• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/124

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

124 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Euk Ribosome Subunits and total

60S + 40S = 80 S

Prok Ribosome subunits and total

50S + 30S = 70S

ribosomes have catalytic activity in what type of RNA

rRNA

What accessory proteins are required for initiations of translation

IF, eIF

what accessory proteins are required for elongation of translation

EF and eEF

what accessory proteins are required for termination of translation

RF, eRF

how many possibilities arise from the 3-nt codon

64

what are the only amino acids that have a single code?

Met (AUG) Trp (UGG)

what is considered the "21st aa"

selenocysteine

what is one example of "non-universal" genetic code (specific molecule)

selenocysteine

missense mutation

coding for a different amino acid

nonsense mutation

coding for a termination codon

silent mutation

no change

what is an example of programmed ribosomal frameshift

gagpol polysome

what is the normal ratio of gag : gagpol

20:1

2 reasons why programmed ribosomal frameshift is so odd

1. usually the other two reading frames contain no useful information


2.usually no punctuation until stop codon is reached

what is RNA editing?

processes that covalently change the identity or positioning of RNA bases after synthesis

example of RNA editing and resulting proteins

deanimation of cytosine converts C to U which changes glutamine codon to termination codon; apoB-100 in liver, apoB-48 in intestine

General strategy for protein biosynthesis

1. activation of amino acids (tRNA charging)


2. initiation (RL)


3.elongation


4. termination and release


5. folding and post-translational processing

how many tRNAs for each amino acid?

at least one

how long are tRNAs generally

about 100 nts

what type of bonding accounts for the cloverleaf-like structure of tRNA

H-bonding

what are the two arms of the tRNA

amino acid arm and the anticodon arm

in what direction does the anticodon READ the mRNA

5' - 3'

reading a tRNA 5' - 3', which arm is on the left?

D arm

reading a tRNA 5' - 3', which arm is on the right?

T(psi)C arm

which arm is the CCA added to

amino acid arm (3')

which arm is the wobble position on?

the anticodon arm

technically how many tRNAs do you need to code all the amino acids

32

what are the three classes of codon:anticodon interactoins

1c/ac 2c/ac 3c/ac

what determines how many codons recognized per anticodon

the base in the 5' position in the anticodon

if there is a C or an A in the 5' anticodon position

1:1 codon:anticodon

what is unusual about G pairing in RNA

G can base pair with U

what is the only place where G can pair with U?

the 3' position of the codon

why is it that G can pair with U in RNA?

only here is there enough room in the molecule to allow for noncannonical basepairing of G and U

what can anticodon 5' U pair with

3' A or G

what can anticodon 5' G pair with

3' C or U

what is the first thing that has to happen in the process of allowing an anticodon to recognize three codons?

guanine has to be deaminated to inosine

what can inosine form hydrogen bonds with

AUC

anticodon arm function

recognizes mRNA codon by base-pair complimentarity

amino acid arm (2 facts)

always ends with CCA (3'); site of amino acid charging

the first base of the mRNA codon (5-3) pairs with the

third base of the tRNA antibodon (5-3)

wobble specifies

the rate of protein synthesis

what are responsible for charging tRNAs with amino acids

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases

where does the aa-tRNA synthetase bond the aa

to the 3' end of the tRNA

what enhances the fidelity of aa-tRNA assembly?

enzymatic proofreading

generally 1 aa-tRNA synthetase per

amino acid

is the work of aa-tRNA synthetase ATP dependent or independent

dependent

what base is paired to the amino acyl group? (in charging)

adenine! (cca)

50s subunit of ribosome contains

23s and 5s rRNAs and 36 proteins

30s ribosomal subunit contains

16s rRNA and 21 proteins

in a bacterial ribosome, where does the codon:anticodon recognition and aa-tRNA binding occur

30S/50S interface

in bacterial ribosomes, peptidyl transfer occurs in the

50S subunit

which subunit are the A and P site in

the large subunit

A-site: definition and location

aminoacyl-tRNA site; interface between 50S and 30S

P-site: definition and location

peptidyl-tRNA site; interface between 30S and 50S subunits

E site: definition and location

exit site; largely within 50S subunit

peptidyl transferase center: definition and location

deep in 50S subunit; where 3' ends of end of P site tRNA and A site-tRNA are brought into close proximity; where

what are the two translation factors in initiation of prokaryotic translation

IF1 and IF-3

where do IF-1 and IF-3 bind?

IF-1 binds to the A site; IF-3 binds elsewhere on the small subunit

___ is all you need to initiate translation in a prokaryote

the small ribosomal subunit (30s)

which side of the mRNA is the initiation site on?

either side, provided the initiation sequence context

what is over AUG during initiaiton of translation

the empty P site

what is complementary to the shine-dalgarno sequence?

the 3' end of the 16s rRNA of the small subunit

what do you need in addition to the initiation codon to initiate translation in proks

the shine-dalgarno sequence

where is the shine-dalgarno sequence relative to the initiation codon?

a few nucleotides upstream

what does the IF-2-GTP complex do

facilitates the binding of fMET-tRNA to the 30S subunit

what happens after the binding of fmet-trna and the recognition of AUG

complex joined by 50s subunit

what happens prior to the release of the IFs from the complex?

GTP-IF-2 hydrolyzed to GDP + Pi

what is left when the IFs (1,2,3) are released

the initiation complex (70s)

at what point is the prokaroytic ribosome committed to elongation

when the IFs dissociate and the 70s initiation complex has been formed.

where is the shin-dalgarno sequence in euks

there is none!

what is the 43S complex made of

in euks, cap-binding complex recruits 40S subunit

what does the 43S complex do?

scans the mRNA (5-3)until it reaches the initiation site

in euks, what permits the recruitment of tRNAmet?

43S recognition of initiation site

when does the 60S subunit join?

following the recruitment of the complex containing tRNAmet

what is one major exception to the general pattern of initiation in euks

IRESes - internal ribosome entry sites


-- translation may initiate internallly

the mRNA 5' cap is recognized by

eIF4E

the polyA tail is bound by the

cytoplasmic polyA-binding protein (Pab1p)

eIf4E and Pab1p are linked through

eIF4G

eIF4G links

Pab1p and eIF4E

what does eIF4G have with it

the 40s subunit

3 stages of prok elongation

1. aa-tRNA recruitment


2. peptide bond formation


3. translocation

what brings the aminoacylated tRNA to the ribosome A site

EF-Tu-GTP

who checks the codon-anticodon pairing in proks

EF-Tu

who recycles the EF-Tu GDP to its GTP state

EF-Ts

at what point is the tRNA "stuck" in the A site (prok)

once the GTP is hydrolyzed (by EF-Tu)

the nucleophilic attach during peptidyl transfer

amide group of A-site amino acid attacks carbonyl group of P-site amino acid

"net effect" of peptidy transfer step

transfer of cargo from P-site to A-site a

at the end of the first peptide bond formation step, what do you have in the p-site (proks)

a deacylated tRNA-fMet

translocation

movement of ribosome 3 nts/1 codon toward the 3' end of the mRNA

what fuels translocation

GTP hydrolysis by the protein EF-G

what does EF-G do?

hydrolizes GTP to fuel translocation

translation is completed when (broadly)

any one of the three termination codons enters the A site

what binds to the stop codon in the A site?

RF factor

what three things does the release factor signal the ribosome to do?

1. hydrolyze the terminal peptidyl-tRNA bond


2. release the polypeptide and the tRNA


3. dissociate the ribosomal subunits

what is a polysome?

clusters of ribosomes on a single mRNA

where does mRNA processing happen in prokaryotes

mRNA is not processed in prokaryotes

in proks, direction of translation and transcription is

the same

polycistronic - definition and prok/euk

more than one unique protein per mRNA; prokaryotes

where does transcription occur for euks

nucleus

where does translation occur for euks

cytoplasm

who lives longer: euk mRNA or prok mRNA

euk mRNA

what is the major feature that allows prokaryotes to be polycistronic

multiple initiation sites via shine-dalgano

what are two methods of nonsense suppresion

1. misplaced termination codon resulting in new amino-acid codon


2. tRNA gene that recognizes tRNA gene but inserts an amino acid at that position

what is a suppressor tRNA

recognizes stop codon but changes identity of the anticodon loop thus inserts an amino acid at that position

suppressor tRNAs are usually

duplicate genes of normal tRNAs

Puromycin

P+E. causes premature chain termination by acting as an analog of aminoacyl tRNA. Cannot translocate which promotes peptide dossociation from the ribosome.

puromycin mimics

incoming aminoacyl-tRNA

what is the major thing that puromycin cannot do

translocation

does puromycin make codon anti-codon contact?

no; only resembles the 3' end of the aa-trna

with puromycin, where does the existing polypeptide go?

gets transferred to the puromycin; dissociates from the ribosome.

tetracyclines

(P) blocks the A site on the 30S subunit and inhibits binding of aa-tRNA

do tetracyclines recognize 30s or 40s?

30s (therefore specific for proks)

Erythromycin

(P) bind 50S subunit and inhibits peptidyl transfer and translocation

Chloramphenicol

Binds 50S subunit and inhibits peptidyl transfer

Cycloheximide

(E) binds 60S subunit and inhibits peptidyl transfer

streptomycin

binds 30S subunit, inhibits initiation and causes misreading of mRNAs (aminoglycoside antibiotic)

what is an example of an aminoglycoside antibiotic

streptomycin

diptheria toxin

inactivates eukaryotic eEF2

ricin

inactivates the 60s subunit of the eukaryotic ribosome (via cleavage)

in the presence of the diptheria toxin you will not be able to

elongate new proteins (eukaryotes)

translation inhibitors: prokaryotes

puromycin, tetracyclines, erythromycin, chloramphenicols, streptomycin

translation inhibitors: eukaryotes

antibiotics: puromycin, cycloheximide


toxins: diptheria, ricin