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300 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Starter Limitation
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3 Starts in 30 minutes with 90 secs rest
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Battery Limitation
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3 Starts / hour
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EPU Start = how many starts
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Zero
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Generator Assist Start = how many starts
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1/3 Start
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Max Ramp Weight
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16830 lbs
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Max Takeoff Weight
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16630 lbs
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Max Landing
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15200 lbs
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Max Zero Fuel Weight
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12600 lbs
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Vmo at and below 8,000'
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262 KIAS
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Vfe 7/15 degree flaps
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200 KIAS
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Vfe 35 degree flaps
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173 KIAS
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Vlo Extension
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250 KIAS
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Vlo Retraction
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200 KIAS
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Vlo Operation
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250 KIAS
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Vsb Speedbrake
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No Limit
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Max Tire Speed
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165 KIAS
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Max Autopilot Operation
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.755M or 292 KIAS
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Min Speed in Icing
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160 KIAS
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Max Takeoff / Landing Altitude
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14,000 ft
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Max Water / Slush
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0.5 Inches
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Min Temperature Takeoff / Landing
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-54 degrees C
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Max Temperature Takeoff / Landing
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39 degrees C
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Max Crosswind
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30 Kts
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Max Tailwind
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10 Kts
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Min Altitude with Speed Brakes Extended
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50 feet AGL
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Landing Weight Limited By
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Max Landing Weight Climb /
Brake Energy Landing Distance |
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Takeoff Weight Limited By
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Max Takeoff Weight T/O Distance / Runway Length / Climb Requirements / Landing Requirements
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Min Maneuvering Speeds
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Clean / 7 degree: Vref + 30
15 degree: Vref + 20 35 degree: Vref + 10 |
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Flying V2 during an engine out climb; What is Maximum Bank Angle?
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15 degrees un V2 + 10
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Max Enroute Altitude
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45,000 ft
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Max Generator Load Enroute
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Flight Idle: 225 A
> Flight Idle: 300 A |
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Max Time at Takeoff Thrust
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5 Minutes Normal Ops
10 Minutes Single Engine |
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Max Generator Load Ground
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Normal Idle: 125 A
High Idle: 225 A |
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Pitot / Static Heater Limits
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2 Minutes On /
2 Minutes Off (Cycle okay) |
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When do you rotate Single Engine
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Always rotate Vr regardless of engine/engines status
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GPU Amperage
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800-1000 A
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Min Useable Battery Voltage
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24 V
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Type Engine on UC-35
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PW535A Turbofan
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Engine Speed for Generator Assisted Start
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52.9% (High Idle)
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Max Temperature during Start
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700 C
740 C transient for 5 seconds |
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Maximum Engine Temp for Takeoff
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700 C
740 C transient for 20 seconds |
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Max Continuous Engine Temp
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700 C
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Normal Oil Pressure Range
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25 - 140 psi
Above 60% = 40 - 140 psi |
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Tansient Oil Pressure
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20 - 270 psi for 400 seconds
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Idle Oil Pressure
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25 - 140 psi
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Oil Temperature
Start Minimum |
-40C
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Oil Temperature
Takeoff / Normal Range |
10C to 132.2C
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Oil Temperature
Idle |
-40C to 132.2C
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Oil Temperature
Transient |
140.5C for 400 Secs
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Max Oil Consumption
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1 Qt in 10 Hours
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Maximum N1
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100%
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Maximum N2
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100%
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N1 Max Transient
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102% for 20 Secs
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N2 Max Transient
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102% for 20 Secs
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N2 High Idle
N2 Low Idle |
52.9%
49.1% |
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When must ground idle switch be in high?
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Touch and Go
Cross Generator Starting of 2nd engine. |
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AVGAS peritted?
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No
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Maximum fuel imbalance for Normal Operations?
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200 lbs
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Maximum fuel imbalance for Emergency Operations?
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600 lbs
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Is the use of Prist additives required?
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No due to fuel heater/oil cooler
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Approved Hydraulic Fluids
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Skydrol and Hyjet
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Idle thrust required by what ground speed?
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60 KIAS
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Max deploy time of TRs
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3 minutes in any 10 minute period
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Touch and Go with TRs
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Prohibited
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When must TRs be checked?
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First flight of each day. After any maintenance is performed on the plane.
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Time it takes from Unlock to Deploy?
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2.5 seconds
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Maximum reverse thrust N1?
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71.4% N1 at 18C or higher
68.3% N1 less than -18C |
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Can autopilot be used when comparison monitor is illuminated?
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No
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Can autopilot be used with an Air Data Computer failure?
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No
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Minimum altitude Autopilot for ILS
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180 ft AGL
200 ft NATOPS |
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Minimum altitude Autopilot for Non-precision
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300 ft AGL
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Minimum altitude Autopilot for NATOPS single engine
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400 ft AGL
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Minimum altitude Autopilot for NATOPS VNAV mode
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500 ft AGL
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Minimum altitude Autopilot for Enroute
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1,000 ft AGL
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Can Autopilot or YD be on for takeoff or landing?
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No
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Time it takes from Unlock to Deploy?
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2.5 seconds
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Maximum reverse thrust N1?
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71.4% N1 at 18C or higher
68.3% N1 less than -18C |
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Can autopilot be used when comparison monitor is illuminated?
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No
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Can autopilot be used with an Air Data Computer failure?
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No
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Minimum altitude Autopilot for ILS
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180 ft AGL
200 ft NATOPS |
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Minimum altitude Autopilot for Non-precision
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300 ft AGL
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Minimum altitude Autopilot for NATOPS single engine
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400 ft AGL
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Minimum altitude Autopilot for NATOPS VNAV mode
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500 ft AGL
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Minimum altitude Autopilot for Enroute
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1,000 ft AGL
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Can Autopilot or YD be on for takeoff or landing?
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No
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How many fire extinguishers are needed?
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Part 91 = 2
Part 135 = 1 |
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What is the aft CG limit?
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28% MCAC
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Is the aft CG always in the same place?
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Yes
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What happens to the forward CG limit as weight increases?
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Forward CG limit moves aft as gross weight increases
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What static wick may be mission for flight?
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One (1) static wick may be missing from each wingtip and the stinger...Need 20 of 23.
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What type of landing gear does the Encore have?
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Main gear = articulating trailing link type
Nose gear = vertical tube type |
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How is the landing gear controlled?
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Electrically actuated and hydraulically operated
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How is the gear held up?
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Mechanical spring loaded uplock. Released by hydraulic pressure
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How is the uplock released?
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By a mechanical cable to the uplock, or by the emergency method of pneumatic air to release the uplock
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How is the gear locked down?
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Gear locked down by internal mechanical lock. It is raised by hydraulic pressure.
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Is there a backup system to extend the gear?
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Yes
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If backup system is used to lower the gear, can the gear be retracted?
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No
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If one bulb is burned out, how can you tell the gear is down and locked?
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Use rotary test to test bulbs.
No Red means unsafe gear. Move flaps beyond approach setting - No horn. Move throttle below 70% N2 at less than 150 KIAS - No horn Indexer activated if nose gear extended |
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If gear extension does not yeild all green lights after alternate extension...
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Get visual or blown down the gear.
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If all gear indicates safe after alernate gear extension...blow down the gear?
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Yes
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What powers the wheel brake system?
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Hydraulic pressure via a DC motor and a separate reservoid in the nose compartment
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Can the power brake pump fail without triggering a cockpit indication?
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Yes, power brake low pressure light may not illuminate until brakes are applied...switch set at 675 psi.
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How do you get maximum performance from antiskid system?
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Smooth continuous firm pressure to the pedals. No pumping.
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Will both engine-driven hydraulic pumps failing affect the brakes?
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No...separate systems
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How many pulls on the emergency brake handle will deplete the system?
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5-10
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What does an anti-skid inop light indicate?
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Anti-skid INOP
or Anti-skid switch OFF |
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What precautions must be used if the emerency brake system is used?
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Feet off brakes
No differential brakes available No anti-skid protection Other pilot manipulate throttles/TRs |
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What would happen if you apply excessive pressure on emergency brake handle?
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Could lock up wheels and cause a blow out. Loss of directional control.
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At what speed does the anti-skid protection begin or drop out?
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Anti-skid is inoperative below 12 knots
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Should the anti-skid switch be turned ON during taxi?
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No. System will not properly self-test if turned on while taxiing. Protection won't be available, light will be on. Must stop a/c then turn on.
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When does the power brake pump activate?
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When landing gear extended, battery selected to ON.
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Should parking brake be set after a max brake landing?
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No. Brake heat transfer could melt fusible plugs and deflate tires.
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With the parking brake set, is the anti-skid system operative?
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No, but at less than 12 knots the anti-skid is inop.
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The hydroplane speed is...
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Nose wheel: 80 kts
Main wheels: 90 kts |
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What prevents the movement of the landing gear handle when the a/c is on the ground?
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Squat switch on left main gear actuates plunger behind the gear handle.
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When can the landing gear horn be silenced?
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Flaps 15 or less and airspeed under 150 kts
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When can gear horn not be silenced?
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One or more gear not down and locked and flaps extended more than 15.
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Is the nose wheel chine required?
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Yes
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What is the correct technique for checking the brake wear indicators?
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Turn Battery on.
Brakes set. Visual inspectio nof all 4 wear indicators. |
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What are the minimum tire pressures?
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Main: 152 +/- 4 psi
Nose: 120 +/- 5 psi |
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How can the tire pressures be check by teh aircrew?
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Actual pressure cannot be checked by crew. Chine should be 1/2 inch above ground.
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What are the normal strut extensions?
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Nose: Should be 1.5 and 6.5 inches
Main: Should be 1.8 and 5 inches |
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How is the nose wheel steering controlled?
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Steering is controlled through the rudder pedals
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How can we tell if the nose wheel steering bolts are sheared?
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There will be no nose wheel steering through pedals.
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What could happen with a sheared nose wheel steering after takeoff and upon landing?
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Nose wheel may not center upon gear retraction after takeoff or may not remain centered after landing
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Can a/c be towed with the control lock engaged?
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Yes, but it is not recommended. Max 60 degrees.
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What happens when the power brake CB is pulled?
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No normal brakes. No anti-skid.
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What is primary indication for setting engine pwoer?
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Use N1 for T/O, Climb, Cruise, and Go Around.
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What is the purpose of the Engine Bleed Off Valve?
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Reduce liklihood of compressor stalls. Open below 70%, Variable between 70%-90%, and closed above 90% (N1)
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How is the BOV controlled?
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Electrically controlled.
Pneumatic backup. High pressure fuel actuated. |
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The accessory drive shaft drievs what?
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Pumps-hydraulic, oil, generator-starter, FCU, and monopole N2 pickup.
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The stator vanes do what?
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Properly direct airflow to the compressors and turbines
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What are engine fire indications?
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Either fire switch light illuminates.
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Pressing the fire switch light does what?
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Closes fuel firewall shutoff valve
Closes hydraulic firewall Shutoff valve Arms 2 extinguishers Disarms generator field relay Disables TR isolation valve |
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Pressing the fire switch light a second time does what?
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Opens fuel firewall shutoff valve
Opens hydraulic firewall shutoff valve Disarms 2 extinguishers Enables TR isolation valve Allows crew to reset generator field relay |
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What is indicated when the BOTTLE ARMED lights are illuminated?
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Extinguisher bottles are armed. Press either light to fire. Both bottles can be applied to same or separate engine(s).
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Will BOTTLE ARMED light illuminate even if it is empty?
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Yes.
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How do you test fire system for continuity?
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Rotary Test knob to FIRE. Both fire lights should illuminate
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How do you test the Fire Extinguishing system quantity?
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Visually check each bottle's pressure gauge against the temperature chart in the aft electrical compartment.
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Are the engine low pressure and high pressure turbines physically conntected?
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No. They rotate in opposite directions.
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When should engine/wing anti-ice be activated?
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Prior to takeoff if temperature is below 10C with visible moisture.
Inflight when icing conditions are anticipated. |
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When on the ground in Icing conditions, what precautions should be accomplished?
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Engine Anti-ice ON.
Pitot-static heat switch ON Ground Idle Switch - As Req'd Engine power 65% N2 one minute out of four. |
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What engine components are continuallly ice protected?
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Nose bullet and T1 probe.
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What engine components are protected with anti-ice switch ON?
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Engine Nacelle inlet and guide vanes are heated.
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Why do you have to turn OFF the right windshield air before takeoff if temperature is between 10C and 0C?
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Ensures adequate bleed air temperature to pylon precoolers.
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What does the Wing X-flow system do?
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It allows wing anti-ice protection to both wings in the event of an inoperative engine.
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What hapens to anti-ice valves with loss of system feed DC?
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Wing and Engine anti-ice valves fail OPEN. X-feed valve fails CLOSED.
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With power set to 70% N2 on the ground, what should you look for when Wing and Engine anti-ice switched turned ON?
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Slight rise in ITT
Slight drop in N1 and N2 Wing and Eng anti-ice lights illuminate, then extinguish. |
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What are we checking with rise in ITT and drop in N1 and N2?
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It indicates a bleed ari draw off engines
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During a ground test, how long will it take for the Eng Anti-ice light to extinguish?
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Up to 2 minutes during test
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With the ignition switch in NORM, when will the ignition activate?
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During engine start when throttle brought out of cutoff.
When engine anti-ice is turned ON. |
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During engine start, when should the engine light off?
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Within 10 seconds of the throttle being advanced out of cutoff.
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N2 must be indicated when?
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Shortly after starter engaged.
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N1 must be indicated when?
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Within 25% N2
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Amperage on operating engine must be below what level prior to assisted start of 2nd engine?
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200 Amps.
No limit if using a GPU for start. |
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Why should first engine be raised to high idle prior to an assisted start of 2nd engine?
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Idle allows for higher amperage to assist in the cross start. More torque from starter.
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Will both engines fail if one engine fails while the engine synchronizer is ON?
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No, the synch system is deactivated below 60% N2.
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Engine Sync should be off when?
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Takeoffs and Landings.
Single Engine Operations. Large power changes. |
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The master engine for engine synchonrization is?
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The Left Engine.
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Prior to engaging engine synchronizer, the engines should be manually adjusted to within?
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1.5% N1
1.0% N2 |
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What does green ignition light mean?
|
Power is supplied to exciter box
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What ENGINE INSTRUMENTS are available with DC failure and Battery switch to EMER?
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N1 Taps and Digits with background lighting.
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When should the Ignition switch be ON?
|
Takeoffs and Landings.
Turbulence Heavy Precipitation |
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What does moving the throttle out of cutoff during engine start do?
|
Activates ignition.
Fuel Boost pumps energized. Opens fuel shutoff in flow divider. |
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If takeoff is conducted with GND IDLE switch in NORM, when will GND IDLE light extinguish?
|
After left main has left the ground.
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If GND IDLE light does NOT extinguish after takeoff, what other systems may be affected?
|
See Checklist.
Squat switch failure = possible TR deploy inflight. Pressurization inop. Etc. |
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What is the maximum glide speed?
|
AOA at 0.4
111 kts at 11,000 lbs. Add 5 kts for each 1,000 lbs above. Max 136 kts at 16,000 lbs. |
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What is total usable fuel quantity?
|
5,440 lbs
806 US Gallons |
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How many fuel tank drains?
|
5 tank drains.
1 fuel filter. |
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What type of fuel pumps?
|
1 Primary Ejector each tank.
3 Transfer Ejecter each tank. 1 Electric Boost each tank. |
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What is the purpose of the Transfer Ejector Pump?
|
Provide uninterrupted supply of fuel to the primary ejector pump by scavenging fuel from the lowest poins in the tank and supplying the primary ejector pump with fuel under pressure.
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If the engine driven fuel pump fails, what happens?
|
The engine shuts down or fails.
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What does the FUEL BOOST ON light indicate?
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Pump has been manually or automatically activated.
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With Boost Pump Switch in NORM, when does the Boost Pump come ON?
|
Low fuel pressure - 5 psi
During engine start. When cross feed is selected. |
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With Boost Pump Switch OFF, when does the Boost Pump come ON?
|
Fuel Boost Pump is OFF and does not come ON until selected to NORM or ON.
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Will cross feed occur from a tank with the Boost Pump OFF?
|
No. In addition, with the motive flow pump deenergized, no positive fuel pressure supplied to engine. May flameout.
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When does the FUEL LOW Light illuminate?
|
At 180 lbs +/-20 lbs useable fuel. 20 minutes of flight time.
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When must the Fuel Boost Pump be turned ON?
|
Low level light ON.
Les sthan 180 lbs fuel in tank. Low fuel pressure light ON. |
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What would cause the low fuel pressure light to illuminate?
|
Low fuel pressure light comes ON @ 5 psi and turns OFF at 7 psi.
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What does a fuel filter bypass light indicate?
|
Actual or impending fuel filter bypass.
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What indications should be observed to insure crossfeed is occuring?
|
LH Fuel Boost Pump light ON.
Momentary green IN TRANSIT light. Fuel balancing occuring. |
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If the IN TRANSIT light stays on, what malfunction is indicated?
|
One or both crossfeed vales is/are NOT in the commanded position.
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When selecting crossfeed, must allow time for cycle to be completed. If NOT, could lose normal control of system. How do you fix this?
|
Reboot via:
Battery Switch - EMER Generators - OFF Wait several seconds. Restore electrical power. |
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|
If both Fuel Boost pumps come on will crossfeed occur?
|
No.
Fixed by cyclilng appropriate Fuel Boost pump OFF to NORM. |
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|
What do the fuel vents under each wing do?
|
Allow a space for thermal expansion or for spillage. Ensure adequate pressure for fuel tank inflight.
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When oil pressure drops below 45 psi, the crew should do what?
|
Reduce power, read abnormal Checklist.
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Are oil fluctuations normal?
|
Yes
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If the hydraulic pump fails, what is the cockpit indication?
|
HYD LOW FLOW light ON.
Occurs on the failed pump side. |
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With Hydraulic pump failure, would you still have normal brakes?
|
Yes
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|
How do you check the Hydraulic system level?
|
Visual check after aircraft.
Overfill = 1.5 Gal Full = 0.8 Gal Refill = 0.3 Gal |
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|
How would a Low Resevoir Level be annunciated in the cockpit?
|
HYD LOW LEVEL light on.
Indicates 0.3 Gal remaining. |
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|
What does a HYD PRESS ON light indicate?
|
System Bypass Valve is closed and the system is pressurized. Hydraulic demand has exceeded 40 secs.
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What holds the Speedbrakes out?
|
Trapped hydraulic pressure.
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If a total hydraulic system failure occurs with S/Bs extended, is it possible to retract them?
|
No. Moving S/B switch will only allow them to blow to trail only.
|
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If a total DC failure occurs with the S/Bs extended, what happens?
|
Speedbrakes will retract after the Safety valve relaxes.
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If a total hydraulic system failure occured with the flaps extended, possible to fully retract the flaps?
|
Moving Flap level will allow them to float to trail only. Assumes a/c has electrical power.
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If a total electrical filure occurs with the flaps extended, can the flaps be moved?
|
No. Held by trapped hydraulic fluid with no place to go.
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Is there a procedure for split flaps?
|
No. Interconnected and cannot happen.
|
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|
When does auto electric trim pitch occur during flap extension or retraction?
|
Between 15 and 25 degrees of flap extension.
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|
What does a TR ARM light mean?
|
Pressure has been sensed PAST the Isolation valve.
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What does an UNLOCK light mean?
|
T/R has moved from LOCKED position, fluid is past the Control valve.
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What does a DEPLOY light mean?
|
T/R has reached fully deployed position.
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If a T/R is stowed using the EMER switch, what are the cockpit indications?
|
ARM light ON.
HYD PRESS light ON. |
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Electrical power for the EMER STOW switch is provided through which C/B?
|
Opposite side T/R circuit controls.
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Can a T/R be deployed inflight?
|
No. It is protected through left main Squat switch.
|
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|
When a T/R inadvertently deploys, what happens to the throttle?
|
It is automatically and rapidly retarded to Idle.
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|
The T/Rs are kept stowed by?
|
An over-centering mechanism.
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The T/Rs are held open by?
|
Hydraulic pressure.
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Maximum speed with T/R deployed inflight?
|
150 KIAS
|
|
|
If a T/R is stowed after deploying inflight, can engine be used above idle?
|
Yes, up to 200 KIAS.
|
|
|
What does the BRAKE LOW PRESS light indicate?
|
Low brake pressure (under 675 psi) and the loss of Normal Brakes and Anti-skid.
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If BRAKE LOW PRESS light on inflight, what landing precautions should be made?
|
Abnormal Checklist.
Use T/Rs as required. Emergency Brakes as required. Increase landing distance by 1.6. |
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|
Is maintenance required if Emergency Brakes are used?
|
Yes
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If the Anti-skid switch is Inop, could pwoer brakes be available?
|
Yes
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If the Anti-skid C/B is pulled or popped, will the power brakes function?
|
No.
|
|
|
What is the minimum battery voltage for start?
|
24 Volts
|
|
|
What is the maximum allowable differential between generators?
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10% of current system load.
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What items are on the Battery Bus?
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Live Neat.
Entrance, Emer Exit, Nose & Aft Cargo, Lav Light. Ignition, Voltmeter, Emer Bus. |
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What is the purpose of the Generator Control Unit?
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Regulate 28.5 V.
Parallel system within 10%. Protect. (Field Relay) |
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What protection does the Power Relay provide?
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Under Voltage.
Reverse Current. |
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What protection does teh Field Relay provide?
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Over Voltage.
Feeder Fault. Fire Switch. |
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What would be the cockpit indications of a blown current limiter prior to engine start?
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Steady MASTER WARN light on (side opposite of problem).
Engine indicator flags same side as problem. AFT J BOX LMT light ON. Flash MASTER CAUTION Light. |
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Can you start an engine on the same side as a blown current limiter?
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No. Due to crossover circuits.
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What is the normal regulated generator output?
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28.5 Volts.
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What is the purpose of the Volts/Amps Check?
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Check generator output and to check for blown current limiters.
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What does a GEN OFF light indicate?
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Generator Power Relay is OPEN.
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What is the required EPU output?
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28 Volt DC.
800-1000 Amps. |
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Can an EPU remain connected when it is not running?
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No, it will cause a battery drain.
No reverse current protection on a/c. (Some GCUs do) |
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What causes the engine start button to illuminate?
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Light comes on when the Start Relay closes.
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When starting 2nd engine, with the generator on, why do both Start Buttons illuminate?
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The operating engine generator provides electrical power to assist the start. Battery relay also opens to protect current limiters.
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What happens to the battery during an EPU start?
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The Battery disable Relay opens, protect battery from excessive charging.
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What does the AC FAIL light indicate?
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Failure of BOTH main AC buses. You will not get an AC FAIL light with only one Inverter or AC Bus failure.
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If AC FAIL light and MASTER WARNING reset and INV 1 or 2 light remains on, what has happened?
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Had a failure of BOTH inverters. May have had lightning strike. Resetting will bring one back.
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What equipment could be lost in an AC Bus failure?
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#1 Inverter: 115V VG #1, 26V ac DG #1, YD, A/P
#2 Inverter: 115V VG #2, 26V ac DG #2, Radar, TCAS |
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How long will a fully charged battery power ALL the buses?
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10 minutes
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How long will a fully charged battery power EMER and Battery buses?
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30 minutes
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With the BATT switch in EMER and the generators ONLINE, which radio should be used to conserve battery electrical power?
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#2 VHF since it is powered by the generator and not the Battery.
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The EMER Bus takes its power from which bus?
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Battery Bus when in EMER. Otherwise from the Crossfeed Bus.
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The EPU should automatically disconnect when?
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Overvoltage exceeds 32 V
Overcurrent exceeds 1200 A Any Generator comes ONLINE. |
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If landing with Batt switch in EMER and both generators OFF; what systems are not available?
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No Speedbrakes
No Power Brakes No Anti-skid No T/Rs No Engine Instruments except N1 |
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If prior to takeoff, the BATT O'TEMP light comes on and then goes out, can we takeoff?
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No. Must be looked at by maintenance.
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When six 75 Amp Feed Bus C/Bs are pulled, what buses are powered?
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Only EMER, Crossfeed, and Battery Bus. No AC buses are powered. Both Feed Buses are still powered.
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What is the Battery Disconnect switch used for?
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Disconnect the Battery from all buses except Battery Bus. Requires electrical power to operate. Used to disconnect Battery when starter fails to disconnect on engine start.
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How can junction box BITE lights be reset?
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Only by maintenance. Resetting the Generator 3 times in 3 seconds should reset it too.
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How are Fuel BITE indicators in the aft LAV area reset?
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Turn Battery switch off.
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Maximum pressure differential?
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8.9 +/- .1 psi
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What does the ACM O'HEAT light indicate?
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Air Cycle Machine overheating or excessive pressure in the bleed air supply to ACM. ACM automatically shuts down.
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What does EMER PRESS ON indicate?
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Emergency pressure has activated either manually or automatically.
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Which engine supplies air for EMER pressurization?
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Left Engine
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What causes EMER PRESS light to come on automatically?
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ACM Overheat.
Cabin Altitude above 14,500' (Cycles off when CA below 12,000') |
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You're performing a high altitude climb with FULL Cold temperature in Manual mode. What can happen?
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ACM Overheat, then Auto switch to EMER Pressurization. Select AUTO temperature and select warmer temperature.
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When is it most likely the ACM will shutdown, hot or cold conditions?
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During hot conditions when calling for FULL cooling.
Excessive pressure buildup at ACM. |
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What does AIR DUCT O'HEAT indicate?
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Air Duct temperature coming out of ACM excessive.
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In total DC failure, what happens to the flow control valves?
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Fail OPEN. EMER Valve fails closed.
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Can the FREON Air Conditioning used inflight?
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Yes
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What is the maximum altitude for FREON Air Conditioner?
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18,000'. Switch to Fan only. System will shut off AC automatically as well.
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If a total DC failure occured, can you control the cabin pressurization?
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Yes, through the Red Manual Switch. It lags!
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What happens when you select EMERGENCY Dump in the air?
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Cabin pressure raises at 6,000 to 9,000 fpm to altitude of 13,000 ft (+/-1500'). System requires electrical power.
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When do PAX masks automatically deploy?
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Oxygen switch in Normal and CA reaches 14,500' +/-500'.
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What is the maximum certified altitude for the passsenger Emergency Oxygen System?
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25,000 CA
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After a complete Electrical failure, if the Oxygen selector is moved to Manual, will the PAX masks drop?
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Yes
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How can the crew get therapeutic O2 to the passenger compartment?
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Select DROP on Master Selector Oxygen switch.
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If the O2 gauge indicates 1800 psi, are you guaranteed to receive oxygen?
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No, the gauge indicates bottle pressure regardless of Shutoff Valve position.
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What are the maximum altitudes teh O2 masks can be used?
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EROS - 40,000 ft CA
PAX - 25,000 ft CA |
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What does the DOOR SEAL light indicate? Will the A/C lose pressurization?
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A loss of pressure to the primary Door Seal.
Not necessarily. Still have Secondary Seal. FL410 Limit. |
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Is the Nose Baggage Compartment pressurized?
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No
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Is the Tail Baggage Compartment pressurized?
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Partially through RAM air inflight.
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What are the Pressurization modes for the Encore?
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Auto Schedule
Isobaric Manual |
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What is Auto Schedule Pressurization Control Mode?
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Rate changes controlled by microprocessor.
Climb at 600 fpm (2,500 fpm high) Descent at 500 fpm (1,500 fpm high) |
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When is High Altitude Pressurization Mode selected?
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Automatically selected when landing altitude is above 8,000 ft.
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What is the Isobaric Pressurization Control Mode?
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Automatically selected upon loss of #2 ADC input.
Failure indicated by amber light Automatically switches back if ADC #2 regained Set desired FL into controller. Set Field elevation for landing. |
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What is the Manual Pressurization Control Mode?
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Cabin altitude directly controlled by Red Knob.
Indicated by Red light on Control Panel. Non-electrical. |
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On cold days the Avionics may take up to how long to warm up?
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20 to 30 minutes in very cold temperatures.
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Must the TCAS manual be available?
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Yes
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Must an EGPWS manual be available?
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Yes
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Can EGPWS be used as a Navaid?
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No
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When must TCAS selector be switched from TA/RA to just TA?
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When executing parallel approaches.
To prevent RAs from known traffic on ATC vectors. Takeoffs above 5,300 ft Close proximity with helicopters. If interfering with VFR traffic. |
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Is compliance with TCAS RA mandatory?
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Yes
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Is compliance with EGPWS mandatory in visual conditions?
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No
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When is the Rosemont Probe heated?
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Weight Off Wheels with Avionics Master switch ON.
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Whendo the Wing anti-ice valves Open?
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When ENG/WING ANTI-ICE switches are turned ON, valves OPEN.
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What happens with the W/S AIR O'HEAT illuminates?
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W/S bleed air solenoid valve should CLOSE.
After cooling, Bleed Air cycles ON. Light could also be caused by 5 psi leak in duct if the system is OFF. |
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What can happen if teh AOA Vane heater fails and becomes iced?
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Stick shaker may not operate normally or at normal speeds.
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What is the minimum temperature to activate tail deice boots?
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-40C less than 150 KIAS
or -35C 150 KIAS or Above |
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What are the ground procedures when in Ground Icing Conditions?
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Ground Idle...High not required.
Pitot-Static Heat cycled on and off (2 min) Engine Anti-ice ON. W/S Bleed Air Valves OPEN if required. W/S Bleed switch HI/LOW as required. Run engines up to 65% N2 for 1 minute out of 4 minutes. |
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With DC electrical power failure, the W/S anti-ice Bleed Air shutoff Valve do what?
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W/S solenoid fails OPEN. Auto Temperature control lost.
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When should the Anti-Ice system be activated inflight?
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Temperature less than 10C and visible moisture.
or If icing conditions expected. |
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What is visible moisture?
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Rain, snow, fog. Visibility less than 1 SM.
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How is the wing protected from ice formation?
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Hot Bleed Air (P3) is applied to the leading edges from the engines. Can cross flow from one engine to opposite wing.
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What is the minimum power setting inflight to keep the Engine and Wing anti-ice lights from illuminating?
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Approximately 73% N2
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How do the Tail De-Ice Boots work in Auto Mode?
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Left tail boots inflate for 6 secs
No boots for 6 secs Right tail boots inflate for 6 secs Cycle then repeats until system turned OFF. |
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How do the Tail De-Ice Boots work in Manual Mode?
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Timer logic is bypassed and L and R boots are inflated simultaneously. Boots remain inflated as long as the switch is held in Manual.
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What is the recommended Manual Mode Timing?
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Inflate for 6-8 seconds. Then release. Repeat every 3-5 minutes.
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What is the function of the Pylong Heat Exchangers?
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To supply cooler air to the ACM. Engine FAN air cooled by Engine BLEED air to <475F. Prevents overheat of ACM.
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What are Ice Detector Lights?
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Red lights on dash. L shines on protected part of W/S. R shines on unprotected part of W/S. On whenever Battery is ON.
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When departing with Windshield Anti-ice system ON, temperature 0C - 10C what must crew do?
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Right side W/S Bleed Air Valve should be closed until 1st power reduction. Ensures temperature regulation in pylon.
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When can C/P lights be set to Dim?
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Generator online. GPU running and connect to aircraft. DIM uses more power than normal position!
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When does teh Master Warning light illuminate?
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Any RED annunciator on.
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When does the Master Caution Light illuminate?
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When any of the AMBER annunciators are On. These lights flash initially until Master Caution Light is pressed; then they go steady.
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What does it mean if the Master Warning Light illuminates in a steady mode?
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Indicates there has been a loss of power to the annunciator panel from either left or right DC Crossfeed Bus.
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