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78 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
Ketosis is common in this type of diabetes
Type 1
Patient has a random plasma glucose of ____ to be diagnosed with DM
> or = to 200 mg/dL plus signs and symptoms of diabetes
Patient has a fasting plasma glucose of ____ when diagnosed with DM
> or = to 126 mg/dL
Patient has a 2 hour post prandial glucose of ____ when diagnosed with DM
< or = to 200 mg/dL during oral glucose tolerance test
For diagnosis of pre-diabetes impaired fasting glucose would be
100-125 mg/dL
For diagnosis of pre-diabetes post prandial glucose would be
140-199 mg/dL
ADA Goal of preprandial plasma glucose in a patient with DM is
70-130
ADA Goal of postprandial plasma glucose in a patient with DM is
<180
ADA Goal of glycosylated hemglobin in a patient with DM is
<7% (or more stringent of <6%)
ADA Goal of blood pressure in a patient with DM is
<130/80
ADA Goal of LDL lipid levels in a patient with DM is
<100 (if Diabetes and CHD or other heart issues then <70 mg/dL)
ADA Goal of HDL lipid levels in a patient with DM is
>40 (Males) and >50 (females)
ADA Goal of TG lipid levels in a patient with DM is
<150
Formula for estimated average glucose (eAG) =
Average glucose (mg/dL) = 28.7 X A1c - 46.7
Insulin that has no peak, eliminates hypoglycemia
Long acting basal insulin - insulin detemir (levemir) and insulin glargine (lantus)
Use this insulin 15 minutes before eating
Rapid-Acting Bolus (Lispro - Humalog, Aspart - Novolog, Glulisine - Apidra)
Use this insulin 30 minutes before eating
Short acting, Regular (Humulin R and Novolin R)
This insulin is dosed twice a day, used for basal control or dosed once a day at bedtime for Type 2 on oral medications
Isophane insulin suspension (NPH) (Humulin N and Novolin N)
Average insulin requirements for Type 1 and Type 2
0.5 units/kg actual body weight
Traditional Method - Split MIxed
Total Daily dose - 2/3 in am and 1/3 in pm
2/3 of am dose = intermediate acting
1/3 of am dose = rapid short acting

2/3 of pm dose = intermediate acting
1/3 of pm dose = rapid short acting or can do pm dose in 1/2 and 1/2
Split Mixed, TID
total daily dose - 2/3 in am prior to breakfast and 1/3 in pm with rapid/short given priior to dinner and NPH at HS

2/3 of AM dose = intermediate
1/3 of AM dose = rapid/short acting

PM dose = 1/2 intermediate (at bedtime) and 1/2 rapid/short prior to dinner
Basal - Bolus dose (QID)
Total daily dose
Basal = 50% of total daily dose administered once daily
Bolus - 50% of total daily dose divided evenly TID AC (rapid-acting)
Adjust basic insulin dose ___ to ___ units at a time; __ to __ units for more extreme cases
1 to 2 units; 3 to 4 units for extreme cases
Rule of thumb: every unit of rapid acting insulin may decrease glucose by __ to __ mg/dL
25 to 50 mg/dL
Adjust long-acting insulin based on ____
fasting glucose
Post hypoglycemic hyperglycemia (untreated nighttime hypoglycemia, resulting in high blood sugar levels in the morning)
Somogyi effect - test blood sugar at 3 am to diagnose. Decrease evening NPH or give evening NPH later or switch to long-acting basal insulin or eat bedtime snack
Rise in blood glucose in early morning hours
Dawn phenomenon - increase evening NPH dose or basal insulin
___ mcg pramlintide = ___ units on insulin syringe = ___ mL
15 mcg = 2.5 units = 0.025 mL (pramlintide is 0.6mg/mL)
An incretin mimetic agent for treatment of Type 2 Diabetes as an adjunct to metformin, sulfonylurea, or thiazolidinedione
Exenatide (Byetta)
Bind to beta cells on pancreas, stimulate insulin realease - inhibition of hepatic glucose production, enhanced glucose uptake in muscle
Sulfonylureas (1st gen:chlorpropamide, tolazamide, tolbutamide) (2nd gen: glimepiride, glipizide, glyburide)
Decrease hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption, Increases peripheral insulin sensitivity, does not stimulate insulin secretion
Biguanides (metformin)
Adverse effects are gastrointestinal reactions and lactic acidosis
Biguanides (Metformin) - watch lactic acidosis in renal dysfunction (contraindicated Cr > 1.5 males, 1.4 females; elderly)
This medication has beneficial lipid and weight loss effects for Type 2 DM but should be avoided in patients with renal dysfunction and congestive heart failure
Metformin
Can't combine these with sulfonylureas, these are good for people with erratic eating habits
Meglitinides - Repaglinide (Prandin) and Nateglinide (starlix)
Stimulates insulin release from B-cells in a glucose dependent manner, nonsulfonylurea insulin secretagogue
Meglitinides - Repaglinide (Prandin), Nateglinide (Starlix)
Causes so much GI upset, flatulence, cramps, diarrhea, borborygmus
Alpha glucosidase inhibitors - acarbose (precose), miglitol (glyset)
Inhibit hydrolysis of complex carbohydrates into simple sugars, result in delayed glucose absorption, decrease postprandial glucose concentrations
Alpha glucosidase inhibitors - acarbose (precose), miglitol (glyset)
Increase insulin sensitivity, bind to nuclear receptors that regulate insulin-responsive genes, dependent on presence of insulin; no effect on insulin secretion, decrease hepatic glucose output, increase glucose uptake in skeletal muscles
Thiazolidinediones - Pioglitazone (Actos), Rosiglitazone (Avandia)
Causes hepatic problems - monitor LFTs at basline, 3-6 months, fluid retention, edema (NOT for CHF!), cardiac effects
Thiazolidinediones - Pioglitazone (Actos), Rosiglitazone (Avandia)
Decrease glucagon release which decreases hepatic glucose production, Inhibit dipeptidyl peptidase-4 enzyme; DPP-4 (helps with glucagon secretion), slow inactivation of incretins; prolong acction of glucagon like peptide (GLP-1). increase insulin synthesis and release
Dipeptidy peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors - sitagliptin (Januvia) and saxagliptin (Onglyza)
Adverse effects are Nasopharyngitis, upper respiratory tract infection
Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors - sitagliptin (Januvia) and saxagliptin (Onglyza)
Blood glucose <60 mg/dL is considered
Hypoglycemia
Side effects of Nicotine Gum
Mouth Soreness, hiccups, dyspepsia, jaw muscle ache (lightheadedness, N/V, irritation of throat and mouth if chewed too quickly)
True or False Nicotine Lozenge (commit) delivers 25% more nicotine than equivalent gum dose
True
Nicotine Lozenge dosage is based on
the time to first cigarette TTFC as an indicator of nicotine addiction:

Use 2 mg if u smoke 1st cig more than 30 min after waking up

Use 4mg if u smoke 1st cig of the day within 30 min of waking up
To improve chances of quitting use at least __ pieces of gum daily but no more than __ pieces of gum per day
At least 9 pieces, no more than 24
Do not use more than __ lozenges per day
20
Nicotine Patch - if smoke more than 10 cigarettes per day start at step __, if use less than 10 cig/day start at step __.
1; 2
True or False: Patients should NOT wear the Nicotine patch while swimming, bathing, showering, or exercising. Water will damage it
False water will NOT damage the patch. Patients can wear the Nicotine patch while swimming, bathing, showering, or exercising
If experience vivid dreams or sleep disturbance while on the Nicotine patch then apply patch ___
in the morning
One dose of the nicotine nasal spray contains __ nicotine
1 mg of nicotine (2 sprays, one 0.5 mg spray in each nostril) Start with 1-2 doses per hour then increase to max of 5 doses per hour or 40 mg daily (80 sprays)

Best results use 8 doses/day for 1st 4-6 weeks
Should not use this type of NRT with bronchospasms
Nicotine inhaler
This type of smoking cessation decreases cravings for cigarettes and decreases symptoms of nicotine withdrawal
Bupropion (Zyban)
This smoking cessation aid is contraindicated in a patient with active seizures or on an MAOI in preceding 14 days
Bupropion
This is a nonnicotine cessation aid that is a partial nicotinic receptor agonist
Varenicline (chantix)
May induce nausea in up to 1/3 of patients
Varenicline (Chantix)
2nd line therapies for smoking cessation
Clonidine (catapres transdermal or oral)
Nortriptyline (Pamelor oral)
An herbal drug for smoking cessation, partial nicotinic agonist, no trials, no evidence
Lobeline
Has the highest long term quit rate for available cessation products
Nicotine Nasal Spray = #1
Chantix = #2
Bupropion = #3
Nicotine Gum = #4
Nicotine Inhaler = #5
Nicotine Lozenge
Nicotine Patch
Combination regimens that are ok together
Long acting patch and short acting formulation (gum, inhaler, nasal spray)

Bupropion Sr and Nicotine Patch
Name the 4 strongest factors that predict fracture risk
Low peripheral bone mineral density (BMD)
Prior fragility fracture - spine, wrist, ankle
Advanced Age
Family History of Osteoporosis
a multinucleated giant cell specialized for bone resorption, secretes acids and proteases to dissolve bone
Osteoclast (cut bone)
a cell that is responsible for the formation of new bone tissue, bone-forming cells lay down bone matrix by secreting proteins and proteoglycans.
Osteoblasts (build bone)
With glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis, ___ are the drug of choice, __ is not recommended
Bisphosphonates are DOC, Calcitonin is not
Outward curvature of the spinal column sometimes due to multiple vertebral fractures
Dorsal Kyphosis
Forward curvature of the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column sometimes due to multiple vertebral fractures
Cervical Lordosis
The worst complication of osteoporosis is
Hip fracture - up to 50% of hip fracture patients do not regain prefracture function for up to 1 yr and 10 to 20% die within 1 yr of the fracture
The gold standard assessment method for osteoporosis/Bone mineral density is
central skeletal (hip/spine) dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA).
A BMD value within 1 Standard deviation of the young adult mean is diagnosed as
Normal
A BMD value between -1 Standard deviation and -2.5 SD below the young adult mean is diagnosed as
Osteopenia
A BMD value at least -2.5 SD below the young adult mean is diagnosed as
Osteoporosis
Biomarkers of bone resorption are
C-terminal and N-terminal telopeptides and urine deoxypyridinoline because they are by-products of collagen degradation
Biomarkers of bone formation are
bone-specific alkaline phosphatase; osteocalcin
Laboratory tests include
CBC, chem-7 including calcium corrected for albumin, serum PTH conc, TSH, and 24 hr urine collection for calcium, serum creatinine and BMD. (biomarkers are not for diagnosis only for drug selection)
AACE goals for treatment of osteoporosis are
prevent fractures, stabilize or increase bone mass, symptomatic relief of fractures and deformities, and enhance physical functionality
Adults < 50 need ___ mg of calcium
Adults > 50 need ___ mg of calcium daily in divided doses (max 600 mg per dose)
Adults > 70 need ___ mg in divided TID
1000 mg, 1200, 1500 (max is 600 per dose)
T or F: Hormonal Replacement therapy may increase the risk of cardiovascular events
True
Selectively activates and blocks estrogenic pathways by binding to specific estrogen receptors - bone resorption is reduced and BMD is increased.
SERMs (selective estrogen receptor modulator) (Evista - raloxifene)