Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/300

Click to flip

300 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Starter Limitation
3 Starts in 30 minutes with 90 secs rest
Battery Limitation
3 Starts / hour
EPU Start = how many starts
Zero
Generator Assist Start = how many starts
1/3 Start
Max Ramp Weight
16830 lbs
Max Takeoff Weight
16630 lbs
Max Landing
15200 lbs
Max Zero Fuel Weight
12600 lbs
Vmo at and below 8,000'
262 KIAS
Vfe 7/15 degree flaps
200 KIAS
Vfe 35 degree flaps
173 KIAS
Vlo Extension
250 KIAS
Vlo Retraction
200 KIAS
Vlo Operation
250 KIAS
Vsb Speedbrake
No Limit
Max Tire Speed
165 KIAS
Max Autopilot Operation
.755M or 292 KIAS
Min Speed in Icing
160 KIAS
Max Takeoff / Landing Altitude
14,000 ft
Max Water / Slush
0.5 Inches
Min Temperature Takeoff / Landing
-54 degrees C
Max Temperature Takeoff / Landing
39 degrees C
Max Crosswind
30 Kts
Max Tailwind
10 Kts
Min Altitude with Speed Brakes Extended
50 feet AGL
Landing Weight Limited By
Max Landing Weight Climb /
Brake Energy Landing Distance
Takeoff Weight Limited By
Max Takeoff Weight T/O Distance / Runway Length / Climb Requirements / Landing Requirements
Min Maneuvering Speeds
Clean / 7 degree: Vref + 30
15 degree: Vref + 20
35 degree: Vref + 10
Flying V2 during an engine out climb; What is Maximum Bank Angle?
15 degrees un V2 + 10
Max Enroute Altitude
45,000 ft
Max Generator Load Enroute
Flight Idle: 225 A
> Flight Idle: 300 A
Max Time at Takeoff Thrust
5 Minutes Normal Ops
10 Minutes Single Engine
Max Generator Load Ground
Normal Idle: 125 A
High Idle: 225 A
Pitot / Static Heater Limits
2 Minutes On /
2 Minutes Off
(Cycle okay)
When do you rotate Single Engine
Always rotate Vr regardless of engine/engines status
GPU Amperage
800-1000 A
Min Useable Battery Voltage
24 V
Type Engine on UC-35
PW535A Turbofan
Engine Speed for Generator Assisted Start
52.9% (High Idle)
Max Temperature during Start
700 C
740 C transient for 5 seconds
Maximum Engine Temp for Takeoff
700 C
740 C transient for 20 seconds
Max Continuous Engine Temp
700 C
Normal Oil Pressure Range
25 - 140 psi
Above 60% = 40 - 140 psi
Tansient Oil Pressure
20 - 270 psi for 400 seconds
Idle Oil Pressure
25 - 140 psi
Oil Temperature
Start Minimum
-40C
Oil Temperature
Takeoff / Normal Range
10C to 132.2C
Oil Temperature
Idle
-40C to 132.2C
Oil Temperature
Transient
140.5C for 400 Secs
Max Oil Consumption
1 Qt in 10 Hours
Maximum N1
100%
Maximum N2
100%
N1 Max Transient
102% for 20 Secs
N2 Max Transient
102% for 20 Secs
N2 High Idle
N2 Low Idle
52.9%
49.1%
When must ground idle switch be in high?
Touch and Go
Cross Generator Starting of 2nd engine.
AVGAS peritted?
No
Maximum fuel imbalance for Normal Operations?
200 lbs
Maximum fuel imbalance for Emergency Operations?
600 lbs
Is the use of Prist additives required?
No due to fuel heater/oil cooler
Approved Hydraulic Fluids
Skydrol and Hyjet
Idle thrust required by what ground speed?
60 KIAS
Max deploy time of TRs
3 minutes in any 10 minute period
Touch and Go with TRs
Prohibited
When must TRs be checked?
First flight of each day. After any maintenance is performed on the plane.
Time it takes from Unlock to Deploy?
2.5 seconds
Maximum reverse thrust N1?
71.4% N1 at 18C or higher
68.3% N1 less than -18C
Can autopilot be used when comparison monitor is illuminated?
No
Can autopilot be used with an Air Data Computer failure?
No
Minimum altitude Autopilot for ILS
180 ft AGL
200 ft NATOPS
Minimum altitude Autopilot for Non-precision
300 ft AGL
Minimum altitude Autopilot for NATOPS single engine
400 ft AGL
Minimum altitude Autopilot for NATOPS VNAV mode
500 ft AGL
Minimum altitude Autopilot for Enroute
1,000 ft AGL
Can Autopilot or YD be on for takeoff or landing?
No
Time it takes from Unlock to Deploy?
2.5 seconds
Maximum reverse thrust N1?
71.4% N1 at 18C or higher
68.3% N1 less than -18C
Can autopilot be used when comparison monitor is illuminated?
No
Can autopilot be used with an Air Data Computer failure?
No
Minimum altitude Autopilot for ILS
180 ft AGL
200 ft NATOPS
Minimum altitude Autopilot for Non-precision
300 ft AGL
Minimum altitude Autopilot for NATOPS single engine
400 ft AGL
Minimum altitude Autopilot for NATOPS VNAV mode
500 ft AGL
Minimum altitude Autopilot for Enroute
1,000 ft AGL
Can Autopilot or YD be on for takeoff or landing?
No
How many fire extinguishers are needed?
Part 91 = 2
Part 135 = 1
What is the aft CG limit?
28% MCAC
Is the aft CG always in the same place?
Yes
What happens to the forward CG limit as weight increases?
Forward CG limit moves aft as gross weight increases
What static wick may be mission for flight?
One (1) static wick may be missing from each wingtip and the stinger...Need 20 of 23.
What type of landing gear does the Encore have?
Main gear = articulating trailing link type
Nose gear = vertical tube type
How is the landing gear controlled?
Electrically actuated and hydraulically operated
How is the gear held up?
Mechanical spring loaded uplock. Released by hydraulic pressure
How is the uplock released?
By a mechanical cable to the uplock, or by the emergency method of pneumatic air to release the uplock
How is the gear locked down?
Gear locked down by internal mechanical lock. It is raised by hydraulic pressure.
Is there a backup system to extend the gear?
Yes
If backup system is used to lower the gear, can the gear be retracted?
No
If one bulb is burned out, how can you tell the gear is down and locked?
Use rotary test to test bulbs.
No Red means unsafe gear.
Move flaps beyond approach setting - No horn.
Move throttle below 70% N2 at less than 150 KIAS - No horn
Indexer activated if nose gear extended
If gear extension does not yeild all green lights after alternate extension...
Get visual or blown down the gear.
If all gear indicates safe after alernate gear extension...blow down the gear?
Yes
What powers the wheel brake system?
Hydraulic pressure via a DC motor and a separate reservoid in the nose compartment
Can the power brake pump fail without triggering a cockpit indication?
Yes, power brake low pressure light may not illuminate until brakes are applied...switch set at 675 psi.
How do you get maximum performance from antiskid system?
Smooth continuous firm pressure to the pedals. No pumping.
Will both engine-driven hydraulic pumps failing affect the brakes?
No...separate systems
How many pulls on the emergency brake handle will deplete the system?
5-10
What does an anti-skid inop light indicate?
Anti-skid INOP
or
Anti-skid switch OFF
What precautions must be used if the emerency brake system is used?
Feet off brakes
No differential brakes available
No anti-skid protection
Other pilot manipulate throttles/TRs
What would happen if you apply excessive pressure on emergency brake handle?
Could lock up wheels and cause a blow out. Loss of directional control.
At what speed does the anti-skid protection begin or drop out?
Anti-skid is inoperative below 12 knots
Should the anti-skid switch be turned ON during taxi?
No. System will not properly self-test if turned on while taxiing. Protection won't be available, light will be on. Must stop a/c then turn on.
When does the power brake pump activate?
When landing gear extended, battery selected to ON.
Should parking brake be set after a max brake landing?
No. Brake heat transfer could melt fusible plugs and deflate tires.
With the parking brake set, is the anti-skid system operative?
No, but at less than 12 knots the anti-skid is inop.
The hydroplane speed is...
Nose wheel: 80 kts
Main wheels: 90 kts
What prevents the movement of the landing gear handle when the a/c is on the ground?
Squat switch on left main gear actuates plunger behind the gear handle.
When can the landing gear horn be silenced?
Flaps 15 or less and airspeed under 150 kts
When can gear horn not be silenced?
One or more gear not down and locked and flaps extended more than 15.
Is the nose wheel chine required?
Yes
What is the correct technique for checking the brake wear indicators?
Turn Battery on.
Brakes set.
Visual inspectio nof all 4 wear indicators.
What are the minimum tire pressures?
Main: 152 +/- 4 psi
Nose: 120 +/- 5 psi
How can the tire pressures be check by teh aircrew?
Actual pressure cannot be checked by crew. Chine should be 1/2 inch above ground.
What are the normal strut extensions?
Nose: Should be 1.5 and 6.5 inches
Main: Should be 1.8 and 5 inches
How is the nose wheel steering controlled?
Steering is controlled through the rudder pedals
How can we tell if the nose wheel steering bolts are sheared?
There will be no nose wheel steering through pedals.
What could happen with a sheared nose wheel steering after takeoff and upon landing?
Nose wheel may not center upon gear retraction after takeoff or may not remain centered after landing
Can a/c be towed with the control lock engaged?
Yes, but it is not recommended. Max 60 degrees.
What happens when the power brake CB is pulled?
No normal brakes. No anti-skid.
What is primary indication for setting engine pwoer?
Use N1 for T/O, Climb, Cruise, and Go Around.
What is the purpose of the Engine Bleed Off Valve?
Reduce liklihood of compressor stalls. Open below 70%, Variable between 70%-90%, and closed above 90% (N1)
How is the BOV controlled?
Electrically controlled.
Pneumatic backup.
High pressure fuel actuated.
The accessory drive shaft drievs what?
Pumps-hydraulic, oil, generator-starter, FCU, and monopole N2 pickup.
The stator vanes do what?
Properly direct airflow to the compressors and turbines
What are engine fire indications?
Either fire switch light illuminates.
Pressing the fire switch light does what?
Closes fuel firewall shutoff valve
Closes hydraulic firewall
Shutoff valve
Arms 2 extinguishers
Disarms generator field relay
Disables TR isolation valve
Pressing the fire switch light a second time does what?
Opens fuel firewall shutoff valve
Opens hydraulic firewall shutoff valve
Disarms 2 extinguishers
Enables TR isolation valve
Allows crew to reset generator field relay
What is indicated when the BOTTLE ARMED lights are illuminated?
Extinguisher bottles are armed. Press either light to fire. Both bottles can be applied to same or separate engine(s).
Will BOTTLE ARMED light illuminate even if it is empty?
Yes.
How do you test fire system for continuity?
Rotary Test knob to FIRE. Both fire lights should illuminate
How do you test the Fire Extinguishing system quantity?
Visually check each bottle's pressure gauge against the temperature chart in the aft electrical compartment.
Are the engine low pressure and high pressure turbines physically conntected?
No. They rotate in opposite directions.
When should engine/wing anti-ice be activated?
Prior to takeoff if temperature is below 10C with visible moisture.
Inflight when icing conditions are anticipated.
When on the ground in Icing conditions, what precautions should be accomplished?
Engine Anti-ice ON.
Pitot-static heat switch ON
Ground Idle Switch - As Req'd
Engine power 65% N2 one minute out of four.
What engine components are continuallly ice protected?
Nose bullet and T1 probe.
What engine components are protected with anti-ice switch ON?
Engine Nacelle inlet and guide vanes are heated.
Why do you have to turn OFF the right windshield air before takeoff if temperature is between 10C and 0C?
Ensures adequate bleed air temperature to pylon precoolers.
What does the Wing X-flow system do?
It allows wing anti-ice protection to both wings in the event of an inoperative engine.
What hapens to anti-ice valves with loss of system feed DC?
Wing and Engine anti-ice valves fail OPEN. X-feed valve fails CLOSED.
With power set to 70% N2 on the ground, what should you look for when Wing and Engine anti-ice switched turned ON?
Slight rise in ITT
Slight drop in N1 and N2
Wing and Eng anti-ice lights illuminate, then extinguish.
What are we checking with rise in ITT and drop in N1 and N2?
It indicates a bleed ari draw off engines
During a ground test, how long will it take for the Eng Anti-ice light to extinguish?
Up to 2 minutes during test
With the ignition switch in NORM, when will the ignition activate?
During engine start when throttle brought out of cutoff.
When engine anti-ice is turned ON.
During engine start, when should the engine light off?
Within 10 seconds of the throttle being advanced out of cutoff.
N2 must be indicated when?
Shortly after starter engaged.
N1 must be indicated when?
Within 25% N2
Amperage on operating engine must be below what level prior to assisted start of 2nd engine?
200 Amps.

No limit if using a GPU for start.
Why should first engine be raised to high idle prior to an assisted start of 2nd engine?
Idle allows for higher amperage to assist in the cross start. More torque from starter.
Will both engines fail if one engine fails while the engine synchronizer is ON?
No, the synch system is deactivated below 60% N2.
Engine Sync should be off when?
Takeoffs and Landings.
Single Engine Operations.
Large power changes.
The master engine for engine synchonrization is?
The Left Engine.
Prior to engaging engine synchronizer, the engines should be manually adjusted to within?
1.5% N1
1.0% N2
What does green ignition light mean?
Power is supplied to exciter box
What ENGINE INSTRUMENTS are available with DC failure and Battery switch to EMER?
N1 Taps and Digits with background lighting.
When should the Ignition switch be ON?
Takeoffs and Landings.
Turbulence
Heavy Precipitation
What does moving the throttle out of cutoff during engine start do?
Activates ignition.
Fuel Boost pumps energized.
Opens fuel shutoff in flow divider.
If takeoff is conducted with GND IDLE switch in NORM, when will GND IDLE light extinguish?
After left main has left the ground.
If GND IDLE light does NOT extinguish after takeoff, what other systems may be affected?
See Checklist.
Squat switch failure = possible TR deploy inflight. Pressurization inop. Etc.
What is the maximum glide speed?
AOA at 0.4
111 kts at 11,000 lbs.
Add 5 kts for each 1,000 lbs above.
Max 136 kts at 16,000 lbs.
What is total usable fuel quantity?
5,440 lbs
806 US Gallons
How many fuel tank drains?
5 tank drains.
1 fuel filter.
What type of fuel pumps?
1 Primary Ejector each tank.
3 Transfer Ejecter each tank.
1 Electric Boost each tank.
What is the purpose of the Transfer Ejector Pump?
Provide uninterrupted supply of fuel to the primary ejector pump by scavenging fuel from the lowest poins in the tank and supplying the primary ejector pump with fuel under pressure.
If the engine driven fuel pump fails, what happens?
The engine shuts down or fails.
What does the FUEL BOOST ON light indicate?
Pump has been manually or automatically activated.
With Boost Pump Switch in NORM, when does the Boost Pump come ON?
Low fuel pressure - 5 psi
During engine start.
When cross feed is selected.
With Boost Pump Switch OFF, when does the Boost Pump come ON?
Fuel Boost Pump is OFF and does not come ON until selected to NORM or ON.
Will cross feed occur from a tank with the Boost Pump OFF?
No. In addition, with the motive flow pump deenergized, no positive fuel pressure supplied to engine. May flameout.
When does the FUEL LOW Light illuminate?
At 180 lbs +/-20 lbs useable fuel. 20 minutes of flight time.
When must the Fuel Boost Pump be turned ON?
Low level light ON.
Les sthan 180 lbs fuel in tank.
Low fuel pressure light ON.
What would cause the low fuel pressure light to illuminate?
Low fuel pressure light comes ON @ 5 psi and turns OFF at 7 psi.
What does a fuel filter bypass light indicate?
Actual or impending fuel filter bypass.
What indications should be observed to insure crossfeed is occuring?
LH Fuel Boost Pump light ON.
Momentary green IN TRANSIT light.
Fuel balancing occuring.
If the IN TRANSIT light stays on, what malfunction is indicated?
One or both crossfeed vales is/are NOT in the commanded position.
When selecting crossfeed, must allow time for cycle to be completed. If NOT, could lose normal control of system. How do you fix this?
Reboot via:
Battery Switch - EMER
Generators - OFF
Wait several seconds. Restore electrical power.
If both Fuel Boost pumps come on will crossfeed occur?
No.

Fixed by cyclilng appropriate Fuel Boost pump OFF to NORM.
What do the fuel vents under each wing do?
Allow a space for thermal expansion or for spillage. Ensure adequate pressure for fuel tank inflight.
When oil pressure drops below 45 psi, the crew should do what?
Reduce power, read abnormal Checklist.
Are oil fluctuations normal?
Yes
If the hydraulic pump fails, what is the cockpit indication?
HYD LOW FLOW light ON.
Occurs on the failed pump side.
With Hydraulic pump failure, would you still have normal brakes?
Yes
How do you check the Hydraulic system level?
Visual check after aircraft.
Overfill = 1.5 Gal
Full = 0.8 Gal
Refill = 0.3 Gal
How would a Low Resevoir Level be annunciated in the cockpit?
HYD LOW LEVEL light on.
Indicates 0.3 Gal remaining.
What does a HYD PRESS ON light indicate?
System Bypass Valve is closed and the system is pressurized. Hydraulic demand has exceeded 40 secs.
What holds the Speedbrakes out?
Trapped hydraulic pressure.
If a total hydraulic system failure occurs with S/Bs extended, is it possible to retract them?
No. Moving S/B switch will only allow them to blow to trail only.
If a total DC failure occurs with the S/Bs extended, what happens?
Speedbrakes will retract after the Safety valve relaxes.
If a total hydraulic system failure occured with the flaps extended, possible to fully retract the flaps?
Moving Flap level will allow them to float to trail only. Assumes a/c has electrical power.
If a total electrical filure occurs with the flaps extended, can the flaps be moved?
No. Held by trapped hydraulic fluid with no place to go.
Is there a procedure for split flaps?
No. Interconnected and cannot happen.
When does auto electric trim pitch occur during flap extension or retraction?
Between 15 and 25 degrees of flap extension.
What does a TR ARM light mean?
Pressure has been sensed PAST the Isolation valve.
What does an UNLOCK light mean?
T/R has moved from LOCKED position, fluid is past the Control valve.
What does a DEPLOY light mean?
T/R has reached fully deployed position.
If a T/R is stowed using the EMER switch, what are the cockpit indications?
ARM light ON.
HYD PRESS light ON.
Electrical power for the EMER STOW switch is provided through which C/B?
Opposite side T/R circuit controls.
Can a T/R be deployed inflight?
No. It is protected through left main Squat switch.
When a T/R inadvertently deploys, what happens to the throttle?
It is automatically and rapidly retarded to Idle.
The T/Rs are kept stowed by?
An over-centering mechanism.
The T/Rs are held open by?
Hydraulic pressure.
Maximum speed with T/R deployed inflight?
150 KIAS
If a T/R is stowed after deploying inflight, can engine be used above idle?
Yes, up to 200 KIAS.
What does the BRAKE LOW PRESS light indicate?
Low brake pressure (under 675 psi) and the loss of Normal Brakes and Anti-skid.
If BRAKE LOW PRESS light on inflight, what landing precautions should be made?
Abnormal Checklist.
Use T/Rs as required.
Emergency Brakes as required.
Increase landing distance by 1.6.
Is maintenance required if Emergency Brakes are used?
Yes
If the Anti-skid switch is Inop, could pwoer brakes be available?
Yes
If the Anti-skid C/B is pulled or popped, will the power brakes function?
No.
What is the minimum battery voltage for start?
24 Volts
What is the maximum allowable differential between generators?
10% of current system load.
What items are on the Battery Bus?
Live Neat.
Entrance, Emer Exit, Nose & Aft Cargo, Lav Light.
Ignition, Voltmeter, Emer Bus.
What is the purpose of the Generator Control Unit?
Regulate 28.5 V.
Parallel system within 10%.
Protect. (Field Relay)
What protection does the Power Relay provide?
Under Voltage.
Reverse Current.
What protection does teh Field Relay provide?
Over Voltage.
Feeder Fault.
Fire Switch.
What would be the cockpit indications of a blown current limiter prior to engine start?
Steady MASTER WARN light on (side opposite of problem).
Engine indicator flags same side as problem. AFT J BOX LMT light ON. Flash MASTER CAUTION Light.
Can you start an engine on the same side as a blown current limiter?
No. Due to crossover circuits.
What is the normal regulated generator output?
28.5 Volts.
What is the purpose of the Volts/Amps Check?
Check generator output and to check for blown current limiters.
What does a GEN OFF light indicate?
Generator Power Relay is OPEN.
What is the required EPU output?
28 Volt DC.
800-1000 Amps.
Can an EPU remain connected when it is not running?
No, it will cause a battery drain.
No reverse current protection on a/c. (Some GCUs do)
What causes the engine start button to illuminate?
Light comes on when the Start Relay closes.
When starting 2nd engine, with the generator on, why do both Start Buttons illuminate?
The operating engine generator provides electrical power to assist the start. Battery relay also opens to protect current limiters.
What happens to the battery during an EPU start?
The Battery disable Relay opens, protect battery from excessive charging.
What does the AC FAIL light indicate?
Failure of BOTH main AC buses. You will not get an AC FAIL light with only one Inverter or AC Bus failure.
If AC FAIL light and MASTER WARNING reset and INV 1 or 2 light remains on, what has happened?
Had a failure of BOTH inverters. May have had lightning strike. Resetting will bring one back.
What equipment could be lost in an AC Bus failure?
#1 Inverter: 115V VG #1, 26V ac DG #1, YD, A/P
#2 Inverter: 115V VG #2, 26V ac DG #2, Radar, TCAS
How long will a fully charged battery power ALL the buses?
10 minutes
How long will a fully charged battery power EMER and Battery buses?
30 minutes
With the BATT switch in EMER and the generators ONLINE, which radio should be used to conserve battery electrical power?
#2 VHF since it is powered by the generator and not the Battery.
The EMER Bus takes its power from which bus?
Battery Bus when in EMER. Otherwise from the Crossfeed Bus.
The EPU should automatically disconnect when?
Overvoltage exceeds 32 V
Overcurrent exceeds 1200 A
Any Generator comes ONLINE.
If landing with Batt switch in EMER and both generators OFF; what systems are not available?
No Speedbrakes
No Power Brakes
No Anti-skid
No T/Rs
No Engine Instruments except N1
If prior to takeoff, the BATT O'TEMP light comes on and then goes out, can we takeoff?
No. Must be looked at by maintenance.
When six 75 Amp Feed Bus C/Bs are pulled, what buses are powered?
Only EMER, Crossfeed, and Battery Bus. No AC buses are powered. Both Feed Buses are still powered.
What is the Battery Disconnect switch used for?
Disconnect the Battery from all buses except Battery Bus. Requires electrical power to operate. Used to disconnect Battery when starter fails to disconnect on engine start.
How can junction box BITE lights be reset?
Only by maintenance. Resetting the Generator 3 times in 3 seconds should reset it too.
How are Fuel BITE indicators in the aft LAV area reset?
Turn Battery switch off.
Maximum pressure differential?
8.9 +/- .1 psi
What does the ACM O'HEAT light indicate?
Air Cycle Machine overheating or excessive pressure in the bleed air supply to ACM. ACM automatically shuts down.
What does EMER PRESS ON indicate?
Emergency pressure has activated either manually or automatically.
Which engine supplies air for EMER pressurization?
Left Engine
What causes EMER PRESS light to come on automatically?
ACM Overheat.
Cabin Altitude above 14,500'
(Cycles off when CA below 12,000')
You're performing a high altitude climb with FULL Cold temperature in Manual mode. What can happen?
ACM Overheat, then Auto switch to EMER Pressurization. Select AUTO temperature and select warmer temperature.
When is it most likely the ACM will shutdown, hot or cold conditions?
During hot conditions when calling for FULL cooling.
Excessive pressure buildup at ACM.
What does AIR DUCT O'HEAT indicate?
Air Duct temperature coming out of ACM excessive.
In total DC failure, what happens to the flow control valves?
Fail OPEN. EMER Valve fails closed.
Can the FREON Air Conditioning used inflight?
Yes
What is the maximum altitude for FREON Air Conditioner?
18,000'. Switch to Fan only. System will shut off AC automatically as well.
If a total DC failure occured, can you control the cabin pressurization?
Yes, through the Red Manual Switch. It lags!
What happens when you select EMERGENCY Dump in the air?
Cabin pressure raises at 6,000 to 9,000 fpm to altitude of 13,000 ft (+/-1500'). System requires electrical power.
When do PAX masks automatically deploy?
Oxygen switch in Normal and CA reaches 14,500' +/-500'.
What is the maximum certified altitude for the passsenger Emergency Oxygen System?
25,000 CA
After a complete Electrical failure, if the Oxygen selector is moved to Manual, will the PAX masks drop?
Yes
How can the crew get therapeutic O2 to the passenger compartment?
Select DROP on Master Selector Oxygen switch.
If the O2 gauge indicates 1800 psi, are you guaranteed to receive oxygen?
No, the gauge indicates bottle pressure regardless of Shutoff Valve position.
What are the maximum altitudes teh O2 masks can be used?
EROS - 40,000 ft CA
PAX - 25,000 ft CA
What does the DOOR SEAL light indicate? Will the A/C lose pressurization?
A loss of pressure to the primary Door Seal.
Not necessarily. Still have Secondary Seal. FL410 Limit.
Is the Nose Baggage Compartment pressurized?
No
Is the Tail Baggage Compartment pressurized?
Partially through RAM air inflight.
What are the Pressurization modes for the Encore?
Auto Schedule
Isobaric
Manual
What is Auto Schedule Pressurization Control Mode?
Rate changes controlled by microprocessor.
Climb at 600 fpm (2,500 fpm high)
Descent at 500 fpm (1,500 fpm high)
When is High Altitude Pressurization Mode selected?
Automatically selected when landing altitude is above 8,000 ft.
What is the Isobaric Pressurization Control Mode?
Automatically selected upon loss of #2 ADC input.
Failure indicated by amber light
Automatically switches back if ADC #2 regained
Set desired FL into controller.
Set Field elevation for landing.
What is the Manual Pressurization Control Mode?
Cabin altitude directly controlled by Red Knob.
Indicated by Red light on Control Panel.
Non-electrical.
On cold days the Avionics may take up to how long to warm up?
20 to 30 minutes in very cold temperatures.
Must the TCAS manual be available?
Yes
Must an EGPWS manual be available?
Yes
Can EGPWS be used as a Navaid?
No
When must TCAS selector be switched from TA/RA to just TA?
When executing parallel approaches.
To prevent RAs from known traffic on ATC vectors.
Takeoffs above 5,300 ft
Close proximity with helicopters.
If interfering with VFR traffic.
Is compliance with TCAS RA mandatory?
Yes
Is compliance with EGPWS mandatory in visual conditions?
No
When is the Rosemont Probe heated?
Weight Off Wheels with Avionics Master switch ON.
Whendo the Wing anti-ice valves Open?
When ENG/WING ANTI-ICE switches are turned ON, valves OPEN.
What happens with the W/S AIR O'HEAT illuminates?
W/S bleed air solenoid valve should CLOSE.
After cooling, Bleed Air cycles ON.
Light could also be caused by 5 psi leak in duct if the system is OFF.
What can happen if teh AOA Vane heater fails and becomes iced?
Stick shaker may not operate normally or at normal speeds.
What is the minimum temperature to activate tail deice boots?
-40C less than 150 KIAS
or
-35C 150 KIAS or Above
What are the ground procedures when in Ground Icing Conditions?
Ground Idle...High not required.
Pitot-Static Heat cycled on and off (2 min)
Engine Anti-ice ON.
W/S Bleed Air Valves OPEN if required.
W/S Bleed switch HI/LOW as required.
Run engines up to 65% N2 for 1 minute out of 4 minutes.
With DC electrical power failure, the W/S anti-ice Bleed Air shutoff Valve do what?
W/S solenoid fails OPEN. Auto Temperature control lost.
When should the Anti-Ice system be activated inflight?
Temperature less than 10C and visible moisture.
or
If icing conditions expected.
What is visible moisture?
Rain, snow, fog. Visibility less than 1 SM.
How is the wing protected from ice formation?
Hot Bleed Air (P3) is applied to the leading edges from the engines. Can cross flow from one engine to opposite wing.
What is the minimum power setting inflight to keep the Engine and Wing anti-ice lights from illuminating?
Approximately 73% N2
How do the Tail De-Ice Boots work in Auto Mode?
Left tail boots inflate for 6 secs
No boots for 6 secs
Right tail boots inflate for 6 secs
Cycle then repeats until system turned OFF.
How do the Tail De-Ice Boots work in Manual Mode?
Timer logic is bypassed and L and R boots are inflated simultaneously. Boots remain inflated as long as the switch is held in Manual.
What is the recommended Manual Mode Timing?
Inflate for 6-8 seconds. Then release. Repeat every 3-5 minutes.
What is the function of the Pylong Heat Exchangers?
To supply cooler air to the ACM. Engine FAN air cooled by Engine BLEED air to <475F. Prevents overheat of ACM.
What are Ice Detector Lights?
Red lights on dash. L shines on protected part of W/S. R shines on unprotected part of W/S. On whenever Battery is ON.
When departing with Windshield Anti-ice system ON, temperature 0C - 10C what must crew do?
Right side W/S Bleed Air Valve should be closed until 1st power reduction. Ensures temperature regulation in pylon.
When can C/P lights be set to Dim?
Generator online. GPU running and connect to aircraft. DIM uses more power than normal position!
When does teh Master Warning light illuminate?
Any RED annunciator on.
When does the Master Caution Light illuminate?
When any of the AMBER annunciators are On. These lights flash initially until Master Caution Light is pressed; then they go steady.
What does it mean if the Master Warning Light illuminates in a steady mode?
Indicates there has been a loss of power to the annunciator panel from either left or right DC Crossfeed Bus.