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209 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which nutrients are mandated to always be on a nutritional label?
|
Vitamin A
Vitamin C Calcium Iron |
|
Calorie free means fewer than ___ calories per serving
|
5 calories
|
|
Recommended intake of protein per day
|
1gram / kg body weight
|
|
What will never change on a nutritional label no matter how many kilocals consumed
|
Cholesterol
Sodium Trans Fat |
|
The American Heart Association recommends less than ____mg cholesterol
|
< 300mg
|
|
How much cholesterol in 1 egg?
|
200mg
|
|
Total fat recommended daily
|
<30%
|
|
Total recommended carbohydrates
|
60%
|
|
Recommended sodium intake
|
2400mg /day
|
|
Total recommended dietary fiber
|
25g /day
|
|
Abrupt and sustained decline in renal function
|
Acute Kidney Insufficiency
|
|
Decrease in 75% of renal function before its noticeable
A. AKI B. Chronic Kidney Disease |
AKI
|
|
The duration of acute renal insufficiency is ___ weeks
|
1-4 weeks
|
|
AKI is usually ________ taking 1-3 months for a full recovery
|
reversible
|
|
AKI has a ___% survival rate in high risk patients
|
50%
|
|
Chronic Kidney Disease is irreversible eventually leading to ________
|
end stage renal disease
|
|
Nephrotoxic drugs may include:
|
Antibiotics
Antifungals Antivirals Contrast agents ACE inhibitors NSAIDS Chinese Herbals |
|
Electrolyte abnormalities common to AKI
|
Hyperkalemia
Metabolic Acidosis |
|
Signs of hypovolemia
|
Tachycardia
Orthostasis (hypotension) |
|
Signs of hypervolemia
|
Pulmonary Edema
|
|
Cola-colored urine suggests ________
|
rhabdomyolysis
|
|
Foamy urine indicates _________
|
proteinuria
|
|
True or False
Many AKI cases are asymptomatic |
true
|
|
Product of muscle breakdown - 90% filtered by kidneys -
0.7-1.5mg/dL |
Scr
|
|
Influenced by exercise, drugs, GI bleed - 50% filtered by kidneys -
8-25mg/dL |
BUN
|
|
Estimated Creatinine clearance and glomular filtration rate =
|
15ml / min
|
|
Urine output >400mL/da
|
nonoliguria
|
|
Urine Output <400mL/da
|
oliguria
|
|
Urine output <100mL/da
|
anuria
|
|
RIFLE
|
Risk
Injury Failure Loss ESRD |
|
What is meant by the liver having a reserve capacity?
|
it can maintain function when damaged
|
|
The liver has 7 functional units called ______
|
Lobules
|
|
The ____ is the location for most lipid and lipoprotein metabolism
|
Liver
|
|
The liver picks up ____ _____ absorbed in the intestines and synthesizes them into proteins
|
amino acids
|
|
Where is cholesterol synthesized?
|
Liver
|
|
Primary location for detoxification of both endogenous and exogenous substances
|
liver
|
|
alcohol
meds toxins ellicit drugs can all cause _____ of the liver |
Hepatotoxicity
|
|
inflammation
scarring bile duct obstruction clotting are possible with ____ damage |
liver
|
|
symptoms of _____ damage
jaundice dark urine light poop pruritus weight loss/gain |
liver damage
|
|
Albumin and coagulation parameters
test for _____ liver function |
synthetic
|
|
Scr x 1.5 RIFLE
|
Risk
|
|
Scr x 2 RIFLE
|
Injury
|
|
Scr x 3 RIFLE
|
Failure
|
|
AKIN =
|
Acute Kidney Injury Network
|
|
AKIN
AKI based on __Scr elevations within __ hours |
2
48 |
|
60-70% of AKI is where?
|
Prerenal
|
|
25-40% of AKI is where?
|
Intrarenal
|
|
5-10% of AKI is where?
|
Postrenal
|
|
BPH could be a cause of _______ AKI
|
Postrenal
|
|
"A good kidney in a bad situation"
|
Prerenal AKI
|
|
Bilirubin
alkaline phosphatase 5' nucleotidase gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase test ___________ liver function and cholestasis |
Excretory
|
|
AST(aspartate aminotransferase)
ALT(alanine aminotransferase) LDH Test for ______ injury in the liver |
hepatocellular
|
|
Ammonia
used to test ______ liver function and serum ammonia |
detoxifying
|
|
LFT=?
|
liver function tests
|
|
_______ disease
primary inflammation and damage to hepatocytes (hepatitis) |
Hepatocellular disease
|
|
______ disease
Abnormality in excretory function of liver (biliary obstruction, Hepatic infiltration) |
Cholestatic disease
|
|
True or false
Hepatocellular and cholestatic disease can overlap |
true
|
|
What do synthetic liver function tests tell us about the liver?
|
its ability to synthesize proteins that circulate in the blood
Albumin PT/INR clotting |
|
An albumin test would take _____ to show liver dysfunction
|
weeks
half life of 20 days |
|
Acute viral hepatitis would show ____ albumin levels
|
normal
|
|
4 Major causes of Prerenal AKI
|
Hypovolemia
Hypervolemia Sepsis Triple Whammy Drugs |
|
Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN) is a type of _______ AKI
|
Intrarenal
|
|
Aminoglycosides, contrast dye, Amphotericin B, cisplatin, statins, drug abuse major causes of _______ AKI
|
Intrarenal
|
|
Damage to the kidney nephron
|
Intrarenal
|
|
Urinary tract obstruction causes _____ AKI
|
Postrenal
|
|
Causes of Postrenal AKI
|
Prostatic Hypertrophy
Renal Stones / Ca Drugs - Antivirals |
|
Which type of AKI is easiest to diagnose?
|
Postrenal
|
|
Lab Prerenal
BUN/Cr ratio = Urinalysis = Urine Na = Urine Osm = FENa % = FEUrea % = |
>20
benign <20 >500 <1 <35 |
|
Lab ATN
BUN/Cr ratio = Urinalysis = Urine Na = Urine Osm = FENa % = FEUrea % = |
10-15
granular casts >40 300 >2 >50 |
|
Chronic synthetic dysfunction would show ____ albumin levels
|
low
|
|
hypoalbuminemia
|
low albumin levels in blood
|
|
What are the most common causes of hypoalbuminemia?
|
Advanced cirrhosis*
alcoholism chronic inflammation protein undernutrition |
|
Symptoms of hypoalbuminemia
|
peripheral edema (leg swelling)
ascites (swelling cells) Pulmonary edema (fluid in lungs) |
|
clotting cascade
_____ ---> Thrombin by Xa (10a) ______ ---> Clot by Thrombin |
prothrombin
fibrinogen (platelet plug) |
|
the ____ is responsible for synthesis of clotting factors 2,7,9,10
|
liver
|
|
clotting factors 2,7,9,10 require ___ for activation
|
vitamin K
|
|
What are some factors that can lead to vitamin K deficiency?
|
malnutrition/absorption
antibiotics warfarin |
|
What are the 3 most common coagulation tests?
|
PT prothrombin time
INR international normalized ratio aPTT activated partial thromboplastin time |
|
prothrombin time responds within __ hours of change in hepatic status
|
24
|
|
Hyperkalemia K =
|
>5.5mEq/L
|
|
Calcium Gluconate or Calcium Carbonate used to treat hyperkalemia because
|
Antagonizes K effect on heart to normalize EKG
|
|
Kayexalate can be taken ___ or ___ to remove K in the ______
|
Rectal
Oral Stool |
|
Kyperkalemia with metabolic acidosis - use _____ along with Insulin / Dextrose
|
Sodium Bicarbonate
|
|
Urinalysis is used to check for ____ and is used to determine whether AKI is ________ vs. ______
|
casts
Prerenal vs. ATN (intrarenal) |
|
NSAIDS inhibit ________ causing constriction at the afferent arteriole decreasing perfusion to the kidney
|
Prostaglandins
|
|
Dry skin could be a sign of ______ in a patient with AKI
|
Hypovolemia
|
|
Muddy Brown Casts suggest
|
ATN
|
|
AIN =
Cause? |
Acute Interstitial Nephritis
Drugs, NSAIDs, Beta-Lactam Antibiotics |
|
Testing for antibiotic induced AIN.
Would look for? |
Urine eosinophil count
(allergic reaction) |
|
_________________ is used as a surrogate assay to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy and is reported in seconds
|
aPTT
activated partial thromboplastin time |
|
________ Xa is measured to determine anticoagulation adequacy in patients receiving agents the interfere with Xa activity
|
Anti-factor Xa
|
|
D-dimer is a clot ______ test used to asses process of fibrinolysis
can diagnose/rule out thrombosis DIC |
clot degradation test
|
|
Bilirubin
alkaline phosphatase ALP 5' nucleotidase g-glutamyl transpeptidase GGT Test for? |
Cholestasis
|
|
indirect bilirubin range refers to unconjugated, ________ bilirubin
|
insoluble
|
|
Direct bilirubin range refers to conjugated, __________ bilirubin
|
water soluble
|
|
_______ is a breakdown product of heme proteins excreted by the liver in its conjugated form
|
bilirubin
|
|
Increased bilirubin production
|
Hemolysis
|
|
Decreased liver uptake or conjugation of bilirubin
|
Gilberts syndrome
|
|
Decreased biliary excretion
|
Cholestasis
|
|
Hemolysis and Gilberts syndrome are _______ hyberbilirubinemias
|
indirect
|
|
Cholestasis is ____ bilirubinemia
|
direct
|
|
conjugated bilirubin in urine
|
bilirubinuria
|
|
where can alkaline phosphatase be found?
|
liver
bone small intestine kidney placenta leukocytes |
|
Where is 5'-nucleotidase found?
|
liver
brain heart blood vessels |
|
where is GGT found?
|
liver
kidney pancrease spleen heart brain seminal vesicle |
|
GGT is usually elevated in patients who abuse _____ and it helps determine whether an elevated ALP is of ______ etiology
|
alcohol
|
|
Why can aminotransferase tests determine if the liver is injured?
|
ALT and AST are primarily located inside hepatocytes and leak when damaged
|
|
Which test is more specific to liver injury?
ALT or AST |
ALT
more localized than AST |
|
What does hepatocellular injury usually result from?
|
Acute viral hepatitis
Toxins Ichemic hepatitis |
|
What causes 50% of acute liver failure in the US?
|
drug induced hepatic injury
|
|
what test can be associated with detoxification?
|
ammonia
|
|
Measure of body fat based on height and weight
|
Body Mass Index
kg / m2 |
|
Where is the waist properly measured?
|
Bellybutton
|
|
Healthy BMI =
|
18.5-24.9
|
|
Carbohydrates can only be absorbed in what form?
|
Monosaccharide
|
|
Salivary _______ is responsible for ___% digestion of carbohydrates
|
amylase
30% |
|
Soluble fiber helps lower cholesterol by:
|
Binding bile acids in gut - excreted in stool - body uses cholesterol to synthesize more bile acids
|
|
Insoluble fiber is good for
|
bowel movements
|
|
Fat is digested in the mouth by lingual _______, in the stomach by ______ lipase, and the small intestine by ______
|
lingual lipase
gastric lipase bile acids |
|
Fat is absorbed by _________
|
chylomicrons
(lymph system) |
|
20 Essential Amino Acids
|
Phenylalanine
Valine Threonine Tryptophan Isoleucine Methionine Histidine Alanine Leucine Lysine |
|
aPTT is used to monitor ______ therapy
|
heparin therapy
|
|
INR is used to monitor _________ therapy
|
Warfarin therapy
|
|
PT is used to assess deficiencies of
|
extrinsic and intrinsic clotting pathways
|
|
This is not a coagulation test but a clot degradation test
|
D-dimer
|
|
D-dimer test is ______ but nonspecific
|
sensitive
|
|
The 5 A's of smoking cessation
|
Ask
Advise Assess Assist Arrange |
|
ASK =
|
About tobacco use
|
|
ADVISE =
|
All users to quit
|
|
ASSESS =
|
Readiness to quit
|
|
ASSIST =
|
Users with a quit plan
|
|
ARRANGE =
|
Follow up visits
|
|
Withdrawal effects of smoking cessation typically subside in ____ weeks
|
2-4
|
|
Nicotine gum usage schedule
|
1 q1-2h Week 1-6
1 q2-4h Week 7-9 1 q4-8h Week 10-12 |
|
Proper way to chew nicotine gum
|
chew and park method for 30 minutes
|
|
Nicotine lozenge delivers ___% more nicotine than gum
|
25%
|
|
True or False
Do not eat or drink anything except water 15 minutes before or while using nicotine lozenge |
True
|
|
True or False
It is okay to use the same spot on the skin for a nicotine patch as long as it is done 1-2 times |
False
never twice in a week |
|
Nicotine Patch dosing consideration for a >10 cigarette / day smoker
|
Step 1: 21mg x 6 weeks
Step 2: 14mg x 2 weeks Step 3: 7mg x 2 weeks |
|
Zyban
MOA: blocks the reuptake of ___ and ___ |
NE
DA |
|
Zyban (_________) should begin treatment 1-2 weeks ______ quitting smoking to help with cravings / withdrawal
|
Buproprion (Wellbutrin)
1-2 weeks prior to quitting |
|
Major AE considered for Zyban
|
Psychiatric issues
|
|
Potential issue when taking Zyban with other drugs such as Tramadol, Antipsychotics, Theophylline
|
Lowering seizure threshold
|
|
In order to help avoid AE of Chantix, it should be _____ and taken with ______
|
uptitrated
with food |
|
What is the only FDA approved combination therapy for smoking cessation
|
Nicotine Patch + Buproprion SA
|
|
Bladder contains M__ and M__ receptors
|
M2 M3
|
|
__________ Incontinence
Urge Stress Mixed Overflow |
Chronic
|
|
Reversible causes of urine incontinence
(DRIIIP) |
Delirium
Restricted mobility Infection Inflammation Impaction Polyuria Pharmaceuticals |
|
"Can't make it on time"
|
Urge incontinence
|
|
Leaking when abdominal pressure increases - laughter, sneezing..
|
Stress Incontinence
often time = mixed along with urge |
|
Hesitancy, weak stream, constantly wanting to urinate, can be caused by BPH
|
Overflow Incontinence
|
|
Anticholinergics are most useful in ______ and _____ incontinence
|
Urge + Mixed
|
|
M3 selective anticholinergics
|
Darifenacin
Solifenacin |
|
Tolterodine is metabolized by _____ to active 5-HMT
|
2D6
|
|
Fesoterodine is a ___ that is metabolized by plasma esterases
|
prodrug
|
|
Static component of the prostate
|
Smooth Muscle
|
|
Dynamic Component of the prostate
|
Smooth Muscle TONE
|
|
Prostate size and function is regulated by these sex hormones
|
Testosterone
Estrogen Dihydrotestosterone DHT |
|
PSA =
|
prostate specific antigen test
|
|
PSA is 10 times higher in _____ _____ compared to BPH
|
prostate cancer
|
|
Developed to assess outcomes used in studies identifying effective treatment options in BPH
|
American Urologic Association Symptom Score
AUA |
|
The highest score possible on the AUA is ___ while a score of ___ is considered mild
|
35
<7 |
|
FDA approved BPH treatment options
|
Terazosin
Doxazosin Tamsulosin Alfuzosin Finasteride Dutasteride |
|
Finasteride (Proscar)
Dutasteride (Avodart) |
5-alpha-reductase inhibitors
|
|
Terazosin
Doxazosin Tamsulosin Alfuzosin |
Alpha Adrenergic Receptor Antagonists
|
|
Do to the ____ ______ effect, causes lightheadedness and syncope
The first dose of alpha1 antagonists for BPH is taken at bed time |
First-Dose Effect
|
|
Tamsulosin is specific to prostate alpha-1 receptors, it is ___% absorbed on an empty stomach and ___% with food
|
90%
30% |
|
5 alpha-reductase inhibitors are _______ effective than alpha blockers
|
less
|
|
5-alpha-reductase converts ______ into ________ allowing prostate ______
|
testosterone
DHT growth |
|
5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may take ___weeks to __ months to show a clinical response
|
6weeks
12months |
|
BPH
Monotherapy fails: Whats the next step? |
Combo therapy
|
|
Three types of intrarenal AKI
|
ATN
AIN Acute Glomerulonephritis |
|
When is it okay to add a thiazide diuretic along with a loop diuretic in a patient with hypervolemic pre-renal AKI?
|
If they are diuretic resistant
|
|
Why is insulin used as part of the treatment for hyperkalemia? Why is dextrose added?
|
It causes a shift of extracellular potassium into the cells.
Dextrose is added to prevent hypoglycemia |
|
A FENa
<1 suggests _______ AKI >2 suggests _______ AKI |
<1 Prerenal
>2 ATN |
|
ACE inhibitors cause ________ of the efferent arteriole
|
vasodilation
|
|
Indications for dialysis during unmanageable AKI
(vowels) |
A - Acidosis
E - Electrolyte disturbance I - Intoxications O - Overload U - Uremia (BUN>100) |
|
BUN > 100
|
Uremia
|
|
Some risk factors for Contrast Dye ATN
|
Age
Diabetic Whammy Drugs |
|
Dark Urine
Muscle Weakness BUN:Scr 5:1 FENa > 2% Casts History of Alcohol Abuse Taking Statins for cholesterol |
Rhabdomyolysis
|
|
Measures associated with synthetic liver function
|
Albumin
Coagulation Parameters |
|
Patient with prolonged PT / INR.
Given Vitamin K to correct. No change. This suggests? |
Liver Failure
|
|
Normal PT time
|
10-13seconds
|
|
What is the INR used for?
normal range? |
To standardize PT results making them easier to interpret
0.9 - 1.1 |
|
When after LMWH therapy, is Anti-factor Xa drawn?
|
4 hours
|
|
Abnormal, excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin over weeks to months
|
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
|
|
Increased levels of D-dimer suggests
|
DIC
|
|
Hemolysis and Gilberts syndrome would be ________ hyperbilirubinemia
|
indirect
|
|
More specific than ALP and only elevated in hepatic disease
|
5 - Nucteotidase
|
|
Increased levels of Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) suggests __________, however levels vary with age do to _____ growth
|
Cholestasis
bone growth |
|
Tests associated with hepatocellular injury:
|
ALT
AST LDH |
|
Waist measurements should be
Male: Female: |
Males : <40"
Female : <35" |
|
Urge Incontinence
Type of Med? |
Anticholinergic
|
|
Overflow incontinence with BPH
Med? |
Alpha 1 Antagonist
|
|
Oxybutynin =
|
Anticholinergic
|
|
Tolterodine =
|
Anticholinergic
|
|
Fesoterodine =
|
Anticholinergic prodrug
|
|
Darifenacin =
|
M3 Selective Anticholinergic
|
|
Solifenacin =
|
M3 Selective Anticholinergic
|
|
Trospium =
|
Anticholinergic (quaternary)
|
|
alpha 1a is the most common adrenergic receptor in the _____
|
prostate
|
|
Short Acting A1a antagonist
Initial: 0.5 - 1mg QHS Maintenance: 0.5mg - 2mg BID Max: 40mg daily Available: 1mg, 2mg, 5mg |
Prazosin (Minipress)
|
|
Long Acting A1a Antagonist
Initial: 1mg QHS Maintenance: 1-10mg daily Max: 20mg daily Available: 1mg, 2mg, 5mg, 10mg |
Terazosin (Hytrin)
|
|
Long Acting A1a Antagonist
Initial: 1mg daily Maintenance: titrate Q1-2wks Max: 8mg daily Available: 1mg, 2mg, 4mg, 8mg |
Doxazosin (Cardura)
|
|
Long Acting A1a Antagonist
Initial: 0.4mg daily Maintenance: titrate 2-4wks Max: 0.8mg Available: 0.4mg 30 minutes after meals |
Tamsulosin (Flomax)
|
|
Long Acting A1a Antagonist
Dose: 10mg daily Metabolized by CYP-3A4, O-demethylation, N-demethylation |
Alfuzosin (Uroxatral)
|
|
Nonselective alpha antagonist
Dose: 5 - 20mg daily Long half-life AE: Hypotension, tachycardia |
Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)
|
|
5A-Reductase Inhibitor
Dose: 5mg daily may combine with A-Blocker Inhibits type-2 5A-Reductase enzyme |
Finasteride (Proscar)
|
|
5A-Reductase Inhibitor
Dose: 0.5mg daily Inhibits type 1 and 2 5A-Reductase Enzyme |
Dutasteride (Avodart)
|