Natops Closed Book Exam Question Bank

Front 1

True/False. In the event of a FADEC Channel control system failure the FADEC automatically selects the channel with the better capability.

Back 1

True.

Front 2

True/False. An in–flight OP GO" indication switching to a "DEGD" indication without change in ENG STATUS when the aircraft slows below 80 KCAS after landing is normal."

Back 2

True.

Front 3

True/False. A FADEC reset should not be attempted inflight because any degrade in ENG status is most likely due to the failure of a mechanical component.

Back 3

True.

Front 4

True/False. The oil pressure indication on the EFD and the L/R OIL PR caution are both operated by the same transducer.

Back 4

False. Transducer provides oil pressure indication. A separate oil pressure switch triggers the caution.

Front 5

Failure of the power transmission shaft (PTS) results in the display of the associated ________, ______________, ___________, ___________, and both associated _______ circuit cautions.

Back 5

GEN; DC FAIL; BOOST LO; AMAD PR; HYD

Front 6

True/False.The EA–18G rpm is the same on the ground as in flight.

Back 6

False.

Front 7

True/False. Above 1.23 IMN, it is normal for engine rpm to remain at MIL power levels even when the throttles are reduced below MIL.

Back 7

True.

Front 8

Reduced Authority Thrust System (RATS) can be overridden by advancing the throttles to ________________________.

Back 8

Full Afterburner (THA within 2 degrees of MAXstop).

Front 9

True/False. Upon a successful arrestment, engine thrust will be automatically reduced to approximately 70% of MIL power using the Reduced Authority Thrust System (RATS).

Back 9

True.

Front 10

What are the two sources of over-speed cutout protection for the ATS?

Back 10

Corresponding generator and frequency sensing relay (FSR)

Front 11

Two hydraulic accumulators are provided in the _________ circuit the _________ accumulator and the __________ accumulator.

Back 11

HYD 2B; APU; BRAKE

Front 12

In the event of HYD 2 failure with emergency brakes selected, back–up hydraulic pressure for emergency braking is provided by the Brake / APU / Brake and APU (circle one) accumulator(s).

Back 12

BRAKE and APU

Front 13

Motive flow ejector pumps are used to transfer wing tank fuel to which tank(s)? _______________

Back 13

Tank 4. When Tank 4 is less than full, the SDC opens both wing motive flow control valves, which direct motive flow to the ejector pumps and transfer fuel from wing tanks to Tank 4.

Front 14

Airborne, external tank pressurization is terminated when either the ______________switch is in EXTEND, or both __________ and ___________________ handles are down.

Back 14

PROBE, HOOK, LDG GEAR

Front 15

The STOP position on the EXT TANKS Transfer switch prevents transfer and refueling of controlled external tank(s) except with a ____________ caution.

Back 15

FUEL LO

Front 16

Hydraulic cautions (HYD 1A, HYD 1B, HYD 2A, HYD 2B) are set when individual hydraulic pressure switches detect circuit pressure below __________ psi.

Back 16

1400

Front 17

The forward isolation valve is opened/closed (circle one) when the LDG GEAR handle is UP and all three landing gear are up and locked.

Back 17

CLOSED

Front 18

True/False. An INLET ICE caution during the inlet ice detector test indicates a failure of the detector.

Back 18

False. This is a proper indication during the test.

Front 19

True/False. Throttle movement is mechanically transmitted from the throttle quadrant to each engine.

Back 19

False. It is electrically transmitted to the FADEC.

Front 20

Tank _____ supplies fuel to the left engine while tank _____ supplies fuel to the right engine.

Back 20

2; 3

Front 21

After emergency extension of the air refueling probe, how is the probe retracted? (With loss of 2A system)____________________________.

Back 21

It cannot be retracted.

Front 22

The aft isolation valve and the arming valve are open / closed (circle one) with WonW and are normally open / closed (circle one) inflight…. The aft isolation valve is manually opened / closed (circle one) inflight by hook extension / retraction (circle one) or by holding the HYD ISOL switch in ORIDE. The arming valve is manually opened / closed (circle one) inflight by emergency gear or emergency probe extension.

Back 22

OPEN, CLOSED, OPENED, RETRACTION, OPENED

Front 23

Dump rate is approximately _________lb per minute and fuel dumping continues until:

a)_____________________________________________

b)_____________________________________________

c)_____________________________________________

d)_____________________________________________

Back 23

1300 lbs/min

a) The DUMP switch is placed to off

b) The BINGO caution comes on

c) Tanks 1 and 4 are empty and all available fuel from internal wing and external tanks has been depleted

d) The FUEL LO caution comes on

Front 24

True/False. Fuel cannot be dumped with either a BINGO or FUEL LO caution displayed.

Back 24

False. Manually hold the switch to ON with Tank 1 and/or Tank 4 fuel available.

Front 25

True/False. The fuel low level indicating system is completely independent of the fuel quantity indicating system.

Back 25

True.

Front 26

The ____________________ provides electrical power for APU ignition and start.

Back 26

Aircraft battery

Front 27

To prevent an APU running engagement and to prevent APU exhaust torching, a minimum of _____ minutes must elapse between APU shutdown and another APU start.

Back 27

2 minutes

Front 28

True/False. The APU switch automatically returns to the OFF position 1 minute after the second generator comes online.

Back 28

True. (BLEED AIR knob not in AUG PULL)

Front 29

What three air sources can be used to power the ATS for engine crank/start?

1._______________________________________

2._______________________________________

3._______________________________________

Back 29

1. APU compressor air

2. opposite engine bleed air (cross bleed)

3. external air

Front 30

What two methods may be used to retain both hydraulic systems inflight if the engine core is rotating:

1._______________________________________

2._______________________________________

Back 30

1. APU

2. Opposite Engine Bleed Air (Crossbleed)

Front 31

With one engine operating and APU shutdown, it should be set to a minimum of _____ % rpm to utilize the crossbleed airstart capability.

Back 31

80%

Front 32

The primary dc source for each FCC channel is:

a) The 28 vdc essential bus, powered by the PMGs

b) Its respective PMG output

c) Its respective L or R 28 vdc bus, powered by the transformer rectifiers

d) The 28 vdc essential bus, powered by the transformer rectifiers

Back 32

B

Front 33

During engine start, the corresponding _______________ switch should be on as it provides primary overspeed cutout protection for the ATS.

Back 33

Generator

Front 34

If the PARK BRAKE handle is not set during right engine start, a_________ caution light comes on when the right generator comes online.

Back 34

GEN TIE. For a battery start, setting the Parking brake handle and cycling the R GEN switch reties the left and right buses and clears any avionics faults that would otherwise occur.

Front 35

What is the cockpit indication(s) of a single transformer rectifier failure?

Back 35

None.

Front 36

True/False. In the event of a dual generator failure and the 28 vdc essential bus being powered by the battery rather than PMG essential bus backup circuitry, aircrew will be alerted by a BATT SW caution / BATT SW caution light.

Back 36

False.

Front 37

For survivability, the left and right fuel feed systems are normally separated but can be interconnected by a normally closed __________________________valve and a normally closed feed tank __________________________valve.

Back 37

CROSSFEED; INTERCONNECT

Front 38

When the L or R FIRE warning light is pressed in flight, it electrically opens/closes the____________________ valve and corresponding engine feed_____________________ valve.

Back 38

CLOSES; CROSSFEED; SHUTOFF

Front 39

True/False. Regardless of BATT switch position, the battery charger supplies charging power to the battery anytime the right 115 VAC bus is energized.

Back 39

True.

Front 40

In an unlikely event of a total ac/dc failure inflight, the battery provides approximately _______________ minutes of power for the FCCs, after which aircraft control is lost.

Back 40

5–10 minutes

Front 41

True/False. The Landing Gear Control Unit (LGCU) controls landing gear extension and retraction.

Back 41

False.

Front 42

Hydraulic pump output pressures are __________ and __________ PSI.

Back 42

3000; 5000

Front 43

When reservoir fluid level drops to approximately _____%, RLS shuts off circuit A (HYD 1A or HYD 2Acaution). If fluid level continues to deplete to approximately _____%, RLS restores circuit A and shuts off circuit B(HYD 1B or HYD 2B caution). If alternate circuit shutdown fails to isolate the leak, RLS restores circuit B (no cautions) at approximately _____%, providing hydraulic pressure to both systems until fluid depletion (both cautions).

Back 43

50; 30; 15

Front 44

Failure of either wheel speed sensor can lead to a(n) ______________________ failure, resulting in a complete loss of brakes. Placing the _______________________ switch to the OFF position or pulling the ___________________________________ will bypass the faulty system and restore braking ability.

Back 44

ANTISKID; ANTISKID; EMERGENCY BRAKE HANDLE

Front 45

The BRK ACCUM caution is displayed when the brake accumulator pressure drops below __________ PSI, indicating that approximately _____ full brake applications remain before the brake accumulator is empty.

Back 45

2000 PSI; 5

Front 46

True/False. A BRK ACCUM caution inflight is not normal and may indicate a possible leak in the HYD 2B system. Do not select HYD ISOL to ORIDE.

Back 46

True.

Front 47

True/False. If an engine is shut down before placing the BLEED AIR knob to OFF, the corresponding primary bleed air shutoff valve may not fully open, resulting in residual engine fumes in the cabin on subsequent start of that engine.

Back 47

False. The primary bleed air shutoff valve may not fully close.

Front 48

If the launch bar does not return to the up and locked position after catapult launch, or the nose gear indicates WonW, the nose landing gear cannot be retracted. Placing the LDG GEAR handle UP will/will not (circle one) raise the main landing gear.

Back 48

Will. It will leave the nose landing gear extended.

Front 49

True/False. Visual inspection of the landing gear can confirm locked gear, as well as obvious damage and general position of the gear.

Back 49

False. Only can confirm general position and obvious damage.

Front 50

What optical indications of NWS failure will the aircrew have available besides MASTER CAUTION light?

Back 50

NWS caution and the NWS or NWS HI cue will beremoved from the HUD.

Front 51

Normal (low gain) NWS will be lost with a FCS CH _____ or _____failure.

Back 51

2; 4. Emergency high gain NWS can be regained by pulling the failed channel circuit breaker, unlocking the wings, and momentarily pressing the NWS button.

Front 52

True/False. In ECS AUTO, with WonW and at least one throttle advanced to approximately 74% N2 rpm, the avionics ground cooling fan secures, and avionics cooling is provided solely by the ECS.

Back 52

True.

Front 53

A loss of boost pressure downstream of the motive flow/boost pump sets the L or R______________ caution and opens the ________________valve, allowing output from the good motive flow/boost pump to supply fuel to the opposite engine at rates sufficient for MIL / MAX (choose one) power.

Back 53

BOOST LO; CROSSFEED; MIL

Front 54

Normal brake system pressure is provided by HYD _____.

Back 54

2A

Front 55

True/False. If the anti–skid system is failed and the ANTISKID caution is present but clears when you cycle the ANTISKID switch, it may take as long as 13.5 seconds for the caution to reappear airborne, and it may remain off on deck, even though the failure still exists.

Back 55

True.

Front 56

True/False. In the front cockpit, the hook light remains on except when the hook is up and latched.

Back 56

False. Any time the hook position does not agree with HOOK handle position.

Front 57

True/False. Placing the wing fold switch to FOLD position in flight will cause the wings to fold as the aircraft decelerates during landing rollout.

Back 57

True. The FOLD command electrically unlocks the wings when the FCCs determine 1) WonW, 2) airspeed <66 KCAS decelerating, 3) the ailerons are faired, and 4) both wings are unlocked.

Front 58

True/False. Stalls occur at lower AOA with GAIN ORIDE selected.

Back 58

True. Because the LEFs are fixed.

Front 59

To prevent the loss of aircraft, during compound emergencies any ______________________ procedures should be completed prior to completion of any other procedures.

Back 59

FIRE WARNING

Front 60

True/False. Light bulb integrity can be tested during a LT TEST with ac power applied, and thus it is not important to detect individual bulbs that are not illuminated within the FIRE lights during the fire detection loop test.

Back 60

False.

Front 61

True/False. When pressed, the FIRE EXTGH READY/DISCH light latches into a depressed position similar to the FIRE lights.

Back 61

False.

Front 62

True/False. With no electrical power applied, in the front cockpit a 1/8 inch thick border of yellow and black stripes around a FIRE light indicates that the FIRE light has been pressed.

Back 62

True.

Front 63

True/False. Pressing the FCS RESET button will fix a flight control failure by running a system diagnostic test.

Back 63

False. FCS RESET does not fix a detected failure; it allows components to be restored and failure indications removed, if and only if the failure no longer exists.

Front 64

On takeoff, accelerating with the flaps switch in HALF, at what speed will the flaps begin AUTO scheduling? __________ KCAS.

Back 64

240 KCAS

Front 65

True/False. At 25 degrees AOA and above, rudder pedal deflections no longer provide yaw control inputs but instead act entirely as a roll controller (identical to lateral stick input).

Back 65

True. By commanding aileron and differential stabilator with the rolling–surface–to–rudder interconnect (RSRI) commanding the required rudder deflection for roll coordination.

Front 66

True/False. With an air–to–ground store or tank on a wing station (not HUNG), maximum roll rate is automatically reduced.

Back 66

True.

Front 67

All flight control surface actuators are powered by one _____________circuit and one ____________ circuit, either simultaneously or through hydraulic ________________________________________.

Back 67

HYD 1; HYD 2; SWITCHING VALVES

Front 68

Normal (low gain) NWS will be lost with a FCS CH _____ or _____ failure.

Back 68

2; 4

Front 69

The L/R BLD OFF cautions indicate that the corresponding primary bleed air shutoff valve(s) are commanded _____________. The cautions are / are not (circle one) an indication of actual valve position.

Back 69

Closed; are not

Front 70

What cabin pressure is maintained between 8,000 and 24,500 feet aircraft altitude?

Back 70

8,000 feet

Front 71

True/False. Removing the mask without placing the OXY flow knob to OFF can overwhelm the system capacity and may result in an OBOGS DEGD caution.

Back 71

True.

Front 72

An approximately ____–____ minute supply (depending on altitude) of gaseous oxygen is contained in a bottle in the seat survival kit. Oxygen duration increases / decreases (circle one) with lower altitude. Flow is activated automatically upon ejection or manually by pulling the_________________________________. Activation may / may not (circle one) be deactivated at aircrew discretion by pushing down on the release tab immediately forward of the green ring.

Back 72

10 – 20; DECREASES; EMERGENCY OXYGEN GREEN RING; MAY

Front 73

True/False. Failure to select the OXY FLOW knob OFF with emergency O2 selected may prevent emergency oxygen from reaching the breathing regulator.

Back 73

True. The OBOGS control switch should also be placed to OFF to back up the OXY FLOW knob.

Front 74

How can the aircrew tell when the fire extinguisher has been discharged?

Back 74

The green DISCH light comes on.

Front 75

True/False. On the ground, the APU fire extinguishing system operates automatically whenever an APU fire is detected.

Back 75

True. It must be manually activated with WoffW.

Front 76

If an APU FIRE condition is detected with weight ______wheels, manual activation should be performed to backup the automatic system. Since the fire extinguishing system requires______ vdc essential bus power, the fire extinguisher bottle may not be discharged if the ______________ switch is turned off during the 10 second delay time for bottle discharge.

Back 76

ON; 28; BATT

Front 77

True/False. Automatic functioning of the BALD system may extinguish the L or R BLEED warning lights prior to aircrew recognition and may not trigger the appropriate voice alerts. In this case cycling the BLEED AIR knob to remove the L or R BLD OFF caution(s) may cause extensive damage and/or fire.

Back 77

True.

Front 78

What conditions must be met to utilize the emergency jettison button? _____________________ OR _____________________

Back 78

WoffW; LDG GEAR handle – UP

Front 79

Selective jettison requires ARM conditions satisfied and all the landing gear up and locked. ARM conditions are satisfied with?

1._____________________________________________

2._____________________________________________

3._____________________________________________

4._____________________________________________

Back 79

1. WoffW

2. Gear handle – Up

3. Master Arm – ARM

4. SIM – Unboxed

Front 80

True/False. A jammed, blocked, or damaged pitot tube/AOA probe may not be annunciated if system errors are not large enough to set a caution, and HUD displayed information may be inaccurate.

Back 80

True. Errors of AOA difference >15° in UA or 5.5° to 15° in PA depending on sideslip.

Front 81

Negative g for more than _____ seconds is prohibited.

Back 81

10. 30 seconds is required between negative g maneuvers.

Front 82

True/False. When the wings are observed to be folded during preflight, ensure the ailerons are faired or outboard to avoid damage to the ailerons and TEFs.

Back 82

True.

Front 83

True/False. Switching valve operation is completely hydro–mechanical, separate from electrical inputs or reset commands. As mechanized, there is no hazard associated with multiple reset attempts to regain an Xd surface following a hydraulic circuit failure.

Back 83

True.

Front 84

Flight with GAIN ORIDE selected is prohibited above _________ AOA or above_________ KCAS (flaps AUTO), __________KCAS (flaps HALF), or ____________ KCAS (flaps FULL). With GAINORIDE selected, the aircraft is uncontrollable above approximately ____________KCAS.

Back 84

10°; 350 KCAS; 200 KCAS; 190 KCAS; 450 KCAS

Front 85

A blanking EFD before or during engine start may be an indication of:

a. A low battery.

b. Impending EFD failure.

c. Extremely low outside air temperature.

Back 85

a. A low battery (battery at or below approximately 18vdc)

Front 86

True/False. The FADEC will prevent hot starts airborne.

Back 86

False. During ground starts only.

Front 87

True/False. Placing the BATT switch to OFF prior to the amber FLAPS light on shutdown could cause uncommanded flight control movement due to residual hydraulic pressure and FCS keep–alive circuitry.

Back 87

True.

Front 88

Catapult with partially full external fuel tank(s) (between _____lbs and ________ lbs) may cause structural damage to the tanks, pylons, and/or airframe.

Back 88

100 lbs; 2,700 lbs

Front 89

If the arresting hook is unlocked (HOOK handle down) but fails to leave the up position, pulling the ______________ deenergizes the hook selector valve and ensures HYD _____ pressure is removed.

Back 89

HOOK circuit breaker; 2B

Front 90

True/False. A L/R AMAD PR caution indicates high AMAD oil pressure.

Back 90

False. L/R AMAD PR indicates a loss of designated AMAD oil pressure.

Front 91

True/False. If the ANTISKID switch is not placed to off with an ANTISKID caution displayed, normal braking may be completely lost.

Back 91

True.

Front 92

True/False. If a THERMAL caution is present in conjunction with a L/R FUEL HOT caution, the fuel management system engages to regulate fuel system temperatures.

Back 92

False. The thermal management system has lost the capability to regulate fuel system temperature.

Front 93

What airspeed may be required to maintain 12% windmilling rpm?__________ KCAS

Back 93

At least 350 KCAS.

Front 94

Never actuate the _________________________ inflight, as ejection would then be impossible and the aircrew would be unrestrained during landing.

Back 94

Manual Override (MOR) Handle

Front 95

True/False. The SEAWARS does not operate in freshwater.

Back 95

True.

Front 96

For high altitude ejection, in the event of partial or total failure of the electronic sequencer, a barostatic release unit will deploy the parachute between ___________ and ____________ feet.

Back 96

14,000 ft MSL; 16,000 ft MSL

Front 97

If a shutdown engine is crossbled airborne WITHOUT the FIRE WARNING LT being depressed, the engine feed shutoff valve remains open /closed (circle one). The motive flow/boost pumps downstream of this valve provide adequate boost pressure to remove the _______________caution and subsequently open /close (circle one) the crossfeed valve. Additionally, motive flow pressure is reintroduced to the shutdown side of the fuel system, which opens/ closes (circle one) the feed tank interconnect valve. These two valves’ actions allow / prevent (circle one) the transfer of fuel from the bad engine’s feed tank.

Back 97

OPEN; BOOST LO; CLOSE; CLOSES; PREVENT

Front 98

What is the military and afterburner thrust ofthe F414-GE-400 engine?

Back 98

Military 13,900; MAX AB 20,700lbs

Front 99

The exterior lights master switch is located on the outboard side of the __________________ grip.

Back 99

Left Throttle

Front 100

Under less than optimal conditions, as few as ____________________ of emergency oxygen may be available.

Back 100

3 minutes

Front 101

List the seven cockpit circuit breaker.

Back 101

LAUNCH BAR

FCS CHAN 2

FCS CHAN 1

FCS CHAN 3

FCS CHAN 4

HOOK

LDG GEAR

Front 102

RATS logic, resident in ________, declares a successful arrestment and sends asignal to the FADECs, which reduce thrust to approximately __________ of MIL power.

Back 102

MC1; 70%

Front 103

The total internal fuel (JP-5) is __________ lbs.

Back 103

13,970 lbs

Front 104

Putting the PROBE switch to EXTEND extends the inflight refueling probe, energizes the probe light, and __________________ all internal and external tanks.

Back 104

depressurizes

Front 105

True/False. When activated, the emergency jettison system jettisons all stores (2-10), launchers, and racks.

Back 105

False. EMERG JETT does not jettison cheek stations (sta's 5 & 7)

Front 106

When the generator comes online at _____ N2 rpm, it removes power from the ATSCV and the FSR, which releases the ENGINE CRANK switch.

Back 106

60%

Front 107

What occurs when the unlighted MASTER CAUTION light is pressed?

Back 107

It turns off the MASTER CAUTION light and with a subsequent push it stacks the cautions. (The uncorrected caution and advisory displays to re-position to the left and to a lower level, provided there is available space vacated by a corrected caution and advisory displays.)

Front 108

The gear handle light flashes and a continuous rate beeping tone sounds when the gear handle is in the UP position, the aircraft is below _______ KCAS, altitude is less than _________ feet, and rate of descent is greater than ______ feet per minute.

Back 108

175 KCAS; 7,500 feet; 250 fpm

Front 109

True/False. The emergency oxygen supply is activated automatically upon ejection.

Back 109

True

Front 110

True/False. The fire detection and extinguishing systems can operate on battery power alone with the BATT switch ON.

Back 110

True

Front 111

True/False. If an AV AIR HOT caution cannot be cleared with the ECS MODE switch in AUTO, maintenance action is required.

Back 111

True

Front 112

True/False. With wings spread and locked, pressing and holding the nosewheel steering button will select the high mode and NWS HI is displayed on the HUD.

Back 112

True

Front 113

True/False. The canopy can be jettisoned closed, open, or in any intermediate position.

Back 113

True

Front 114

What two things happen when the APU FIRE light is pressed?

Back 114

1. FIRE EXTGH Arms

2. Fuel to APU is secured

Front 115

True/False. Aircraft shall be free of ice, snow, slush, or frost prior to takeoff.

Back 115

True

Front 116

If an APU fire or overheat condition is detected on the ground, the APU fire extinguishing automatically shuts the APU down, and after _____ seconds, discharges the extinguisher bottle.

Back 116

10

Front 117

True/False. Emergency oxygen flow cannot be stopped once the green handle is pulled.

Back 117

False

Front 118

Ignition (both main engine and afterburner) is commanded during what 4 conditions?

Back 118

1. N2 RPM between 10% and 45% during engine start.

2. Flameout occurs.

3. Throttle is advanced to AB, remaining on until AB light off is sensed.

4. Any wing pylon mounted A/A or forward firing A/G weapon is launched. Ignition remains on for 5 seconds.

Front 119

What two ways can you stop any BIT test in progress and return the equipment to normal operation?

Back 119

1. Pressing the STOP Button

2. Pressing the MENU Button

Front 120

If thunderstorm penetration is unavoidable, fly at optimum cruise airspeed but not less than _______________ if above 35,000 feet MSL.

Back 120

250 KCAS

Front 121

True/False. When failed, the NWS system reverts to a 360 degree free-swiveling mode.

Back 121

True

Front 122

True/False. When the throttle is at or above IDLE, the FADEC transfers control to the other channel only if the requested channel’s health is no worse than the channel in control.

Back 122

True

Front 123

With a dual generator failure, the following voice alert warnings operate from battery power:

a. ____________________________

b. ____________________________

c. ____________________________

Back 123

a. APU FIRE

b. ENGINE FIRE LEFT/RIGHT

c. BLEED AIR LEFT/RIGHT

Front 124

If the pilot wants to have maximum “g” available during a turning maneuver (e.g., the merge), Mach in the HUD should be less than _______ (with wing tanks or A/G stores) or _______ (clean or with A/A stores) to keep out of the g-bucket.

Back 124

0.905; 0.94

Front 125

A bank angle scale and pointer are displayed at the bottom of the HUD for bank angle reference up to ____ degrees. At bank angles in excess of ____degrees, the bank angle pointer is limited at ____ degrees and __________.

Back 125

45°; 47°; 45°; flashes

Front 126

How can aircrew operate the dry bay fire suppression (DBFS) system?

Back 126

The DBFS systemis totally automatic and requires no aircrew action.

Front 127

When making an arrested abort, allow time for the arresting hook to extend; as a guide, lower the hook ____________ feet before the arresting cable.

Back 127

1,000 feet

Front 128

Each feed tank has a ______________________ which traps fuel, providing a minimum of _________________ of negative g flight at MAX power.

Back 128

horizontal baffle; 10 seconds

Front 129

What condition(s) must be met to initiate emergency jettison?

Back 129

Either LDG GEAR handle UP or WoffW

Front 130

The CG limitations are _______% to _______% MAC.

Back 130

16.8%; 31.8%

Front 131

Following a drop in primary hydraulic circuit pressure (less than ______________), the switching valve automatically shuts off the primary circuit and tests downstream pressure.

Back 131

900 ± 100 psi

Front 132

What five pieces of data does the FCC provide on the HUD?

1. ______________________________

2. ______________________________

3. ______________________________

4. ______________________________

5. ______________________________

Back 132

1. Calibrated Airspeed

2. AOA

3. Mach

4. Vertical Velocity

5. Baro Altitude

Front 133

Hydraulic system 1A does not power which of the following:

1. RightAileron

2. RightTrailing Edge Flap

3. Leading Edge Flaps

4. Left Trailing Edge Flaps

Back 133

3. Leading Edge Flaps

Front 134

Hydraulic pump output pressure is commanded by the ________ based on the current aircraft flight condition, with _________ psi utilized during high-speed flight when air loads are high.

Back 134

FCCs; 5,000 psi

Front 135

True/False. The exterior lights master switch must be on for operation of the position and formation lights, but not for the strobe lights.

Back 135

False

Front 136

Any rudder input when the aircraft load factor is less than _________is a prohibited maneuver.

Back 136

-1.2 g

Front 137

By what method can aircrew pressurize external fuel tanks on deck?

Back 137

By placing the respective external fuel tank transfer switch into the ORIDE position.

Front 138

Arresting hook retraction is accomplished by raising the HOOK handle. This electrically opens the ___________________ valve and the __________________________ valve, routing HYD ____ pressure to the arresting hook retract actuator.

Back 138

aft isolation; arresting hook selector; 2B

Front 139

With A/G training codes loaded in the VDEDP on any locked wing station, maximum roll rate is limited to approximately _______ deg/sec.

Back 139

150 deg/sec

Front 140

Repeated unexplained MASTER CAUTION lights/tones may be an indication of __________ system degradation.

Back 140

OBOGS

Front 141

External fuel is transferred by ________________________________________.

Back 141

regulated engine bleed air pressure

Front 142

True/False. With the PARK BRK handle set, the generators do not reset following a dual outage.

Back 142

True

Front 143

True/False. The APU provides an alternate air source for the environmental control system (ECS).

Back 143

True

Front 144

Permanent Magnetic Generators (PMGs) dc sources are available when the engine reaches approximately _______ rpm and are maintained until ________ rpm is reached during spooldown, regardless of generator control switch position.

Back 144

50%; 20%

Front 145

If a _________________ caution is set with a valid oil pressure readout, actual engine oil pressure is below scheduled limits. If the cockpit readout is zero with no caution set, the oil pressure _________________ has failed and the pressure switch is inhibiting the caution.

Back 145

L/R OIL PRESS; transducer

Front 146

Usable fuel (JP-5) in Tank 1 is __________.

Back 146

1,430 lbs

Front 147

During cold weather starts, avoid actuating any hydraulic system for __________________ after both engines are online.

Back 147

2 minutes

Front 148

If the FUEL LO cautions are set, assume at least one _________________is below approximately _________________, regardless of the displayed fuel quantity.

Back 148

feed tank; 1,125 lbs