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78 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Ketosis is common in this type of diabetes
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Type 1
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Patient has a random plasma glucose of ____ to be diagnosed with DM
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> or = to 200 mg/dL plus signs and symptoms of diabetes
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Patient has a fasting plasma glucose of ____ when diagnosed with DM
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> or = to 126 mg/dL
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Patient has a 2 hour post prandial glucose of ____ when diagnosed with DM
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< or = to 200 mg/dL during oral glucose tolerance test
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For diagnosis of pre-diabetes impaired fasting glucose would be
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100-125 mg/dL
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For diagnosis of pre-diabetes post prandial glucose would be
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140-199 mg/dL
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ADA Goal of preprandial plasma glucose in a patient with DM is
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70-130
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ADA Goal of postprandial plasma glucose in a patient with DM is
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<180
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ADA Goal of glycosylated hemglobin in a patient with DM is
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<7% (or more stringent of <6%)
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ADA Goal of blood pressure in a patient with DM is
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<130/80
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ADA Goal of LDL lipid levels in a patient with DM is
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<100 (if Diabetes and CHD or other heart issues then <70 mg/dL)
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ADA Goal of HDL lipid levels in a patient with DM is
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>40 (Males) and >50 (females)
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ADA Goal of TG lipid levels in a patient with DM is
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<150
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Formula for estimated average glucose (eAG) =
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Average glucose (mg/dL) = 28.7 X A1c - 46.7
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Insulin that has no peak, eliminates hypoglycemia
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Long acting basal insulin - insulin detemir (levemir) and insulin glargine (lantus)
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Use this insulin 15 minutes before eating
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Rapid-Acting Bolus (Lispro - Humalog, Aspart - Novolog, Glulisine - Apidra)
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Use this insulin 30 minutes before eating
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Short acting, Regular (Humulin R and Novolin R)
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This insulin is dosed twice a day, used for basal control or dosed once a day at bedtime for Type 2 on oral medications
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Isophane insulin suspension (NPH) (Humulin N and Novolin N)
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Average insulin requirements for Type 1 and Type 2
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0.5 units/kg actual body weight
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Traditional Method - Split MIxed
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Total Daily dose - 2/3 in am and 1/3 in pm
2/3 of am dose = intermediate acting 1/3 of am dose = rapid short acting 2/3 of pm dose = intermediate acting 1/3 of pm dose = rapid short acting or can do pm dose in 1/2 and 1/2 |
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Split Mixed, TID
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total daily dose - 2/3 in am prior to breakfast and 1/3 in pm with rapid/short given priior to dinner and NPH at HS
2/3 of AM dose = intermediate 1/3 of AM dose = rapid/short acting PM dose = 1/2 intermediate (at bedtime) and 1/2 rapid/short prior to dinner |
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Basal - Bolus dose (QID)
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Total daily dose
Basal = 50% of total daily dose administered once daily Bolus - 50% of total daily dose divided evenly TID AC (rapid-acting) |
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Adjust basic insulin dose ___ to ___ units at a time; __ to __ units for more extreme cases
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1 to 2 units; 3 to 4 units for extreme cases
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Rule of thumb: every unit of rapid acting insulin may decrease glucose by __ to __ mg/dL
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25 to 50 mg/dL
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Adjust long-acting insulin based on ____
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fasting glucose
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Post hypoglycemic hyperglycemia (untreated nighttime hypoglycemia, resulting in high blood sugar levels in the morning)
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Somogyi effect - test blood sugar at 3 am to diagnose. Decrease evening NPH or give evening NPH later or switch to long-acting basal insulin or eat bedtime snack
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Rise in blood glucose in early morning hours
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Dawn phenomenon - increase evening NPH dose or basal insulin
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___ mcg pramlintide = ___ units on insulin syringe = ___ mL
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15 mcg = 2.5 units = 0.025 mL (pramlintide is 0.6mg/mL)
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An incretin mimetic agent for treatment of Type 2 Diabetes as an adjunct to metformin, sulfonylurea, or thiazolidinedione
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Exenatide (Byetta)
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Bind to beta cells on pancreas, stimulate insulin realease - inhibition of hepatic glucose production, enhanced glucose uptake in muscle
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Sulfonylureas (1st gen:chlorpropamide, tolazamide, tolbutamide) (2nd gen: glimepiride, glipizide, glyburide)
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Decrease hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption, Increases peripheral insulin sensitivity, does not stimulate insulin secretion
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Biguanides (metformin)
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Adverse effects are gastrointestinal reactions and lactic acidosis
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Biguanides (Metformin) - watch lactic acidosis in renal dysfunction (contraindicated Cr > 1.5 males, 1.4 females; elderly)
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This medication has beneficial lipid and weight loss effects for Type 2 DM but should be avoided in patients with renal dysfunction and congestive heart failure
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Metformin
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Can't combine these with sulfonylureas, these are good for people with erratic eating habits
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Meglitinides - Repaglinide (Prandin) and Nateglinide (starlix)
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Stimulates insulin release from B-cells in a glucose dependent manner, nonsulfonylurea insulin secretagogue
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Meglitinides - Repaglinide (Prandin), Nateglinide (Starlix)
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Causes so much GI upset, flatulence, cramps, diarrhea, borborygmus
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Alpha glucosidase inhibitors - acarbose (precose), miglitol (glyset)
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Inhibit hydrolysis of complex carbohydrates into simple sugars, result in delayed glucose absorption, decrease postprandial glucose concentrations
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Alpha glucosidase inhibitors - acarbose (precose), miglitol (glyset)
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Increase insulin sensitivity, bind to nuclear receptors that regulate insulin-responsive genes, dependent on presence of insulin; no effect on insulin secretion, decrease hepatic glucose output, increase glucose uptake in skeletal muscles
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Thiazolidinediones - Pioglitazone (Actos), Rosiglitazone (Avandia)
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Causes hepatic problems - monitor LFTs at basline, 3-6 months, fluid retention, edema (NOT for CHF!), cardiac effects
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Thiazolidinediones - Pioglitazone (Actos), Rosiglitazone (Avandia)
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Decrease glucagon release which decreases hepatic glucose production, Inhibit dipeptidyl peptidase-4 enzyme; DPP-4 (helps with glucagon secretion), slow inactivation of incretins; prolong acction of glucagon like peptide (GLP-1). increase insulin synthesis and release
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Dipeptidy peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors - sitagliptin (Januvia) and saxagliptin (Onglyza)
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Adverse effects are Nasopharyngitis, upper respiratory tract infection
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Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors - sitagliptin (Januvia) and saxagliptin (Onglyza)
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Blood glucose <60 mg/dL is considered
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Hypoglycemia
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Side effects of Nicotine Gum
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Mouth Soreness, hiccups, dyspepsia, jaw muscle ache (lightheadedness, N/V, irritation of throat and mouth if chewed too quickly)
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True or False Nicotine Lozenge (commit) delivers 25% more nicotine than equivalent gum dose
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True
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Nicotine Lozenge dosage is based on
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the time to first cigarette TTFC as an indicator of nicotine addiction:
Use 2 mg if u smoke 1st cig more than 30 min after waking up Use 4mg if u smoke 1st cig of the day within 30 min of waking up |
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To improve chances of quitting use at least __ pieces of gum daily but no more than __ pieces of gum per day
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At least 9 pieces, no more than 24
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Do not use more than __ lozenges per day
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20
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Nicotine Patch - if smoke more than 10 cigarettes per day start at step __, if use less than 10 cig/day start at step __.
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1; 2
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True or False: Patients should NOT wear the Nicotine patch while swimming, bathing, showering, or exercising. Water will damage it
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False water will NOT damage the patch. Patients can wear the Nicotine patch while swimming, bathing, showering, or exercising
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If experience vivid dreams or sleep disturbance while on the Nicotine patch then apply patch ___
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in the morning
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One dose of the nicotine nasal spray contains __ nicotine
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1 mg of nicotine (2 sprays, one 0.5 mg spray in each nostril) Start with 1-2 doses per hour then increase to max of 5 doses per hour or 40 mg daily (80 sprays)
Best results use 8 doses/day for 1st 4-6 weeks |
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Should not use this type of NRT with bronchospasms
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Nicotine inhaler
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This type of smoking cessation decreases cravings for cigarettes and decreases symptoms of nicotine withdrawal
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Bupropion (Zyban)
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This smoking cessation aid is contraindicated in a patient with active seizures or on an MAOI in preceding 14 days
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Bupropion
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This is a nonnicotine cessation aid that is a partial nicotinic receptor agonist
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Varenicline (chantix)
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May induce nausea in up to 1/3 of patients
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Varenicline (Chantix)
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2nd line therapies for smoking cessation
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Clonidine (catapres transdermal or oral)
Nortriptyline (Pamelor oral) |
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An herbal drug for smoking cessation, partial nicotinic agonist, no trials, no evidence
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Lobeline
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Has the highest long term quit rate for available cessation products
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Nicotine Nasal Spray = #1
Chantix = #2 Bupropion = #3 Nicotine Gum = #4 Nicotine Inhaler = #5 Nicotine Lozenge Nicotine Patch |
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Combination regimens that are ok together
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Long acting patch and short acting formulation (gum, inhaler, nasal spray)
Bupropion Sr and Nicotine Patch |
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Name the 4 strongest factors that predict fracture risk
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Low peripheral bone mineral density (BMD)
Prior fragility fracture - spine, wrist, ankle Advanced Age Family History of Osteoporosis |
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a multinucleated giant cell specialized for bone resorption, secretes acids and proteases to dissolve bone
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Osteoclast (cut bone)
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a cell that is responsible for the formation of new bone tissue, bone-forming cells lay down bone matrix by secreting proteins and proteoglycans.
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Osteoblasts (build bone)
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With glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis, ___ are the drug of choice, __ is not recommended
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Bisphosphonates are DOC, Calcitonin is not
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Outward curvature of the spinal column sometimes due to multiple vertebral fractures
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Dorsal Kyphosis
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Forward curvature of the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column sometimes due to multiple vertebral fractures
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Cervical Lordosis
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The worst complication of osteoporosis is
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Hip fracture - up to 50% of hip fracture patients do not regain prefracture function for up to 1 yr and 10 to 20% die within 1 yr of the fracture
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The gold standard assessment method for osteoporosis/Bone mineral density is
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central skeletal (hip/spine) dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA).
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A BMD value within 1 Standard deviation of the young adult mean is diagnosed as
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Normal
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A BMD value between -1 Standard deviation and -2.5 SD below the young adult mean is diagnosed as
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Osteopenia
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A BMD value at least -2.5 SD below the young adult mean is diagnosed as
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Osteoporosis
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Biomarkers of bone resorption are
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C-terminal and N-terminal telopeptides and urine deoxypyridinoline because they are by-products of collagen degradation
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Biomarkers of bone formation are
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bone-specific alkaline phosphatase; osteocalcin
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Laboratory tests include
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CBC, chem-7 including calcium corrected for albumin, serum PTH conc, TSH, and 24 hr urine collection for calcium, serum creatinine and BMD. (biomarkers are not for diagnosis only for drug selection)
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AACE goals for treatment of osteoporosis are
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prevent fractures, stabilize or increase bone mass, symptomatic relief of fractures and deformities, and enhance physical functionality
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Adults < 50 need ___ mg of calcium
Adults > 50 need ___ mg of calcium daily in divided doses (max 600 mg per dose) Adults > 70 need ___ mg in divided TID |
1000 mg, 1200, 1500 (max is 600 per dose)
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T or F: Hormonal Replacement therapy may increase the risk of cardiovascular events
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True
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Selectively activates and blocks estrogenic pathways by binding to specific estrogen receptors - bone resorption is reduced and BMD is increased.
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SERMs (selective estrogen receptor modulator) (Evista - raloxifene)
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