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128 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
top 3 causes of meningitis over 60
strep pneumo
gram negative rods
listeria
what group of genes is responsible for skeletal development
HOX genes
what is the hallmark of a brainstem lesion?
contralateral long tract involvement and ipso cranial nerve involvement
what distinguishes lateral from medial brainstem lesions?

what distinguishes PICA from AICA? (CNs)
if lose pain and temperature- is lateral (unless have hypoglossal involvement, then is medial medulla)

if lose hearing/tinnitus = AICA (cochlear nucleus, CN VIII at pons)

if hoarse/lose gag reflex (nucleus acuumbens for IX), PICA/wallenburg syndrome/lateral medullary syndrome

note that there is only 1 P in either PICA-lateral medullary/wallenberg syndrome, and AICA-Lateral Pontine syndrome
how distinguish wallenburg syndrome?
among other deficits, will have contralateral body pain and temp loss with hoarseness/gag reflex/difficulty swallowing.

think "Mark WALLENBURG Likes Money (lateral medulla) and is no Pussy (PICA)"
what is exception to the pain and temp loss indicating a lateral brainstem lesion?
medial medullary syndrome, but will have ipso hypoglossal nerve involvement to diagnose
hemianopsia with macular sparing
PCA
blood vessel infarct: CNIII lesion
posterior communicating artery
blood vessel infarct: bitemporal hemianopsia
anterior communicating artery
stroke lesion:
general sensory and motor dysfunction, aphasia
anterior circle of willis
stroke where can cause coma
posterior circle of willis (as well as CN deficits, ataxia, neglect)
locked in syndrome comes from stroke of
basilar artery
stroke lesions:
CNIII lesion (strabismus- down and out)
vs
CNIII lesion and contra hemiparesis
CNIII only- post. communicating artery (smaller part of PCA)

CNIII and contra hemiparesis- paramedian branches of PCA (Bigger part of PCA)
(Weber's)
charcot-bouchard aneurysms seen where, in what condition
in thalamus and basal ganglia, associated with HTN
atheroscleroic ischemic brain infarct will eventually result in
cavity with reactive gliosis border
for stroke, what is use of CT? MRI?
CT used first to see if hemorrhage (will pick up, if not hemorrhage and less than 3 hours can push tPA. will show ischemia, but only after 1 day)

if want to see ischemia before 1 day, do MRI
foramen of monroe
connects lateral ventricles to 3rd ventricle
dementia, ataxia, and urinary incontinence in elderly, must rule out
normal pressure hydrocephalus (stretching corona radiata fibers)

DOES NOT INCREASE SUBARACHNOID SPACE VOLUME
young obese female with daily headaches worse in morning, papilledema?

complication?

3 possible drug causes?
pseudotumor cerebri

(increase in CSF pressure without ventricular dilation)

can get vision loss

can be caused by vit A, tetracylines, corticosteroid withdrawal
marker for lumbar puncture
anterior superior iliac crest


(at level of L3-L5)
MS damages what
oligodendrocytes (demyelination in CNS and spinal cord, can see periventricular plaques)
do what to diagnose MS (2)? how treat an acute attack?
oligoclonal bands, MRI (gold standard) of brain and spinal cord

give acute steroids
what gene and product are implicated in ALS?
superoxide dismutase 1 (SOD1)
what part of cell is dysfunctional in friedrich's ataxia?
mitochondria
5 hereditable causes of ataxia:
Friedrichs ataxia
hereditable vit.E deficiency
ataxia- telngectasia (poor eye following)
metachromatic leukodystrophy
wilson's disease
what brainstem nucleus provides visceral sensory information about taste, barorecetors, gut distention?

what brainstem nuclei innervates pharynx, larynx, upper esophagus?

what brainstem nuclei sends autonomic fibers to the heart, GI, and lungs?
visceral Sensory info- Nucleus Solitarius (VII, IX, X)

motor info to throat- Nucleus ambiguus (IX, X, XI)

autonomic stimulation to heart, lungs, GI- Dorsal Motor Nucleus (Misnomer)
anterior hip dislocation can damage what nerve?
obturator
tibial nerve can be damaged by trauma to what?
knee trauma
polio can damage what lower extremity nerve?
superior gluteal
tibial branch of sciatic nerve (upper leg) does what?
innervates hamstrings- hip extension and knee flexion (biceps femoris, semitendinous, semimebranous)
sacral plexus has what motor function?
lateral rotation of thigh (inferior gluteal nerve does same)
if weber test is more loud on patient's right, 2 possibilities
Conduction hearing loss ON RIGHT (will be louder! rhine will have greater bone conduction)

sensorineural hearing loss ON LEFT
what is pretectal nucleus function in pupillary reflex?
recieves info from optic tract, splits and delivers to both edingerwestphal nuclei (which output to parasymp. fibers in oculomotor nerve) for bilateral response
pt shines light in left eye, produces bilat constriction. pt shines light in right eye, bilateral pupillary dilation. defect where?
afferent pupillary defect (marcus gunn pupil)

optic nerve damage or retinal detachment
sudden onset of flashing lights indicates
retinal detachment (can result in degeneration of photoreceptors--> vision loss)
fast vs. slow macular degeneration cause
slow ("dry")- fat deposits in retina
fast ("wet")- neovascularization
glaucoma vision loss
starts peripherally, moves inward
dementia associated with frequent falls and/or syncope?

hallucinations?
lewy body dementia for both
what is dark pigment in substantia nigra and locus ceruleus
melanin
where are hirano bodies seen?
rod-like structures seen in hippocampus of Alzheimer's patients
filamentous neural inclusions that stain with silver
Pick bodies
filamentous neural inclusions that stain with PAS and ubiquitin
Lewy Bodies
guillain barre CSF findings
increased protein (AIDP and others) with normal cell count

causes papilledema
what viral brain disorder can occur after viral infection or vaccination?
acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

-perivenular inflammation and demyelination
which seizure drugs are teratogens
valproic acid
carmbazepine
phenytoin
phenytoin mech and side effects
na channel blocker

grows hair, gums, and fucked up baby (fetal hydrantoin syndrome)

also SLE and steven-johnsons
what are the common side effects of all antiepileptics?
diplopia, ataxia, sedation, dizziness, nystagmus

(because slows down CNS)
what seizure drugs can produce steven johnsons (along with sulfas and cillins and allopurinol)
carbamazepine
lamotrigine
phenobarbitol
phenytoin
ethosuxamide
what seizure drugs induce p450 (think of Queen Barb pneumonic
phenobarbitol
phenytoin
carbamazepine
2 hepatotoxic seizure drugs
valproic acid (fulminant liver failure), carbamazepine
which seizure drugs na channel blockers, calcium channel blockers, GABA potentiators?
look at venn diagram p 431
why do benzos cause poor sleep?
decrease REM and stage 4 sleep

(so can be used for night terrors, sleep walking)
benzo, barb, etoh action site
bind GABA(a)-R in allosteric site to open cloride channel
what is first line for trigeminal neuralgia?
carbamazepine (because pretty much seuzure of trigeminal nerve- shooting pain triggered by light touch)
sumatriptan mech
serotonin (5-HT) agonist

Sumotriptan-Serotonin (2 S's)

cluster or migraines
women with migraine with aura, make sure they ARE NOT ON
OCPs (thrombotic stroke)
what is first line treatment for cluster headaches
02 (oxygen)
uncal herniation could compress what vessel?
PCA (producing CONTRATERAL homomynous hemianopsia)
which of these are ring enhancing, uniformly enhancing:
toxoplasma
neurocysticercosis
metastases
lymphoma
AIDS lymphoma
abscess
ring-enhancing:
toxoplasma
abscess
neurocysticercosis
AIDS lymphoma
metastases

Uniformly enhancing lesion:
-lymphomas
-meningioma
1st line for myoclonic seizures
valproic acid
first line for peripheral neuropathy (a seizure drug)
gabapentin
vertigo, tinnitis, hearing loss, think of what?
triad for meniere's disease
what is mechanism of opioid receptor?
open K+ channels and close calcium channels

inhibit release of NE, ACh, 5-HT, glutamate, substance P
2 causes of neuronal death in huntington's
NMDA-R binding and glutamate toxicity
butorphanol mech
partial opioid agonist (like buprenorphine)

for pain with less addictive potential, but can cause withdrawal if on other opioids
tramadol mech

possible complication
weak opioid agonist, NE and serotonin uptake inhbitor ("tram it all" in)

for pain

decreases seizure threshold
which IV anesthetic causes decreased cerebral blood flow?
increased cerebral blood flow?
decreased- thiopental (think decreased brain activity)

increased- ketamine (makes you hallucinate and dream- increased brain activity)
propofol mech for anesthesia induction
potentiates GABA
what is order of nerve fibers local anesthetics affect?
small/large, unmyelinated/myelinated
pain goes first, then temp, then touch, then pressure

likes myelinated and small

small myelinated, small unmyelinated, large myelinated, large unmyelinated
what is non-psychotic use of haloperidol
huntington's

(dopamine receptor antagonist)
what is the endogenous receptor for the opioid receptors:
mu
delta
kappa
mu- morphine

delta- enkephalin

kappa- dynorphin
diphenoxylate is used for what?
diarrhea (is opioid like loperamide)
opioid commonly used in heart failure
morphine (decreases pulmonary edema)
what inhaled anesthetic produces nephrotoxicity
methoxyflurane (meth, neph sound similar)
long term use of propofol can cause
pancreatitis (has high TG content)
pramipexole, ropinerol, pergolide are
dopamine agonists for parkinsons
SAM:
main fxn
made from
what cofactors needed
helps produce what 3 things
give methyl groups (SAM is the METHYL donor man)
made from ATP and methionine
cofactors needed- B12, THF
1. turned into homocysteine when gets rid of CH3 group
2. used to make phosphocreatine
3. turns NE--> Epi
what is activated carrier for:
a carbon group?
CH3 group?
CO2 group?
aldehyde?
1 carbon- THF
CH3 group- SAM
CO2 group- biotin
aldehyde- TPP
hexokinase vs glucokinase:
what is Km, Vmax for each?
which is expressed in liver and beta islet cells?
hexokinase (everywhere)
low Km (high affinity)
low Vmax

glucokinase (liver, beta islet cells)
high Km
High Vmax (for storage)
how does Glucagon effect levels of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate, and what is the overall effect
Glucagon stimulates cAMP, which causes stimulates PKA. PKA phosphorylates fructobisphosphatase-2/phosphofructokinase-2 complex, which activates the fructosebisphosphatase-2 component. This decreases levels of fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase. that inhibits glycolysis by inhibiting phosphofructokinase-1 (the rate limiting enzyme for glycolysis), and stimulates gluconeogenesis

insulin does opposite (decreases cAMP)
what are the three main enzymes in glycolysis?
hexokinase/glucokinase

phosphofructokinase

pyruvate kinase
what metabolic disorder causes hemolytic anemia?
pyruvate kinase deficiency, because RBCs cant operate Na/K ATPase, swell and lyse

(most succeptable to glucose decrease damage)
what enzymes does gluconeogenesis use to overcome:
pyruvate kinase?
phosphofructokinase-1?
glucokinase/hexokinase?
pryuvate kinase:
-pyruvate carboxylase (using biotin)
-PEP carboxykinase
phosphofructokinase:
-fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
glucokinase:
-glucose-6-phosphatase
can both odd and even chain fatty acids serve as a glucose source?
NO!

only odd-chain fatty acids (can go to propionyl-CoA and become succinyl-CoA)
3 places gluconeogensis can happen
liver (main place)
kidney
intestinal epithelium

have gluconeogenic enzymes
what are the three main enzymes in glycolysis?
hexokinase/glucokinase

phosphofructokinase

pyruvate kinase
what metabolic disorder causes hemolytic anemia?
pyruvate kinase deficiency, because RBCs cant operate Na/K ATPase, swell and lyse

(most succeptable to glucose decrease damage)
what enzymes does gluconeogenesis use to overcome:
pyruvate kinase?
phosphofructokinase-1?
glucokinase/hexokinase?
pryuvate kinase:
-pyruvate carboxylase (using biotin)
-PEP carboxykinase
phosphofructokinase:
-fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
glucokinase:
-glucose-6-phosphatase
can both odd and even chain fatty acids serve as a glucose source?
NO!

only odd-chain fatty acids (can go to propionyl-CoA and become succinyl-CoA)
3 places gluconeogensis can happen
liver (main place)
kidney
intestinal epithelium

have gluconeogenic enzymes
glycogen breakdown problems:
what enzyme breaks down alpha 1,4 linkages in glycogen? deficit produces?

what enzyme breaks down alpha 1,6 linkages? defict produces?
alpha 1,4 - normal glycogen polymers

alpha 1-,6 (sex) - kinky branching

glycogen phosphorylase (breaks down alpha 1,4 linkages) - deficit causes McARDLES

debranching enzyme (alpha 1,6 glucosidase) - CORI's Disease
fasting hypoglycemia, hyerpuricemia, high blood lactate levels, hepatomegaly?
Von Girke's disease

deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase, so neither glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis can occur. hepatomegaly from glycogen in liver
fasting hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, increased glycogen in liver
Cori's disease

from debranching enzyme deficiency (alpha-1,6-glucosidase, 1,sex for kinky linkages)

can do gluconeogensis, but glycogenolysis is partially impaired
lysosomal 1,4 glucosidase deficiency causes what
Pompe's disease

(defiency also called acid maltase)

get cardmegaly and early death

trashes the heart, liver, muscles
painful muscle cramps, myoglobinuria with exercise
McArdles disease

glycogen phosphorylase deficiency
what cofactors are required for pyruvate dehydrogenase?
TLC for No One
thiamine
lipoic acid
CoA
FAD
NAD

same for alphaketoglutarate dehydrogenase (to succinyl-coA)
what is function of cori cycle?
takes the Lactate produced in muscle, RBCs, and lactate goes to liver where it is made back into glucose
what are the two main nitrogen carriers in the blood? what are their non-transportable forms?
ALANINE CYCLE

glutamate and alanine

both undergo transamination reactions to get NH4 to liver for urea cycle

glutamate comes from alphaketoglutarate and gets amino group from amino acids

alanine comes from pyruvate and gets amino group from glutamate
what cofactor must be present for transamination reactions in the alanine cycle?
B6
vomiting, rice-water, diarrhea, bad breath indicate poisoning with what? what is cofactor inhibited?
arsenic

inhibits lipoic acid
a pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency would present with what?
what would be built up?
the condition can be congenital, or it can be aquired how?
lactic acidosis (because can't go to TCA cycle, so alanine and lactate build up)

alcoholics due to B1 deficiency

treat with high fats and leucine and lysine (ketogenic AAs)
leucine and lysine are used to treat what
pyruvate dehhydrogenase deficiency

(purely ketogenic amino acids)
what is made in TCA cycle in terms of:
NADH
FADH2
CO2
GTP
ATP equivalents
per acetyl-coA (so X2 for glucose)

3 NADH
1 FADH2
1 GTP
2 CO2

12 ATP
what are the three irreversible steps of TCA cycle
citrate synthase
isocitrate dehydrogenase (rate limiting)
alphaketoglutarate dehydrogenase
NADH produces how many ATP, FADH produces how many ATP, why different
NADH= 3
FADH= 2

because FADH starts farther down ETC
2 examples of electron transport inhibitors
CO

cyanide
aspirin toxicity causes hyperthermia how?
uncouples electron transport chain, releases heat

normally H+ ions trapped in intermembrane space of mitochondria, but aspirin (and thermogeenin for brown fat) uncouple and let back into inner membrane space
what are functions of NADH vs NADPH?

(anabolic vs. catabolic)
NADH- catabolic (used in glycolysis)

NADPH- used in anabolism as a reduction reactions (fatty acid synthesis, steroid synthesis, respiratory burst, p450, glutathione reductase)
HMP shunt:
occurs where in cell?
how many ATP used/produced?
what are products and rate limiting step or oxidative portion?
products and rate limiting step of nonoxidative?

4 tissues it takes place
occurs in cytoplasm, energy neutral! (no ATP needed or produced)

Oxidative:
glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
produce NADPH and ribulose-5-phosphate

Non-oxidative:
TRANSKETOLASES
ribose-5-phosphate (for nucleotide synthesis

takes place in tissue that need reducing agents:
-lactating mammary glands (fatty acid synthesis)
-liver
-RBCs (for glutathione reductase)
-adrenal cortex (for steroid synthesis)
G6PD deficiency:
inheritance
Why do Heinz bodies occur?
what capacity is decreased?
x-linked recessive
Heinz bodies are due to oxidized and aggregated hemoglobin (become bite cells when macrophages remove Heinz bodies)

decreased NADPH makes it so that glutathione cannot stay reduced
jaundice, hypoglycemia, cirrhosis, vomiting with elevated fructose-1-phosphate level?
deficiency?
rx?
fructose intolerance
ALDOLASE B
rx- avoid fructose and sucrose (glucose + fructose)
what is deficiency of essential fructosuria?
fructokinase
infantile cataracts, failure to track objects and develop a social smile
galactokinase deficiency

more benign than classic galactosemia, some galacititol is still present but not as much
what is difference between lysosomal storage disorder eye problems and classic galactosemia?
lysosomal storage disorders (Hurler's, scheies, I cell) = corneal clouding

classic galactosemia = infantile cataracts (of lens)
failure to thrive, jaundice, infantile cataracts, MR?
deficiency?
rx?
classic galactosemia

galactokinase-1-phosphate uridyltransferase

rx- remove galactose, lactose (glucose + galactose) from diet - switch to soy milk formula

galactose gets converted to galactitol
lactase deficiency: 2 forms

what causes the bloating, gas, abdominal cramping?
age dependent/hereditary (African Americans, Asians) - loss of brush border enzyme

can also get after gastroenteritis

don't break down in gut, bacteria highly ferment it and cause gas, bloating, cramping. diarrhea from osmotic load
where in cell is alcohol dehydrogenase? acetylaldehyde dehydrogenase?
alcohol dehydrogenase- cytosol

acetylaldehyde dehydrogenase- mitochondria
alcohol inhibits what metabolic process and stimulates what metabolic process
inhibits gluconeogensis (high NADH depletes pyruvate and oxaloacetate --> lactate and malate

fatty acid synthesis stimulated
excess acetyl-coA from fatty acid metabolism stimulates production of
ketone bodies

starvation and DKA- oxaloacetate depleted for gluconeogensis

alcoholism- NADH shunts oxaloacetate to malate

both stall TCA, causing glucose and FFAs to go to ketone bodies
is oxidative phosphorylation used in 100 meter sprint?

what is used in a marathon?
no 1000 meter sprint

100 meter- ATP, creatinine phosphate, anaerobic glycolysis

in a marathon, FFAs and glycogen are used, glucose is conserved for the final sprint
after last meal, when does:
gluconeogensis begin?
FFAs become used?
glycogen stores run dry?
ketones ramp up?
in post-absorptive period, body uses glucose from liver and fatty acids from tissues

gluconeogensis starts after 4-6 hours

glycogen stores run dry 10-18 hours

ketone bodies become major factor 2 days in
what is rate limiting step for ketone body synthesis
HMG-CoA synthase
KNOW RATE LIMITING ENZYMES
p 95
ketone bodies in brain are metabolized to what
2 molecules of acetyl-CoA
what is the activated carrier for glucose
UDP glucose
how many ATP generated during aerobic metabolism? anaerobic?
aerobic = 30-32

anaerobic= 2 + lactate
is - Gibbs exergonic or endogonic?
spontaneous= exergonic
how many days of starvation does the brain switch to dominantly ketones from glucose? muscle?
brain- about 5 days (though still uses some glucose from the gluconeogenesis from the liver, but most going to RBCs)

muscle- trick question, always uses majority FFAs, but uses some ketones as well