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172 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the 4 routes a pneumonia infection can occur?
-inhalation of droplets,
aspiration of oropharyngeal contents, upper respiratory infection, hematogenous spread
What medical procedure often introduces pneumonia?
intubation
What are the 4 defense mechanisms of the pulmonary system?
turbulence of air flow, cough reflex, cilia, alveolar macrophages and neutrophils
What are the 2 types of pneumonia?
community acquired, health care associated
What organisms cause typical community acquired pneumonia (CAP)?
Strep. pneumoniae,
Haemophilus influenzae,
Morexella catarrhalis,
Klebsiella pneumoniae,
Staph aureus,
Pseudomonas
Which organism is the most common cause of typical pneumoniae?
Strep. pneumoniae
Which bacteria cause atypical CAP?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophila, Chlamydia pneumoniae
What viruses cause atypical CAP?
Influenza A and B, RSV, Parainfluenza, Adenovirus
RSV only causes pneumonia in what patients?
children
How does the cough present in CAP?
dry, productive, hemoptosis
What kind of sputum is seen in Pneumococcal pneumonia?
rust colored
Pneumonia caused by what bacteria causes “walking pneumonia”?
mycoplasma
What bacteria causes a pneumonia in older patients with comorbidities?
Chlamydia
What bacteria causes a pneumonia characterized by altered mental status?
Legionella
What bacterial pneumonia has the lowest morbidity?
mycoplasma
What bacterial pneumonia has the highest morbidity?
legionella
What are breath sounds like in pneumonia cases?
harsh
What sounds are heard in the lungs?
crackles, rales
What 4 signs of consolidation are noticed on a physical exam with pneumonia?
-increased tactile fremitus
-dullness to percussion
-positive egophony
-positive whispered pectoriloquy
How does positive egophony sound?
patient says “E” but it sounds like “A”
How does whispered pectoriloquy sound in pneumonia?
louder in areas of consolidation
What is recommended for a diagnosis of CAP?
chest xray
What is seen commonly in xrays of CAP?
lobar consolidation
What is seen commonly in xrays in atypical CAP?
bilateral infiltrates, thickened interstitial markings
Secondary pleural effusion can be seen on xray in what bacterial pneumonia
mycoplasma
What lab test is difficult to obtain cleanly but diagnostic of pneumonia?
sputum culture
What severity index is used to determine inpatient vs. outpatient pneumonia cases?
CURB-65
What does this stand for?
confusion, urea nitrogen, resp. rate, blood pressure, 65 years or older
What medication is given to healthy pts that have not been on abx for 3 mo?
azithromycin, clarithromycin
What medication is used if pt has macrolide allergy?
doxycycline
What medications are used for pts with comorbidities or abx use in the last 3 mo?
levofloxacin, moxifloxacin
What medications can be used if fluroroquinolone allergy or if pregnant?
augmentin or cefuroxime plus azithromycin/clarithromycin
What medications are given for inpatient CAP?
levofloxacin, moxifloxacin
What IV meds are given if fluoroquinolone allergy or if pregnant?
Ceftriaxone, ampicillin, cefotaxime
What IV meds are given if fluoroquinolone allergy or if pregnant? ANSWER
-Ceftriaxone, ampicillin, cefotaxime

What other meds are given with these?
oral biaxin, oral azithromycin, or IV azithromycin
What meds are given for ICU cases of CAP?
ceftriaxone or cefotaxime
What meds are given for ICU cases of CAP? ANSWER
-ceftriaxone or cefotaxime

What other meds are given with these?
-oral biaxin or
-oral azithromycin or
-IV azithromycin or
-IV levofloxacin or
-IV moxifloxacin
What medications cant be used by pregos?
doxycycline, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin
How long is the average treatment with CAP medications?
10-14 days
What are 4 complications that can develop from CAP?
pleural effusions, lung abscess, bacteremia, acute resp. distress syndrome
What vaccines may reduce complications in CAP elderly pts?
pneumococcal, influenza
Nosocomial pneumonia is defined as?
pneumonia occurring >48 hrs after admission to hospital
Early onset nosocomial pneumonia is usually caused by what bacteria?
Strep pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, staph aureus
Late onset nosocomial pneumonia is usually caused by what bacteria?
MRSA, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
When is the highest risk of ventilator acquired pneumonia?
first 5 days of putting on ventilator
What five types of bacteria usually cause ventilator acquired pneumonia?
typical pathogens, pseudomonas, mrsa, acinetobacter, enterobacter
What criteria list is used to diagnose VAP?
clinical pulmonary infection score
What parameter is most sensitive in this score?
oxygenation
What medications are given for non-MDR nosocomial pneumonia?
ceftriaxone, moxifloxacin, levofloxacin, ciprofloxacin, unasyn
What drug regimen is given for MDR nosocomial pneumonia?
two drugs against pseudomonas and one drug against mrsa
What drugs are used to treat pseudomonas?
ceftazidime or cefepime
            plus
-gentamicin or tobramycin or ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin
What drugs are used to treat mrsa?
linezolid or vancomycin  
Where is visual field loss first in glaucoma?
peripheral field loss
What is the only treatable risk factor in glaucoma?
elevated eye pressure
What is the normal pressure of the aqueous humor?
16 mmHg
What type of glaucoma is seen in 90% of cases?
primary open-angle
Posterior exam of the eye in glaucoma shows what?
cupping of the optic nerve
What test is done after findings of glaucoma on physical exam?
formal visual field test
What are the 2 goals of medical therapy for glaucoma?
decrease aqueous production, increase aqueous outflow
What beta blockers are used to reduce pressure by 30%?
timolol, timoptic, betaxolol
What patients should use caution when using beta blockers?
asthmatics, bradycardics
What are other cons to using beta blockers?
decreases HDL, depression, impotence
What a2 agonist is used to treat glaucoma?
alphagan
Alphagan is good for patients with what comorbidity?
cardiovascular patients
What are adverse reactions to alphagan?
red eyes, conjunctivitis
What 3 prostaglandin analogues are used for glaucoma?
xalatan, travatan, lumigan
What are adverse reactions to prostaglandin analogues?
red eyes, long/full lashes, change in iris color
What 3 carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used for glaucoma?
dorzolamide, brinzolamide, acetamazolamide
What are adverse reactions to carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
kidney stones, weight loss, fatigue, aplastic anemia,
Which patients must avoid carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
sickle cell patients
What are the surgical options for glaucoma?
trabectome, trabeculectomy
What type of glaucoma is characterized by a sudden acute rise in pressure?
angle-closure glaucoma
What are 2 risk factors for angle-closure glaucoma?
hyperopia, Asians
What are the symptoms of angle-closure glaucoma?
pain, redness, vision loss, nausea, headache
What definitive surgical treatment is used in angle-closure glaucoma?
laser peripheral iridotomy
What is a cataract?
opacification of lens
Which way do cataracts grow?
anterior-posterior direction
What are patient complaints in cataracts?
-blurred vision, difficulty driving/reading, glare, night vision problems, altered color perception
What is the most common cataract?
nuclear
What kind of cataract shows spokes formation?
cortical
What kind of cataract is common in chronic steroid users and radiation therapy pts?
posterior sub-capsular
When should follow up appointments be made after cataract surgery?
1 day, 1 week, 1 month later
What complications from cataract surgery could arise?
elevated intraocular pressure, infection, retinal detachment
What medications are given after cataract surgery?
antibiotic and steroid drops
What kind of vision is the macula responsible for?
detail, central and color vision
What kind of vision is affected in age related macular degeneration (AMD)?
gradual onset central vision loss
What is the most common form of AMD?
dry macular degeneration
What is the characteristic exam finding in AMD?
drusen
How is dry AMD treated?
exam and self monitoring, ocuvite, AREDS vitamins
What causes wet AMD?
vessels from choroid grow underneath the retina and bleed
What kind of vision loss is seen in wet AMD?
acute central vision loss
How is wet AMD treated?
laser therapy, lucentis injections
How do these medication injections work?
they are anti-angiogenics, cause regression of abnormal blood vessels
What usually causes retinal artery occlusion?
Hollenhorst plaque (embolus)
How will the macula appear in a retinal artery occlusion?
cherry red spot surrounded by retinal whitening
What symptom precedes retinal artery occlusion?
amaurosis fugax
What is this (amaurosis fugax)?
transient monocular blindness
What serious complications are possible in patients with retinal artery occlusions?
heart disease, stroke
What are the risk factors in central retinal vein occlusions?
diabetes, HTN, glaucoma, hypercoagulable state, hyperviscosity 
What are the stages of a TB infection?
exposure, latent infection, active TB, disseminated TB
What stage of TB infection would appear on a chest xray?
active TB stage
What stage of TB infection would cause a positive PPD?
latent stage
What type of TB presents with many tiny nodules in lungs seen on xray?
Milliary TB
What usually self-limiting TB infection is common in children <4 yrs?
primary TB
Latent and active TB cases are what type of TB infection?
secondary
Where are these infections usually located in the lungs?
apical and posterior segments of upper lobes
What are usual pulmonary symptoms of TB?
cough > 3wks, hemoptysis
Extrapulmonary symptoms of TB are seen often in what patients?
HIV pts
What 2 lesions are commonly seen in the lungs of TB pts?
Ghon’s complexes, cavitations
What is the size of induration in a positive PPD for a normal person?
15 mm
What blood test detects cell mediated immunity following a PPD?
QuantiFERON-TB
What are the 5 first line medications for TB?
isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, streptomycin
What are the 5 second line medications for TB?
aminoglycocides (kanamycin or amikacin), cycloserine, thioamides (ethionamide), para aminosalycilic acid, quinolones
What meds are used initially for 2 months in TB?
isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide
What meds are used for 4 months after the first two months in TB?
isoniazid, rifampin
What meds are used if MDR TB is suspected?
ethambutol and streptomycin for 2 months
What side effects are seen in all TB drugs?
nausea, vomiting
BCG vaccination may minimize what complications of TB?
TB meningitis, miliary TB
Treatment is considered a failure when what tests are positive?
sputum cx after 3 mo, AFB smear after 5 mo
When can an influenza patient infect others?
1 day before symptoms, up to 5 days after becoming sick
What abrupt symptoms are seen in influenza?
high fever, HA, cough, sore throat, nasal congestion, myalgias
What serious complications can be seen in children, elderly or pregos?
bacterial pneumonia, sinus infxn, otitis media, purulent bronchitis, dehydration, worsening of chronic conditions
What complications can develop from primary viral pneumonia?
pericarditis, myocarditis, toxic shock syndrome, thrombophlebitis
What complication in children results in liver failure and encephalopathy?
Reyes syndrome
What medications are used for influenza?
ribavirin, zanamivir, oseltamivir
When do these meds, influenza, have to be given?
within 48 hrs of onset
What influenza med is contraindicated in asthma?
zanamivir
The flu vaccine is not recommended for people with what three things?
egg allergies, guillain-barre syndrome, acute febrile illness
What vaccine is approved for healthy, not prego pts age 2-49 years?
nasal spray live attenuated virus
What medications are H5N1 and swine flu resistant to?
amantadine, rimantadine
Swine flue is susceptible to what meds?
oseltamavir, zanamivir
What is the definition of acute bronchitis?
<3 wks of cough
What viruses cause bronchitis in pts < 1yr?
RSV, parainfluenza, corona
What viruses cause bronchitis in pts 1-10 yrs?
parainfluenza, entrovirus, RSV, rhinovirus
What viruses cause bronchitis in pts >10 yrs?
influenza, RSV, adenovirus
What symptoms of bronchitis are found on exam?
fever, tachypnea, wheezing, rhonchi/rales, sputum production
What protussive meds, for bronchitis, are used for treatment?
terbutaline, amiloride, saline aerosols
What antitussive meds, for bronchitis, are used for treatment?
hydrocodone, dextromethorphan, codeine, carbetapentane, benzonate
White side effect should be cautioned in antitussive meds?
sedation
This can lead to mastoiditis and it is most common in infants in children.
Acute otitis media
What are the etiological causes of Acute otitis media?
Strep pneumo, H. flu, moroxella, strep pyogenes, Staph aureus
What is a sign, upon examination, of acute otitis media?
Bulging tympanic membrane from pressure.
This is seen in Hx and Physical, pain, swelling, tenderness, and redness over the mastoid region, protrusion of the ear, fever and toxicity. The Dx can be confirmed by CT scan.
Mastoiditis
What is the first line treatment for mastoiditis?
Amoxicillin 7-10 days
What is the second line treatment for mastoiditis?
Augmentin, quinolones may be used in adults.
If there is a PCN allergy what drugs can you use to treat mastoiditis?
Erythromycin, clarithromycin, sulfa, 2nd gen. cephalosporins, bactrim
If mastoiditis is recurrent what is the tx?
Tympanostomy with tube.
80% of vertigo cases are?
Peripheral
What are the three most common types of vertigo?
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), vestibular neuritis, and Meniere's disease
In this type of vertigo symptoms are brought on by positional changes or head movements. Canalolithiasis in posterior semicircular canal. It is more common in the elderly.
Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
What triggers BPPV?
While laying in bed, rolling over will trigger it.

"it started in bed this morning when I woke up"
Are otalgia, hearing loss, and tinnitus involved in vertigo?
No
Excessive endolymphatic fluid of inner ear

Fluctuant hearing loss, roaring tinnitus, fullness

Symptoms temporary but recurrent
Meniere's Disease
What does the endolymphatic fluid do in the inner ear?
Helps to maintain balance
What age is usually affected by Meniere's Disease?
any age but usually 20-40
What is usually the cause for Meniere's if it is happening in a child?
It is usually due to a congenital inner ear malformation.
Is meniere's unilateral?
Yes
Salt intake has been linked to what disease?
Meniere's Disease
What are the clinical features of Meniere's Disease?
Episodic vertigo (a true spinning sensation that has an onset and an offset)

Sensorineural hearing loss - unilateral

Tinnitus - unilateral
This is usually a viral disruption of the inner ear. It occurs after viral URI, infection of cochlea and labyrinth. Essentially, non-specific inflammation of labyrinthine system of the inner ear. Still a peripheral cause of vertigo.
Labyrinthitis
Trauma/Concussion that may not be from a direct blow. Vertigo, nausea, vomiting and imbalance are maximal at onset. This improves over days to months.
Labyrinthine concussion
What are the causes of central vertigo?
MS, vertebrobasilar insufficiancy, CVA
This is progressive, causing unilateral hearing loss/tinnitus, eventual damage to other CN and brain stem, leading to irreversible hearing loss.
Acoustic neuroma (benign tumor of CN VIII)
What type of nystagmus is concerning?
Vertical
What are the physical presentations in Vertigo?
Eyes - Nystagums
Ear - Hearing acuity
Cardiac - Carotid Bruits, arrythmia
Neuro - Cerebellar function, CNs
Dix-Hallpike for BPPV
What are the diagnostic tests used to diagnose causes of vertigo?
Audiologic testing
ENG
ABR
CT
MRI
What does the ENG test measure?
Dizziness, it is a series of tests that tries to identify central vs. peripheral vertigo.
What does the ABR test stand for, and test?
Auditory Brainstem Response- If patient complains of unilateral hearing loss, this measures how fast the brain conduction is with hearing, can help detect neurofibromas as well.
What is the Tx for BPPV?
Avoid positional causes, but you can also give Meclizine if pat. is waiting for diagnosis, use only as needed.
What is the Tx. for Meniere's Disease?
Low salt diet and diuretics
What is the Tx. for Labyrinthitis?
Antivert, benadryl, valium
What do you do if you find that the vertigo isn't due to anything ENT related?
Call a neurology consult, or if it is based in cardiology make sure to correct cardiology problem.