

Front 145

norepi is removed from the synapse by reuptake or is metabolized in the presynaptic terminal by __________ and ___________

Back 145

-monoamine oxide (MAO)

-catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)

Front 146

Metabolites of norepi breakdown?

Back 146

a. 3,4-Dihydroxymandelic acid (DOMA
b. Normetanephrine (NMN)
3-Methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MOPEG)

3-Methoxy-4 hydroxymandelic acid, or vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

Front 147

In __________, urinary excretion of VMA is increased.

Back 147

In pheochromocytoma, urinary excretion of VMA is increased.

Front 148

Epinephrine is synthesized from norepinephrine by the action of _____________

Back 148

phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase.

Front 149

dopamine is metabolized by

Back 149

COMT and MAO

Front 150

D1 receptors ______ adenylate cyclase via a _________.

D2 receptors ______ adenylate cyclase via a _________.

Back 150

- D1 active via Gs protein

-D2 inhibit via Gi protein

Front 151

-Parkinson’s disease involves _______ of dopaminergic neurons that use the ______ receptors.

-Schizophrenia involves _______ levels of ______ receptors.

Back 151

-degradation of D2

-increased levels of D2 receptors

Front 152

-is present in high concentrations in the brain stem.
-is formed tryptophan.
-is converted to melatonin in the pineal gland.

Back 152

serotonin

Front 153

-is formed from histidine.
-is present in the neurons of the hypothalamus.

Back 153

histamine

Front 154

-is the most prevalent excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain.
-has a kainate receptor, which is an ion channel for Na+ and K+.

Back 154

glutamate

Front 155

inhibitory neurotransmitter with two types of receptors?

Back 155

GABA

Front 156

GABA-a receptor function?

What drugs work here?

Back 156

The GABAa receptor increases Cl- conductance and is the site of action of benzodiazepines and barbiturates.

Front 157

GABA-b receptor function?

Back 157

The GABAb receptor increases K+ conductance.

Front 158

-is an inhibitory neurotransmitter found primarily in the spinal cord and brain stem.
-increases Cl- conductance.

Back 158

glycine

Front 159

water accounts for ________of total weight for an adult

Back 159

65-75%

Front 160

properties of acids

Back 160

-taste sour
-react strongly with metals (Zn + HCl)
-are dangerous and can burn your skin

Front 161

properties of bases

Back 161

-taste bitter
-feel slippery
-are very dangerous and can burn your skin

Front 162

plasma buffer?

Back 162

bicarb/carbonic acid

Front 163

________ is an inherited autosomal recessive trait that affects the way the sugar is broken down, due to the lack of the enzyme __________

Back 163

-galactosemia

-galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase.

Front 164

signs and symptoms of galactosemia?

Back 164

-swollen and inflamed liver -kidney failure
-ovarian failure in girls
-mental growth retardation-cataracts in the eyes

Front 165

treatment of galactosemia?

Back 165

diet

Front 166

Many drug molecules are partially bound to _________ in the plasma.

Back 166

serum albumins

Front 167

if protein and caloric intake are both inadequate, a condition known as ________ occurs; presents with a stoppage of growth, extreme muscle loss, and weakness

Back 167

-marasmus

Front 168

marasmus is characterised by energy deficiency aka

Back 168

Cachexia.

Front 169

___________ are the most important factor that can increase a person's cholesterol level

Back 169

saturated fatty acids

Front 170

What are the ketone bodies called?

Back 170

acetoacetate
acetone
B-hydroxybutryate

Front 171

________ is not technically a ketone but a carboxylic acid

Back 171

beta-hydroxybutyrate

Front 172

h BGL can cause nausea and vomiting bc the excess glucose irritates?

Back 172

the vomiting center in the medula oblongata

Front 173

ketosis?

ketoacidosis?

Back 173

ketosis - excess ketone bodies; not always harmful; no harmful change in pH

ketoacidosis - harmful; lowers pH to bad level

Front 174

ketone bodies are the by-product of?

Back 174

muscle & fat breakdown

Front 175

When ketone is excreted, ______is excreted along with it.

Back 175

sodium

Front 176

Symptoms of glucose and ketone-body overload that you didn't know?

Back 176

pupil dilation

Front 177

what ketone body is excreted through the lung and causes fruity smell?

Back 177

acetone

Front 178

any member of a group of lipid compounds that are derived enzymatically from fatty acids and have important functions in the animal body; are found in virtually all tissues and organs.

Back 178

prostaglandins

Front 179

role of prostaglandins

Back 179

-cause constriction or dilatation in vascular smooth muscle cells -sensitize spinal neurons to pain -constrict smooth muscle -regulate inflammatory mediation -regulate calcium movement -regulate hormone regulation -control cell growth

Front 180

what irritates females abd cavity during mensturation?

Back 180

prostaglandins

Front 181

___________ can be inorganic (e.g., metal ions such as Ca+, Mg2+).

Back 181

Cofactors

Front 182

________ are organic molecules, derived from water soluble vitamins such as niacin and riboflavin, that are needed for the function of particular enzymes

Back 182

Coenzymes

Front 183

coenzmes participate in enzyme-catalyzed reactions by transporting _________ and _______ from one enzyme to another.

Back 183

-hydrogen atoms

-small molecules

Front 184

A pair of Hydrogen atoms in each pyruvate from glucose is used to

Back 184

reduce NAD to NADH

Front 185

glycolysis general reaction?

Back 185

Glucose + 2NAD + 2 ADP + 2Pi

=

2pyruvic acid + 2 NADH + 2ATP

Front 186

Lactic acid/fermentation purpose

Back 186

NADH reduces pyruvate to another molecule and goes back to NAD+ to form glycolysis again b/c the ETC isn't available w/o oxygen

Front 187

The addition of two hydrogen atoms to pyruvic acid produces ?

Back 187

lactic acid.

Front 188

glycogenesis

Back 188

formations of glycogen from glucose using an ATP

glucose -> glucose-6-phosphate -> glucose-1-phosphate -> glycogen

Front 189

the enzyme _______ removes the phosphate groups from glucose-1-phosphate as it polymerizes glucose to form glycogen.

Back 189

glycogen synthase

Front 190

The conversion of ______ to _________ is called glycogenolysis

Back 190

-glycogen

-glucose 6-phosphate

Front 191

In glycogenolysis the enzyme _______ catalyzes the breakdown of glycogen to glucose1-phosphate

Back 191

-glycogen phosphorylase

Front 192

Only in ________, can the glucose 6-phosphate also be used to produce free glucose for secretion into the blood.

Back 192

-the liver

-most tissues use glucose-6-phosphate

Front 193

What enzyme does the liver have that allows it to create glucose for secretion

Back 193

glucose-6-phosphatase

Front 194

two hormones that control glycogenolysis?

they stimulate?

Back 194

-glucagon & epi

-stimulate glycogen phosphorylase and inhibit glycogen synthetase

Front 195

gluconeogenesis

Back 195

conversion of noncarbohydrate molecules (not just lactic acid but also amino acids and glycerol) through pyruvic acid to glucose

Front 196

Enzyme in liver that converts lactic acid to pyruvic acid?

Back 196

lactic acid dehydrogenase (LDH)

Front 197

Two-way traffic between skeletal muscles and the liver is called ______.

Back 197

The cori cycle

Front 198

complexes I, II, III, and IV, plus two individual molecules, coenzyme Q and cytochrome c

Back 198

the electron transport chain

Front 199

ETC makes ____ATP?

Total aerobic respiration makes?

Back 199

32 ATP

36 ATP

Front 200

ETC occurs at?

Back 200

the inner membraine

protons flow from intermembrane space thru the ATP synthase to the matrix

Front 201

In a process known as ________ enzymes remove two-carbon acetic acid molecules from the acid end of a fatty acid chain.

Back 201

B-oxidation

Front 202

The efferent fibers have their cell bodies in the ________, and they reach the sympathetic ganglia on both sides of the ________.

Back 202

- spinal cord

-vertebral column

Front 203

The parasympathetic efferents reach their ganglia ____________

Back 203

at or near the organs

Front 204

sympathetic effect on sphincter?

Back 204

closes them

Front 205

sympathetic effect on glands, sphincter, and bladder

Back 205

increased
glandular activity, sphincters open, bladder wall is relaxed (detrusor muscle)

Front 206

Preganglionic fibers synapse directly on ________ in the adrenal medulla.

Back 206

chromaffin cells

Front 207

-The chromaffin cells secrete _________(80%) and _______ (20%) into the circulation.

Back 207

epinephrine (80%)

norepinephrine (20%)

Front 208

___________ is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive amounts of catecholamines and with increased excretion of __________

Back 208

-Pheochromocytoma

-3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid (VMA).

Front 209

In the abd cavity some preganglionic fibers should pass through sympathetic chain without having synapse and should have synapse with ___________

Back 209

paraverterbral ganglia (celiac, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesenteric) that supply the GI nervous system

Front 210

efferent sympathetic cell bodies are in the ________ of the spinal chord

Back 210

lateral horn

Front 211

Peptidergic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system release peptides such as _________ and __________

Back 211

vasoactive inhibitory peptide and substance P

Front 212

alpha 1 receptor locations?

Back 212

vascular smooth muscle of the skin and splanchnic regions, the gastrointestinal (GI) and bladder sphincters, and the radial muscle of the iris.

Front 213

alpha 1 receptor produces

Back 213

-produce excitation (contraction ,constriction).

Front 214

Alpha 1 receptors are equally sensitive to norepi and epi but only _________ is high enough in concentration to stimulate

Back 214

norepi

Front 215

mechanism of Alpha 1 receptors

Back 215

G protein alpha stimulator, Phospholipase C, formation of inositol 1,4,5-triphospate (IP3) and increase in intracellular (Ca+).

Front 216

Alpha 2 receptors are located in

Back 216

presynaptic nerve terminals, platelets. Fat cells, and the walls of the GI tract.

Front 217

result of alpha 2 stimulation?

Back 217

-often produce inhibition (relaxation or dilation).

Front 218

Alpha 2 mechanism

Back 218

G protein alpha inhibitor, inhibition of adenylate cyclase and decrease in cyclic adenosine monophosphate (CAMP).

Front 219

Beta 1 receptors are located in ?

Back 219

the sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, and ventricular muscle of the heart.

Front 220

Beta 1 produces?

Back 220

-produce excitation (increased heart rate, increased conduction velocity, increased contractility).

Front 221

B1 receptors are sensitive to both norepinephrine and epinephrine, and are more sensitive than_________receptors.

Back 221

-are sensitive to both norepinephrine and epinephrine, and are more sensitive than alpha1 receptors.

Front 222

Beta 1 Mechanism of action:

Back 222

activation G protein alpha stimulator, activation of adenylate cyclase and increase in cAMP.

Front 223

Beta 2 receptors are located on

Back 223

vascular smooth muscle of skeletal muscle, bronchial smooth muscle, and in the walls of the GI tract and bladder.

Front 224

Beta 2 receptors produce

Back 224

-produce relaxation (dilation of vascular smooth muscle, dilation of bronchioles, relaxation of the bladder wall.)

Front 225

Beta 2 receptors are more sensitive to ________ than _______

Back 225

epinephrine than to norepinephrine.

Front 226

Beta 2 receptors are more sensitive to epinephrine than the ______

Back 226

alpha 1 receptors.

Front 227

Beta 2 Mechanism of action:

Back 227

activation G protein alpha stimulator, activation of adenylate cyclase and increase in cAMP.

Front 228

Location of nicotinic receptors

Back 228

autonomic ganglia of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, at the neuromuscular junction, and in the adrenal medulla. The receptors at these are similar, but not identical

Front 229

stimulation of nicotinic receptors

Back 229

produce excitation

Front 230

Mechanism of action for nicotinic receptors?

Back 230

Ach binds to alpha subunits of the nicotinic Ach receptor, The nicotinic Ach receptors are also ion channels for Na+ and K+

Front 231

Location of muscarinic receptors?

Back 231

heart, smooth muscle, and glands.

Front 232

function of muscarinic receptors?

Back 232

parasympathetic = rest and digest

Front 233

relaxing mechanism of muscarinic?

Back 233

Heart SA node: inhibition of adenylate cyclase, which leads to opening of K+ channels, slowing of the rate of spontaneous Phase 4 depolarization, and decreased heart rate

Front 234

excitatory mechanism of muscarinic?

Back 234

Smooth muscle and glands: formation of IP3 and increase in intracellular (Ca2+).

Front 235

Medulla contains what autonomic centers

Back 235

-Vasomotor center
-Respiratory center
-Swallowing, coughing, and vomiting center

Front 236

Pons contains what autonomic centers

Back 236

Pneumotaxic center

Front 237

Midbrain contains what autonomic centers

Back 237

-Micturition center

Front 238

Hypothalamus contains what autonomic centers

Back 238

-Temperature regulation center
-Thirst and food intake regulatory centers

Front 239

mostly presynaptic

Back 239

A2

Front 240

Stimulates insulin release

Back 240

B2

Front 241

mechanism of muscarinic receptors

Back 241

Mechanism of action: increased intracellular calcium

Front 242

mechanism of nicotinic receptors

Back 242

Produce excitation (opening of Na-K channels, depolarization)

Front 243

What receptor inhibits insulin secretion?

Back 243

alpha

Front 244

what receptor stimulates insulin excretion?

Back 244

beta

Front 245

Fastest fiber type?

Slowest fiber type?

Back 245

A-alpha is fastest

C is slowest

Front 246

Fiber of intrafusal fibers?

Back 246

A-gamma

Front 247

respond repetitively to a prolonged stimulus

Back 247

Slowly adapting, or tonic, receptors

Front 248

show a decline in action potential frequency with time in response to a constant stimulus.

Back 248

Rapidly adapting, or phasic, receptors

Front 249

examples of Rapidly adapting, or phasic, receptors

Back 249

pacinian corpucle, light touch

Front 250

examples of Slowly adapting, or tonic, receptors

Back 250

muscle spindle, pressure, slow pain

Front 251

Cell bodies of the primary afferent neurons are in _______ or ________

Back 251

dorsal root or spinal cord ganglia.

Front 252

second order neruon location?
special feature?

Back 252

located in brain or spinal cord

usually cross midline

Front 253

third order neuron location?

Back 253

relay nuclei of thalamus

Front 254

Fourth order neuron location?

Back 254

appropriate area of cortext

Front 255

dorsal column system

Back 255

processes sensations of fine touch, pressure, two-point discrimination, vibration

Front 256

second order neurons of the dorsal column system have no synapse in the _______ cross the midline in the _______

Back 256

-spinal chord

-brain stem medulla

Front 257

anterolateral

Back 257

-processes sensations of temperature, pain, and light touch.

Front 258

second order neurons of the anterolateral column system cross the midline in the _______ and have no synapse in the _______

Back 258

spinal chord

brainstem

Front 259

Neurotransmitters for nociceptors include ________. Inhibition of the release of it is the basis of pain relief by ______.

Back 259

-substance P

-opioids

Front 260

Fast pain is carried by group ________ fibers. It has a rapid onset and offset, and is localized.

Back 260

A-delta fibers

Front 261

Slow pain is carried by _______. It is characterized as aching, burning, or throbbing that is poorly localized.

Back 261

C fibers

Front 262

carries taste sensations from the anterior two thirds of the tongue and soft palate

Back 262

Cranial nerve VII, the facial nerve

Front 263

carries taste sensations from the posterior one third of the tongue.

Back 263

Cranial nerve IX the glossopharyngeal nerve

Front 264

a branch of _______ carries some taste sensations from the back of the oral cavity (i.e. pharynx and epiglottis).

Back 264

the vagus nerve

Front 265

Salt taste receptor is stimulated by

Back 265

Na influx followed by the opening of calcium channels

Front 266

sour taste resceptor is from

Back 266

H+ ions

Front 267

bitter taste receptors act thru G protiens that release

Back 267

gustducin

Front 268

ageusia is associated with what condition?

Back 268

Bell's palsy

Front 269

What can cause Bell's palsy

Back 269

neruological disorder/damage to nerve or herpes zoster virus

Front 270

A condition characterized by a burning sensation on the tongue

Back 270

glossodynia

Front 271

The axons of the olfactory nerves are _______ fibers and are among the smallest and slowest in the nervous system

Back 271

unmyelinated C

Front 272

Cranial nerve ____, aka ______ carries info from olfactory receptor to olfactory bulb

Back 272

CN 1, olfactory

Front 273

Olfactory epithelium is also innervated by cranial _________ (trigeminal), which detects noxious or painful stimuli, such as ammonia

Back 273

cranial nerve 5 (trigeminal)

Front 274

fractures of the cribiform plate affect _______ and not ______

so you can still smell what?

Back 274

-cranial nerve 1 and not cranial nerve 5

-ammonia

Front 275

olfactory mechanism

Back 275

G-olf protien activates adenylate cyclase which increases cAMP which opens Na channels

Front 276

tough white fibrous layer that maintains, protects and supports the shape of the eye

Back 276

sclera

Front 277

The front of the sclera is transparent and is called the ______

Back 277

cornea.

Front 278

middle thin layer of the eye; vascular layer of the eye

Back 278

choroid

Front 279

ciliary body secretes small amounts of fluid that enter the posterior chamber and then the anterior chamber, the fluid should pass thru the _________and be drained into venous system.

Back 279

canal of shlem

Front 280

If there is a congenital problem that causes obstruction of canal of schlem or obstruction due to infection/tumor then ?

Back 280

fluid can’t be released into venous system and causes glaucoma which increases the intraocular pressure from the excess accumulation of fluid in the eye; can cause blindness by damaging the retina and the optic nerve near the retina.

Front 281

blind spot of retina?

Back 281

optic disk, no receptors, where optic nerve leaves

Front 282

The cornea and the lens of the eye focuses the light onto a small area of the retina called the __________ where the cone cells are densely packed

Back 282

fovea centralis

Front 283

How many rods are in the fovea?

Back 283

none

Front 284

__________cells form the optic nerve

Back 284

Axons of ganglion cells

Front 285

rhodopsin = ____ and _____

Back 285

scotopsin

and retinal (vitamin A aldehyde)

Front 286

Light converts ______ to ______

Back 286

11-cis-retinal to all-trans-retinal

Front 287

What causes night blindness

Back 287

Vitamin A deficiency

Front 288

all-trans retinal goes thru a series of intermediates to form

Back 288

meta-rhodopsin 2

Front 289

metarhodopsin 2 activates_____ which activates ______

Back 289

G protein alpha (transducin) which actives phosphodiesterase (PDE)

Front 290

PDE decreases

Back 290

cGMP

Front 291

If the neurotransmitter is exitatory, then the response of the bipolar or horizontal cell to light is .

Back 291

hyperpolarization (counter intuitive)

Front 292

If the neurotransmitter is inhibitory, then the response of the bipolar or horizontal cell to light is .

Back 292

depolarization (counter intuitive)

Front 293

The most common cause of nyctalopia is ___________,

Back 293

retinitis pigmentosa

Front 294

retinitis pigmentosa?

Back 294

a disorder in which the rod cells in the retina gradually lose their ability to respond to the light

Front 295

_________ is the inability of the brain to make sense of or make use of some part of otherwise normal visual stimulus, and is typified by the inability to recognize familiar objects or faces

Back 295

Visual agnosia

Front 296

normal. Light focuses on the retina

Back 296

Emmetropia

Front 297

Hypertropia-
corrected with what lens?

Back 297

farsighted. light focuses behind the retina and is corrected with a convex lens.

Front 298

Myopia-
corrected with what lens?

Back 298

nearsighted. Light focuses in front of the retina and is corrected with a biconcave lens.

Front 299

Astigmatism.
corrected with what lens?

Back 299

Curvature of the lens is not uniform and is corrected with a cylindric lens.

Front 300

The _______ is the smallest named bone in the human body. The stapes transfers the vibrations of the _______to the _________, a portion of the inner ear to which it is connected

Back 300

-stapes

-incus to the oval window

Front 301

The _________ and ______ contain perilymph, which has a high _____ concentration.

Back 301

-scala vestibuli and scala tympani

-Na+

Front 302

The ________ contains endolymph, which has a high _____

Back 302

-scala media

-K+

Front 303

The spiral ganglion contains the cell bodies of the ________ nerve aka _______ which synapse on the hair cells.

Back 303

auditory nerve aka CN VIII

Front 304

The base of the basilar membrane (near the oval and round windows) is narrow and stiff. It responds best to ______frequencies.

Back 304

high

Front 305

The apex of the basilar membrane (near the helicotrema) is wide and compliant. It responds best to _____ frequencies.

Back 305

low

Front 306

Temporal lobe of brain; superior temporal gyrus area for T1 and T2

Back 306

flip and read back again

Front 307

_______ and ________ are the most common bacterial causes of otitis media

Back 307

-Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae

-the common cold

Front 308

The ________ detect angular acceleration or rotation

Back 308

semicircular canals

Front 309

The ______ and _______ detect linear acceleration

Back 309

utricle and saccule

Front 310

The receptors are hair cells located at the end of each semicircular canal. Cilia on the hair cells are embedded in a gelatinous structure called the __________

Back 310

cupula

Front 311

If the stereocilia are bent toward the kinocilium, the hair cell _________. If the stereocilia are bent away from the kinocilium, the hair cell ________.

Back 311

-depolarizes (excitation)

-hyperpolarizes (inhibition)

Front 312

cell body of the neuron and dendrites contain ________ but the axon does not

Back 312

Nissl bodies (rER)

Front 313

Form a single layer of cuboidal cells lining the
central cavities of the brain and spinal cord.
They have microvilli also

Back 313

ependyma

Front 314

proliferation of __________ during damage prevents regeneration of axons on CNS

Back 314

astrocytes

Front 315

________ is hyperplasia and hypertrophy of astrocytes that occur in reaction to CNS injury.

Back 315

Gliosis

Front 316

Astrocytomas and glioblastomas are tumors of

Back 316

astrocytes

Front 317

multiple sclerosis

Back 317

occurs between ages of 20-40 year, demyelination in CNS, usually starts with optic nerve, spinal cord and cerebellum. Axonal degeneration as a result of demyelination and/or early in the course of the disease is part of the disability.

Front 318

Schwan cells form mylen over how many cells? oligs over how many?

Back 318

Shwann = 1

oligs = many

Front 319

white matter is from? deeper or outter?

Back 319

from axons and is deeper in brain

Front 320

grey matter is from? deeper or outer?

Back 320

from cell bodies/dendrites and is outer

Front 321

important in the embryonic development of sensory neurons and sympathetic ganglia

Back 321

Neurotrophin-3

Front 322

The composition of CSF is approximately the same as that of the ________ of the brain, but differs significantly from blood.

Back 322

interstitial fluid

Front 323

CSF and Blood have similar concentrations for?

Back 323

Na+
Cl-
HCO3-
Osmolarity

Front 324

CSF has less of what components than the blood has?

Back 324

K+
Ca2+
Glucose
Cholestrol*
Protein*

Front 325

CSF has more of what components than the blood has?

Back 325

Mg2+
Creatinine

Front 326

CSF has none of what?

Back 326

Cholestrol*
Protein*

Front 327

chemical synapses have what directionality?

Electrical?

Back 327

-chemical = unidirectional

-electrical = bidirectional

Front 328

dopamine is found in high concentration at

Back 328

the basal ganglia and hypothalamus

Front 329

norepi is found in the CNS at

Back 329

the hypothalamus

Front 330

Glycine is found principally in

Back 330

synapses in the spinal cord

Front 331

Glutamate?

Back 331

is an excitatory amino acid neurotransmitter in many central nervous neurons.

Front 332

Electrical synapses are _______ junctions, which are made of the monomer _________ to form one ________

Back 332

-gap junctions

-connexin

-connexon

Front 333

what drug block Dopamine receptors postsynaptically

Back 333

Phenothiazines

schizophrenia

Front 334

what type of nerves are easier to block?

Back 334

-bigger nerves

Front 335

General anesthetics block _______

Local anesthetics block ______

Back 335

-General anesthetics block synaptic transmission.

-Local anesthetics block nerve conduction

Front 336

If neurons of the brainstem that make serotonin—serotonergic neurons—are abnormal, there is a risk of

Back 336

SIDS

Front 337

does oral serotonin enter sertogenic pathways?

Back 337

no it doesn't pass the BBB

Front 338

dopamine deficiency in what area of the brain can cause a behavioral disorder? what disorder is an example?

Back 338

-prefrontal cortext


-ADD

Front 339

The neurotransmitter most often associated with EPSPs is the amino acid _______, and is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.

Back 339

glutamate

Front 340

The most common inhibitory neurotransmitters in the nervous system are ______ and ______.

mechanism of inhibition?

Back 340

-GABA and glycine

-open Cl channels

Front 341

________ forms part of the "lipostat" system along with leptin and corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).

Back 341

neuropeptide Y

Front 342

NPY has been associated with a number of physiologic processes in the brain, including

Back 342

the regulation of energy balance, memory and learning, and epilepsy

Front 343

leptin is produced by _______ and crontrols the release of ________

Back 343

-adipose tissue

-release of corticotropin releasing hormone and appetite

Front 344

endothelium-derived relaxing factor is biosynthesized from arginine and oxygen

Back 344

NO

Front 345

function of NO

Back 345

blood vessel dilatation, neurotransmission, modulation of the hair cycle, and penile erections

Front 346

special feature of NO in high altitude populations?

Back 346

increased NO helps avoid hypoxia

Front 347

Origin on bone is at _______ movable attachment

Insertion is on _____ movable attachment

Back 347

-less

-more

Front 348

Muscle cell Plasma membrane is called a __________

Muscle cell Cytoplasm is called _______

Back 348

-sarcolemma

-sarcoplasm

Front 349

A myofibril is a long row of repeating segments called ________

Back 349

sarcomeres

Front 350

Z disc (Z line)

Back 350

boundaries of each sarcomere

Front 351

Thin (actin) filaments

Back 351

extend from Z disc toward the center of the sarcomere

Front 352

Thick (myosin) filaments

contain what type of enzymes?

Back 352

located in the center of the sarcomere
Overlap inner ends of the thin filaments contain ATPase enzymes

Front 353

A bands

Back 353

full length of the thick filament, includes inner end of thin filaments

Front 354

H zone

Back 354

center part of A band where no thin filaments occur

Front 355

M line

Back 355

in center of H zone, contains tiny rods that hold thick filaments together

Front 356

I band

Back 356

region with only thin filaments, lies within two adjacent sarcomeres

Front 357

Impulses in muscle contraction are further conducted by________, which are deep invaginations of the sarcolemma

Back 357

t tubules

Front 358

Tn C (troponin C)

Back 358

binds to calcium, initiates muscle contraction

Front 359

Tn T (troponin T)

Back 359

binds troponin complex to tropomyosin

Front 360

Tn I (troponin inhibitor)

Back 360

inhibits actin binding to myosin heads in resting muscle

Front 361

group IIb afferents that detect tension?

Back 361

golgi tendon organ

Front 362

group II afferents that are distributed throughout muscle. They detect vibration.

Back 362

Pacinian corpuscles

Front 363

group III and IV afferents) detect noxious stimuli.

Back 363

Free nerve endings

Front 364

-make up the bulk of muscle.
-are innervated by alpha-motoneurons.
-provide the force for muscle contraction.

Back 364

extrafusal fibers

Front 365

-are smaller than extrafusal muscle fibers.
-are innervated by gamma-motoneurons.
-are encapsulated in sheaths to form muscle spindles.
-run in parallel with extrafusal fibers. But not for entire length of the muscle.

Back 365

intrafusal fibers

Front 366

extrafusal fibers are innervated by __________ motorneurons

intrafusal fibers are innervated by __________ motorneruons

Back 366

alpha

gamma

Front 367

Function of gamma-motoneurons

Back 367

-innervate intrafusal muscle fibers.
-adjust the sensitivity of the muscle spindle so that it will respond appropriately during muscle contraction.

Front 368

Stimulation of group Ia afferents stimulates __________ in the spinal cord. This stimulation in turn causes contraction and shortening of the muscle. Thus, the original stretch is opposed muscle length is maintained.

Back 368

-alpha-motoneurons

Front 369

In smooth muscle .Ca++ combines with a protein _________

Back 369

calmodulin

Front 370

the calmodulin-Ca++ combines with and activates _____________, then it binds to _______

Back 370

myosin light-chain kinase

actin

Front 371

myosin light-chain kinase is ?

Back 371

an enzyme that catalyzes the phosphorylation of myosin light chains

Front 372

Troponin c is activated by ________ and ________ in smooth muscle

Back 372

calcium and calmodulin

Front 373

HTN can be caused by excess Ca++ which constricts blood vessels. treatment?

Back 373

calcium channel blockers

Front 374

The affected muscles enlarge with fat and connective tissue but the muscle fibers actually degenerate

Back 374

muscular dystrophy

Front 375

Sex-linked recessive inherited disease, males are most exclusively affected, 1/3500 boys, diagnosed between age 2-10, muscle weakens, first pelvic muscles affected, then muscles of shoulder and head, rarely live over 20 years.

Back 375

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Front 376

In Duchene dystrophy, Fibers lack a submembrane protein called ________

Back 376

dystrophin

Front 377

inherited disorder in which the muscles contract but have decreasing power to relax. With this condition, the muscles also become weak and waste away.

Back 377

Myotonic dystrophy

Front 378

Myotonic dystrophy can cause

Back 378

mental deficiency, hair loss and cataracts.

Front 379

The myotonic dystrophy gene, found on ___________, codes for a protein kinase that is found in skeletal muscle, where it likely plays a regulatory role.

Back 379

-chromosome 19