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63 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
binding of ribosome to ___ of mRNA for synthesis from ___ of protein
5'-terminus

n-to c-terminus
energy input of protein synthesis is__-
GTP
What does protein synthesis involve?
initiation factors, elongation factors and termination factors
mRNA being read by ___ ribosomes
multiple
initiator tRNA
charge with N-formyl-methionine (fMet)
binding of ribosome to ___ of mRNA for synthesis from ___ of protein
5'-terminus

n-to c-terminus
energy input of protein synthesis is__-
GTP
What does protein synthesis involve?
initiation factors, elongation factors and termination factors
mRNA being read by ___ ribosomes
multiple
initiator tRNA
charge with N-formyl-methionine (fMet)
ribosome binds at a conserved 5' ______ 10 bases upstream of AUG.
untranslated region (UTR)
shine-dalgarno sequence
AGGAGGU
adaptive immune system
immune cells remember previous encounters with pathogens...slow to develop
innate immunity
not specific to a particular pathogen....recognizes specific features of pathogens by presence of formylmethionine containing peptides (potent chemoattractants for neutrophils)
translation initiation complex
initiation factors IF1, IF2, IF3
IF1 and IF3 keep___
30S free
IF1
blocks A site
IF3
binding with mRNA
IF2
joins and fmet tRNA finds
only fmet-tRNA enters
P site
only alpha alpha-tRNA enters
A site on complet 70s ribosome
EF-Tu
elongation bound to GTP...
followed by EF-G bound by GTP
Tu-GDP remains bound to allow...
dissociation of incorrect tRNA
first peptide bone formation by what enzyme?
peptidyl transferase activity in 23S rRNA of the large subunit of RNA enzyme
GTP binding elongation factor EF-G cause
exit of tRNA from P site, movement of peptidyl tRNA to P site and ribosome movement by 3 bases along the mRNA
Do tRNAs recognize stop codons?
no, they are recognized by relase factors (FR)...to cleave release polypetide from tRNA and mRNA and dissociate of ribosome subunits
antibioitc bind selectively to various sites on
ribosomes
cycloheximide
inhibits peptidyl transferase in euk (60S ribosome)
chloramphenicol
inhibits peptidyl transferase in prok (50S)
puromycin
causes premature chain termination during protein syntheis...in both eu and pro (50S and 60S)
streptomycin
inhibits initiation by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit
erythromycin
inhibits translocation by binding to 50S ribosome
tetracycline
binds 30S ribosome and prevents animoacyl-tRNA binding
eukaryotes have what for initiation?
40S initiation complex
tRNAi with own aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase to form complex
eIF2 interacts with
only Met-tRNAiMet (not other Met-tRNA
eukaryotic mRNAs may be held in a ____ by initation factors
circular conformation:
eIF4s and eIF3
selection of eukaryotic translation initiation site requires:
1. helicase
2. movemtn of complex
3. ATP
eIF4s bind to
"cap", poly a, mRNA, 40s ribosomal subunit
eIF4 helicase activity
unwinds the secondary structure of RNA
intitation complex migrates from ___ to ___
5'-end cap to the first AUG
Kozak sequence
needs to be found to initiate translation in eukaryotes...5'-CCACCAUGG-3'

trial and error approach
Where is the 80S initiation complex formed?
at AUG, 60S joins the 40S initiation complex

GTP of eIF5 is hydrolyzed
EF1alpha
elongation facotr is GTP binding=> peptidyl-transferase makes peptide bond in 28S rRNA
does EF1alpha interact with tRNAimet
no
what is required for translocation?
EF2-GTP
uncharged tRNA exits via the E site
TPO
thrombopoietin:
produced in relatively low amounts in nermal cells
ligand for c-MpI recepter and regulates the production of platelets
hereditary thrombocythemia
autosomal dominant disorder
high levels of TPO
Excess production of TPO is attributed to:
mutations in TPO gene that restructure 5' sequence in mRNA...effiecient translation initation at actual AUG start codon
Mdm2 protein
oncogene that accelerates degradation o f p53, a tumor suppressor protein
50% of mutations of what are in tRNA genes?
mitochonrial diseases
1/3 of inherited huma diseases result form )))
premature termination codon mutation (PTC)
aminoglycoside antibiotics
binding to ribosome rduces fidelity of translation,
a codon can be recognized by pairing with 2-bases of the codon...so the protein should turn out normal
ricin
eukaryotic ribosome inhibitor protein
bioterriorism by KGB
.enzyme that depurinates a specific "A" residue on 28S rRNA of ribosome
protein domains being ___ while the protein is still being synthesized.
folding
molten globule
open flexible protein structure forms right after synthesis...
folding into the final tertiary sturcture leads to the formation of ___
mature protein
What are the two types of proteins required for protein folding?
chaperones
cahperonins
Hsp70
a chaperone class. binds the hydrophobic pathces of protein folds.
ATP hydrolysis facilitates folding the regions back into protein in right conformation
chaperonins
cylindrical macromolecular assembly that directly facilitates folding
a chaperone:
binds unfolded or partially folded proteins and prevent their aggregation
What happens if the first folding is misfolded?
It goes to a protease pathway:
degradee by proteolysis
What is the significance of proteolytic fragments ?
they can aggregate and cause degenerative diseases
Alzheimer's disease
amyloid precursor protein (APP) is cleaved into Abeta42 product that accumulates