Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key


Play button


Play button




Click to flip

61 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Anodontia, hypodontia - oligodontia and supernumerary teeth are problems in the ______ stage.
The intiation stage begins ___ weeks in utero from _______ to _______.
6, anterior to posterior
Ectodermal dysplasia is -linked recessive T/F.
Two forms of ectodermal dysplasia?
Anhidrotic, hidrotic
Which is not a symptom of ectodermal dysplasia: absence/reduction of hair, temperature regulation, dry skin, depressed bridge (nasion), lip protrusion, below normal intellegence.
patients have nomal intellegence
Ectodermal dysplasia causes impaired jaw deformation. T/F
Which is not a manifestation of ectodermal dysplasia: adontia, hypodontia, cone shaped teeth, primary/permanent canines and incisors are usually present.
incisors are not present ---- usually pirmary/permanent canines and 1st molars
The enamel organ consists of the IEE and OEE and is _____ in origin.
The dental papilla is _______ in origin forming ____ and -___.
mesodermal, dentin and pulp
What other structure is mesodermal in origin forming the PDL, cementum and alveolar bone?
Dental sac
Implants may be placed in the lower anterior as early as 8 years of age. T/F
True -- wait until growth and development is complete for others
Congenitally missing teeth are often related to ectodermal dysplasia; absence of primary teeth is common. T/F
false; false
Place in order from most to least common congenitally missing teeth: max. lateral, max 2nd premolar, mand 2nd premolar.
1-mand 2nd PM 2-max lateral 3-max 2nd PM
Supernumerary teeth are more common in permanent dentition; occur 8:1 in mandibular arch.
True, False (8:1 maxillary arch)
Where are mesiodens most commonly found?
between max centrals
When should mesiodens be extracted in order to defective eruption of permanent teeth?
when 2/3 of the permanent root has formed
T/F It is necessary to extract mesiodens when found in primary dentition.
Most mesiodens are oriented ______ to the other teeth.
Absence of clavicles, large fontanels, open sutures and multiple supernuerary teeth with delayed eruption are symptoms of _______.
Cleidocranial dysosotosis
85% or neonatal/natal teeth are primaries; and should be extracted. T/F
True; false -- extracted if supernumerary
What is the treatment for cysts of the dental lamina?
nothing - they will absorb on there own
Which is not caused by a defect in the proliferation stage: talon cusps, dens in dente, fusion, gemination, odontomas, ameloblastomas, amelogenisis imperfecta, dentigerous cysts, primordial cysts.
amelogenesis imperfecta (histodiferentiation)
Tooth development nevver progresses past proliferation leading to ________ cyst formation.
primordial - most common in 3rds
Dentigerous cysts are assoctiated with what?
impacted/unerupted teeth
________ are the most aggressive tumors of odontogenic origin.
Ameloblastomas are associated with unerupted teeth usually in the posterior mandible. T/F
________ are benign tumors forming amorphic nodules of enamal which may resemble miniature teeth.
Define gemination.
bifurcated crown one root
Define fusion.
union of two independently developing tooth buds = two roots and bifurcated crown.
When differentiating between fusion and gemination a normal # of teeth indicates gemination while missing one indicates fusion.
Dens in dente is formed by an ________ of IEE to form an exagerated lingual pit normally seen on ________ incisors.
in tion, max permanent lateral
An _____ of IEE usually of max permanent anteriors forms a _____ cusp.
talon - also exhibit high pulp chambers
Amelogenesis and dentinogenesis imperfecta are forms of abnormal _______.
Three types of amelogenesis imperfecta:
hypoplastic, hypocalcified and hypomaturated
_______ amelogenesis imperfecta affects matrix formation leading to rough, pitted enamel which is easily stained and sensitive.
Hypocalcified amelogenesis imperfecta is caused by abnormal matrix formation. T/F
False - matrix is normal, enamel is Ca+ deficient leading to soft, stainable teeth
Hypomaturated enamel is hard and smooth but very _____ making the teeth appear yellow-brown.
Which form of amelogenesis imperfecta is least susceptible to caries?
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is more common than amelogenensis. T/F
True - dentinogenesis = 1/8,000 births, amelogenesis = 1/14,000
Dentinogeneisis imperfecta is caused by a defect in ______ ______ formation.
predentin matrix
Type 1 dentinogenesis occurs with what other disease?
osteogenesis imperfecta
Type 1 dentinogenesis mostly affects primary teeth. T/F
Reddish brown to gray opalescent teeth with slender roots, bulbous crowns and pulp chambers with very thin or absent ______ indicate dentinogenesis imperfecta.
canals - may be obliterated
Which form of amelogenesis imperfecta is successfully treated with vaneers?
Peg teeth, Hutchinson's incisors and dilacerations are formed durring the _______ stage.
Which tooth is commonly peged?
max laterals ***also most common dens in dente and and talon cusp
Hutchinson's incisors and mulberry molars are both caused by _______.
congenital syphilis
Hutchinson's tirad includes Hutchinson's incisors/mulberrry molars, ______ and _______.
interstitial keratitis, nerve deafness
Dilacerations are usually related to tramatic inury durring tooth development; intrusive injuries of primary teeth can also cause dilaceration of the underlying permanent tooth.
True; True
Hypoplasia of the dentin is more common than the enamel. T/F
Group 1 apposition stage affects ______.
all primary teeth (4-6 months in UTERO)
Group 2 apposition stage occurs in the first 5 months and affects _____________.
1st permanent molar's, all incisors except max laterals and perm cuspids
Group 3 apposition occurs 1.5-3 yrs of age and affects _________.
all PM's and 2nd molars
Group 5 affects 3rds durring _______ years of age.
7 to 10
Amelogenesis involves all teeth while hypoplasia involves only the teeth undergoing apposition at the time of disturbance.
Mineralization begins before matrix formation has started. T/F
Define active eruption.
as crown is completed roots form and the tooth movement begins into the mouth
Ankylosis is more common in permanent teeth. T/F
Transposition of the eruption stage actually begins durring the _______ stage of development causing malposition of the tooth.
Which tooth is the most common site for ectopic eruptions?
max 1st PM
What is eruption sequestra caused by?
tooth eruption exceeds bone resorption