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226 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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what type of drug is this and what is it used for: trimethroprim prophalaxix
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antibiotic, used for AIDS
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what type of drug is this and what is it used for: Biaxin Zithromax?
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antibiotic, used for MAC for AIDS
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tx of PCP is needed in what case?
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AIDS
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what type of drug is this and what is it used for: amphotericin B?
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antifungal, used for meningitis in a pt withh aids
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what type of drug is this and what is it used for: diflucan
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antifungal, used for meningitis in a pt with aids
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what type of drug is this and what is it used for: nystatin swish
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antifungal, used for tx of thrush in aids pts
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Ganciclovir prophalaxis
WHat type of drug, used for what, what type of pts? |
antiviral, used in AIDS pts with Cytomegalovirus to treat retinitis
-retinitis from CMV is the leading cause of blindness in patients with aids |
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Sandostatin
what type of drug is this, used for what pts? |
antidiarrheal, AIDS pts
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WHat 3 antidepressants are used for aids pts
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prozac, tofranil (also relieves fatigue), TCA's
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What is the action of antiretroviral therapy?
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inhibits and decreases viral replication
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what type of therapy is NRTI's
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antiretroviral
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what type of therapy is protease inhibitors
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antiretroviral
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WHat type of therapy is NNRTI's?
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antiretroviral therapy
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How does nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors treat HIV?
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inserts a bit of protein (called a nucleoside) into the developing HIV DNA chain, blocking further development of the chain
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What is ZDV and what is it used for?
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NRTI, AIDS patients
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What is AZT and what is it used for?
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NRTI's and AIDS patients
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WHat is Retrovir and what is it used for?
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NRTI, aids patients
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What type of drug is invirase and who is it used for
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aids pts, antiretroviral therapy, protease inhibitor
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norvira
what type, treats what, take how often? |
protese inhibitor, a newer drug that treats HIV, take once daily
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grixivan
what type, treats what? |
protease inhibitor, HIV
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synthetic oral progesterone:Megase
does what, for who |
increases fat stores, AIDS pts
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Marinol
does what, for who |
decreases nausea and anorexia, AIDS pts
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What labs are monitored in aids pts taking Megase or Marinol
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BUN, serum, protein, albumin, transferrin levels, HGB, HCT
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doxycycline
used to treat what, how much |
100 mg BIDx7 days, chlamydia
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erythromycin
treats what, how much |
chlamydia, 500 mg x 7 days
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amoxycillin
treats what |
chlamydia in pregnant women,
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rocephin
what is it used for |
ghonorrhea
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flagyl
treats what, contraindicated with what, s.e. |
trichomonis vaginosis, alcohol use, will cause tachycardia, n&v, palpitations, and flushing
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acyclovir
treats what, application process |
herpes, use gloves and q tip
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interferon
1.what can reduce efficacy 2. what is expected in early tx 3. later side effects 4. what does it treat |
1. high iron levelsin the liver
2. flu-like sx 3. fatigue, bone marrow suppression, and neuropsychiatric effects 4.Hep C |
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Ribavirin
1.tx for what? 2. can cause what? 3. caution should be used with what type of pts 4. pregnancy |
1.hep c
2. hemolytic anemia 3. pre-existing anemia, bonemarrow suppression, or renal failure, CVD, teratogenic 4. pt should not get pregnant when on this |
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what is the tx for mono?
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symptomatic,and analgesics for pain, saline gargles for throat discomfort
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erythromycin
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abx for bronchitis
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doxycycline
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abx for bronchitis
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trimethropin/sulfamethoxazole
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abx for bronchitis
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benzonatate
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given for cough supression in bronchitis
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codeine
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given for cough supression in bronchitis
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albuterol
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nebulized bronchodilator for bronchiolitis
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epinephrine
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nebulized bronchodilator for bronchiolitis
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ribavirin
1.what is it 2. who shouldnt work with these pts |
1. give if croup or bronchiolitis secondary to RSV in high risk groups
2.pregnant nurses |
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monoclonal antibody palivizumab
what is it route relation to vaccinnes? preferred? |
prophylaxis for RSV
IM doesnt interfere w/vaccinnes preferred |
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what is given for viral induced asthma
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bronchodilators and corticosteroids
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oral PCN and rifampin combo treats what?
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pharyngitis
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symmetrel
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efffective for type a influenza if given within 24 hours
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Wht meds are not helpful in acute epiglottis?
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racemic epinephrine, and corticosteroids
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abx against h influenza and rifampin to irrADICATE NASAL CARRIAGE IN WHAT PROBLEM?
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acute epiglottis
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racemic epinephrine treats what?
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acute laryngotracheobronchitis
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What meds could be used for nephrotic syndrome?
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corticosteroids, immunosuppressive drug therapy, diuretics for edema, IV albumin, special diet to restrict salt and other specifications
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haloperidol
1.what type of drug? 2.what does it treat? |
1.d2 receptor antagonist
2. huntingtons disease |
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levadopa
what is it, what is it used to tx |
dopamine precursor
parkinsonism |
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amantadine treats what?
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parkinsonism
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bromocriptine
what is it? what does it treat? |
dopaminergicagonist, parkinsonism
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benzotropine
what is it and what does it treat |
anticholinergic
parkinsonism |
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interferon
what type of drug? treats what? |
immunosuppressant, modulates the immune respone and reduces progression
MS |
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cyclophosphamide
what type of drug treats what |
immunosuppressant, modulates the immune response & reduces progression
MS |
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corticosteroids
does what for what disease |
modulates the immune response and reduces progression in MS
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what drug is contraindicated in guillian-barre syndrome?
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corticosteroids
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exogenous anticholinesterase is used to treat what
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myasthenia gravis
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if pt with myasthenia gravis is unresponsive to exogenous anticholinesterase what are the next drugs to treat it with?
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steroids or azathioprine
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acetylcholine
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sends signals from nerves to muscles and between nerves in the brain.
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tegretol is given for maintenance tx of what?
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seizures
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mysoline is given for maintenance tx of what?
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seizures
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dilantin is given for maintenance tx of what?
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seizures
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zarontin is given for maintenance tx of what?
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seizures
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depakene is given for maintenance tx of what?
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seizures
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phenobarbital is given for maintenance tx of what?
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seizures
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codeine is the most frequent pain med given for what type of procedure
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craniotomy
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what should be given to pts with spinal cord injuries shortly after to counteract cord edema?
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steroids and mannitol
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heparin
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anticoagulant, treaTS occlusive stroke
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coumadin
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antiplatelet therapy, anticoagulant, treaTS occlusive stroke
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aspirin
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anticoagulant for occlusive stroke
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dipyridamole
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anticoagulant for occlusive stroke
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plavix
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platelet aggregation inhibitor for occlusive stroke
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ticlid
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platelet aggregation inhibitor for occlusive stroke
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antihypertensive agents are used to tx what kind of strokes?
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hemorrhagic
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decadron
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systemic steroids, treats hemorrhagic stroke, and ICP
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mannitol
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osmotic diuretic, treats hemorrhagic stroke, AND iV DRIP OR PUSH FOR icp
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amicar
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antifibrinolytic agent, treats hemorrhagic stroke
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vasodilators are tx for what type of stroke?
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hemorrhagic
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alpha and beta blockers are used for what type of stroke?
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HEMORRHAGIC
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ANTICONVULSANTS are used for what type of stroke?
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hemorrhagic
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barbiturate coma used for what?
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ICP
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antihistamines
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block substance p, used for pruritus
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emollients
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used for pruritus
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humidity
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used for pruritus
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topical steroids
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used for pruritus
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dialysis is antidote for?
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aspirin
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n-acetylcystine antidote for?
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tylenol
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lidocaine is antidote for?
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digitalis
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deferoxamine is antidote for?
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iron
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ethanol is antidote for?
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methanol and ethylene glycol
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02 is antidote for?
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CO
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narcan and naloxone is antidote for?
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narcotics
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penicillamine is antidote for?
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Cu, As, Pb
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sodium nitrite/sodium thiosulfate is antidote for?
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cyanide
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p.c. of aspirin?
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kidney failure, hyperthermia, increased coagulation
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lead absorption is increased with what?
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high fat and low calcium or iron
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the AAP says do not use chelating agents in lead levels less than?
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45
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Mcburneys point?
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pain localized in right lower abdomen from appendicitis
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no analgesics to pt with what problem?
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appendicitis
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cortisone 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA)
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helps control inflammation in ulcerative cholitis
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sulfasazine is a combo of what and treats what?
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sulfapyradine and 5 ASA and is used to reduce and maintain remission
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prednisone and hydrocortisone are use to reduce inflammation in what bowel problems?
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ulcerative cholitis
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azathioprine and 6 mercapto purine are what type of drugs? and treat what in what bowel condition?
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immunomodulators, reduce inflammation in ulcerative cholitis
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are abx used for tx of diverticulitis?
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yes,broad spectrum
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fat soluble vit deficiency in what problem? (ADEK)
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cholecystitis
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antacid should be given in hwat stomach problem?
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gastritis
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dont give what for pain in gastritis?
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aspirin, or motrin
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hematochezia
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bright red bloody stools
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melena
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stained black stools or vomit by blood
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injection of alcohol, sclerosant, or epinephrine can be tx for what?
along w/ angiographic embolization of branch vessels supplying bleed site, antisecretory therapy (proton pump inhibitiors or h2 blockers) and h pylori tx if necessary |
peptic ulcers
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in acute bacterial prostatitis do not massage prostate until when?
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abx level is established
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what is initial tx for acute bacterial prostatitis while waiting foor chest xray results
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fluoroquinolone BID
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ampicillin and gentamicin are what type of drugs given for what?
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broad spectrum abx., given IV in acute bacterial prostatitis until bacteria sensitivity is known
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what type of infection are antimicrobials used for?
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prophylaxis
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med tx for epididymitis
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analgesics, & antimicrobial therapy
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anticholinergic drugs and nsaids for what?
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prostatis, non bacterial
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if sepsis is suspected in epididymitis give what?
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a parenteral aminoglycoside, or 3rd generation aminoglycoside
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avoid what 2 NSAIDS in pts with ulcers
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motrin and ASA
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what does an antihistamine do?
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blocks substance P
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TCDB
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turn, cough, deep breathe
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probenecid
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lowers uric acid, given for gout
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sulfinpyrazone
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lowers uric acid, given for gout
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colchicine
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pt gets pain relief for gout in 4-12 hours if given IV
and 12-24 hours if given PO |
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what 3 meds are given for raynauds?
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NSAIDS, steroids, vasodilators
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teach pt with osteoporosis to take what kind of med?
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Fosamax
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take fosamax on what kind of stomach and stay in what kind of position for how long?
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empty stomach, stay upright for 30 minutes after
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4 mediators of inflammation?
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thromboxane, histamine, seratonin, prostaglandin
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Burns
degrees = to what |
1st=superficial partial
2nd=partial 2nd=deep partial 3rd=full thickness |
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frostbite
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1.mild
2.severe 3.most severe |
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skin freezing
1.1st degree superficial skin freezing 2.2nd degree superficial skin freezing 3. 3rd degree deep skin freezing 4. 4th degree deep tissue freezing |
1. partial skin
2.full thickness 3. full thickness and subcutaneous 4. deep tissue |
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carbon tetrachloide damages liver when?
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during metabolism
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chemical injury blocks what?
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enzyme pathways
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chemical injury causes damage to what?
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plasma membrane
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3 treatments for aspirin overdose
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sodium bicarb, dialysis, vit K
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hyperthermia can be caused by what drug overdose
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aspirin
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production of mucous and HCO3 creates what?
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PH gradient from the gastric lumen (low PH) to the mucosa (neutral PH)
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the mucous serves as a barrier for the diffusion of what?
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acid and pepsin
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NEXT 3 CARDS:INFLAMMATORY GI PROTECTIVE MECH.
what removes excess hydrogen ions via membrane transport systems and has tight junctions which prevent back diffusion of hydrogen ions |
epithelial cells
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what removes excess acid that has diffused acrossed the epithelial layer
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mucosal blood flow
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what 3 things have been linked to mucosal repair and maintenance of mucosal integrity?
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epidermal growth factor, insulin like growth factor 1, and prostoglandins
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appendicitis will have what elevated lab value?
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WBC's
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inflammation of the thin membrane that lines the abdominal wall and covers the organs within
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peritonitis
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lesions spread distal to proximal in what GI problem?
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ulcerative cholitis
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hallmark of ulcerative cholitis?
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bloody stools
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toxic megacolon is most serious comp. in what GI problem?
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ulcerative cholitis
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diverticulitis is most common where?
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sigmoid colon
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main tx for diverticulitis?
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broad spectrum abx
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chronic bacterial prostatis hallmark sx?
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relapsing UTI
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nonbacterial prostatis has what lab?
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high WBC's and oval fat bodies
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epididymitis is sometimes a sequella to what STD?
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gonorrhea
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possible vasectomy for what problem
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epididymitis
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The connection of normally separate parts or spaces so they intercommunicate.
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anastmosis
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what kind of diet for dumping syndrome?
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high protein and calorie
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preop for illeostomy
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low residue diet to reduce bacteria, reduce to fluids 24 hours before surgery and take intestinal antibiotics, NG or intestinal tube
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ankle pumps post op for which procedure
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ileostomy
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2 phases of burn management
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emergent phase and acute phase
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is morphine an antagonist or agonist?
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antagonist
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normal serum albumin level
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3.5-5
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serum albumin will be high in what
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burns, cirrhosis, dehydration
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serum albumin will be low in what
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malabsorption, liver disease
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burn pts will have what kind of labs
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high Na and low K+
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what type of fluid shifts will pts with malabsorption have?
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low Mg and low K+
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what should be considered as part of the planning in a patient with chrones?
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cultural dieatry restrictions
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what should be monitored in a pt taking corticosteroids?
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blood sugar
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formulas for estimating fluiid replacement
Brook Army Medical |
lactated ringers solution
2 ml/kg/% burns given during first 8 hours, 1/2 given during next 16 hours |
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Parkland
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lactated ringers solution
4 ml/kg/% burn, 1/2 given 1st 8 hours, 1/4 given each next 8 hours |
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in response to a stimulus what do nerve cells do?
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open or close ion channels, called gates, which change its permeability to Na or K+
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how do nerves communicate?
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chemically, sending signals or neurotransmitters via the axon
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what type of trait is huntingtons
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autosomal dominant
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why does pt die from huntingtons
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atrophy of the caudate nucleus and cerebral cortex
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what will CSF in MS be like in lumbar puncture
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mild proteins, mild lymphocytes, oligocolonal bands, abnormal antibody, increased gamma globulin
MRI=multiplaques in white matter/demyelinization |
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corticosteroids are contraindicated in what nervous system disorder?
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guillian barre
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what type of disorder is myasthenia gravis and what kind of antibodies do these people produce
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autoimmune, antibodies against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junction
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what are the x of myasthenia gravis
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ptosis, diplopia, dysarthia, muscle fatigue, thymoma on chest xray
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what is lou gehrigs disease
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progressive loss of anterior horn cell function
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what type of trait is tay sachs
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autosomal recessive
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who does tay sachs affect
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eastern europe jews and french canadians
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why does a person get taysachs
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absence of hexosaminidase A
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what are signs/sx of tay sachs
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cant metabolize lipid gangliosides, build up in brain, progressive dev. delay, paralysis, blindness, dementia
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at what age do tay sach pts die by
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age 4
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if exogenous antcholinesterase and thymectomy (less than 60) are not effective in tx for myastheniia gravis whats next?
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steroids or azathioprine
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what part of the brain does huntingtons affect
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degeneration in cerebral coortex (thinking, memory, perception, judgement) and basal ganglia
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huntingtons pts usually die from what?
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heaRT failure, choking, pneumonia, infection
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normal ICP
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0-15
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spinal cord injury most common in what part?
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5,6,7 cervical 12 thoracic and 1 lumbar
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spinal shock
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occurs shortly after injury and may take 1-12 weeks to recover, GI decompression to treat bowel distention and paralytic ileus, foley to treat urinary retention
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autonomic dysreflexia
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remove stimulus, put pt in sitting position to lower BP, empty bladder and remove fecal mass
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gait abnormality
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corticospinal
cerebellar lesions extrapyramidal motor system=foot drop-anterior tibial, calf muscle-cant toe walk, pelvic muscle-waddling gait |
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thromboembolic stroke
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when clot breaks off from an arteriosclerotic plaque and lodges in a down stream vessel, blocking blood flow
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1.TIA recovery time
2.RIND recovery time |
1. 1-2 days
2. 3-4 weeks |
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subarachnoid hemorrhage caused by what type of aneurysm
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saccular intracranial aneurysm, more tham 90 % are congenital
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what 2 types of drugs are used for occlusive stroke?
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anticoagulant therapy, and platelet aggregation inhibitor
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WHat should HOB be at in an acute stage of stroke
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15-30 degrees w/ client turned or tilted to unaffected side
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what should HOB be at in ICP
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30-45 degrees, avoid 90 becuase of hip pressure raising ICP
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what usually causes an epidural hematoma
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something usually lacerated the blood vessels in the middle meninges
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why can seizure disorders occur
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infection in brain, lungs, urinary system, hyperthermia, hypothermia
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Hunt and Hess Classification of subarrachnoid hemorrhage
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Grade 1-5
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1.GCS of 8 or less
2. GCS of 9-12 3. GCS of 13-15 |
1. severe head injury
2. moderate 3. mild |
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scoliosis is what kind of condition?
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age related
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scoliosis of what degree needs treatment
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20-45 degrees
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leg calve perthes disease is what type of condition
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age related-self limiting
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wha type of condition is osteoarthritis
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degenerative, non inflammatory
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rheumatoid arthritis
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degenerative inflammatory condition that affects connective tissue
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what does hiv infect and kill?
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helper t lymphocytes
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what does hiV infect and kill?
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helpter t lymphocytes and...promyelcytes, fibroblasts, langerhans
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what are 4 sx of HIV encephalopathy
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memory loss, decrease in coordination, partial paralysis, mental deterioration
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what is causative organism of chylamidia
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C. trachomatis sequelae
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gardanella
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grey white discharge with fishy odor
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thrichomonis vaginosis
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protozoan
greenish yellow foul discharge tender red vagianl mucosa tx=flagyl |
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incubation period of hep B
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45-180 days
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HBsAG
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1st marker detected, elevated for greater than 6 months dx for chronic infection
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IGM
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detectable at onset of hep b and decreases to subdetectable levels within 6 months
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IGG
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indicates past infection
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elevated alanine aminotransferase by 8 weeks and jaundice by 10 weeks
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HEp B
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NEg IgM with a pos. HBsAG indicates what
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chronic HBV infection
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Hep C RNA results can be reported as what?
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pos, neg, or intermediate
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diagnosis for hep C
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EIA test and supplemental test=pos
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route of transmission for Hep B
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percutaneous mucosal
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incubation for mono is?
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4-6 weeks
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Rubella is AKA?
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measles
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incubation for TB
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4-12 weeks
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penecillinase
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enzyme secreted by many species of staph
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shigellosis AKA
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bacillary dysentry
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shigellosis is caused by what organism
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bacteria shigella
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is shigelosis reportable disease and isolation?
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yes
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