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234 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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Why is castration indicated?
eliminate masculine behavior
improve marbling
not used for breeding
Unilateral castration is indicated in all of the following scenarios except:
testicular neoplasia, trauma, torsion of the spermatic cord, cryptorchid, inguinal herniation
cryptorchid
What breeds of horses are predisposed to evisceration?
tennessee walking horses
standardbreds
drafts

*have larger inguinal rings
What are the advantages and disadvantages of standing castrations?
Cheaper
no risk of gen. anesthesia
clean environment not required

can be difficult/dangerous
primary closure of scrotum is diff.
What is the difference between the 3 types of castration techniques in horses?
Closed: parietal tunic on
Open: parietal tunic off
Modified open: same as closed but tunic is excised to enhance visualizatoin of contents
Where is the castration incision made in the scrotum of the horse?
2cm on either side of the median raphe-- parallel to the raphe
Describe where and how to position emasculators.
right angle to spermatic cord
nut-to-nut

leave in place for 1-2 minutes
Should horses be exercised post castration?
after 24 hours- forced exercise will prevent swelling and promote drainage
What are 3 causes of hemorrhage in castration?
improperly applied emasculators
too sharp emasculators (need to crush)
too much tissue in crush
How much swelling is acceptable post castration in the horse?
it is common for edema and swelling to distend the scrotum to the size of the original testes
When is evisceration likely to occur? What is the prognosis?
usually within several hours

up to several days

poor prognosis
What is funiculitis?
infection of the spermatic cord
What is champingnon?
streptococcal funiculitis
____ is an infection of the spermatic cord with pyogenic bacteria.
schirrous cord
What can be done to reduce the chance of evisceration after castration?
stall horse 24 hours postsx
if previously known history--> put stitches around the inguinal ring.
Banding creates ischemia of testes with subsequent necrosis. What is the upper weight limit for banding babies?
400kg

that's kinda big.
What are the most common complications of banding?
tetanus

not getting both testes in the band
What is the difference between a testoctomy in a lamb vs a 4 yo bull?
lamb-- remove distal 1/3 of scrotum, steady traction to stretch vasculature until it breaks

bull-- linear incisions parallel to median raphe (like horse), ligation and transection/emasculation
When should tetanus vaccinations be given to small ruminants that are being castrated?
3-4 weeks prior to procedure and again at surgery
What is a rig or a ridgling?
cryptorchid horse
What is a partial abdominal cryptorchid?
epididymis descends but not testis
What is a high flanker?
inguinal cryptorchid

testis and epididymis descend into the inguinal canal but not into the scrotum
Left and right cryptorchids occur 50/50 in the horse, but whether or not they are retained in the abdomen is not of equal proportion. What side is more commonly retained in the abdomen?
left (75%)

right (40%)
T/F: If you go to castrate a horse and find that he is cryptorchid, it is ok to go ahead and castrate him because a testicle in the abodomen is sterile due to the elevated temperature.
False

refer- both testicles should be removed
What are the complications of equine caesarean sections?
decreased fertility
retained placenta
hemorrhage

*adhesions
what is the most common approach to C-sections in the bovine? Why?
left flank

prevents evisceration of small intestines
What sedative is preferred for bovine C-sections? Why?
torb/ace-- no ataxia
What muscles do you cut through during a flank approach to a C section?
EAO, IAO, transversus, (peritoneum)
How do you keep the uterus out of the abdomen during a flank approach C section?
lock the hocks and feet outside the incision
How many layers of closures are standard for a healthy C. section?
4?
uterus
peritoneum and transversus
IAO/EAO
skin

(5 layers if sick/ complicated -- uterus gets and additional layer)
What are the restrictions for rebreeding a cow that had a flank C- section? a ventral C-section?
flank: no restrictions

ventral: stall confinement for 6wks
no mounting for 8wks
Lidocaine is toxic to small ruminants at any dose greater than ____ mg/kg.
5
Is vaginal prolapse more common in the horse or the cow?
cow
Vaginal prolapses are generally stitched back in via a variety of methods. What can you do to reduce swelling of the vulva and further encourage the tissue to relapse into the vagina?
lubricate with glycerin or 10x sugar
Of the methods to close a vaginal prolapse, which ones can be left in for parturition?

Which ones have to be removed?
Ewe spoon
johnson buttons


buhner suture
bootlace suture
What is the differentiation between a first degree and a second degree perineal laceration in the mare?
first degree- skin and mucus membrane

second degree- constrictor vulvae muscle and perineal body
Third degree vaginal tears in the mare should be allowed to heal by second intention prior to surgical intervention. How long?
6-8 wk preferably after foal is weaned
How soon can you rebreed a mare after repairing a 3rd degree perineal tear?
3 mo natural service

3 wks AI
Define a penile hematoma.
rupture of the tunica albuginea and hemorrhage of the corpus cavernosum
What qualifies for a conservative treatment for penile hematomas? What is conservative therapy?
hematoma is <15cm diameter

* separate from cows for 6 wks
hydrotherapy and massage for 3 weeks
Toxins can cause abortions because they are lethal to the fetus. PGF2a works differently. How?
lyses CL that is maintaining pregnancy
When do abortions due to Energy defecit generally occur?
horse: early gestation

cow: late gestation
____ is the MOST common cause of abortion in both cattle and horses.
Twinning

*due to insufficient space for placental attachment
Palpation before day ___ can result in an increase in incidence of atresia coli in calves.
45

*loss occurs a month later
Most insect borne abortigenic viruses result in __ and __.
fetal deformities
hydranencephaly
____ viruses tend to cause necrosis throughout the fetus with organ failure and death. Immunity is poor and infected animals tend to carry them for life.
herpes
When do most bacterial abortions occur?
last trimester
As a general rule, bacteria cause dramatic and obvious ____ with subsequent placental failure.
placentitis
How are bacterial pathogens that cause fetal death maintained in a population?
host mounts an effective immune response after abortion

(abortion, contamination of environment, infection of naive host, abortion...)
Many of the abortigenic protozoa have a ____ stage in the carnivore host and a ____ phase in the herbivore host.
coccidia-- carnivore

tissue-- herbivore
How are most protozoa introduced to the host?
feedstuffs
milk

*tends to be a novel infection of immunologically naive pregnant animals
Fungi cause abortion most commonly in what species?
ruminants

Placentitis due to systemic mycotic infection (not yeast ascending urogenital tract)
Placentitis can be cause by __ or ___.
bacteria
fungi
What is the cycle length of a sheep? a goat?
17 days

21 days
Why do ewes have a silent first estrus?
require falling progesterone levels to achieve standing estrus

this means that the first ovulation will provide the necessary CL and progesterone (falling levels) for the next estrus
What is the effect of introducing a ram to a group that is cycling?
luteolysis and subsequent synchronization of estrus in a large number of the animals
When will goats come into heat with the male effect?
2-4 days after exposure
In general what breeds tend to be more fecund?
dairy
Sm Rum: Who and when do you begin flushing?
only works in adults (SHEEP only )

cheap feedstuffs

3weeks prior to mating
What mode of ultrasound is used to detect fetus and placenta?
B mode

A mode: detects fluid
When do ewes and does generally bag up?
a month prior to parturition
variable
___ is a reliable way to predict parturition within 12 hours in small ruminants.
relaxation of the sacrotuberous ligaments
what estrogenic forage can increase the incidence of vaginal prolapse in small ruminants?
clover
____ is incomplete dilation of the cervix at parturition.
Ringwomb

*can be related to chlamydia
After what time period are placentas considered to be retained?
12 hours
What are important bacterial causes of abortion in small ruminants?
Campylobacter
Chalmydia
Coxiella
Toxoplasma
Border disease
Herpesvirus (goats)
Will a ram's breeding numbers go up or down with a flock of aged sheep?
up

aged ewes actively seek out the male when they are in heat
Scrotal circumference is correlated to ___ and ___ in female offspring.
age at maturation
fecundity
What is ram-lamb epididymitis?
rams around puberty
commensals ascend the tract and cause epididymitis
What are the contributing factors of ulcerative posthitis?
high protein diet****
C. renale
Why do breeders select against split scrotums?
they lead to hypospadia
_____ causes salpingitis resulting in thin shelled misshapen (wrinkled) eggs, thin watery albumin, drop in egg production
Infectious bronchitis virus
What causes the wrinkling of eggs when birds are infected with IBV?
inflammation and swelling of the oviduct
_____ causes a dramatic drop in egg production (often completely stops), misshapen eggs, soft shelled or shell-less eggs.
Acute oophoritis/ salpingitis
____ is a sequel to coliform septicemia or respiratory tract infection, esp w/ S. pullorum in birds.
Oophoritis
What causes vaginal prolapse in chickens?
enlargement of the abdominal fat pad
FAT chickens
Calcium deficiency or Ca:P imbalance can cause _____ due to abdominal vaginal muscle fatigue or thin shelled/shell less eggs.
egg-binding (dystocia)
What does Zearlenone mycotoxicosis cause in birds?
mortality
cyanotic combs and wattles
difficulty walking
reduced fertility
decreased sperm viability
ascites
cysts in oviduct
salpingitis
What are some behavioral problems that can reduce reproductive efficiency in birds?
mismatched pairs
environmenta distractions
broodiness
What is Egg binding?
egg impaction (dystocia)
What is the potential problem with chronic egg layers?
calcium drain-- egg binding
What causes chronic egg laying? How can it be reduced?
too much light exposure

give them fake eggs
What should be included in the physical exam of a bull outside of the reproductive exam?
ID
breed/age
BCS
eyes/nose
feet/legs
What should be included in the reproductive exam of a bull?
palpate penis, testes, epididymis
scrotal circumference
palpate ampulla, seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbourethral glands
-semen evaluation
What things do you assess when evaluating semen?
volume
color
consistency
motility >30%
morphology >70% normal
Penile hematomas are a rupture of the tunica albuginea at the distal sigmoid flexure. Where would you see swelling?
at the neck of the scrotum
Medical therapy for penile hematomas includes ____, ____, and sexual rest for how long?
cold hydrotherapy
massage

sexual rest for 2 months
What are 4 possible sequellae of penile hematomas?
damaged dorsal nerve
abscessation of the hematoma
cavernosal venal shunts
adhesions
Why are Bos indicus breeds predisposed to preputial injuries?
they have a pendulous prepuce
Why are polled breeds predisposed to preputial injuries?
they lack a retractor prepuce muscle
Preputial injuries should be allowed to completely heal before surgical intervention if it's necessary. How long does it take to heal pre and post surgery?
2-6 weeks pre

8 weeks post
What causes a spiral deviation of the penis in the bull?
Dorsal apical ligament slips to one side

shortened DAL
what is the result of a cavernosal shunt in the penis?
inability to maintain an erection
Name 3 infectious agents that can cause seminal vesiculitis in young bulls.
Chlamydia
Mycoplasma
Ureaplasma
Brucella
Mycobacterium bovis
Pseudomonas
Actinobacillus seminis
What is the cause of testicular degeneration? Treatment?
heat
frostbite
lameness
old age

No treatment
Parturition stage 1 is 2-6 hours. It begins with ___ and ___ and ends with ____.
uterine contracion and cervical dilation

fetus in birth canal
Parturition stage 2 is 2 hours long. It consists of ____ reflex and subsequent _____.
Ferguson Reflex

fetal delivery
Stage 3 of parturition results in delivery of the _____.
fetal membrane/ placenta

*considered retained after 12 hours
T/F: Calving ease is a genetic trait that can be selected for in bulls.
True

*select for low birth weight
What are the 3 Ps of dystocia?
Presentation
Position
Posture
This "P" refers to the relation of the dorsum of the fetus to the quadrants of the maternal pelvis.
position
This "P" refers to the relation of the extremeties to the body of the fetus.
posture
This "P" refers to the relataion of the spine of the fetus to that of the dam and the direction of the fetus entering the pelvic canal
Presentation
Order these by prognosis for the fetus in the case of dystocia.

cow sow mare
mare (30-40 min)
sow (4-6 hours)
cow (3-12 hours)
What is an obstetrical mutation?
repulsion and rearrangement to normal 3Ps
Pigs mature at ____ months and ____ pounds.
6-9 mo
230 lbs
T/F: Purebred gilts will mature faster than crossbred gilts, especially in larger more rapid growing breeds.
False
* crossbreds mature faster
Trucking gilts >_____ days old will result in spontaneous induction of heat/puberty ____ days later.
> 180days

4-7 days later
Gilts should be exposed to boars around ___ days to hasten puberty. Lack of exposure may lead to ____.
160-170 days

anestrus
Why is a gilts first estrus silent?
lack of progesterone priming of brain centers
When do sows reach maximum fecundity?
2-4 years
The sow has a postpartum estrus within 5 days of farrowing. Can you breed her then?
no. this is a nonfertile estrus

*fertile estrus (2nd) is 4-8 days after weaning
What are 2 signs of estrus unique to the sow?
ears elevated in presence of boar
champing of jaws with salivation
During diestrus of the sow, progesterone peaks at day ___.
7
If a sow fails to catch, can you use PGF2a to shortcycle her back for rebreeding?
no. she is unresponsive to PGF2a until day 12 and she will recycle on her own at day 16 (4 days is not advantageous)
In the bitch prolactin is luteotropic. In the sow ____ is luteotropic.
estrogen
How many eggs does a gilt produce versus a sow?
gilt: 10-15

sow: 18-25
Flushing is common for gilts. Energy intake is increased ___ weeks prior to estrus to increase ova by ___.
2 weeks

2-3 more ova
Why does heterospermic insemination increase farrowing rates?
minimizes subfertility of males
On what day does the pregnant sow recognize the presence of an embryo?
day 12
When does implantation occur in the sow?
day 15-17
what is going on days 9-12 of pregnancy in the sow?
intrauterine migration of the zygotes for spacing of the embryos
how many embryos are necessary to maintain pregnancy in a sow?
4
Pregnancy in the sow can be diagnosed based on serum progesterone which comes from the CL, or serum estrone sulphate which comes from the ____.
fetus
Normal gestation length of the sow is:
3mo 3wk 3da
What effect does ACTH have on pregnancy?
increased cortisol = decreased progesterone, increased estrogen
What is the effect of relaxin?
softening of the cervix
How do you know when a sow has finished farrowing?
she's quiet, no longer restless
nursing
voids large amount of urine
eCG acts like ___ in the horse and ___ in the sow.
LH in the horse

FSH in the sow
Administering ___ after 5 mo of age (160days) will induce estrus in 90% with a 75% farrowing rate. At what point do you know this is necessary?
GnRH

gilts do not show estrus 42da after pen-mates
trucking and boar exposure ineffective
Induction of estrus in postpartum sows is heavily influenced by ___ and ___.
group weaning

environmental HEAT

*also nutrition, early weaning, heavy lactation
using prostaglandins to induce parturition in the sow may reduce ___ and ___.
stillborns
MMA complex

Mastitis, Metritis, Agalactia
What are the reproductive goals for swine?
Farrowing rate
live piglets
stillbirths
mummies
Farrowing rate: 85%
live piglets: 10.5
stillbirths <7%
mummies <1.5%
What are the 2 most common NONinfectious causes of reproductive issues in sows?
hydrosalpinx
polycystic ovaries
sow abortions occur before ___ days of gestation versus stillborns which die shortly before, during, or after birth.
110days
When does early embryonic death occur in th sow?
before 35days
When do mummies occur in the sow?
after day 35
How do you know if EED in the sow occurred before or after implantation?
before implantation = no pregnancy = return to estrus in 21 days

after implantation = longer (28d)
Porcine Parvovirus has different effect depending on the stage of pregnancy during which the sow becomes infected.
<35 days =
35-70days =
>70 days =

How is it diagnosed
<35 = EED
35-70 = mummies
>70 = fetal recovery

virus in fetal lungs
HI titer in precolostral serum
How do you prevent PPV?
vax at 2-3mo
6 mo
boost at farrowing

Forced exposure
This virus often coinfects with PPV.
Porcine enterovirus
What kind of virus is porcine pseudorabies? Where do they carriers carry this infection?
herpes

trigeminal ganglia
PRV is spread via ____. Clinical signs include ___, reproductive, and ___ signs.
respiratory secretions

CNS, respiratory
How is PRV controled/prevented?
depopulate
disinfect 2x/week
vacate 30 days
repopulate
PRRS is transmitted by ____. Clinical signs include ____, ____, and ___ in sows and ___ ,____ in piglets.
aerosol

anorectic, febrile, LATE term abortion

weakness, respiratory compromise
What tissues can be used to diagnose PRRS?
brain
lung
kidney
aborted fetus
Leptospira pomona causes what in pigs?
mid-late term abortion or stillbirth
How often should pigs be vaccinated for lepto?
at 6mo and 2x year-- after each farrowing
Brucella suis can affect the boar or the sow... how?
boar: orchitis, epididymitis

sow: placentits, abortion at any stage
How is Eperythrozoon suis transmitted?
louse
What are two protozoan infections that can cause reproductive disorders in pigs?
Eperythrozoon suis
Toxoplasma gondii
How long is the spermatogenic cycle?
45 days
What is the breeding ratio and the average breeding time of the boar?
1:20
5 min
What is the ideal volume and # sperm to inseminate the sow with via AI?
50 ml
2 billion
Bo: What is happening in the ovary during metestrus?
CH is turning into a CL
Bo: During diestrus what is the dominant structure and hormone on the ovary?
CL
progesterone
Bo: luteal cells produce ___ ,in addition to progesterone, which plays a role in luteolysis.
oxytocin
Bo: What's happening during proestrus?
formation of ovulatory follicle
increased estrogen secretion
Bo: When does ovulation occur in relation to estrus?
10-18 hours after the end of estrus

only lasts ~7hours
In the cow, if day 0 is estrus
day 1-3 =
day 4-18 =
day19-21 =
1-3= metestrus
4-18= diestrus
19-21= proestrus
Why should you wait until the end of standing heat before you artificially inseminate a cow?
if you inseminate at the beginning of standing heat the sperm could die before the cow ovulates

*she ovulates 10-18 hours AFTER the END of standing heat
Bo: What phase of the estrous cycle occurs from the regression of the CL to ovulation?
Follicular phase

*proestrus and estrus
Bo: What is the dominant ovarian structure and hormone during the follicular phase?
follicle

estrogen
Bo: follicles grow in a wave like fashion every ____ days.
8-12
Bo: What are the hormone levels during the recruitment phase of the follicular wave?
high FSH
low LH
NO inhibin
Bo: What are the hormone levels during the dominance phase of the follicular wave?
low FSH
high LH
high inhibin
Bo: what is the luteal phase? What is the dominant structure and hormone?
period from ovulation to regression of the CL

CL
progesterone
What estrous stages make up the luteal phase?
metestrus
diestrus
the CL in the cow is nonresponsive to PGF2a prior to day ___ (day 0 = ovulation). Responsiveness is best after day ____.
nonresponsive= day 5

best after day 7
Cystic ovaries occur due to failure of ___.
ovulation
How long does a follicle have to persist for it to be considered cystic?
10 days
There are 2 types of cysts, follicular and luteal. explain how the symptoms differ? Which one is more common?
follicular: persistent estrus

***luteal: persistent anestrus
Bo: what is the treatment for cystic ovaries?
GnRH or hCG

PGF2a 10days later
ovarian cysts
pyometra
mummified fetus
segmental aplasia
infantile genitalia

can all cause ___.
anestrous
inactive ovaries
GnRH is a decapeptide made in the hypothalamus. It can be used in cows to do what?
induce ovulation
treat cystic ovarian disease
synchronization programs
What does GnRH do to a bull?
LH stimulates leydig cells to produce testosterone
hCG is used similarly to GnRH . What hormone does hCG actually behave like?
LH
What is FSH used for?
superovulation-- embryo transfer
endogenous release of oxytocin is stimulated by several things, name 3.
sight of calf
smell of calf
suckling
rectal palpation-- ferguson reflex
udder stimulation
Oxytocin acts on the uterus in the presence of what hormone?
estrogen
What produces progesterone other than the CL?
placenta
adrenal
What is a CIDR and how is it used?
progesterone IVD
suppresses estrus-- synchronize cows by taking them all out at the same time
What types of cells produce estrogen?
granulosa cells of Graffian follicles
how does dexamethasone stimulate parturition?
stimulates hydroxylase enzyme in the placenta which shifts progesterone to estrogen
Endogenous prostaglandins come from ___.
endometrium
a single injection of PGF2a will synchronizes 60% of cows while a double injection syncs 95% of cows. How far apart should the 2 injections be given?
11-14days

*estrus is sync'd but not ovulation-- still requires heat detection
What are the estrogen synchronizing options for cows?
every week- lots of labor
every 2 weeks- good
at preg checks- sync open cows (careful not to cause an abortion)~
T/F: CIDRs go in for a week and you give a shot of PGF2a when you take them out.
False

give PGF2a on day 6
take CIDR out on day 7
What is the longest synchronization protocol for cows?
Melengestrerol acetate (oral progesterone)

2 short cycles-- 35-37 days
Describe the theoretical longest and shortest gestation scenarios for the cow? (mother baby pair)
long : Cow with male calf


short : heifer with female twins
What maintains the calf pregnancy up to day 150? day 150-250?
<150d CL

150-250 CL + placenta
What two conditions can result in prolonged gestation?
adrenal hypoplasia-- fetal giants

pituitary aplasia-- malformed
What size are the placentomes of a 120 day pregnancy?
quarter
What size are the placentomes of a 90 day pregnancy?
dime
All of the following are cardinal signs of pregnancy except:
amniotic vesicle
membrane slip
middle uterine artery fremitus
palpation of fetus
palpation of placentome
middle uterine artery fremitus
Why might some pregnancy cows show heat?
biphasic FSH waves persist at all times
why does double ovulation twinning occur?
lack of dominance of a follicle
When can you detect a membrane slip via rectal palp?
35+
When can you palpate the placentomes via rectal palp?
80+
Bo: When can you palpate the fetus?
70+
When are the critical times for pregnancy wastage in the cow?
embryo descent into the uterus
maternal recognition
during/at completion of organogenesis
Fetal mummification often occurs at ___ months. What does it feel like on palpation?
5-6 months

hard mass
no fluid
no membrane slip
no placentomes
CL on ovary!!!
What is a colpotomy and when would it be appropriate?
incision through the vagina to get to the uterus to remove a... mummy

versus a laparotomy: incision through the lateral abdominal wall to get to the uterus
how do you tell the difference between a fetal mummy and a fetal maceration scenario?
macerated feti have
crepitation
fluid in uterus
What is hydrops and when does it occur?
abnormal accumulation of fetal fluid in the uterus

mid- late gestation
how do you tell the difference between hydroallantois and hydroamnios?
fetus and placentomes are only palpable in hydramnios
Hydroallantois is a ____ malformation where as hydramnios is a ______ malformation.
placental


fetal
Which hydrop condition occurs faster, hydroallantois or hydroamnios?
hydroallantois (5-20 days)
What does pluripara mean?
has had multiple babies and the area of the vagina is less elastic (more likely to prolapse)
Bo: What breeds and conditions are predisposed to vaginal prolapse?
holstein
hereford
santa gertrudis

FAT, pluripara
How does fetal stress cause birth?
stress--> fetal acth--> fetal cortisol---> signals dam to release estrogen and PGF2a
what problems does periparturient paresis cause for the cows uterus if it occurs preparturition?
uterin intertia
dystocia
uterine prolapse
Uterine torsion occurs during ___ stage of parturition. Signs include tail up, restless, kicking abdomen. How do you definitively diagnose this?
1st stage

spiral folds at the anterior vagina on manual vaginal examination
What is the most common degree of torsion?
180 degrees to the left
For a uterine prolapse, once you put the uterus back in and secure, you administer antibiotics, antiinflammatories, ___ and ___.
calcium

oxytocin
Is a retained placenta grounds for culling a cow?
no

*common in dairy cows, not in beef cows
twinning
dystocia
induced parturition
abortion
vit E and Se deficiency
infection

are all contributing factors to what condition in cows?
retained placenta
Bo:How long will it take to get rid of a retained placenta if left untreated?
5-7days

caruncles will slough
why is the cow more likely to develop metritis than the mare?
blood supply is better in the mare-- diffuse placenta vs cotyledons in the cow
Why is the cow more likely to develop salpingitis as a sequelae to metritis than the mare?
mare has very tight uterotubal junction

cow does not
what is necessary for a pyometra in the cow?
Pus in the uterus

persistent CL

* cow thinks she's preggers
If there is no embryo to implant why doesn't the cow's uterus expel the pyometra?
prostaglandin release is reduced due to the impaired endometrium

there is also luteotropic PGE production from the WBC in the pus
why do you have to be careful when doing a uterine lavage in the cow?
poor uterotubal jx

don't push fluid into the oviduct
In case of abortions in a farm the serology should focus on what diseases?
brucella
lepto
neospora
IBR
BVD !&2
BVD infections that occur during pregnancy have different effect depending on the stage:

1st trimester:
1-2nd trimester:
3rd trimester:
1- reduced conceptions
2- abortion/ dev abnormalities
3- carrier
BHV causes no gross lesions in the fetus. What does have lesions?
multifocal coagulative necrosis in the liver
How is brucella spread?
infeced uterine discharge
What two infectious agents cause mid-gestation abortions in cows?
brucella abortus
neospora caninum
this infectious agent causes abortions due to purulent intercotyledonary placentitis with necrosis of cotyledons
brucella abortus
These two venereal diseases are self limiting in the cow in about 4 months.
Trichomonas fetus

Campylobacter fetus venerealis
Trichomonas fetus colonizes where?
prepuce
vagina
uterus
Where does campylobacter fetus venerealis colonize?
uterus
oviduct
T/F: trichomonas causes cows to fail to concieve.
false

*campylobacter causes cows to fail to conceive

both may have EED or abortion
What infectious agent is associated with POST BREEDING PYOMETRA?
trichomonas fetus