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243 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
top 3 cancers in men
|
1. prostate
2. lung and bronchus 3. colon and rectum |
|
top 3 cancers in women
|
1. breast
2. lung and bronchus 3. colon and rectum |
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top 3 death causing cancers in men
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1. lung and bronchus
2. prostate 3. colon and rectum |
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tope 3 death causing cancers in women
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1. lung and bronchus
2. breast 3. colon and rectum |
|
which phase of cell cycle:
when the cell senses growth signals or mitogens. These start the process of cell division |
G1
|
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which phase of the cell cycle:
Cell crosses a restriction point at 8-10 hours into G1. This is a point of no return, the cell is committed to divide or die. |
G0
|
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which phase of cell cycle:
arrest here for cancer cells, leads to apoptosis |
G1/S
|
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which phase of cell cycle:
DNA is synthesized. Many cytotoxic anti-cancer drugs act here to disrupt DNA synthesis |
S phase
|
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which phase of cell cycle:
Cell arranges and checks chromosomes. There is a major checkpoint here to ascertain that DNA replication has successfully occurred. If not, a normal cell undergoes apoptosis |
G2/M phase
|
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which phase of cell cycle:
In mitosis chromosomes drawn apart by molecular motors, cell divides. Many cancer drugs like taxol act here freezing the process and causing apoptosis. There is a checkpoint to ensure chromosomes are correctly attached to the spindles before segregation. |
M phase
|
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Genetic material in cell that transform normal cell into cancer cell (over expression of this causes cancer)
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Oncogenes
|
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Provide negative controls of cell proliferation (aka anti-oncogene; prevents normal cell from mutating to cancer cell)
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Tumor Suppressor Genes
|
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Causes of cancer (9)
|
1. industrial pollutants
2. UV light 3. radiation 4. tobacco smoke (primary or secondary) 5. diet (inc red meat = inc risk for colorectal cancer) 6. drugs 7. hormones 8. hereditary factors 9. virus |
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Chemosensitive cancers (curative) (3)
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1. acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. testicular cancer 3. small cell lung cancer |
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Chemoinsensitive cancers (palliative, non-curative) (4)
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1. renal cell
2. hepatoma 3. pancreatic 4. non-small cell lung cancer |
|
Ways that acquired drug resistance occur (5)
|
1. Decreased activation of prodrug
2. changes in the target enzyme 3. alterations in cell's ability to repair drug-induced damage 4. increased drug inactivation 5. decreased uptake of drugs secondary to alterations in transport systems |
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Enhances the export of toxins out of the cell
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P-glycoprotein (PGP)
|
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What gene encodes for p-glycoprotein?
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MDR1
|
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Characteristics in combination chemotherapy (4)
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1. each drug should be active by itself
2. avoid resistance 3. different mechanisms or sites of action 4. minimally overlapping toxicities |
|
General CT toxicities (all chemo drugs will have) (7)
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1. Bone marrow suppression (BMS): anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia
2. GI tract: mucositis, diarrhea, N/V 3. cardiotoxicity 2. nephrotoxicity 4. pulmonary toxicity: pneumotitis, fibrosis 5. extravasation 6. carcinogenesis (actually causes cancer) |
|
Which cell cycle phase dependent agents are dependent on S phase? (4)
|
1. methotrexate
2. 6-mercaptopurine 3. 6-thioguanine, ara-C 4. hydroxyurea **4 works at a different place compared to the others (diff MOA, diff target, etc.) |
|
Which cell cycle phase dependent agents are dependent on M phase? (4)
|
1. vincristine
2. vinblastine 3. paclitaxel 4. docetaxel **1 and 2 work at different places in metaphase (diff MOA, diff target, etc.) as compared to 3 and 4 |
|
Which cell cycle phase dependent agents are dependent on G1 phase? (1)
|
L-asparaginase
|
|
Which cell cycle phase dependent agents are dependent on G2 phase? (1)
|
bleomycin
|
|
which class of CT?
Substitutes alkyl groups for H+ atoms resulting in breaks in the DNA molecule and cross-linking of DNA strands, this interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription |
alkylating agents
|
|
Toxicities associated with cyclophosphamide (4)
brand: Cytoxan class: alkylators I (oxazaphosphorines) |
1. N/V
2. BMS 3. cardiac necrosis at high doses 4. hemorrhagic cystitis at higher doses **hepatically eliminated (80%) |
|
Toxicities associated with Ifosfamide (2)
brand: Ifex class: alkylators I (oxazaphosphorines) |
1. renal (because this is renally eliminated)
2. bladder 3. hemorrhagic cystitis |
|
What is given with ifosfamide to help limit toxicities that would lead to hemorrhagic cystitis?
|
mercaptoethane sulfonate (Mensa)
**Hemorrhagic cystitis caused by acrolein metabolite that is lessened by hydration diuresis and mercaptoethane sulfonate (mesna) |
|
Agents in alkylators II: Mustard derivatives (3)
|
1. chlorambucil
2. busulfan 3. melphalan |
|
Toxicities associated with busulfan (1)
brand: myleran class: alkylators II (mustard derivatives) |
1. veno-occlusive disease (of liver)
|
|
Agents in alkylators III: nitrosureas (2)
|
1. carmustine
2. lomustine |
|
clinical use of alkylators III: nitrosureas (1)
|
1. brain tumors**
also used for lymphomas |
|
Toxicities associated with alkylators III: nitrosureas (1)
|
1. pulmonary fibrosis: interstitial infiltrate leads to fibrosis (increased risk with hx of lung disease and carmustine dose >1500 mg/m2)
|
|
Agents of alkylators IV: platinum compounds (3)
|
1. cisplatin
2. carboplatin 3. oxaliplatin |
|
DLT associated with carboplatin (1)
|
1. thrombocytopenia
|
|
DLT associated with oxaliplatin (1)
|
1. peripheral neuropathy
|
|
Toxicities associated with cisplatin (2)
|
1. severe N/V: may last for days after medication is administered
2. nephrotoxicity: prevention with prehydration (sulfur compounds bind to compound and reduce toxicity but chance of decreased efficacy) |
|
Which class of CT:
1. topoisomerase II inhibition 2. DNA intercalation causing single and double strand DNA breaks 3. Free radical generation by drug metabolites (cardiotoxicity dose limiting) 4. disruption of cell membranes |
antibiotics I: anthracyclines
|
|
Lifetime dose limit on doxorubicin
|
550 mg/m2
|
|
Lifetime dose limit on daunorubicin
|
400-600 mg/m2
|
|
Agents of antibiotics I: anthracyclines (3)
|
1. doxorubicin
2. daunorubicin 3. idarubicin |
|
Cardiac toxicity of doxorubicin and daunorubicin can be antagonized by?
|
dexrazoxane (Zinecard)--unknown how this affects efficacy of doxo/daunorubicin
|
|
Which antibiotic II agent?
inhibits DNA-dependent RNA synthesis |
dactinomycin
|
|
which antibiotic II agent?
1. topoisomerase II inhibition, DNA intercalation, and minimal generation of free radical 2. similar to anthracyclines (anthraacenedione), but blue in color and less cardiac toxicity |
mitoxantrone
|
|
Agents of antibiotic II (2)
|
1. dactinomycin
2. mitoxantrone |
|
Agents of antibiotic III (1)
|
1. bleomycin--inhibits DNA synthesis
|
|
toxicity associated with bleomycin (4)
|
1. pulmonary fibrosis
2. hypersensitivity (natural product) 3. cutaneous toxicity 4. Raynaud's syndrome |
|
Which class of CT?
Enzymatic cleavage of asparagine into aspartic acid and ammonia. Leukemia cells require asparagine for cell process. |
Antibiotics IV: L-asparaginase
|
|
Adverse effects/toxicities associated with L-asaparaginase (2)
|
1. anaphylaxis (natural product)
2. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)--basically a clot forming |
|
Which class of CT?
Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase (responsible for intracellular activation of folates to their chemically reduced form) resulting in depletion of tetrahydrofolates and thymidine (which are needed for DNA synthesis) |
Antimetabolites I: folic acid analogs
1. methotrexate |
|
Reasons for high-dose MTX use (6)
|
1. overcome defective transport
2. overcome increased levels of DHFR or altered binding affinity 3. prolong drug exposure 4. prevent or delay emergence of resistance 5. penetrate sanctuary sites or poorly perfused tumors 6. rescue of cancer cells + normal cells by leucovorin (antidote; dose 1mg leucovorin per 1 mg MTX) |
|
____ inhibits xanthine oxidase and interferes with the inactivation of 6- mercaptopurine and 6-thioguanine
|
allopurinol
|
|
Agents of antimetabolites II: purine analogs I (6-thiopurines) (2)
|
1. 6-mercaptopurine
2. 6-thioguanine |
|
which antimetabolite II: purine analog II agent?
blocks adenosine deaminase (1) |
1. cladribine
|
|
which antimetabolite II: purine analog II agent?
inhibits DNA primase, DNA polymerase alpha, and ribonucleotide reductase (1) |
1. fludarabine
|
|
Agents of antimetabolites III: pyrimidine analogues (2)
|
1. cytarabine (ara-C)
2. 5-FU 3. gemcitabine |
|
toxicities associated with cytarabine (ara-C) (2)
|
1. flu-like syndrome
2. neurotoxic (HD ara-C) |
|
toxicities associated with 5-FU (2)
|
1. hand-foot syndrome
2. neurotoxicity **leucovorin enhances 5-FU cytotoxcity by stabilizing the complex with thymidylate synthetase |
|
what is the oral prodrug that forms 5-FU after metabolism?
|
capecitabine
|
|
Drugs that can cause hand-foot syndrome (5)
|
1. capecitabine
2. 5-FU 3. doxorubicin 4. liposomal doxorubicin 5. interleukin 2 |
|
Agents of antimitotics I: vinca alkaloids (3--2 in US, 1 Europe only)
|
1. vincristine
2. vinblastine 3. vinorelbine |
|
DLT associated with vincristine and vinorelbine (1)
|
1. BMS
|
|
DLT associated with vinblastine (1)
|
1. neurotoxicity
|
|
Which class of CT medications cause death if given by intrathecal administration?
|
vinca alkaloids
1. vincristine 2. vinblastine 3. vinorelbine |
|
Which class of CT?
Binds tubulin, which prevents polymerization of microtubules. Cells accumulate in the M phase and leads to apoptosis (cell death) |
antimitotics I: vinca alkaloids
|
|
Which class of CT?
Stabilzes tublin bundles, prevents the destabilization of microtubules |
antimitotics II: taxanes
|
|
toxicities associated with taxanes (paclitaxel, docetaxel) (2)
|
1. peripheral neuropathy
2. hypersensitivity reactions |
|
How would you premedicate patients who are going to receive paclitaxel (3 agents)
|
1. diphenydramine
2. corticosteroid 3. H2 antagonist |
|
How would you premedicate patients who are going to receive docetaxel? (1 agent but with schedule)
|
1. dexamethasone: 8 mg BID x 1 day, then 4 mg BID x 2 days
|
|
Agents of antimitotics II: taxanes (2)
|
1. paclitaxel
2. docetaxel |
|
Agents of topoisomerase II inhibitors (2)
|
1. Etoposide
2. Teniposide |
|
Which class of CT?
Stabilizes the topo II/DNA complex causing double stranded DNA breaks |
topoisomerase II inhibitors
1. etoposide 2. teniposide |
|
toxicities associated with etoposide and teniposide (2)
|
1. BMS
2. 2nd malignancy (may be harder to cure; usually takes several years but dependent on frequency of administration) |
|
Which class of CT?
inhibition of topoisomerase I (causes single stranded DNA breaks) |
camptothecins
1. irinotecan 2. topotecan |
|
toxicity associated with irinotecan (1)
|
1. severe diarrhea
acute: treat with atropine (0.25 mg IV) delayed: treat with loperamide, lomotil (atropine + diphenoxylate), others |
|
toxicity associated with topotecan (1)
|
1. BMS
|
|
Which class of CT?
Block tumor estrogen receptors |
Steroids I: SERMs
1. tamoxifen 2. reloxifen: no established role in breast cancer, indicated for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women, decrease risk of invasive breast cancer in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis |
|
Agents of steroid I: SERMs (2)
|
1. tamoxifen
2. reloxifen |
|
Which class of CT?
Inhibit the final enzyme in the estrogen production pathway |
Steroid I: aromatase inhibitors
1. non steroidal: anastrazole 2. non-steroidal: letrozole 3. steroidal: exemestane |
|
agents of steroid I: aromatase inhibitors (3)
|
1. anastrazole (nonsteroidal)
2. letrozole (nonsteroidal) 3. exemestane (steroidal) |
|
which class of CT?
Blocks all estrogen receptors, down regulate and degrade estrogen receptors |
Steroid I: estrogen antagonists
1. fulvestrant |
|
Which class of CT?
Block androgen binding |
steroid II: antiandrogens (antiandrogens for prostate cancer)
1. flutamide 2. bicalutamide 3. nilutamide |
|
Which class of CT?
Stops production of sex hormones (testosterone and estrogen) |
Steroid II: gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogs (used for hormone-sensitive prostate and breast cancer)
1. goserelin 3. leuprolide |
|
Agents of steroid II: gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogs (2)
|
1. goserelin
2. leuprolide |
|
Which class of CT?
Causes lymphocyte lysis; used as part of multi-drug regimen for leukiemia and lymphoma |
Corticosteroids
1. dexamethasone 2. methylprednisolone 3. prednisone 4. hydrocortisone |
|
Which CT agent?
Binds with retinoic acid-1 receptor in promyelocytes in acute promyelocytic leukemia resulting in differentiation of the leukemic blast into a more mature form which undergoes cell death use: acute promyelocytic leukemia--not curative, induces complete remission prior to BMT (bone marrow transplant) |
tretinoin (45 mg/m2/day oral)
|
|
Which CT agent?
T-cell growth factor which promotes immunologic responses to cancer. Non-specific immune response can lead to capillary leak syndrome. |
Interleukin-2 (IL-2, aldesleukin, proleukin)
|
|
toxicities associated with interleukin-2 (2)
|
1. circulatory collapse
2. hypotension |
|
Which CT agent?
Enhances host immune response and direct antiproliferative effects on cancer cells |
interferons
1. interferon alfa-2a 2. interferon alfa-2b |
|
toxicities associated with interferon alfa-2a and interferon alfa-2b (2)
|
1. flu-like symptoms
2. BMS |
|
Which CT agent?
Recombinant humanized murien monoclonal anti-body to B-cell surface marker CD20. Antibody recruits cytotoxic reaction to lymphoma cells mediated by complement activation |
Rituximab
|
|
toxicity associated with rituximab (1)
|
1. hypotension (especially with 1st infusion)
|
|
Which CT agent?
Monoclonal antibody to her-2-neu, a protein overexpressed on the surface of about 1/3 of breast carcinomas. Results in complement activation and subsequent cytoxicity. |
trastuzamab (Herceptin)
|
|
Trastuzamab (Herceptin) has synergistic cytotoxicity with what class of agents? (1)
|
1. taxanes (paclitaxel, docetaxel)
|
|
toxicities associated with trastuzamab (Herceptin) (1)
|
1. cardiotoxicity in patients with prior anthracycline (doxorubicin, daunorubicin) exposure
|
|
Which CT agent?
Monoclonal AB that binds specifically to the extracellular domain of EGFR. Binds to EGFR on both normal and tumor cells and competitively inhibits the binding of epidermal growth factor and other ligands, such as transforming growth factor. Binding of this agent to the EGFR results in inhibition of cell growth, induction of apoptosis, and inhibition of VEGF production. use: monotherapy or in combination with other anticancer agents in the treatemnt of metastatic colorectal cancer. Also approved for use in head and neck cancer either by itself or in combination with radiation. |
Cetuximab
|
|
Which CT agent?
Selective EGFR-tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Inhibits EGFR activity by competing with adenosine triphosphate for its binding site on the EGFR tyrosine kinase cytosolic domain, which blocks the tyrosine kinase cascade of downstream signaling, and ultimately interferes with proliferation and growth of cancer cells use: treatment of locally advanced or metastatic non-small-cell lung cancer as a second line agent. Also approved for use in pancreatic cancer |
erlotinib
|
|
adverse effects associated with erlotinib (2)
|
1. Diarrhea
2. rash |
|
Which CT agent?
Humanized MoAB directed against circulating VEGF. It binds to all biologically active circulating isoforms of VEGF and prevents the activation and promotion of angiogenesis use: in combination with 5-FU based chemotherapy, for the initial treatemtn of metastatic colorectal cancer and for first- line treatment, in combination with carboplatin and paclitaxel, for unresectable, locally advanced, recurrent or metastatic nonsquamous non-small cell lung cancer. |
Bevacizumab
|
|
adverse effects associated with bevacizumab (4)
|
1. hypertension
black box warnings: 2. GI perforation 3. wound dehiscence 4. fatal hemoptysis |
|
Risk factors for breast cancer (11)
|
1. age >40
2. personal or family hx 3. <12 y/o at menarche 4. >55 y/o at menopause 5. >/= 30 y/o at first live birth 6. nulliparity 7. radiation 8. alcohol (>2 drinks/day) 9. HRT (hormone replacement therapy) 10. current use of oral contraceptives (>10 years) 11. high density breast tissue |
|
Candidates for prevention in breast cancer (5)
|
1. BRCA 1, BRCA2, PTEN, or P53 mutations
2. >2 first-degree relatives with breast or ovarian cancer 3. hx of thoracic irradiation 4. hx of LCIS (lobular carcinoma in situ) 5. >35 years with a 5 year risk of 1.7% or greater |
|
What agent and dose is the gold standard for prevention in those at risk for development of breast cancer
|
tamoxifen 20 mg QD x 5 years (premenopausal)
1. reduces breast cancer risk by 49% 2. post menopausal women >35 years use roloxifene |
|
S/s of localized disease breast cancer (5)
|
1. ~10% of cases are asymptomatic
2. painless lump is the most common sign 3. change in size, shape, color, or feel of the breast/ areola/ nipple 4. nipple discharge, erosion, tenderness, inversion 5. stabbing or aching pain |
|
S/s of advanced disease breast cancer (5)
|
1. bone pain
2. difficult breathing 3. abdominal enlargement 4. jaundice 5. mental status changes |
|
Characteristics of diagnosing breast cancer (7)
|
1. hx and presentation, family hx
2. clinical breast exam 3. mammogram 4. ultrasound 5. breast biopsy 6. hormone receptor status (ER/PR) 7. her-2-neu status |
|
AJCC staging of breast cancer
1. lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) 2. ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) |
stage 0
|
|
AJCC staging of breast cancer
<2 cm, confined to breast |
stage 1
|
|
AJCC staging of breast cancer
1. less than 5 cm with or without ipsilateral LN metasteses 2. greater than 5 cm without LN involvement |
stage 2
|
|
AJCC staging of breast cancer
1. direct extension to ipsilateral LN or chest tissue 2. greater than 5 cm with metastases to moveable ipsilateral LN 3. any size with metastases to fixed ipsilateral LN |
stage 3
|
|
AJCC staging of breast cancer
1. distant metastases (bone, liver, lung, brain) |
stage 4
|
|
Goals of therapy for breast cancer
1. stage 1-3 (2) 2. stage 4 (3) |
1. stage 1-3: cure, prevent reoccurrence
2. stage 4: palliation of symptoms, improve QOL, prolong survival |
|
1. marker identifying women at high risk for breast cancer (25%)
2. treatment options: observation following biopsy (offer tamoxifen for 5 years); bilateral prophylactic total mastectomies |
lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)
|
|
1. noninvasive, precancerous lesion
2. may progress to become invasive cancer (<30% within 5-10 years) 3. treatment options: breast conservation (local excision and RT; negative margins; consider post-surgical tamoxifen x 5 years, esp if hormone receptor positive); Total mastectomy with or without reconstruction (wide spread disease or positive margins; young women with high lifetime risk of cancer) |
ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
|
|
Stage 1-3 breast cancer treatment options (4)
|
1. breast conservation: lumpectomy with LN dissection with RT
2. total mastectomy with axillary LN dissection 3. simple mastectomy with SLN biopsy 4. adjuvant therapy with hormonal therapy (ER/PR positive patients) or chemotherapy (LN involvement or tumor greater than 1 cm in diameter) |
|
Adjuvant chemotherapy options for breast cancer stage 1-3 (3)
1. LN involvement 2. tumor greater than 1 cm in diameter |
1. AC x 4 (every 21 days)--gold standard: doxorubicin (adriamycin) and cyclophosphamide (**consider addition of doxetaxel or paclitaxel to AC regimen for LN positive patients)
2. FAC or FEC x 6 (every 21 days): Fluorouracil, doxorubicin/ epirubicin, cyclophosphamide 3. CMF x 6 (every 28 days): cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, fluorouracil |
|
adjuvant hormonal therapy options for breast cancer stage 1-3 (3)
1. ER/PR postive patients |
1. SERMs: tamoxifen 20 mg QD x 5 years
2. aromatase inhibitors (postmenopausal): anastrazole (1 mg QD), letrozole (2.5 mg QD), exemestane (25 mg QD) 3. LHRH agonists (premenopausal): investigational* |
|
metastatic breast cancer treatment options (4)
|
1. endocrine therapy (ER/PR positive)
2. Chemotherapy 3. trastuzumab (her-2-neu overexpression) 4. palliative care |
|
treatment for ER/PR positive breast cancer
1. post-menopausal (2) 2. premenopausal (2) 3. progression or symptomatic metastases (2) |
1. postmenopausal: aromatase inhibitor; antiestrogen
2. premenopausal: antiestrogen; with or without ovarian ablation (oophorectomy, ovarian irradiation, LHRH analogs) 3. progression or symptomatic metastases: trial of new hormone therapy; chemotherapy |
|
Endocrine therapy for metastatic breast cancer (6)
|
1. SERMs: tamoxifen 20 mg QD; toremifene 60 mg QD
2. SERDs: fulvestrant 250 mg IM q 28 days (selective estrogen receptor downregulator) 3. Aromatase inhibitor (postmenopausal) 4. LHRH analogues (premenopausal): goserelin; leuprolide; triptorelin 5. progestins: megesterol acetate 80 mg BID 6. androgens: fluoxymesterone 10 mg BID |
|
Chemotherapy for metastatic breast cancer
preferred single agents (5) |
1. anthracyclines (doxorubicin, daunorubicin, idarubicin)
2. taxanes (paclitaxel, docetaxel) 3. capecitabine (oral form of 5-FU) 4. vinorelbine 5. gemcitabine |
|
Chemotherapy for metastatic breast cancer
preferred combinations (higher response rates, but no evidence delay time to progression or improve survival) (4) |
1. AC (doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide)
2. FAC/ FEC (fluorouracil, doxorubicin/ epirubicin, cyclophosphamide) 3. CMF (cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, fluorouracil) 4. AT (doxorubicin, and taxane (paclitaxel, docetaxel)) |
|
Risk factors associated with lung cancer (8)
|
1. smoking
2. asbestos 3. radon 4. inhaled chemicals/minerals 5. air pollution 6. RT to the chest 7. personal/family history 8. beta-carotene supplements |
|
S/s of advanced disease lung cancer (7)
|
1. bone pain with or without fracture
2. neurologic deficits 3. spinal cord compression 4. liver dysfunction 5. anorexia 6. weight loss 7. fatigue |
|
types of non-small cell lung cancer (3)
|
1. adenocarcinoma
2. squamous cell 3. large cell |
|
1. 80% of lung cancers
2. slower growing 3. 50% present with metastases 4. not sensitive to chemotherapy 5. types: adenocarcinoma, squamous cell, large cell |
non-small cell carcinoma
|
|
1. 20% of lung cancers
2. rapid proliferation 3. 60-70% of patients present with metastases 4. highly sensitive to chemotherapy/ RT |
small cell lung cancer
|
|
staging of SCLC
1. primary tumor contained to hemithorax 2. ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes 3. supraclavicular or mediastinal lymph nodes |
limited-stage disease
|
|
staging of SCLC
1. metastatic lesions in the contralateral lung (both lungs) 2. distant metastatic involvement 3. pleural effusion |
extensive-stage disease
|
|
staging of NSCLC
carcinoma in situ |
stage 0
|
|
staging of NSCLC
confined to lung |
stage 1
|
|
staging of NSCLC
spread to local lymph nodes, diaphragm, mediastinal pleura, or parietal pericardium |
stage 2
|
|
staging of NSCLC
involvement of mediastinal, contralateral, or supraclavicular LN |
stage 3
|
|
staging of NSCLC
distant metastasis (bone, liver, CNS) |
stage 4
|
|
limited stage SCLC treatment options (3)
|
1. surgical resection: small isolated lesions only
2. chemotherapy with XRT (EP/EC/CP) 3. prophylactic cranial irradiation (PCI): for patients achieving complete remission; decrease risk of CNS metasteses by >50% |
|
chemotherapy options for SCLC (3)--limited stage disease or in combination therapy for extensive stage disease
|
1. EP = etoposide + cisplatin
2. EC = etoposide + carboplatin 3. CP = irinotecan (CPT-11) + cipslatin |
|
combination chemotherapy options for SCLC extensive stage disease (6)
|
1. EP = etoposide + cisplatin
2. EC = etoposide + carboplatin 3. CP = irinotecan (CPT-11) + cipslatin 4. CAV = cyclophosphamide + doxorubicin + vincristine 5. CAE = cyclophosphamide + doxorubicin + etoposide 6. ICE = ifosfamide + carboplatin/ cisplatin + etoposide |
|
treatment options for recurrent disease of SCLC relapse < 3 months (4)
|
Switch to monotherapy with one of these options:
1. ifosfamide 2. paclitaxel 3. docetaxel 4. gemcitabine |
|
treatment options for recurrent disease of SCLC relapse 3-6 months (8)
|
1. topotecan**
2. irinotecan 3. CAV (cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine) 4. gemcitabine 5. paclitaxel 6. docetaxel 7. etoposide 8. venorelbine |
|
treatment options for recurrent disease of SCLC relapse >6 months (1)
|
1. revert back to original regimen
|
|
first line therapy for NSCLC chemotherapy
|
cisplatin or carboplatin + one other agent (paclitaxel, docetaxel, gemcitabine, vinorelbine, vinblastine, irinotecan, etoposide
|
|
second line therapy for NSCLC chemotherapy (3)
|
1. docetaxel
2. pemetrexed 3. EGFR inhibitors (erlotinib, gefitinib) |
|
Which CT agent?
1. multitargeted antifolate that disrupts thymidine and purine synthesis (inhibits TS, DHFR, GARFT) 2. indication: single agent therapy in locally advanced or metastatic NSCLC following prior chemotehrapy 3. as effective as docetaxel in recurrent NSCLC (less myelosuppression, neuropathy, alopecia) 4. SE: myelosuppression, mucositis, rash, desquamation |
pemetrexed
|
|
lifestyle type risk factors associated with colorectal cancer (6)
|
1. alcohol
2. physical inactivity 3. obesity 4. diets high in fat and red meat 5. diets low in fiber, calcium, and folate 6. smoking |
|
s/s of early stages of colorectal cancer (6)
|
1. change in bowel habits (constipation, diarrhea)
2. rectal bleeding 3. narrow stools 4. feeling of incomplete emptying 5. n/v, abdominal cramping, distention 6. fatigue |
|
s/s of advanced stages of colorectal cancer (7)
|
1. hepatomegaly
2. jaundice 3. leg edema 4. weight loss 5. thrombophlebitis 6. fistula formation 7. pain of the lower back/leg |
|
staging of colorectal cancer
carcinoma in situ |
stage 0
|
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staging of colorectal cancer
tumor invasion of submucosa or musclaris propria |
stage 1
|
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staging of colorectal cancer
serosa involvement or spread to nearby tissues or organs |
stage 2
|
|
staging of colorectal cancer
invasion of nearby LN |
stage 3
|
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staging of colorectal cancer
distant metastases |
stage 4
|
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treatment options for each stage of colorectal cancer
1. stage 1 = 2. stage 2 = 3. stage 3 = 4. stage 4 = |
1. stage 1 = surgical resection
2. stage 2 = surgical resection (colon cancer: with or without chemotherapy; rectal cancer: 5-FU/ leucovorin + RT) 3. stage 3 = surgical resection (colon: post-op chemo x 6 months; rectal: pre-op 5-FU/ RT + post op chemo) 4. stage 4 = chemotherapy (palliative resection and RT) |
|
1. infusional 5-FU + leucovorin + oxaliplatin
2. superior to 5-FU/leucovorin 3. increased neutropenia, peripheral neuropathy |
FOLFOX
|
|
first line therapies for colorectal cancer with metastatic disease (4)
|
1. FOLFOX +/- bevacizumab
2. FOLFIRI +/- bevacizumab: infusional 5-FU/leucovorin/irinotecan; similar survival advantage as FOLFOX; increased diarrhea 3. IFL + bevacizumab: bolus 5-FU/ leucovorin/ irinotecan; inferior to FOLFOX or FOLFIRI 4. patients unable to tolerate intensive therapy use: capecitabine, 5-FU/leucovorin +/- bevacizumab, 5-FU |
|
second line therapies for colorectal cancer with metastatic disease (4)
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1. FOLFOX
2. FOLFIRI 3. irinotecan and/or cetuximab 4. best supportive care |
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risk factors for prostate cancer (3)
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1. age >50
2. family history 3. race: african american > caucasian = hispanics >asian |
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s/s of localized prostate cancer (1)
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1. asymptomatic
|
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s/s of locally invasive prostate cancer (5)
|
1. urinary hesitation
2. urinary dribbling 3. urinary retention 4. pain with urination/ ejaculation 5. impotence |
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s/s of advanced prostate cancer (6)
|
1. back pain/stiffness
2. spinal cord compression 3. lower extremity edema 4. bone fractures 5. anemia 6. weight loss |
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What stage of prostate cancer?
carcinoma in situ |
stage 0
|
|
What stage of prostate cancer?
clinically undetectable tumor |
stage 1
|
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What stage of prostate cancer?
tumor confined to prostate with invasion of lobes; can be felt on exam |
stage 2
|
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What stage of prostate cancer?
tumor extends through prostate capsule |
stage 3
|
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What stage of prostate cancer?
invasion of adjacent structures, LN, or metastatic disease (bones) |
stage 4
|
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treatment options for prostate cancer (5)
|
1. expectant management
2. radiation therapy 3. radical prostatectomy 4. androgen ablation (AA) 5. antiandrogens |
|
With expectant management when would you perform:
1. PSA = 2. DRE = |
1. PSA = every 3-6 months
2. DRE = every 6-12 months |
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With expectant management when would you intervene (3)
|
1. PSA doubling time <3 years
2. increased Gleason grade 3. greater extent of prostate tumor |
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Disadvantages of expectant management (7)
|
1. missed opportunity for cure
2. risk of progression/ metastases 3. more complex treatment 4. nerve sparing more difficult 5. anxiety 6. frequent med exams 7. uncertain long term natural history of prostate cancer |
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Treatment for stage 1-2 prostate cancer
risk of recurrence: low (gleason 6 or less) (2) |
1. life expectance <10 years: expectant management
2. LE >10 years: expectant management or XRT or radical prostatectomy |
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Treatment for stage 1-2 prostate cancer
risk of recurrence: intermediate (gleason 7) (2) |
1. LE < 10 years: expectant management or XRT or radical prostatectomy
2. LE > 10 years: radical prostatectomy or XRT |
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Treatment for stage 1-2 prostate cancer
risk of recurrence: high (gleason 8 or more) (1) |
1. androgen ablation + XRT or radical prostatectomy
|
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Treatment for stage 3 prostate cancer (1)
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1. androgen ablation +/- XRT (2-3 years)
|
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Treatment for stage 4 prostate cancer (2)
|
1. LN involvement only: androgen ablation +/- XRT
2. distant metastasis: androgen ablation |
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methods for androgen ablation (2)
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1. orchiectomy (removal of testicles)
2. LHRH agonst: Leuprolide 7.5 mg IM q 28d, Goserelin 3.6 mg SQ q 28 days, triptorelin 3.75 mg IM q 28d |
|
Antiandrogens for prostate cancer (3)
|
1. flutamide 750 mg QD
2. biclutamide 50 mg QD 3. nilutamide 300 mg QD x 1 month then 150 mg QD |
|
hormone refractory prostate cancer
options for testosterone suppression (3) |
1. antiandrogens
2. ketoconazole +/- glucocorticoids 3. estrogens |
|
hormone refractory prostate cancer
Options for systemic chemotherapy (2) |
1. docetaxel + prednisone (first chemo to show benefit)
2. mitoxantrone + prednisone |
|
hormone refractory prostate cancer (5)
|
1. bisphosphonates
2. radioisotopes: strontium-89, samarium-153 3. local RT 4. analgesia 5. corticosteroids |
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Malignant transformation of a single abnormal progenitor cell with indefinite self-renewal (clonal disease)
|
leukemia
|
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Clinical/ Laboratory findings of chronic myelogenous leukemia (5)
|
1. malaise
2. fatigue 3. splenomegaly 4. weight loss 5. elevated WBC |
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Rapid increase in blast count >100,000
|
blast crisis
|
|
1. MOA: inhibits bcr-abl, PDGF-R, and c-kit receptor tyrosine kinases
2. AE: BMS, rash, febrile neutropenia, elevated LFTs, N/V/D, edema 3. Dasatinib for refractory CML |
imatinib mesylate
|
|
CLL: RAI staging
Lymphocytosis; lymphocytes in blood >15,000 mcL and >40% lymphocytes in the bone marrow |
stage 0
risk status = good |
|
CLL: RAI staging
lymphocytosis; lymphadenopathy. No hepato- or splenomegaly; number of RBC and platelets are normal |
stage 1
risk status = intermediate |
|
CLL: RAI staging
stage 1 with either hepatomegaly or splenomegaly or both (stage 1:lymphocytosis; lymphadenopathy. No hepato- or splenomegaly; number of RBC and platelets are normal) |
stage 2
risk status = intermediate |
|
CLL: RAI staging
stage 2 with HgB <11 g/dL or Hct >33% (stage 2:stage 1 with either hepatomegaly or splenomegaly or both (stage 1:lymphocytosis; lymphadenopathy. No hepato- or splenomegaly; number of RBC and platelets are normal) |
stage 3
risk status = high |
|
CLL: RAI staging
stage 3 with platelets HgB less than 100,000 or Hct less than 33% (stage 2:stage 1 with either hepatomegaly or splenomegaly or both (stage 1:lymphocytosis; lymphadenopathy. No hepato- or splenomegaly; number of RBC and platelets are normal) |
stage 4
risk status = high |
|
CLL: Binet staging
Fewer than 3 areas of enlarged lymphoid tissue |
Stage A
|
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CLL: Binet staging
More than 3 areas of enlarged lymphoid tissue |
Stage B
|
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CLL: Binet staging
Anemias plus thrombocytopenia (platelets <100,000/ mm3) |
Stage C
|
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CLL clinical presentation/ laboratory findings (7)
|
1. fatigue
2. weight loss 3. abdominal discomfort 4. CBC: lymphocytosis (abnormal or smudge cells), with nuetropenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia 5. lymphadenopathy 6. organomegaly (spleen and liver) 7. immunology defects: hypogammoglobulinemia; reversal of T4/T8 ratio |
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First line treatment in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (5)
No cure! just palliative |
1. fludarabine +/- rituximab
2. cyclophosphamide + prednisone 3. chlorambucil + prednisone 4. CVP (cyclophosphamide + vincristine + prednisone) 5. fludarabine + cyclophosphamide +/- rituximab |
|
Second line treatment in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (2)
NO CURE JUST PALLIATIVE!!! |
1. alemtuzumab
2. pentostatin + cyclophosphamide +/- rituximab |
|
supportive care for chronic lymphocytic leukemia (2)
|
1. antibiotics
2. blood products |
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Reed Sternberg cells are characteristic of which lymphoma?
|
Hodgkin's disease
|
|
Which stage of lymphoma (Ann Arbor staging)
single LN region |
stage 1
|
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Which stage of lymphoma (Ann Arbor staging)
more than 1 LN region, but same side of diaphragm |
stage 2
|
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Which stage of lymphoma (Ann Arbor staging)
bi-diphragmatic dx |
stage 3
|
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Which stage of lymphoma (Ann Arbor staging)
diffuse disease |
stage 4
|
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Which stage of lymphoma (Ann Arbor staging)--letters
no symptoms |
A
|
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Which stage of lymphoma (Ann Arbor staging)--letters
fever, night sweats, wt loss (>10%) |
B
|
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Which stage of lymphoma (Ann Arbor staging)--letters
bulky disease |
X
|
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Which stage of lymphoma (Ann Arbor staging)--letters
extra lymphatic dx |
E
|
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Which stage of lymphoma (Ann Arbor staging)--letters
spleen involvement |
S
|
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systematic dx of hodgkins disease (3)
|
1. unexplained fever >38C for 3 consecutive days
2. weight loss >10% 3. night sweats |
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Laboratory findings for hodgkins (5)
|
1. anemia
2. lymphophenia 3. thrombocytopenia 4. t-cell dysfunction 5. CXR: mediastinal mass (2/3 children; 1/3 adults) |
|
poor prognostic factors for hodgkins (6)
|
1. advanced age
2. male sex 3. B symptoms (fever, night sweats, weight loss >10%) 4. leukocyte depleted histology 5. mediastinal mass >1/3 chest diameter 6. extranodal extension |
|
HD treatment
Stage 1 (low risk) |
XRT alone
|
|
HD treatment
Stage 1 (B symptoms or bulky disease) or stage 2 (2) |
1. ABVD (doxorubicin + bleomycin + vinblastine + dacarbazine) for 4-6 then XRT
2. Stanford V (doxorubicin + vinblastine + mechlorethamine + etoposide + vincristine + bleomycin + prednisone) then XRT |
|
ICE =
|
Ifosfamide
Cisplatin Etoposide |
|
ESHAP =
|
Etoposide
Methylprednisolone Cytarabine (High dose) Cisplatin |
|
Which anti-emetic agents are the least sedating? (3)
|
1. butyrophenones (haloperidol)
2. corticosteroids 3. serotonin antagonists |
|
Which type of CINV?
within first 24 hours of chemo |
acute
|
|
Which type of CINV?
24 hours after and lasting up to 5 days |
delayed
|
|
Which agents are usually associated with delayed CINV? (4)
|
1. cisplatin
2. carboplatin 3. cyclophosphamide 3. anthracyclines |
|
Which type of CINV?
conditioned response that occurs prior to a planned course following significant N/V due to previous chemo |
anticipatory
|
|
Which type of CINV?
occurs despite preventatives |
breakthrough
|
|
Which type of CINV?
occurs during subsequent cycles when antiemetic prophylaxis or rescue therapy has failed in earlier cycles |
refractory
|
|
risk factors for CINV (8)
|
1. emetic potential of drug
2. age <50 3. female 4. dose of medication 5. high pretreatment expectation of nausea or history of previous CINV 6. history of low alcohol consumption 7. history of motion sickness 8. history of morning sickness during pregnancy |
|
emetic risk for cisplatin
|
high
|
|
emetic risk for etoposide
|
low
|
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emetic risk for bleomycin
|
minimal
|
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High emetic risk and AC (doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide) treatment (prophylaxis) (days 1-4)
|
day 1 = 5HT, dexamethasone, NK1 antagonist
day 2 & 3 = dexamethasone, NK1 antagonist day 4 = dexamethasone (optional) |
|
moderate emetic risk treatment (prophylaxis) (day 1-3)
|
day 1 = palonosetron, dexamethasone
day 2 & 3 = dexamethasone **if palonesetron not available, may sub 5HT3; limited evidence supports adding NK1 antagonist; if added, any one of the 5HT3s is appropriate |
|
low emetic risk treatment (prophylaxis) (day 1 only)
|
day 1 = dexamethasone 8 mg
|
|
minimal emetic risk treatment (prophylaxis)
|
no routine prophylaxis
|
|
Which agents are considered lower therapeutic index anti-emetics, not first choice anti-emetics, reserved for patients intolerant to 5HT3s, NK1 antagonists, and dexamethasone, and are considered for rescue meds at home? (6)
|
1. metoclopramide
2. butyrophenones (haloperidol, droperidol) 3. phenothiazines (prochlorperazine) 4. cannabinoids (dronabinol, nabilone) 5. olanzapine 6. scopolamine patch |
|
5HT3 receptor antagonists are the most effective class preventing ____ CINV but little effect on ____CINV
|
1. acute
2. delayed |
|
Oral NK1 antagonist (1)
|
1. aprepitant
|
|
IV NK1 antagonist (1)
|
1. fosaprepitant
|
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Chemo-induced diarrhea worst offenders (4)
|
1. fluorouracil
2. methotrexate 3. cytarabine 4. stem cell transplant conditioning |
|
what to do if CID persists for more than 24 hours on loperamide
|
increase loperamide to 2 mg q 2h and consider starting oral antibiotics for infectious prophylaxis
|
|
what to do if CID persists for more than 48 hours on loperamide (2)
|
1. stop loperamide and start 2nd line anti-diarrheal (octreotide, tincture of opium, paregoric, budesonide)
2. complte stool and blood work up; replace fluids and electrolytes as needed. |
|
high risk febrile neutropenia patients (4)
|
1. prolonged (>7 days) and profound neutropenia (ANC <100 cells/mm3 post chemo)
AND/OR 2. clinically unstable 3. significant medical co-morbid conditions: hypotension, pneumonia, new onset of abdominal pain, neurologic changes 4. require hospitalization |
|
High risk patients of febrile neutropenia inpatient IV antibiotics that are given as empiric antibiotic monotherapy (4)
|
1. piperacillin/tazobactam
2. carbapenem 3. ceftazidime 4. cefepime |
|
G-CSF: stimulates production, maturation, and activation of neutrophils; also activates neutrophils to increase migration and cytotoxicity (2)
|
1. filgrastim
2. pegfilgrastim |
|
GM-CSF: stimulates proliferation, differentiation, and functional activity of neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and macrophages (1)
|
1. sargramostim
|
|
ESA: boost RBC (2)
|
1. epoetin alfa
2. darbepoetin |
|
thrombopoietic growth factor (1)
|
1. oprelvekin
|
|
keratinocyte growth factor (1)
|
1. palifermin
|
|
Agents that most generally have a hypersensitivity response to (2)
|
1. asparaginase
2. paclitaxel |
|
class of CT drugs that have never been reported to cause HSR (1)
|
1. nitrosureas (carmustine, lomustine)
|
|
Agents that may cause (higher rates than others) alopecia (5)
|
1. anthracyclines
2. ifosfamide 3. etoposide 4. vinca alkaloids 5. taxanes |