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108 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
monoclonal antibodies?
OKT3, basiliximab, daclizumab
polyclonal abs?
RATG (thymoglobulin), ATG (ATGAM)
OKT3:
monoclonal ab, NOT used for induction
ADR: cytokine release syndrome (fever, chills, rigors, pruritis, changes in BP)
use: APAP, diphenhydramine, steroids, indomethacin as premeds
cyclosporine:
calcineurin inhibitor, potent immunosuppressive agent thought to inhibit IL-2
cyp3a4 substrate and inhibitor
nephrotoxic immunosuppressants:
CSA, TAC
therefore NOT used at time of induction therapy
vasoconstricts afferent arteriole
CYP 3A4 SUBSTRATES AND INHIBITORS:
prednisone, CSA, TAC
substrate: sirolimus
monitoring parameters for CSA, TAC
srcr, BUN, urine output, wt gain, edema, drug concentr.
monitoring parameters for steroids
sugar/glc, water retention, wt gain, BP
what is 1st line therapy to avoid acute rejection
use steroids with dose tapering
MOA of steroids:
block cytokine activation by binding to glucocorticoid response elements inhibiting IL-1,2,3,6, gamma interferon, tumor necrosis factor alpha
ADRS of steroids:
increase in appetite, insomnia, indigestion, mood changes, hyperlipidemia, glc alterations, wt gain, leukocytocytosis
d-d inrxns of steroids:
barbitutates, phenytoin, rifampin induce hepatic elim. of prednisone

prednisone decreases effectivness of vaccines and toxoids
what type of AB is sirolimus (rapamycin)
macrolide ab inhibits t lymphocyte activation and proliferation
adrs with sirolimus:
hyperlipidemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
monitoring parameters with atg:
lipid profile and myleosuppression (leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia)
what are the 4 types of ARF
1. prerenal azotemia
2. functional ARF
3. acute intrinsic RF
4. postrenal obstruction
what is prerenal azotemia?
decrease in renal profusion, presents with hypotensive, weakness, bleeding
what is functional ARF:
decrease in GFR without damage to kidney due to changes in glomerular afferent and efferent arteriole circumference, hemodynamic changes
what is acute intrinsic RF:
most worrisome, results from structural damage to kidney
what is postrenal obstruction?
obstruction of urine flow from kidney out of body, must involve both kidneys to cause ARF
what types drugs cause functional ARF:
cyclosporine, ACEIs, NSAIDS, hypercalcemia, hepatorenal syndrome
what drugs cause intrinsic RF(acute tubular necrosis)?
amphotericin B, aminoglycosides
drugs that cause acute interstitial nephritis (intrinsic RF)?
PCN, ciprofloxacin, sulfonamides
drugs that cause postrenal rf?
crystal deposition by oxalate, indinavir, sulfonamides, acyclovir
prophylactic therapies in prevention of ARF
hydration (sodium loading) normal saline, used to mitigate the nephrotoxicity of contrast dye, Amp B is to sodium load pt prior to giving nephrotoxin

hydration (dehydration is risk factor for ARF)- want to expand intravscular compartment and increase renal perfusion, solutions such as D5W distribute throughout the body which defies the purpose, initial rate of administration: 1-2 ml/kg/h

calcium channel blockers: inhibit response of afferent arterioles of the kidney to vasoconstrictive agonists
have mannitol, loop diuretics, or dopamine shown to be effective in preventing nephrotoxicity?
NONONONONONNNONNONO

NOOOOOOOOOOOOO
what prevents nephrotoxicity?
hydration (sodium loading), theophylline, acetylcysteine (prior to contrast dye administration)
insulin (to maintain serum glc of 80-110 mg/dl) for critically ill pts
therapies that have proven benefit in preventing or treating ARF:
diuretics: mannitol and furosemide
dopamine: dilate renal vasculature (evidence says NOT effective)
general clinical presentation of ARF:
change in urinary habits
edema
wt gain
colored or foamy urine
hypotension
increase in serum creatinine
urinalysis: casts, wbcs, rbcs
renal ultrasound- check for renal obstruction
non-oliguric
nmt 450 ml/day
oliguric
pt makes 50-450 ml/dy
anuria
urine output is < 50 ml/day
ACEI does waht to efferent arteriole:
dilates
what is the most common type of community acquired renal failure?
prerenal azotemia
what drugs cause functional ARF
csa, aceIs, NSAIDS
what drugs cause acute interstitial nephritis
PCN, CIPRO, sulfonamides

(acute intrisinic RF)
what drugs cause postrenal RF
crystal deposition by oxalate, indinavir, sulfonamides, acyclovir
what drugs cause acute tubular necrosis (acute intrinsic RF)
amphotericin B, aminoglycosides
what drugs are afferent arteriolar vasoconstrictors
vasoconstrictor PG inhibitors:
NSAIDS, COX 2 inhibitors

direct afferent arteriolar:
vasoconstrictors, cyclosporine, amphortericin B, radiocontrast media, vasopressors
what drugs aer efferent arteriolar vasodilators:
renin-angiotensin aldosterone: ACEIs, ARBs

direct efferent arteriolar vasodilators:
diltiazem, verapamil (CCBs)
what are the indications for renal replacement therapy?
A: acid base abnormalities: metabolic acidosis resulting from avvumulation of organic and inorganic acids
E: electrolyte imbalance: hypercalcemia, hypermagnesemia, hyperphosphatemia
I: intoxications: salicylates, lithium, methanol, ethylene glycol, theophylline, phenobarbital
O: fluid overload: post-op fluid gain
U: uremia: high catabolism of ARF
what type of RRT for critically ill ICU pt?
continuous veno-venous hemodialysis
crcl equation:
(140- pts age)ABW/ scr * 72
complications associated with ckd:
1. anemia
2. secondary hyperparathyroidism and hyperphosphatemia
3. altered fluid and electrolyte homeostasis
4. metabolic acidosis
5. malnutrition
corrected calcium equation
measured total Ca plus (4- pts albumin)*0.8
BP goals for ckd stages 1 to 4
less than 130/80
non HDL equation
non HDL = TC - HDL
what is the most common cause of resistance to erythropoietic therapy
iron deficiency
what is the mg of iron in polysaccharide iron?
50 mg
what is the mg of iron in ferrous gluconate
36 mg
what is the mg of iron in ferrous fumarate?
100mg
what is the mg of iron in ferrous sulfate
65 mg
calcium containing phosphate bidning agents decrease the absorption of which agents?
iron, fluoroquinolones, zinc
true or false: FOOD INCREASE THE ABSORPTION OF CINACALCET (SENSISPAR)
true
what is cinacalcet used for? moa?
cinacalcet (sensipar): calcimimetic agent recently approved for tx of sHPT in ESKD pts and for tx of hypercalcemia in pts with parathyroid carcinomo acts on calcium sensing receptor on surface of chief cell of parathyroid
true or false: FOOD INCREASE THE ABSORPTION OF CINACALCET (SENSISPAR)
true
what is cinacalcet used for? moa?
cinacalcet (sensipar): calcimimetic agent recently approved for tx of sHPT in ESKD pts and for tx of hypercalcemia in pts with parathyroid carcinomo acts on calcium sensing receptor on surface of chief cell of parathyroid
what are the treatment options for ckd at increased risk for uremic bleeding
cryoprecipitate, desmopressin, estrogen
monitoring parameters for anemia without iron deficiency
Hb, Hct, T stat, ferritin, BP, blood loss, fatigue, weakness, SOB, angina, ADRs
moa of sevelamer
nonabsorbable hydrogel phosphate-binding agent which does no contain alluminum, calcium, magnesium
what is sevelamer used for
primary therapy in dialysis pts with severe vascular or soft tissue calcifications and used as 1st line phosphate binding agent in pts with stage 5 ckd
what is unique about sevelamer
lowers LDL and increases HDL
aluminum hydroxide
Amphojel
Aluminum carbonate
Basaljel
magnesium hydroxide
milk of magnesia
rocaltrol
calcitriol
paricalcitol
zemplar
doxercalciferol
hectorol
cinacalet
sensipar
what vitamin d analog is associated with less hyperphosphatemia, suppresses the PTH fastest, and has an improved 3 yr survival rate among dialysis pts
Paricalcitol (Zemplar)
ADRs of erythropoietic growth factors
HTN
leading causees of CKD
DM, HTN, glomerularnephritis
which of the following drugs decreaes the absorption of iron
ppis, h2 antagonists, antacids
oral iron preparations decrease the absorption of
fluoroquinolones
hypophosph
< 2 mg/dl
hyperphosph
> 4.5 mg/ml
normal phos
2.5-4.5 mg/ml
pathophysiology of hypophosphatemia
decreased GI absorption: phosphate binding (sucralfate, calcium carbonate-Tums, sevelamer)
increased urinary excretion: acetazolamide, osmotic diurectics, glucocorticoids, sodium bicarbonate)
internal redistribution: anabolic steriods, glucagon, calcitonin, erythropoietin, insulin, dextrose
goals of therapy for hypophosph.
add 12-15 mmol/L of phosphorus to IV hyperalimentation soluntions to prevent hypophor. in hospitalized pts
mometasone
Asmanex
powder qd, inhale quickly
budesimide
Pulmicort
powder qd
choice for pregnancy
fluticasone
flovent
beclomethasone
Qvar
flunisolide
Aerobide
triamcinolone
Azmacort

INC
pirbuterol
Maxair Autoinhaler

SABA
formoterol
Foradil Aerolizer

LABA
only used in COMBO with ICS, never monotherapy
Salmeterol
Serevent Diskus
LABA
only used in Combo with ICS, never monotherapy
montelukast
Singular
leukotriene modifiers
zilcuton
Zyflo
new ER bid
5 lipoxygenase inhibitor
Cromolyn
Intal
mast cell stabilizer
nedocromil
Tilade
mast cell stabilizer
ipratropium
Atrovent
anticholinergic
theophylline
Uniphyl
omalizumab
Xolair
immunomodulators
last resort for pt over 12
fluticasone/salmeterol
Advair

Don't shake
budesonide/formoterol
Symbicort
green zone of peak flow meter
89% of personal best
yellow zone of peak flow meter
50-80% of personal best need SABA
red zone of peak flow meter
<50% immediate need for SABA and MD --- ER
LABA
salmeterol (serevent discus)
formoterol (foradil aerolizer)

black box warning increase asthma related death
only used in combo with ICS, never mono-therapy
not for acute exacerbation
ADRs of SABA
tachycardia, muscle tremor, hyperglycemia, HA
ADRs of ICS
cough, dysphonia, oral thrush, osteoporosis, bruising

high doses: increased susceptibility to infection
4 components of asthma care:
1 pt/doctor partnership
2 id and reduce exposure to risk factors
3 assess, tx, and monitor
4 manage exacerbations
mild exacerbation of asthma
taking in sentences, increaes rr, walking, can lie down
severe exacerbation of asthma
hunched over
uncontrolled asthma
3 or more partly controlled symptoms in a week, an exacerbation in a week
partly controlled:
daytime sympt more 2x per week, any limitations in activity, any nocturnal symp, rescue relieft mroe than 2x per week, less than 80% predicted or personal best FEV or PEF, one or more exacerbations in a year