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75 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which technique attempts to predict the likelihood a threat will occur and assigns monetary values in the event a loss occurs?
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quantitative risk analysis
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is key escrow?
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when you maintain a secured copy of a user's private key to ensure that you can recover the lost key
Objective: Cryptography |
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What is the best protection against cross-site scripting (XSS)?
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Disable the running of scripts.
Objective: Application, Data and Host Security |
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What is the name for a security principle that assures that prudent care is used to protect customer information using preferred methods?
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due care
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Which firewall port should you enable to allow SMTP traffic to flow through the firewall?
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25
Objective: Network Security |
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Which security concept ensures that data is protected from being accessed by unauthorized persons?
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confidentiality
Objective: Cryptography |
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Which type of key management does Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) use: centralized or decentralized?
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centralized
Objective: Cryptography |
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If the user is NOT prompted for credentials when connected to a Network Access Control (NAC) server, what is the user's computer missing?
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the authentication agent
Objective: Network Security |
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Which IPSec mode is used to create a VPN between two gateways?
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tunnel mode
Objective: Network Security |
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Why is it important to limit the use of flash drives and portable music devices by organization employees?
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to prevent users from copying data to their personnel devices and possibly causing data leakage or from transferring malware to corporate computers
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Which security-server application and protocol implement authentication of users from a central server over UDP?
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Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
Objective: Access Control and Identity Management |
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Which key is included in an X.509 v3 certificate?
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the certificate owner's public key
Objective: Cryptography |
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What occurs during white-box testing?
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A security firm is provided with a production-like test
environment, login details, production documentation, and source code. Objective: Threats and Vulnerabilities |
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Which type of attack does Challenge Handshake
Authentication Protocol (CHAP) protect against? |
replay
Objective: Threats and Vulnerabilities |
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What are the three basic questions answered by the chain of custody?
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who controlled the evidence, who secured the evidence, and who obtained the evidence
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is the most common type of system used to detect intrusions into a computer network?
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network intrusion detection system (IDS)
Objective: Network Security |
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What do you use to control traffic from the Internet to the LAN (local area network) by controlling the packets that are allowed to enter the LAN?
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a firewall
Objective: Network Security |
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What is spear phishing?
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an e-mail request for confidential information that appears to come from your supervisor
Objective: Threats and Vulnerabilities |
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Which type of IDS detects malicious packets on a network?
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network intrusion detection system (IDS)
Objective: Network Security |
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Which type of attack enables an intruder to capture and modify data traffic by rerouting the traffic from a network device to the intruder's computer?
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network address hijacking
Objective: Threats and Vulnerabilities |
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Which fingerprint scan will analyze fingerprint ridge direction?
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minutiae matching
Objective: Access Control and Identity Management |
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What is the term for a server that has been configured specifically to distract an attacker from production
systems? |
honeypot
Objective: Threats and Vulnerabilities |
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Is the Data Encryption Standard (DES) algorithm asymmetric or symmetric?
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symmetric
Objective: Cryptography |
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Which port number does NNTP use?
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119
Objective: Network Security |
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What are the two types of ciphers?
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block and streaming
Objective: Cryptography |
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What is the purpose of content inspection?
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to search for malicious code or behavior
Objective: Network Security |
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What is the term for a potential opening in network security that a hacker can exploit to attack a network?
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a vulnerability
Objective: Threats and Vulnerabilities |
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Which document lists the steps to take in case of a disaster to your main IT site?
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disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Which intrusion detection system (IDS) watches for intrusions that match a known identity?
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signature-based IDS
Objective: Network Security |
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What is the most important biometric system characteristic?
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accuracy
Objective: Access Control and Identity Management |
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What are flood guards?
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devices that protect against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Objective: Network Security |
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Which audit category will audit all instances of users exercising their rights?
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the Audit Privilege Use audit category
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is the purpose of load balancing?
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to distribute the workload across multiple devices
Objective: Network Security |
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What is derived by multiplying single loss expectancy (SLE) by the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) of an event?
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Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Which backup method backs up every file on the server each time it is run?
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a full backup
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What occurs during grey-box testing?
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Security professionals with limited inside knowledge of the network attempt to hack into the network.
Objective: Threats and Vulnerabilities |
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Which algorithms are asymmetric key algorithms?
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Rivest, Shamir, and Adleman (RSA), elliptic curve
cryptosystem (ECC), Diffie-Hellman, El Gamal, Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA), and Knapsack Objective: Cryptography |
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What is an entity that issues and manages certificates?
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certification authority (CA)
Objective: Cryptography |
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Which type of controls work to protect system access,
network architecture and access, control zones, auditing, and encryption and protocols? |
technical controls
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is the term for a device that acts as a concentrator for a wireless LAN?
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wireless access point
Objective: Network Security |
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Which type of controls dictates how security policies are implemented to fulfill the company's security
goals? |
an administrative or management control
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Which three security features does Authentication Header (AH) provide?
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integrity, authentication, and anti-replay service
Objective: Cryptography |
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What is the best method to preserve evidence on a computer: bit stream backup or standard backup?
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bit stream backup
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer?
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a Microsoft application that creates security reports
Objective: Application, Data and Host Security |
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What is the safest method for creating and managing key pairs: centralized or de-centralized key
management? |
centralized key management
Objective: Cryptography |
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Which technology can be implemented to prevent direct access to a company's e-mail servers?
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SMTP relay
Objective: Threats and Vulnerabilities |
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Which type of attack involves flooding a recipient email address with identical e-mails?
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a spamming attack
Objective: Threats and Vulnerabilities |
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What does the acronym MTTR denote?
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mean time to repair
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Which type of attack on a cryptographic algorithm uses brute force methods to encrypt text strings until the output matches the ciphertext?
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a mathematical attack
Objective: Cryptography |
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Which assessment examines whether network security practices follow a company's security policy?
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an audit
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is a file considered in a mandatory access control environment?
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an object
Objective: Access Control and Identity Management |
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Why is password disclosure a significant security issue in a single sign-on network?
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It could compromise the entire system because authentication grants access to ANY systems on the network to which the actual user may have permission.
Objective: Access Control and Identity Management |
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Who can change a resource's category in a mandatory access control environment?
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administrators only
Objective: Access Control and Identity Management |
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Which type of authentication is accomplished by
authenticating both the client and server sides of a connection through the encrypted exchange of credentials? |
mutual authentication
Objective: Access Control and Identity Management |
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Which security-server application and protocol implement authentication of users from a central server over UDP?
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Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
Objective: Access Control and Identity Management |
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What is the purpose of secure code review?
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It examines all written code for any security holes that may exist.
Objective: Application, Data and Host Security |
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What is the purpose of GPS tracking on a mobile device?
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It allows a mobile device to be located.
Objective: Application, Data and Host Security |
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What is cross-site request forgery (XSRF)?
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unauthorized commands coming from a trusted user to
a user or Web site, usually through social networking Objective: Application, Data and Host Security |
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Which document is used when it is necessary to invoke legal action against an employee for inappropriate use of computer resources?
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acceptable use policy
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is another name for RAID 5?
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disk striping with parity
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Why should you periodically test an alternate site?
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to ensure continued compatibility and recoverability
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Which audit category will audit all instances of users exercising their rights?
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the Audit Privilege Use audit category
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is the name of the security process that involves recognition, verification, classification, containment, and analysis?
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an incident response
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is the purpose of technical controls?
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to restrict access to objects and protect availability, confidentiality, and integrity
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Which element of the CIA triad ensures that data transferred is not altered?
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integrity
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is the purpose of administrative controls?
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to implement security policies based on procedures, standards, and guidelines
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is a warm site?
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an alternate computing facility with
telecommunications equipment but no computers Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Which team is responsible for restoring critical business functions at an alternate site in the event of
disruption? |
the recovery team
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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What is a cold site?
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an alternate computing facility with no
telecommunications equipment or computers Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Which two fire suppression agents are used to suppress fires involving paper and wooden furniture?
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water or soda acid
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Which type of disaster recovery site provides very little fault tolerance for the primary data center and relies on backups to bring the data center back online?
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cold site
Objective: Compliance and Operational Security |
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Would a certification authority (CA) revoke a certificate if the certificate owner's public key were exposed?
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no
Objective: Cryptography |
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Which product uses public and private keys to digitally sign e-mail messages and files?
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Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
Objective: Cryptography |
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What is the hash value length, in bits, that is provided by the Message Digest 2, (MD2), MD4, and MD5 algorithms?
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128
Objective: Cryptography |
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What is the name for an encryption key that can be easily reverse-engineered from the encrypted data by brute force methods?
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a weak key
Objective: Cryptography |
