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554 Cards in this Set

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in an afsc, what is the functional grouping of personnel requiring basically the same knowledge and skills known as? what combination of digits/letters make up this grouping?
Career Field or Family.
Combo of 1st digit and 2nd position letter
what is a logical grouping of personnel with related work requirements and qualifications?
career field subdivision
which digit of the afsc identifies the skill level?
4th digit
describe the three types of afscs
Primary - highest skill level
Duty - ids the authorized manning position to which your are assigned. reflects the job you are currently performing
Control - used by AFMPC for assignment and training purposes
name the 3 main items necessary to accomplish qualification for the 5 skill level
CDC training(after 6 mos on job)and passing eoc test
12mos OJT
sew on SrA
prefix - designates an ability, skill, special qualification that can be applied to any AFSC

suffix - given when a person works with specific equipment/perfomrs special function aka shredout
SEIs - awarded based upon completion of formal training, a unique course or experience performing specific duties.
what type of training muyst safety observers attend?
first aid and cpr
who is authorized to install and maintain communication electronics equip?
qualified and authorized comm electronic systems techs
4 basic rules of ORM
know the risk
do not accept unnecessary risk
make risk decisions at the appropriate level
accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs
who should you contact to find out the specific safety requirements for a particular situation?
supervisor, unit safety rep, wing safety office
applicable AFOSH directives
what should you be concerned with when working on computer equipment
electrical current
minimum amount of current that can be lethal
voltage capable of producing 50 milliamperes (.05 amperes)
why should possible current path be considered?
utilizing both hands places the heart in the possible current path
what common sense safety precaustions should you always take when working on computer equipment?
turn it off and unplug it
remove all jewelry
in what 2 areas does the comm squadron 2000 initiative recognize the need for change?
shift to a work force adept at computer networking
need for a work force ready to deploy
state the obj of the comm squadron 2000 initiative
to develop the commmsq force structure into one that provides the wing with a deployment mission and initial CISI capability it can take to war
what is required to ensure CISI systems interoperability
all service and agency programmed systems must be compatible and interoperable to support joint and combined operations across the entire spectrum of conflict
who is responsible and accountable for mission results
wing ccs
what was the objective wing designed to do
to streamline and consolidate the responsibilites and to move to clear lines of command
normally what groups are assigned to the objective wing organization?
the obj wing only has the operations, logistics, support, and medical groups assigned.
what agency serves as the air force execuive agent for the CIS systems integration
HQ AFCA (head quarters air force communications agency
name the agency that manages long haul communications
DISA (defense information systems agency)
what organization does maintenance, repair, and minor alterations of facilites
base civil engineering (BCE)
name the office that administers the support agreements program
Wing Planning Office
upon what does the success of a mission depend
teamwork among all afscs
name some of the functions for wich 3a0x1s are responsible?
publications and forms management, the base info transfer system (BITS) postal management, records management, network workgroup management and the freedom of information act program
what product provides a valuable training tool that allows you to do in-house training
who must take the QTPs
all personnnel in upgrade training or job qualification training
what events and changes led to the develpment of the air and space expeditionary forces
threats to natioanl security,the need to advance national policy,
the protection of national and global interests stretched the resources of a military adjusting to decreased manning and reduction in overseas bases. these events and changes led to increase deployments
what are air and space expeditionary forces
teams of associated forces representing air and space capability in predetermined scheduled sets of forces
name the 2 existing tools for deploying air and space exped forces
AMC ( air mobility command)
GMFP (Global military force policy)
what is the objective of using total force in air and spcae expeditionary forces
the obj is to pre-identify as many deployable people and assets as possible in order to distribute deployment loads
what are the benefits to a unit and its members of knowing the air and space expeditionary forces schedule
they'll know when they are in the window for the deplyment, when they are training and when to prepare for the "on-call" rotation. they can plan their lives accordingly.
when was the first AF OPSEC program introduced
1966 South East Asia
what agency directed the first OPSEC program
Joint Chiefs of Staff
when was the present OPSEC program established
what was the conclusion of the security study in Southeast Asia?
there were no leaks, the enemy was gaining knowledge through unclassified means
Define OPSEC
measures taken to detect and correct procedural weakness or indicators that an enemy can exploit
what is the purpose of psychological operations
to induce or reinforce foreign attitudes and behaviors favorable to the originator's obj
define vulnerability
condition that may be used for exploitations
what is considered our weakest security link
define "awe of rank"
releasing classified info to a higher ranking individual
what is meant by "talking shop"
discussing the job at leisure in an unsecure place
name the two key points to think about in commmunicating sensitive subjects
secure method and need-to-know
list some OPSEC weakness in the following area:

stereotyped sequence of events
agencies w/out proper safeguars
abrupt changes
list some OPSEC weakness in the following area:

public affairs releases
distinctive emblems/badges
logistics buildup
list some OPSEC weakness in the following area:

plain language
unchanging call signs
specialized/unique equipment
change in message traffic volume
what is the overall goal of OPSEC?
increase overall operational effectivenss
define critical information
info about a friendly that an adversary needs in order to gain an advantage
who is in the best position to develop critical info
the individuals responsible for the development/execution of the operation
who is charged to control critical info and its indicators?
subordinate CCs and supporting organizations
name the 4 elements of COMSEC
emission security
physical security
transmission security
define cryptosecurity
using technically sound cryptosystems
define emission security
deny info that may be derived from interception and analysis of compromising emanations
define physical security
all physcal means to deny prevent
define transmission security
protecting transmissions
why is COMSEC important
safeguarding classified info is a continuing requirement for maintaining the effectiveness of our national defense and conduct of our foreign relations
what is the "silent war"
"trawlers" prowl our shores trying to intercept information
what is Information Assurance?
process that integrates measures to protect info sys by preserving the availability, integrity, and confidentiality
what is the entire IA training and indoctrination program established to emphasize?
command, control, communications, and computer C4 systems security awareness and to promote consistent application of security principles
list the obj of IA
Understand existence of vulnerablities
Take necessary measures to protect info
recognize bad practices/potential damage
protect against denial of service
understand COMSEC
implement good practices
name the 3 types of insecurities
define personnel insecurities
COMSEC info is available to unauthorized persons; intentional/unintentional
define physcal insecurites
COMSEC info is available to unathorized persons through loss, theft, capture, recovery, salvage
define cryptographic insecurities
crypto info is available to unauthorized persons thru operator error/equipment malfunction
what is the most dangerous security violation
undetected/unreported where no action is taken to correct the condition
who establishes the Information Security Program
when may classified defense info be withheld from US citizens
only when necessary in the interest and removed from the info sec program as soon as that protection is no longer required
when i doubt as to whether or not someone is eligible for access to classified info who do you ask
what does DOD/ISPR 5200.1-R establish?
categories of classified items
who is responsible for protecting classified info
each person is responsible for whatever he posesses
define official info
info owned by, produced by, or controlled by us gov
what are the 2 groups of official info
3 prerequisites in disseminating classified info
need to know
security clearance
proper ID
what indicated that a person is deemed trustworthy
valid security clearance
3 categories of classified info
top secret
defin top secret
exceptionally grave damage
define secret
serious damage
define confidential
reasonably expected to cause identifiable damage
define unclassified info
what does fouo mean
for official use only
explain "possible intelligence value"
all info that when associated with other info reveals an insight into operations
who is responsible for derivately classifying information
creators and apporvers of these documents
what happens if there is any doubt as to whether material should be classified or not?
it is not classified
list three purposes of classifed document marking
alerts holders to presence of classified info needing protection
guidance on downgrading/declassification
gices info on sources for classification
warns holders for special access control safeguarding procedures
what are th 3 levels of marking for a classified doc
how can you tell if a particular paragraph in a document is classified
TS S C or U placed in parenthesis right before the beginning of the portion
how is the classification of a document title or subject marked
abbreviated and placed immedietly after title or subject
what action should you take if you discover a classified doc is improperly marked?
bring it to security manager
state the prime obj of EMSEC
ID requirements from the standpoint of IP risk management principles and provide the apporpriate protection at no or least possible cost
what the steps to the emsec process
determining the required countermeasures, validating and implementing them and then periodically re-evaluation reassessing these requirements
what determines the need to implement EMSEC countermeasures on a system that processes classified info
EMSEC Assessments
what does emsec countermeasure reviews determine
the needed control of compromising emanations and coutermeasures for systems that process classified info
who is responsible for applying implementing and maintaining the required countermeasures identified by the EMSEC Countermeasures review
the sytem user
what are the types of EMSEC waivers and when are they apporved
temporary - user can't apply countermeasure but is allowed while steps are taken to complete the implementation process

permanent - an extremely low volume of classified info is process on the sys. a low level of classification is process. disproportionate costs
who may waive specific EMSEC countermeasures and what are the conditions that must be met?
CTTA (certified tempest technical authority

low level of processing
low level of classification
disproportionate costs
who establishes AF EMSEC policy and doctrine and is responsible for the EMSEC program
what MAJCOM is assigned the responsiblity of the Certified TEMPEST Technical Authority?
who provides testing and a quick reaction capability to support emergency testing of facilities?
HQ AIA through the AF Information Warfare Center
When does the wing IP office provide HQ 38 EIW with countermeasure requirements for information systems?
before engineering and installation begins
who performs shielding effectiveness testing when requested?
For what does the AF physical security program provide guidelines
How to protect mission-essential resources
how are facilites prioritized under the AF Physical Security Program
Categorized according to their security priority ABC
Name 4 security measures commo to most restricted areas
warning signs
personnel gain access to area granted in writing
personnel are issued badges for ID/Authentication
What are the rules for displaying the restricted area badge
always dsplay badge while in restricted area
put it away when you leave
escorted/signed in when "no badge" requires escort
challenge those w/out a badge ina restricted area
how is security alerting provided for base facilities
through Threatcon changes
what type of security message is sent-up channel and usually causes a THREATCON change?
what is the purpose of the RPP (resource protection program)
to protect all mission essential/high vlaue resources on the base including arms, ammo, funds, medical facilities
what is a controlled area
any building area structure containing AF resources that are lucrative targets for theft compormise or destruction and to which entry must be limited to provide more protection
who si the approval authority for establishing a controlled area
installation cc
what are som enty control techniques that may be established by the cc
personal recognition
cipher locks
when would a controlled area warning sign not be posted
if the area already has food security circulation/entry control and doesn't need the legal boundary provided by a controlled area designation
why is personal awareness especially important for security of controlled areas
without physical barriers, the security depends entirely on the people working in the area
how is sanitized storage media classified
end result of sanitization process is media that is no longer classified
what type of software protects classified data by erasing it from the disk so that it is unrecoverable, even with the most sophisticated hardware software recovery techniques
what action must be done to floppy disks, diskettes and magnetic cards before they are considered sanitized
what are the recommended destruction techniques for core memory units
pulverising smelting or disintegrating the core arrays
what action does DoD CERT take when a new vulnerability is documented that poses an immediate potentially severy threat to DoD systems
1st tier notification (IAVA) disseminated and requires military services and defense agency POCs to report both receipt of the alert and the compliance with the corrective action
within how many days must a unit comply with disseminated IAVAs
30days for reporting compliance
who conducts operations involving intrusion detection, incident response, computer security information assistance and vulnerablity assessmnet of AF automated info systems?
What types of TCNOs id vulnerabilties not yet being widely exploited in the commmercial world or which have not been extensively targeted against DoD networks
Urgent TCNOs
who initiates the notification of a TCNO at base level
what feature of DMS allows the individual components to be remotely managed
service management capability
what does writer-to-reader messaging mean
you eliminate the middle-man
on what two operating systems does DMS work
what standards does DMS utilize to ensure application interoperability
x.400 x.500
what is the max number of users for each fortezza card
what is the first step in the process that ensures what we do on our networks stays on our network and isn't readily available for anyone to access or intercept whenever they would choose to do so?
risk analysis
define risk analysis
process of analyzing threats agians and the vulnerabilities of an info system to determin the risks also includes using the analysis as a basis for identifying appropriate and cost effective countermeasures
list the 4 phases of DITSCAP
post acceditation
who provides the CA with the guidelines used to classify or to determine the sensitivity of their data
responsible data sources
how long can an AIS operate on the original certification/accreditation with no changes to the baseline before it must be re-registerd/re-accredited?
max 3 years
define authentication
a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information
what identifies a specific user on the system being accessed
user ID
how do we categorize passwords
something you know
what is the makeup of a valid user ID
8 alphanumeric characters etc
what is the name of the AF initiative that defines and drives network information security
barrier reef
what is the basic stance of the network security policy
allow only authorized (required) mission traffic and deny everything else
what service provides the ability to coordinate communications between network systems such as system backups to a centralized backup device and allows for accurate logging of user access
accurate time (netwrok time sourcing)
what is the most common form of a proxy for common services
list 6 actions for which information protection tools are used
boundary proctection
viral protection
configuration inspection
network mapping
remote patching
vulnerability testing
what do we call the practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall
what does a firewall consist of
one of more routers and host machines with filtering software containing a series of rules that accept/reject packets of info/connection types/app specific comm attempting to cross it
what is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall and what is its purpose
packet filtering firewall -- accepts/rejects a message based on info in the header:
source address, destination addresss and the port
what type of firewall is used to separate secure sites networks or network segments from less secure areas
bastion host
how can a network manager quickly see any major changes on the network configuration or netowrk status?
comparing snapshots and current maps of the network
what does the "network activity:interface statistics" menu provide to the network manager?
lists the interfaces on selected devices, provides data on incoming/outgoing SNMP traffic and any associated errors, lists the status of the interfaces
what protocol must network nodes support to allow HP OpenView to monitor them
what typ of info do we gather from a monitored inerface by using HP OpenView
packets recieved, errors received, packets transmitted, errors transmitted
what menu option is used as a history of requested info for the defined graph
messages option
what info does HP OpenView provide for TCP connections on selected nodes
local address
remote address
what is the min amount of time to acquire network info to establish a performance baseline
24 hrs
what parameters does a standard network analyzer automatically track
average, current, max of both percentage of bandwidth used and frames per second. The percent of each protocal seen in the traffic. total # of frames and the # of frames that are short or have bad CRCs
total # of data frame collisions
what are the primary capabilites provided by a protocol analyzer?
digital network diagnostics and software development
what is the difference between a protocol analyzer NIC and other NICs
the NIC in a protocol analyzer is configured to process all frames
what function of the protocol analyzer excludes specific types of frames?
the capture filters option
list 4 types of specific occurences that can be displayed by counters
packets transmitted, CRC errors, undersize packets, oversize packets, ARP requests, data fram collisions, and bit errors
what menu is best used to report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad FCS, short frames, and jabbers?
MAC node statistics
What kind of info does the connection statistics menu provide
info with bandwith utiliaztion and # of connections related to nodes
what are the 3 types of active tests that are conducted with a protocol analyzer?
Trace Route
Traffic Generator
what are 4 categories of WIN NT adminsrtation policies
account policies
user rights policies
audit policies
system policies
what does account policies allow adms to do
control max length of time before users are forced to change passwords
control min password length, account lockouts, and # failed login attempts before account lockout
control min length of lockout duration
what can the user rights policies be set-up to track
both successful and failed events
what is a combo fo user and computer settings that control a user's working environ
system policy
what does and admin select to creat a new user account
user manager for domains\user\new user
how is the naming convention the AF uses for user accounts set up
last name, first initial
at what point in time must a user creat a unique password for the first time
user must change password at next logon
what is an extension of the local disk space from the user's computer
home directory
what allows the user to have the same setting regardless of which computer they log onto within the domain?
profile stored on server
how can admins apply permissions to a large number of users simultaneously rather than having to assign permissions to individual users
using groups
why do we use global groups to organzie user accounts
for domain wide assignment of permissions
name the 3 built-in groups created by the WINNT server OS installed ona computer that is the PDC
domain admins
domain users
domain guests
explain the difference between user rights and permissions
rights - customizable powers granted to tusers\groups to control the specific activites ona computer\apply to system a s a whole rather than specific objects

Permissions - apply to specific resources such as files, directories, printers
define permissions
define the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource
between the read and change permissions, which one is the most restrictive
what permissions always overrides all other permissions
no access
what group is automatically assigned full control permission to a volume when it is formatted with NTFS
are there clear-cut instructions to file management
how can we categorized user's in realtion to file management
by job or duty position
how do we determin the max folder size for file server users
server technology and size vs # of users and their importance
what is usually the last step in file management
after the power-on-self-test is complete, what is loaded into memory
Master Boot Record
what 2 things must the partition boot record accomplish prior to a system load
must be able to recognize enough of the file system to find NTLDR

Loads and executes NTLDR
what file contains the names and disk locations of the different bootable operating systems
what is the function of teh NTOSKRNL.EXE program
creates the registry key strings for hardware from the information passed to it by the boot loader
what type of action is a network sign-on sequence
list the 7 steps of highly effective network troubleshooting
define the problem
gather facts
consider all possible causes
create plan of action
implement plan
observe results
problem resolved
what is fault detection
includes receipt of indicators of system faults, as well as the recognition of abnormal conditions inferred from performance measures. may also be predictive
what should be considered a critical network event
failure of a link, the restart of a device, lack of response from a host
what is the action of identifying options for minimizing the effects of predicted or detected faults
fault correction
what action checks the conditoin of network nodes
status policy
what is a network alarm
an indication that a noteworthy event has occurred on the network
how can the help desk detect deveopling trouble and start resolving it before users encounter network failures
if NMS is configured to post threshold alrms from mission critical devices
what are the two factors that determin if a map is opened with read/write access or with read-only access
only 1 user @ a time can have specific map open w read\write

use file systems to purposely allow only read or Read\Write acess
How is the 32-bit value in the FCS field calculated
computed as a function of the contents of all the frame's field (source address, destination address, length/type data) except the preample, start of frame delimiter, and FCS
what algorithm is used to detect multiple frames within the same collision domain
CSMA/CD algorithm
how are problems that are caused by high network utilization resolved
further subdividing the network/eliminating impairements that cause collisions
what is the primary cause of jabbers on a network
faulty NICs or transceivers constantly transmitting frames onto the network
what happens when oversize packets are sent across a network
discarded, otherwise may cause a node to fail
what is the primary cause of undersize packets
software errors generated by incompatible network protocols
what are runts
frames smaller than the minimum size the network protocol requires
how will IP fragment a 3,500-byte packet transmission by Ethernet frames
3 packets 3 frames
name 2 utilities that can be used to determine around trip delay
list the types of errors that are displayed in the line vital statistics table
local collisions, remote collisions, late collisions, bad FCS, runts
what can be done to eliminate collision that are the result of too many nodes on the network
additional bandwidth/network must be further subdivided
Ideally what should the average network utilization value be?
less than 30%
Ideally what should the maximum network utilization be?
less than 70%
what is a good indication that there are jabbers on the network
Collisions increase
after running a PING test, what information is shown int he display window
each response is numbered and the target nodes network and MAC node addresses are displayed
which protocol analyzer feature identifies errors that are associated with a specific node
MAC node statistics feature
what typeof information does the MAC node statistics summary window show
current # recorded erros and the average number of errors per second for each MAC node address
What resolves most of the problems we find with a computer
diagnostic software
what is usually the first indication that a NIC should be replaced
if either a software/hardware loopback fails
what TCP/IP diagnostic tool displays the current configuration of a computer
winipcfg for windows
ipconfig for windowsNT
if duplicate IP addresses are found, what does the ipconfig utility do for you
tells you the MAC address of the other
what is the main difference between the PING and TRACERT commands
TRACERT will show the devices it talks to in between your device and the host divice you are trying to contact while ping shows if it connected to distant end
what is the easiest way to check for cmmunications connection problem
hardware diagnostics
if the comm lights on a NIC is not on, what is this an indication of
no communication handshake
what is one of the most common hardware devices used for troubleshooting
loopback plug
what are the four elements of information that COMPUSEC is designed to ensure we have
what is a COMPUSEC vulnerability
anything that causes availabilitiy, intergrity, confidentiality, and accountablitiy to suffer where automated systems are concerned
what are you 2 primary contact points on system security matters
Describe security vulnerability
a wekness in security measures
how can an equipment malfunction casuse a vulnerablility
may allow unauthorized access
what can lead to a dire threat to national security
inadvertent disclosure of classified info
how do you sanitize a workcenter
cover remove classified info from view so that uncleared workers/visitors w/out need to know may enter the area
define computer virus
program designed as a joke, prank or vandalism
name 3 types of viruses
time bomb
what is the solution to a virus
program removal tool
delete infected program/replace with clean version
what symbols are used to represent numbers in the binary numbering system
0 and 1
what radix is used in the binary numbering system
base 2
what determines the decimal value of a binary digit in the binary numbering sys
the placement of each symbol in the sequence
in the binary numbering sys, what happens to the power of a digit as the exponent increases by 1
as the exponent increases by 1 the power doubles
state the advantage of using a correctly constructed PLACE value chart when you work with numbering sys
visual representation of each digit of a number and can be used to convert one numbering system to another
when you convert decimal numbers to binary numbers, which binary digit do you identify first?
first position
what is the general process used to convert decimal numbers to binary numbers
successively divide the decimal number by powers of 2 values until the remainder is reduced to 0 recording the divisor from each step as successive binary digits
during decimal to binary conversion, what symbol is assigned as a binary digit for a power of two that will not divide into the decimal number?
placeholder (0)
after you converta decimal number to its binary equivalent, how is the new binary number correctly displayed
MSD to far left
LSD to far right
successive digits falling between the two and subscript base affixed to LSD
convert decimal to binary
101 sub2
convert decimal to binary17
10001 sub 2
convert decimal to binary
101000 sub 2
convert decimal to binary
1000100 sub 2
what 2 methods are used to convert binary numbers to decimal numbers
powers of two method and using a place value chart method
briefly describe the process for converting binary numbers to decimal numbers using the powers of two method
multiply each binary digit by its power of 2 place value decimally add all products and affix decimal radix
convert binary to decimal
10 sub2
2 sub 10
convert binary to decimal
011 sub 2
3 sub 10
convert binary to decimal
1110 sub 2
14 sub 10
convert binary to decimal
10100 sub 2
20 sub 10
what does the sum of a column that contains an even number of binary 1s always equal?
what does the sum of a column that contains an odd number of binary 1s always equal
describe what takes place during binary addition when two binary 1s are added together
value 0 is recorded and binary 1 is carried to the next column
when you perform binary addition with mulitple numbers, which column must you add first
right hand, so carries go to next higher column
during binary subtraction, what condition would require you to borrow from the next higher column of numbers
borrow from the next higher column anytime you are required to subtract 1 from 0
what is the value of a borrow that is used during binary subtraction
= the place value of column it comes from
how many binary digits are required to represent a number as compared to the number of decimal digits it takes to represent that same number
3-4 times as many binary digits
how many octal digits are required to represent a number as compared to the number of binary digits it takes to represent that same number
1/3 of digits in octal system
is it easier to convert decimal numbers to binary or octal to binary
octal to binary
what symbols does the octal numbering system use to represent numbers
what is the base(radix) of the octal numbering system
base 8
what determines the value of a single digit in an octal number
value of a digit is equal to digit times the power of teh place it occupies
briefly describe the process for converting octal numbers to decimal numbers
convert octal digits to powers of 8 expressions, decimally add results, affix decimal subscript radix
convert octal to decimal
73 sub 8
59 sub 10
460 sub 8
304 sub 10
what are some drawbacks to ICMP pinging as a network management tool
unreliable delivery of packets - needs for polling -- limited information derived from responses
what is MIB
hierarchical, structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices
what are the 2 parts of teh labeled node
object identifier
short text description
what are the 2 nodes that make up the MIB tree
depicts labeled nodes and leaf objects
what are some examples of nodes that SNMP can support
workstation, client, network user, personal computer, server, printer, or other devices attached to a data network
into what 2 categories can SNMP fall
a computer used to run one or more NMS applications
monitors, collects, reports management data to management system
what does the Get operation do
asks for a specific piece of information the operation retrieves the value of one instance of management information
what does the Set operation do
modifies the value of one or more instances of management information
what is a trap
an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager and therefore does not have a corresponding request message
what are community names
each SNMP community is a group that contains at least one agent and one management system. the logical name assigned to such a group we call the community name
what are the 2 types of community names
what are the 5 area that must be considered and decided upon during network installation planning
file system, licensing mode, role in the domain, protocols to activate, and services
what are the two licensing schemes used with MS WINNT Server 4.0
Per Server
Per Seat
what device authenticates logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password in the account database
what protocol is typically used in small LAN implementations of 50 nodes or less
NETBIOS extended user interface
what is the most common method for loading WIN NT 4.0 on a stand-alone server or small domains set up with a min number of servers
from CD
what is network management
process of using hard/software by trained personnel ot monitor the status of network components and line facilites question end-user and carrier personnel and implement/recommend actions to alleviate outages and/or improve communications performance as well as conduct administrative tasks associated with the operation of the network.
what is a network management server
a bundle of apps designed to sig improve network efficiency and productivity
specifically runs simple network management protocol (SNMP) based management apps
where should the network management server be located
placed in a controlled area
on a subnet that is separate from teh busy user subnets but where it still has access to the information produced by the managed devices on those subnets
what are the three most common network management architectures?
centralized, hierarchical, distributed
what are the 4 levels of activities that one should understand before applying management to specific services or devices
what is config man
process of obtaining data from the network and using that data to manage the setup of all managed devices
what are the 2 features built into an NMS that alleviate manually configuring a network's devices?
automatic discovery
auto mapping features
briefly describe performance management
consists of the facilities needed to evaluate the behavior of network objects and the effectiveness of communications activities
list the steps that you must take to provide accurate performance management
1. gather statistical info
2. maintain/examine logs of sys state
3. determine sys performance under natural/artificial conditions
4. alter sys modes of operation for the purpose of conducting performance management
what are the 2 functional categories of performance management?
what is security management
encompasses protecting sensitive info on devices attached to a data network by controlling access points to that info
what are the 2 subsections of security management
network security
network management
what is fault management
process of, locating, correcting network problems
what is the diff between a fault and an error
faults are abnormal conditions requiring NCC personnel to take actions to correct/repair
Errors arise on a normal functioning network and do not necessarily require attention
define a network OS
OS that manages network resources and allows those resources to be shared across the net
what type of network server configurations do we install network operating systems on
client server and peer-to-peer
what is the major concern that must be considered prior to attempting to install a NOS
hardware/software compatibility
what do we call a logical grouping of user accounts, user groups, servers, workstations, and printers
what do we call the central repository for the entire soft/hardware configuration settings within a computer running the WINNT OS
the registry
what are the 2 tools available that are utilized to access the registry
why is it important to constantly monitor a NOS installation or SP upgrade
many errors during installation have patches already published by the manufacturer that are free and will fix them
why is monitoring your network system performance so important
provides the info needed to ensure that the network is running and its optimization and that the network will stay operational
define performance management
refers to how well the network serves its users
what is a baseline and what is it used for
baseline- developed from collected data

used asa starting point
list the steps in the baselining process
data is collected
a report is generated
results interpreted
what are the 3 general rules used in interpreting the results of baselining data?
look for abnormalities
look for changes
learn what is normal for your network over time
what is the diff between baselining and benchmarking?
baselining- is a set of stats made over time
benchmarking- process for evaluating apps/network component performance
why is network availability the most significant baseline statistic collected
usually the first most recognized problem w/ a network that is experiencing performance problems
what does "error rate" signify on baselining a network
sorted by MAC source address can quickly isolate the offending node/nodes in cases of faulty network interface cards
define network response time
ammount of time that passes between when a request is issued and when a response to that request is received
how can broadcast traffic be a significant load on network performance
consumes transmission bandwitdth and processing time within the receiving devices
what commmunication device converts binary electrical signals into accurate signals for transmission over telephone lines
what does the process of modulation do
conversion to acoustic form
what is the conversion of analog signals back to binary form known as
what are Codecs utilized for
convert analog signals to digital for transmission on digital lines
name the device that performs protective and diagnostic functions for a telecommunications line
channel service unit
what 2 devices does the DSU provide a modem-like interface between
the computer as DTE and the CSU
what device acts as a mdia converter and is used when connecting 10Base2 to a device with only 10BaseT connections available
what device is installed in a computer that provides a connection point to a network
what are th3 4 NIC connector interfaces for network cables
which NIC module converts information into a coded data stream
encode/decode module
what type of software activates the actual transmission/receipt of data over the netwrok
network interface drivers
what device provides a connection for the DTE into a communication network and back again
DCE (data terminal equipment)
what layer of the OSI model defines the DTE and DCE interfaces
mane the component that serves as a central connecting point and is used to extend the physical media by repeating the signal it receives in one port out to all the other ports indiscriminately
what is an intelligent hub
has a special capability for configuration and/or management
what is an active hub
serves as a wiring and signal relay center and also cleans and boosts signals
what is a passive hub
serves only as a wiring/relay center
what is a collision domain
group of devices connected to the same physical media such that if two devices access the media @ the same time, the result is a collision of the 2 signals
what is a broadcast domain
group of devices in the network that recieve one another's broadcast messages
all devices connected to a hub share the same media, and consequently what kind of domains
collision, broadcast
what is a simple add-on device that works at the physical layer of the OSI model, and helps reduce the problems of attenuation by duplicating the cable's signal
what device works at teh data link layer of the OSI reference model and uses physical addresses to process frames
explain why a bridge is protocol independent
since it works at layer 2, it is not concerned with what protocol frames are using
only concerned with the MAC
what are the 4 basic functions bridges perform
describe the 3 ways in which a bridge can filter
drops packets destined for same node on which it was received

bad packets automatically dropped

filters packets according to the MAC address
what is a bridging loop
created when there is more than one path to the destination
what type of bridging is used solely for ethernet environs
transparent bridges
what is spanning-tree algorithm and what is accomplished by it
mathematical algorithm used to i.d. and correct loop potential port problems
what is a root bridge
the bridge in a network with the highest priority (lowest number)
if all bridges have the same priority what is done to determine the root bridge
the one wth the lowest MAC address
this device allows a connection to be established as necessary and terminated when there is no longer a need________
what do switches utilize to eliminate logical loops
spanning tree algorithm
what is the one big difference between a bridge and a switch
switches are hardware based
at which layers of the OSI model do switches work
data link
compare and contrast layer 2 and layer 3 switches
layer 2 - makes switching decisions based solely upon MAC address

Layer 3 - once it forwards a frame it caches the MAC and IP address of the destination
describe the 3 types of data switching
cut through
store and forward
what is a virtual LAN
logical grouping of end stations, independent of physical locations, witha common set of requirements
describe the 3 types of VLANS
port grouping - most common; involves grouping ports on a switch, exclusive to other ports

MAC - layer grouping - definged by assigning
what devices work at the network layer and can interconnect networks that use different technologies, including defferent media, physical addressing schemes, or frames formats?
explain why routers are protocol dependent
they can only process packets that adhere to the protocolfamily that supports it
what is an internetwork?
series of related netwoks connected via a WAN or via a series of interconnected WANs
what is a subnet
a constituent network of the internetwork
how do routers discover the existence of other networks
admins can manually enter info or routers can utilize protocols that allow routers to exchange info about their attached networks
what is a hop count
a hop is a transmission between 2 routers
hop count is the total # of hops
describe the 2 functions of a router
path determination
which routing protocol allows router to share their entire or a portion of their Routing table with only their immediate neighbors
distance vectoring
with what type of routing method do routers share the existence of and state of their links thereby providing each router within the area constructs a complete picture of the entire network
link state
what are routing metrics
numbers associated with a path
what is the infomation-storage component that contains a backup copy of teh configuration
what do we call the network connections through which network traffic enters and exits a router
what are the console and auxiliary ports used for
used to attach the internetworking device to a terminal

a pc running terminal-emulation software, or a modem, allowing config commands to be entered
what type of command is the IP address command
interface command
what EXEC commands allow you to connect to remote devices, change terminal settings on a temporary basis, perform basic tests, and list sys info?
user EXEC commands
what User Exec mode command is typed at the command prompt to enter privileged EXEC mode
name the four types of a router that can be configured
console port
Tty ports
virtual terminal line
what character is used to syntax help for info on config commands
why is it important to set the system clock on routers
so error messages wil have accurate time stamps
how do access control lists filter network traffic
controll whether routed packets are forwarded/blocked at a routers interface
what are the 2 steps in implementing router access control lists
to create an access list of definitions

to group the access list to a routing interface
list 3 rules you must follow in developing and applying access control lists to routers
1. routers apply lists sequentially in the order in which you type them into the router
2. routers apply lists to packets sequentially
3. packets are processed only until a match is made and then they are acted upon based on the access list entries contained in AL statements
why are wildcard masks one of the most important concepts in IP access lists
routers use them to determine which bits in an address will be significant
what does an extended IP access list use to determine how it filters transmissions
IP Addresses, destination IP address, protocol type, applicaiton port number
what is the show interface or show IP interface command used to verify
used to verify that an access list has been successfully applied to an interface
what term may refer to both hard/software or just the software that performs services to network users
what type of server is a computer attached to a network that runs a client/server database management system
database server
what server stores the programs and data files shared by users
file server
which server provides access to modems or other facilities that provide network capabilites
communications server
what type of server links domain names to IP addresses
DNS server
what is a proxy server
breaks the connection between sender/receiver and acts as an intermediary
what type of server uses name resolution software from MicroSoft and converts NETBIOS names to IP addresses
Windows Internet Naming Service
What is a DHCP server
designed to help reduce configuration time for TCP/IP networks by automatically assinging IP addresses
what type of server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity
network management system server
what is a major portion of a COMSEC manager's job
training individuals who are responsible for COMSEC programs in their units
list 4 types of publications that are used in COMSEC operations
who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US govt
DIRNSA (director national security agency)
who appoints a COMSEC manager
wing and installation CCs
who is responsible for achieving an installation's secure communications posture
COMSEC Manager
list the 2 main points to remember about security containers
combo=same classification of material contained

never store valuables w/COMSEC material
what does a controlling authority do
oversees and manages the operational use/control of COMSEC material
which type of COMSEC material requires the most strenuous accounting practices
what are the 3 forms which a COMSEC manager must prepare each month
AF Form 1109
for what is the AF form 1109, visitor register, used?
record access to COMSEC material by persons not on authorized access list
why do we establish access lists
to designate those individuals who require frequent access to COMSEC material

list grants a person's right and need to access
when must you change security container combinations
-when placed in/out of service
-when an individual is no longer authorized access
-found open but certified to have been locked
-following repairs
-possible combo compromise
when is a daily security check required on COMSEC material? why required?
FILL OUT SF701 -- required at end of each workday/shift to ensure all classified COMSEC is properly stored and safeguarded
what is the purpose of an access list
establishes person's right and need to know
what form is normally used to record daily, shift, or other local inventories of COMSEC material
List the inventory requirement for each category of accounting legend code material
ALC-1 control number and quantity
ALC-2 quantity
ALC-4 not required
what is te preferred method of listing material on the AFCOMSEC form 16
arranged alphabetically by short title, then numerically, showing edition, quantity, and accounting control number
when must you reconcile any discrepancies noted while conducting the inventory of COMSEC material
what is a COMSEC user
any individual required to use/safeguard COMSEC material and/oraide in the performance of official duties
define cCOMSEC aides
term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other than equipment (keying material, codes, call signs, authentication sys)
where are requests for COMSEC equipment processed through
SBSS (standard base supply system)
after coordination w/ COMSEC manager
list the diff databases used to track each COMSEC responsible officer account
CM2 (COMSEC Management)
what are 2 ways you can receive classified COMSEC material
DCS (defense courrier service)
AFEKMS (AF Electronic Key Management System)
If there is a discrepancey in the classification marking or recieved COMSEC material, what do you do
send a message to the originator, keep the wrappers and await disposition instructions
at a min, what is the ditribution of transfer report copies for received COMSEC material
return one copy to CPSG, one to sender, one to MAJCOM, put one in folder of COMSEC account file book
how do you determine which COMSEC material to issue to each CRO account
CM2 holds the requirements info by CRO and provides the exact material due each user account
what form is used as a hean receipt when issuing COMSEC aids to a CRO
prior to the user being authorized to pick up COMSEC material, on what topics must the COMSEC account manager train the CRO
-individual responsibilities to proved adequate storage facilities fo the material
-continuous safeguarding
-proper destruction
-administrative procedures
-immediate reporting of all COMSEC incidents to the COMSEC manager
when may hand receipts for COMSEC issued material be destroyed
when a properly executed destruction certificate is received from the CRO or the material is returned to the COMSEC account
when transferring or shipping COMSEC material, the COMSEC account manager is responsible for what 4 duties
-obtain approval for transfer
-ensure COMSEC aids are prepped for shipment
-ensure only authorized means of shipment are used
-submitting accounting/transfer reports
From whom does a COMSEC account manager get approval for transfer of material
approved from controlling authority, WSA, CPSG
what form is normally used as a transfer report of COMSEC material
SF153 COMSEC Material Report
what does the voucher number on the SF153 consist of
last 2 digits of current year, a dash, next unused consecutive# starting @001
who originates dissemination messages for COMSEC material
what should the COMSEC manager do if a CRO does not respond in picking up a dissemination message
inform the individual's CC ASAP create MFR
if the user fails to respond in a reasonable amount of time, how can this affect the mission
mission and critical comm could be affected
the longer a compromised system is used-the greater the danger for security damage
why is the COMSEC manager required to conduct an inventory of the accounts total holdings
to ensure proper accountability of COMSEC material between the COMSEC account and the Central Office of Record at the Cryptological Support Group (CPSG)
which COMSEC items require a semiannual inventory
what does the COMSEC manager do if it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user due to distance
ask user to verify its holdings
list the distribution for the semiannual inventory report
send original copy to CPSG. Copy 2 will be sent to your MAJCOM, 3d is filed in the account record file
define incident
uninvestigated/unevaluated occurences that potentially jeopardize security of COMSEC material/transmission or any investigated/evaluated occurence that has been determined as not jeopardizing COMSEC security
define insecurity
an investigated/evaluated INCIDENT that has been determined as jeopardizing COMSEC security
list the 3 types of incidents a COMSEC manager must report
Physical - loss of control/theft/capture
Personnel - capture/attempted recruitment by hostile entities
Cryptographic - equip malfunctions/operator error
after being advised of an incident, what is a commander's important responsibility
required to appoint an inquiry or investigating officer
when is an amplifying report submitted
whenever new and/or significant information concerning a reported incident is discovered
who can issue the incident a case number and determin when to close the case
only AFCA
who is responsible for preparing the EAP for the protection, security, or destruction of COMSEC material in case of an emergency
COMSEC manager
describe the 2 categories of emergency situations
accidental: crashes, natural disasters

hostile actions: intentional enemy attack, civil disturbance
what are the basic elements of an EAP
classification of material held
names and addresses of POC
assignment of definite responsibilities
authorization to implement plan
training on the plan
location of material by storage container
prioritization of material to be destroyed
which units must have both emergency and precautionary destruction plans
units stationed overseas
those subject to deployment overseas
name the three options available in planning for emergency destruction of material
secure the material
remove it from the scene of emergency
destroy it
what directives are CROs required to follow in administering their COMSEC accounts
AF and local directives you as a COMSEC manager publish
what AF Form is used to conduct CRO inspections
AF Form 4160, AF Information Assurance and Assessment Program Criteria Inspection Checklist
who must coordinate on CRO COMSEC Operating Instructions
base COMSEC manager
AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories must directly correlate with what docs
SF 153 transfer certificates
for how long are AFCOMSEC forms 16 kept and where are they filed
CRO 6-part folder
what must personnel working in TPI positions be able to detect
incorrect/unauthorized security procedures concerning the task being performed
define TPI
system of storage and handling designed to prohibit individual access to certain COMSEC keying material
what type of locking device is used in TPI
dual combination x-07 electronic lock
define TPC
continuous surveillance and control of nuclear COMSEC material and equipment always by a minimum of 2 authorized individuals
what program must an individual ce cleared through prior to assuming TPC duty
PRP (personnel reliability program)
who is the approval authority for PRP clearances
who is usually the TPC team chief
Base COMSEC Manager (MSgt and above)
what does PKI provide to users of insecure public networks to securely and privately exchange data through the use of a public and a private cryptographic key pairs obtained and shared through a trusted authority
a digital certificate
PKI assumes the use of what type of key cryptography
public key cryptography
when can PKI messages easily be decrypted
when key is intercepted/discovered by someone other than the trusted parties
how does PKI provide support to security of info technology apps and electronic transactions
PKI provides privacy, access control, intergrity, authentication, and nonrepudiation support
2 categories exist for performing the transformaion of text to gibberish and back; what are they
symmetric ciphers
asymmetric ciphers
what is the transformation from original text into gibberish called
what is the transformation back to original text called
once encrypted, what is the message called
cipher text
in the public/private key pair how can one of the keys be made publicly available without reducing security
knowing one does not allow reception or computation of the other
what is the key not publicly revealed called
private key
what type of relationship exists between keys in a pair of a public-key cipher
mathematical- may rely on info know only to the creator of the key pair
what common mechanism is used to independently verify public-key information
public key certificate
what mechanism uniquely and explicitly ties data to the originator
private key known only to originator
what changes the arbitrary size of data to a fixed-size input and computes a fixed-sixe output
a cryptographic has function
what is the 2step process in the signing operation
signer hashes the data to a fixed size value

signer subjects this value to a private key operation
what is the 2step process for verification
verifier hashes the data to a fixed size value

verifier examines this value, the transmitted signature, or the signing entities public key. if sign. matches the key and hash value
a digital signature provides what 2 things
data origin authentication
data integrity
what algorithm security is based on the difficulty of factoring very large integers
RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adelman)
what hash algorithm was designed specifically for use with the DSA
the secure hash algorithm (SHA-1)
certificates issued to CAs and RAs using DN form, are issued at what CLASS
when users generate keys, what are they required to prove possession of?
the private key that corresponds to the public key in the request
public-key certificates are issued to whom
individuals whenever possible
local organizations are reponsible for maintaining what type of lists
organiztional certificate users
what is the basis of establishing identity for CLASS 2 certificates
through an association with a service, agencies, or other component of the DoD
who certifies the key pair/identity binding by digitally signing a data structure that contains some representation of the identitiy and a corresponding public key?
certifiaction authorities in PKI terminology
where do users fo to ensure certificate to user verification
certification repositores
why does the AF periodically update key certificates
to limit the amount of information encrypted by a single key to a set amount
why is Key History an important feature of PKI
it is required to identify old certificates that were used, to allow access to data encrypted with the old key
what device is the DOD PKIs current high assurance mechanism
the Fortezza card (level 2 compliant crypto module)
with what AF program are Fortezza cards associated
what directory system are users certificates posted to
x.500 directory system
what do compromised key lists (CKL) identify
certificates that represent a potential security risk
who is the final authority on all aspects of communications and information systems in the AF and where are they located
what organization should be contacted to resolve operational issues on computer systems
by whom was the AF computer system management working group established
what action provides an improved crossfeed of information and feedback from the field necessary to make informed decisions about CSM policy and procedures
broad representation of CSM function
who determines reporting procedures of tenant units
MAJCOM equipment control officers
who may approve a one-grade reduction of the required rank of the base equipment control officer
installation CCs
what does the communications and information systems requirements process enable requesting organiztions to do
obtain new communications and information capabilities, with the assistance of the CSO
what process can be used to document communications and information systems sustainment requirements
the communication and information systems requirement process
after what does requirements processing begin
after a need is identified
what is the primary means for base-level users to request CIS facilities, equipment, or services
is "quality of life" an appropriate justification for an IT/NSS submission
Yes - usually in conjuction with others
list the steps in the requirements process
1. CIS requirements
2. developing a certified technical solution
3. Allocating resources
4. implementing the requirement
when can requirements come from the opportunity to modernize an existing system with improved technology
only when operationally and economically practical
what AFI links Information Technology investments to mission essential task improvements
AFI 33-103
a requirement neeeding both the 38th EIG and SSG assistance should be sent to whom for coordination between the two organiztions
what higher authorities can downward direct a program or project
OSD - office of the secretary of defense
JCS - Joint Chiefs of Staff
SAF - Secretary of the AF
HQ USAF - Headquarters
where are Allowance Standards found
AFEMS - AF equipment management system
what is a generic, non-system specific requirements' document called
MNS - mission needs statement
what AFI provides guidance on how to prepare an AF Form 1067
AFI 63-1101 modification management
what report summarizes the results of cost and performance analyses of various alternatives that may meet the identified need
COEA - cost and operational effectiveness analysis
what documents how the system will be operated, deployed, employed, and supported by describing system-specific characteristics, capabilities, and other related operational variables
operational requirements document
where does the computer systems management come from
the base ECO (equipment control officer)
what does the CSM equipment custodian inventory list
reflects all equipment accountable under the EC account
when does the CSM accountablility document become official
once signed
what is attached to each piece of equip listed ont he EC inventory
CSM identification label
why is correct utilization of equipment difficult to ensure for PCs
because users have so many different jobs
what actions ensure the euipment you purchase accomplishes the mission in exactly the manner you anticipated
research, planning prior to submitting a requirement
what changes to equipment and software are considered when scheduling downtime of network servers
maintenance, upgrade hardware/software
minor/major reconfiguration
what is a software license
legal agreement between the user/manufacturer that defines what the user can/cannot do with the software
what document represents legal proof of ownership of the software
invoice/license certificate
what do license management actions ensure
that COTS is correctly utilized
what is the most common reason for installing new software
upgrade software people are already using
name the 3 lower layers of the OSI model
physical, data link, network
describe the physical layer
hardware, cables, NIC
name 3 of the functions of the data link layer
1. defines initializtions and finalization procedures
2. decides who talks and listens
3. ensures error free data transmission
which layer provides a routing path through a network by which users can communicate
network layer
the X.25 standard is designed for what kind of switching technique
packet switching
name the four upper layers of the OSI model
what is one of the main functions of the transport layer
error recognition
detect and correct errors as well as id packets sent in incorrect order
with wich layer do users directly communicate
session layer
define checkpointing
periodically inserting points into the data from which any recovery necessary can be started
with what is the presentation layer of the OSI model concerned?
Layer 6. network security, file transfers and formatting functions
what are some of the things you may find at the applicaiton layer level
database management (programs, electronic mail, file-server, print-server programs, command and response language of the OS)
why did the IEEE committees develop more than one standard
sometimes protocols do not cover all possible situations that can come up while designing and operating networks
upon what area are the IEEE 802 standards based
first 3 layers of the OSI model
what topology is used by the IEEE 802.3 standard
bus and carrier sense mulit-access with collision detection
what protocol is used by the IEEE 802.3 standard to avoid collisions
what topology is used by the IEE 802.4 standard
bus; token passing to access the network and either CATV or Fiber
it a token bus workstation needs to use the network more frequently than others, how is this accomplished
can be listed several times in the network table of addresses so it will receive the token more often
define a "solicit successor" frame ina token bus network
this frame sends a general request thru the network asking any station that wants to send a message to respond in order to receive the token
what topology is used by the IEEE 802.5 standard
ring topology and token passing to access the network
in a token ring network, what can be used to keep the token moving past inactive stations
hardware; wire centers
what is a major advantage of a token ring network?
cover a great distance since signal is repeated by each workstation
describe the relevance of TCP/IP to LANs
it is a datagram-based protocol well suited to LAN access methods

popular within the UNIX community, giving it a large user base
what protocol is used for error reporting with IP
in practice, what is TCP linked to
invariably to IP
what is one of the main aims of teh network file system
present the remote files to a program running on a workstation as if they were local to that workstation
what is layering int he protocol stack mean
a design approach that specifies different functions/services @ levels in protocol stack
each layer ina protocol stack provides services to what protocol layer
the protocol layer above it
what do you call the connection points between layers that are used to send PDUs through
service access points
what layer doesn't add PCI information to the protocol data unit
application layer
how many service access points are there in the OSI reference model
when is the PDU finally referred to as a frame
when the LLC PDU arrives at the MAC sublayer, a trailer is added then it is referred to as a frame
where are the results of all error detection methods placed
trailer of the frame
what form of error detection uses bytes rather than bits to detect errors
what is used on a physically connected network to identify network nodes
MAC addresses to ID network nodes
what is the numbering system that computers use to represent data
within IP addressing, how many bits are used and how are they broken down
32 bit IP address broken into 4 sets of 8 bits (octets)
provide the decimal value of each position
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
128 64 32 16 8 4 2 1
how many bits in an IP address are reserved for host bits in a B class network
16 host bits
in a class C network, how many IP bits are reserved for the network address
what are the 3 different and unique fields each IP address is divided into
network field
subnet field
host field
what bits in an IP address are routers mainly concerned with
subnet mask
define the internetwork
set of subnets connected with routers
what do heterogeneous network environments consist of
computer sys from diff vendors that run diff OS adn communication protocols