Tooth Developmental Abnormalities

Front 1

Anodontia, hypodontia - oligodontia and supernumerary teeth are problems in the ______ stage.

Back 1

initiation

Front 2

The intiation stage begins ___ weeks in utero from _______ to _______.

Back 2

6, anterior to posterior

Front 3

Ectodermal dysplasia is -linked recessive T/F.

Back 3

TRUE

Front 4

Two forms of ectodermal dysplasia?

Back 4

Anhidrotic, hidrotic

Front 5

Which is not a symptom of ectodermal dysplasia: absence/reduction of hair, temperature regulation, dry skin, depressed bridge (nasion), lip protrusion, below normal intellegence.

Back 5

patients have nomal intellegence

Front 6

Ectodermal dysplasia causes impaired jaw deformation. T/F

Back 6

FALSE

Front 7

Which is not a manifestation of ectodermal dysplasia: adontia, hypodontia, cone shaped teeth, primary/permanent canines and incisors are usually present.

Back 7

incisors are not present ---- usually pirmary/permanent canines and 1st molars

Front 8

The enamel organ consists of the IEE and OEE and is _____ in origin.

Back 8

ectodermal

Front 9

The dental papilla is _______ in origin forming ____ and -___.

Back 9

mesodermal, dentin and pulp

Front 10

What other structure is mesodermal in origin forming the PDL, cementum and alveolar bone?

Back 10

Dental sac

Front 11

Implants may be placed in the lower anterior as early as 8 years of age. T/F

Back 11

True -- wait until growth and development is complete for others

Front 12

Congenitally missing teeth are often related to ectodermal dysplasia; absence of primary teeth is common. T/F

Back 12

false; false

Front 13

Place in order from most to least common congenitally missing teeth: max. lateral, max 2nd premolar, mand 2nd premolar.

Back 13

1-mand 2nd PM 2-max lateral 3-max 2nd PM

Front 14

Supernumerary teeth are more common in permanent dentition; occur 8:1 in mandibular arch.

Back 14

True, False (8:1 maxillary arch)

Front 15

Where are mesiodens most commonly found?

Back 15

between max centrals

Front 16

When should mesiodens be extracted in order to defective eruption of permanent teeth?

Back 16

when 2/3 of the permanent root has formed

Front 17

T/F It is necessary to extract mesiodens when found in primary dentition.

Back 17

False

Front 18

Most mesiodens are oriented ______ to the other teeth.

Back 18

labially

Front 19

Absence of clavicles, large fontanels, open sutures and multiple supernuerary teeth with delayed eruption are symptoms of _______.

Back 19

Cleidocranial dysosotosis

Front 20

85% or neonatal/natal teeth are primaries; and should be extracted. T/F

Back 20

True; false -- extracted if supernumerary

Front 21

What is the treatment for cysts of the dental lamina?

Back 21

nothing - they will absorb on there own

Front 22

Which is not caused by a defect in the proliferation stage: talon cusps, dens in dente, fusion, gemination, odontomas, ameloblastomas, amelogenisis imperfecta, dentigerous cysts, primordial cysts.

Back 22

amelogenesis imperfecta (histodiferentiation)

Front 23

Tooth development nevver progresses past proliferation leading to ________ cyst formation.

Back 23

primordial - most common in 3rds

Front 24

Dentigerous cysts are assoctiated with what?

Back 24

impacted/unerupted teeth

Front 25

________ are the most aggressive tumors of odontogenic origin.

Back 25

ameloblastomas

Front 26

Ameloblastomas are associated with unerupted teeth usually in the posterior mandible. T/F

Back 26

TRUE

Front 27

________ are benign tumors forming amorphic nodules of enamal which may resemble miniature teeth.

Back 27

odontoma

Front 28

Define gemination.

Back 28

bifurcated crown one root

Front 29

Define fusion.

Back 29

union of two independently developing tooth buds = two roots and bifurcated crown.

Front 30

When differentiating between fusion and gemination a normal # of teeth indicates gemination while missing one indicates fusion.

Back 30

TRUE

Front 31

Dens in dente is formed by an ________ of IEE to form an exagerated lingual pit normally seen on ________ incisors.

Back 31

in tion, max permanent lateral

Front 32

An _____ of IEE usually of max permanent anteriors forms a _____ cusp.

Back 32

talon - also exhibit high pulp chambers

Front 33

Amelogenesis and dentinogenesis imperfecta are forms of abnormal _______.

Back 33

histodifferentiation

Front 34

Three types of amelogenesis imperfecta:

Back 34

hypoplastic, hypocalcified and hypomaturated

Front 35

_______ amelogenesis imperfecta affects matrix formation leading to rough, pitted enamel which is easily stained and sensitive.

Back 35

hypoplastic

Front 36

Hypocalcified amelogenesis imperfecta is caused by abnormal matrix formation. T/F

Back 36

False - matrix is normal, enamel is Ca+ deficient leading to soft, stainable teeth

Front 37

Hypomaturated enamel is hard and smooth but very _____ making the teeth appear yellow-brown.

Back 37

thin

Front 38

Which form of amelogenesis imperfecta is least susceptible to caries?

Back 38

hypomaturated

Front 39

Dentinogenesis imperfecta is more common than amelogenensis. T/F

Back 39

True - dentinogenesis = 1/8,000 births, amelogenesis = 1/14,000

Front 40

Dentinogeneisis imperfecta is caused by a defect in ______ ______ formation.

Back 40

predentin matrix

Front 41

Type 1 dentinogenesis occurs with what other disease?

Back 41

osteogenesis imperfecta

Front 42

Type 1 dentinogenesis mostly affects primary teeth. T/F

Back 42

TRUE

Front 43

Reddish brown to gray opalescent teeth with slender roots, bulbous crowns and pulp chambers with very thin or absent ______ indicate dentinogenesis imperfecta.

Back 43

canals - may be obliterated

Front 44

Which form of amelogenesis imperfecta is successfully treated with vaneers?

Back 44

hypomaturated

Front 45

Peg teeth, Hutchinson's incisors and dilacerations are formed durring the _______ stage.

Back 45

morphodifferentiation

Front 46

Which tooth is commonly peged?

Back 46

max laterals ***also most common dens in dente and and talon cusp

Front 47

Hutchinson's incisors and mulberry molars are both caused by _______.

Back 47

congenital syphilis

Front 48

Hutchinson's tirad includes Hutchinson's incisors/mulberrry molars, ______ and _______.

Back 48

interstitial keratitis, nerve deafness

Front 49

Dilacerations are usually related to tramatic inury durring tooth development; intrusive injuries of primary teeth can also cause dilaceration of the underlying permanent tooth.

Back 49

True; True

Front 50

Hypoplasia of the dentin is more common than the enamel. T/F

Back 50

FALSE

Front 51

Group 1 apposition stage affects ______.

Back 51

all primary teeth (4-6 months in UTERO)

Front 52

Group 2 apposition stage occurs in the first 5 months and affects _____________.

Back 52

1st permanent molar's, all incisors except max laterals and perm cuspids

Front 53

Group 3 apposition occurs 1.5-3 yrs of age and affects _________.

Back 53

all PM's and 2nd molars

Front 54

Group 5 affects 3rds durring _______ years of age.

Back 54

7 to 10

Front 55

Amelogenesis involves all teeth while hypoplasia involves only the teeth undergoing apposition at the time of disturbance.

Back 55

TRUE

Front 56

Mineralization begins before matrix formation has started. T/F

Back 56

FALSE

Front 57

Define active eruption.

Back 57

as crown is completed roots form and the tooth movement begins into the mouth

Front 58

Ankylosis is more common in permanent teeth. T/F

Back 58

FALSE

Front 59

Transposition of the eruption stage actually begins durring the _______ stage of development causing malposition of the tooth.

Back 59

initiation

Front 60

Which tooth is the most common site for ectopic eruptions?

Back 60

max 1st PM

Front 61

What is eruption sequestra caused by?

Back 61

tooth eruption exceeds bone resorption