T-6 Systems 1

Front 1

Which control surface controls aircraft movement around the pitch axis?

Back 1

1. Elevator

Front 2

The Trim Aid Device (TAC assists trimming for which control surface during airspeed and power changes?

Back 2

2. The TAD senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim
tab position

Front 3

T/F? Engine exhaust augments the thrust of the propeller

Back 3

3. True. Exhaust gases are ejected rearward providing thrust which augments that produced by
the propeller.

Front 4

Primary aircraft elecrtical power is provided by which component of the eleictrical system:

Back 4

4. The generator function of the starter/generator.

Front 5

tuning for each of the communications and navigation radios and the transponder is provided by which componenet?

Back 5

5. RMU

Front 6

6. True or false? The VHF navigation system provides VOR, ILS, localizer and GPS capability

Back 6

6. False. The VHF system provides VOR, ILS, localizer, and glideslope capability

Front 7

7. Primary navigation display is provided by which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument
System (EFIS)? (B/1/7)

Back 7

7. Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)

Front 8

8. Which standby flight instruments will operate without electrical power? (B/1/8)

Back 8

8. The standby altimeter, airspeed indicator, the ball in the turn and bank indicator, and the
magnetic compass.

Front 9

9. True or false? The entire canopy structure is engineered to be protected from birdstrikes. (B/1/9)

Back 9

9. False. Only the windscreen and front canopy transparency are protected

Front 10

1. Landing gear extension and retraction is operated by which aircraft system?

Back 10

1. Hydraulic

Front 11

2. Movement around the roll axis is controlled by which primary control surface(s)?

Back 11

2. Ailerons

Front 12

3. What component of the ejection seat provides sufficient altitude for parachute deployment?

Back 12

3. Rocket motor

Front 13

4. True or false? The magnetic compass is one of the primary flight instruments.

Back 13

4. False. The magnetic compass is a standby flight instrument

Front 14

5. Secondary aircraft electrical power is provided by what component?

Back 14

5. 24 volt battery

Front 15

6. Which aircraft system provides automatic temperature and pressure control?

Back 15

6. Environment control system

Front 16

7. Control of the transponder is provided by which component?

Back 16

7. Radio Management Unit (RMU)

Front 17

8. True or false? The canopy is hinged at the rear and opens up.

Back 17

8. False. The canopy is hinged along the right side and opens to that side.

Front 18

9. Which primary instrument provides primary attitude display?

Back 18

9. Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI)

Front 19

10. In the event of inadvertent aircraft contact with the ground, which component will be activated and
generate a radio signal?

Back 19

10. The personal locator radio beacon senses impact loads and generates a signal on 121.5 and
406.0 MHz.

Front 20

1. The engine cowling does all of the following except ______. (B/1/1)
a. protects the engine components
b. decreases drag
c. includes an air inlet to the engine
d. secures the engine to the frame

Back 20

1. D

Front 21

2. The purpose of the inertial separator is to ______. (B/1/2)
a. separate cool incoming air and hot exhaust gases
b. remove water that may get in the fuel tanks
c. keep debris away from the engine
d. distribute air evenly over the wings

Back 21

2. C

Front 22

3. The compressor and power turbines are physically connected. (B/2/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 22

3. FALSE

Front 23

4. What three elements are necessary for engine operation? (B/2/2)
a. Heat, smoke, and fire
b. Air, oil, and fuel
c. Gas, oil, and heat
d. Air, fuel, and heat

Back 23

4. D

Front 24

5. As exhaust is released, additional thrust is provided. (B/3/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 24

5. TRUE

Front 25

6. Once the engine is started, and the ignition switch is in the ON position, igniters are automatically
energized and de-energized by the PMU. (B/4/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 25

6. FALSE

Front 26

7. The primary purpose of the ignition system is to ______. (B/4/2)
a. mix fuel and compressed air in the combustion chamber
b. turn the compressor turbine until engine start
c. ignite the air and fuel mixture in the combustion chamber
d. turn the starter motor until combustion

Back 26

7. C

Front 27

8. Friction control settings made to the front PCL affect the aft PCL. (B/5/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 27

8. TRUE

Front 28

9. When starting the T-6A, the PCL should be ______. (B/5/2)
a. in the START/IDLE detent position
b. in the IDLE position
c. pushed forward until a green ST READY annunciator is illuminated
d. pushed forward until a green IGN SEL annunciator is illuminated

Back 28

9. C

Front 29

10. The PMU is located ______. (B/6/1)
a. underneath the engine, in the accessory compartment
b. on the reduction gearbox, next to the propeller interface unit
c. in the left avionics bay
d. in the front cockpit

Back 29

10.A

Front 30

11. The PMU performs the following functions, except: (B/6/2)
a. maintains operating limits
b. processes power requests
c. determines available power
d. releases the correct amount of fuel

Back 30

11.D

Front 31

12. The PMU STATUS annunciator illuminates after landing when the PMU ______. (B/6/3)
a. is regulating normal fuel flow
b. is ready for operation
c. needs maintenance
d. is monitoring engine operation

Back 31

12.C

Front 32

13. After engine start, the starter becomes a generator. (C/1/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 32

13.TRUE

Front 33

14. The MANUAL starter switch position will be used under normal circumstances. (C/1/2)
a. True
b. False

Back 33

14.FALSE

Front 34

15. If oil pressure is ______ psi or below at IDLE power, the amber OIL PX annunciator will extinguish
and the red OIL PX annunciator will remain illuminated. (C/2/1)
a. 15
b. 20
c. 40
d. 90

Back 34

15. A

Front 35

16. If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for more than 5 seconds, ______ will be
illuminated. (C/2/2)
a. the amber OIL PX annunciator
b. the red OIL PX annunciator
c. both the amber and red OIL PX annunciators
d. neither OIL PX annunciator

Back 35

16.C

Front 36

17. The chip detector sensor is located ______. (C/2/3)
a. in the oil tank
b. in the cool oil return line
c. in the cooling assembly
d. in the reduction gearbox

Back 36

17.D

Front 37

18. The oil system provides filtered oil to all of the following systems, EXCEPT ______. (C/2/4)
a. propeller
b. reduction gears
c. engine
d. wheel brakes

Back 37

18. D

Front 38

19. The reduction gearbox reduces engine output from ______ RPM to propeller speeds of ______ RPM.
(D/1/1)
a. 4000; 1000
b. 5000; 1000
c. 20,000; 2000
d. 30,000; 2000

Back 38

19.D

Front 39

20. The phase shift torque probe monitors ______. (D/1/2)
a. starter/generator torque
b. compressor turbine torque
c. propeller speed
d. blade angle torque

Back 39

20.C

Front 40

21. The PIU ______. (D/1/3)
a. connects the propeller to the propeller shaft
b. sends propeller data to each cockpit
c. regulates oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
d. none of the above

Back 40

21.C

Front 41

22. If the propeller pitch change mechanism loses oil pressure, the propeller will automatically move
towards the ______ position. (D/1/4)
a. feathered
b. low pitch
c. high pitch
d. medium pitch

Back 41

22.A

Front 42

23. Varying levels of thrust are achieved by ______. (D/1/5)
a. changing propeller pitch
b. changing compressor turbine speed
c. changing propeller speed
d. changing power turbine speed

Back 42

23.A

Front 43

1. The PMU ______.
a. displays available power in each cockpit
b. records flight data
c. keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits
d. processes all data for the alternate engine data display

Back 43

1.C

Front 44

2. If the oil filter gets clogged ______.
a. the system uses unfiltered oil
b. an OIL FIL annunciator illuminates
c. oil is routed through a new oil filter
d. oil pressure will be lost

Back 44

2.A

Front 45

In straight-and-level flight, for PCL positions above IDLE, oil pressure should be maintained between
______ and ______.
a. 40; 90 psi
b. 50; 80 psi
c. 90; 120 psi
d. 90; 140 psi

Back 45

3.C

Front 46

4. The phase shift torque probe is located ______.
a. on the compressor turbine
b. in the reduction gearbox
c. in the compressor section of the engine
d. in the propeller nose cone

Back 46

4.B

Front 47

5. Propeller pitch refers to ______.
a. the angle of the propeller blades
b. the sound the propeller makes
c. size of the propeller blades
d. the direction of rotation

Back 47

5. A

Front 48

6. Which propeller position produces the least amount of drag?
a. High pitch
b. Low pitch
c. Medium pitch
d. Feather

Back 48

6.D

Front 49

7. The propeller pitch change mechanism is able to change propeller blade angle by ______.
a. hydraulic pressure
b. a stepper motor
c. oil pressure
d. air pressure

Back 49

7.C

Front 50

8. The PMU directs the PIU to maintain propeller RPM at ______.
a. 1900
b. 2000
c. 2100
d. 2200

Back 50

8.B

Front 51

9. The power turbine is driven by ______.
a. the starter motor
b. the propeller
c. a mechanical connection to the compressor turbine
d. expanding gases

Back 51

9.D

Front 52

10. During aerobatic flight, oil pressure should be maintained at or above ______.
a. 30 psi
b. 40 psi
c. 50 psi
d. 90 psi

Back 52

10.B

Front 53

1. All of the functions performed by the engine data manager (EDM) are engine related. (B/1/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 53

1. FALSE

Front 54

2. The EDM is located ______. (B/1/2)
a. in the front cockpit
b. on the accessory gear box
c. in the environmental control systems compartment
d. in the left avionics bay

Back 54

2. D

Front 55

3. Identify the N1 gauge by clicking on its correct location on the primary engine data display.

Back 55

Lower Right corner of PEDD

Front 56

4. All primary engine data is processed by the PMU prior to being displayed on the primary engine data
display. (B/2/2)
a. True
b. False

Back 56

4. TRUE

Front 57

5. In the event of abnormal engine operation, the primary engine data displays will warn the pilot by
______. (B/2/3)
a. generating an aural tone
b. going blank for 3 seconds
c. flash the word WARNING on the display
d. changing color

Back 57

5. D

Front 58

6. In order to prevent possible damage due to ground resonance, what is the NP stabilized operation
prohibited range while on the ground? (B/2/4)
a. 52-75%
b. 60-68%
c. 62-80%
d. 80-100%

Back 58

6. C

Front 59

7. Identify the fuel flow gauge by clicking on its correct location on the alternate engine data display.
(B/3/1)

Back 59

Lower Right corner of AEDD

Front 60

8. All data provided to the alternate engine data display is first processed by the PMU. (B/3/2)
a. True
b. False

Back 60

8. FALSE

Front 61

9. On the alternate engine data display, P measures ______. (B/3/3)
a. the difference between cockpit altitude and outside altitude
b. the difference between cockpit pressure and outside pressure
c. the fuel difference between wing tanks
d. the difference between optimal and actual hydraulic pressure

Back 61

9.B

Front 62

10. Identify the oil pressure gauge by clicking on its correct location on the engine/systems/NACWS
display. (B/4/1)

Back 62

Upper Right corner of ESND

Front 63

11. The engine/systems/NACWS displays provide ______. (B/4/2)
a. oil temperature, oil pressure, fuel qty, fuel flow, and NACWS traffic alerts
b. torque, ITT, N1, NP, OAT, and NACWS traffic alerts
c. RITT, fuel qty, fuel flow, DC volts, NACWS traffic alerts, and DC amps
d. oil temperature, oil pressure, hydraulic pressure, NACWS traffic alerts, DC volts and DC amps

Back 63

11. D

Front 64

12. To view the NACWS display, ______. (B/4/3)
a. depress the trigger switch on the control stick to the second detent
b. press the NACWS button on the PCL
c. press the white button in the lower left corner of the display
d. flip the NACWS switch on the left console panel

Back 64

12.A

Front 65

13. Shutoff valves activated by the Firewall Shutoff Handle may be reset by pushing handle back in.
(B/5/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 65

13.TRUE

Front 66

14. When testing the integrity of the fire warning system, you will know the system is working properly
if ______ and the aural tone sounds. (B/5/2)
a. a green FIRE DET annunciator is illuminated
b. the MASTER CAUT annunciator illuminates
c. the FIRE DET switch will return to the neutral position
d. the FIRE and MASTER WARN annunciators illuminate

Back 66

14.D

Front 67

1. The engine data manager does not ______.
a. monitor engine operating parameters
b. illuminate appropriate advisory, caution, or warning annunciators
c. drive the primary, alternate, and engine/systems/NACWS displays
d. control all electronic displays in the cockpit

Back 67

1.D

Front 68

2. The primary engine data display system ______.
a. records engine data for aircraft analysis
b. governs engine operating parameters
c. provides each cockpit with a visual indication of engine operations
a. transmits engine data to the control tower

Back 68

2.C

Front 69

3. The engine data manager is located ______.
a. underneath the engine, near the PMU
b. on the reduction gearbox
c. in the left avionics bay
d. on the engine shaft, next to the PIU

Back 69

3.C

Front 70

5. The alternate engine data displays serve as a backup to the primary engine data displays, and
therefore display some of the same data.
a. True
b. False

Back 70

5. TRUE

Front 71

6. The primary engine data display provides ______.
a. torque, RITT, N1, fuel qty, and fuel flow
b. N1, NP, IOAT, cockpit altitude, and delta P
c. torque, ITT, N1, NP, and IOAT
d. fuel flow, fuel qty, oil pressure, oil temperature, and IOAT

Back 71

6.C

Front 72

7. The engine/systems/NACWS display does not ______.
a. display outside environmental conditions in each cockpit
b. display collision warnings
c. display engine data in each cockpit
d. display electrical system data in each cockpit

Back 72

7.A

Front 73

9. All data presented on the alternate engine data display is processed by the PMU.
a. True
b. False

Back 73

9.FALSE

Front 74

10. The FIRE switch located in the front cockpit is used to ______.
a. switch between fire warning and engine overheat functions
b. turn the fire warning system on and off
c. switch between the primary and backup system
d. test the integrity of the fire warning system

Back 74

10.D

Front 75

1. What three elements are necessary for engine operation? (B/1/1)

Back 75

1. Air, fuel, and heat

Front 76

2. Given indications of abnormal start, what should you do? (C/1/1)

Back 76

2. Begin abort start procedure

Front 77

3. What are the types of abnormal start? (C/1/2)

Back 77

3. Hot, hung, no start

Front 78

4. What are the indications of a hot start? (C/1/3)

Back 78

4. High/rapidly rising ITT, lower, N1, lower NP

Front 79

5. What are the indications of a hung start? (C/1/4)

Back 79

5. Slow rising ITT, lower N1, lower, NP

Front 80

6. What are the indications of no start? (C/1/5)

Back 80

6. No ITT indication, lower N1, no NP indication, no torque indication

Front 81

7. What are some possible display indications of engine failure in-flight? (C/2/1)

Back 81

7.
a. Initial indications: Loss of power and airspeed; rapid decay of N1, torque, and ITT;
MASTER WARN Lights and tone; propeller moves toward feather
b. Accompanying indications: Rapidly decreasing ITT, NP; lower than normal oil
pressure; engine noise; GEN, FUEL PX, OIL PX, OBOGS FAIL annunciators;
Possibly PMU FAIL and CKPT ALT annunciators

Front 82

8. What are the indications of PMU failure? (C/3/1)

Back 82

8. Power step change, PMU FAIL annunciator, MASTER WARN light, aural tone

Front 83

9. What are the indications of uncommanded propeller feather? (C/4/1)

Back 83

9. Rapid loss of power, high torque, lower NP, possible PMU FAIL/PMU STATUS
annunciators, engine/airframe vibration, engine noise

Front 84

10. What are some sensory indications of engine fire in-flight? (C/5/1)

Back 84

10. See smoke or flames, smell oil burning, hear unusual sounds, feel engine vibration or
roughness

Front 85

2. The power turbine is driven by ______.

Back 85

2. Expanding gases

Front 86

3. What does FEVER stand for?

Back 86

3. Fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature or hydraulic pressure, Excessive turbine
temperature, Visual indications (smoke), Erratic engine operation, Roughness or vibration

Front 87

4. What are the three engine sections?

Back 87

4. Accessory compartment, gas generation section, and power turbine section

Front 88

5. What are the three types of abnormal start?

Back 88

5. Hot, hung, no start

Front 89

6. What functions are performed by the PMU?

Back 89

6. Maintain operating limits, process power requests, control engine and propeller, provide
near linear power response.

Front 90

7. What is the purpose of the PIU?

Back 90

7. Regulate oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism

Front 91

9. What are some possible causes of engine failure in-flight?

Back 91

9. Fuel starvation, mechanical failure, compressor stall

Front 92

11. What are the engine fire warning indicators?

Back 92

11. FEVER, FIRE annunciator, MASTER WARNING light, aural tone

Front 93

12. What are some possible causes of uncommanded power loss?

Back 93

12. Engine rollback due to PMU scheduling, Oil/engine/fuel system contamination

Front 94

13. What three elements are necessary for engine operation?

Back 94

13. Air, Fuel, and Heat

Front 95

14. What are some possible indications of engine fire in-flight that may be seen on the engine displays?

Back 95

14. High ITT; Fluctuating: oil temperature and pressure, hydraulic pressure

Front 96

1. What electrical component allows isolation of the generator and battery buses? (B/1/1)
a. Battery switch
b. Bus tie switch
c. Generator switch
d. Circuit breakers

Back 96

1. B

Front 97

2. The starter/generator is regulated and monitored by a ______ located under a panel in the aft cockpit.
(B/2/1)
a. voltage regulator
b. generator overvoltage monitor
c. generator control unit
d. starter/generator accessory box

Back 97

2. C

Front 98

3. Generator power is controlled by the ______ switch located on the right forward switch panel in each
cockpit. (B/2/2)
a. bus tie (BUS TIE)
b. generator reset (GEN RESET)
c. generator control (GEN)
d. auxiliary battery (AUX BAT)

Back 98

3. C

Front 99

4. The rear cockpit avionics bus receives power through the ______. (B/3/1)
a. front cockpit battery bus
b. front cockpit avionics bus
c. rear cockpit generator bus
d. rear cockpit battery bus

Back 99

4. B

Front 100

5. Circuit breakers labeled FWD AVI and AFT AVI control front and rear cockpit avionics buses and
are located on the front cockpit ______. (B/3/2)
a. right forward switch panel
b. battery bus circuit breaker panel only
c. generator bus circuit breaker panel only
d. battery bus and generator bus circuit breaker panels

Back 100

5. D

Front 101

6. A circuit breaker labeled AFT BAT on the front cockpit battery bus circuit breaker panel controls the
______. (B/3/3)
a. aft battery
b. rear cockpit generator bus
c. rear cockpit battery bus
d. auxiliary battery

Back 101

6. C

Front 102

7. Except for the backup UHF control head and UHF transceiver, power for all avionics and radio
systems in both cockpits is furnished through ______ on the right forward switch panel in the front
cockpit. (B/3/4)
a. an avionics master switch
b. a master battery switch
c. an auxiliary battery switch
d. a bus tie switch

Back 102

7. A

Front 103

8. An amber ______ light on the annunciator panel in each cockpit will indicate an open bus tie switch.
(B/3/5)
a. TIE OPEN
b. BUS FAIL
c. BUS TIE
d. BUS OPEN

Back 103

8. C

Front 104

9. Circuit breakers protecting systems and equipment operating from the battery bus are located on the
______ in each cockpit. (B/4/1)
a. right forward switch panel
b. left console panel
c. trim control panel
d. right console panel

Back 104

9.B

Front 105

10. Each circuit breaker is marked with the ______ it will allow to pass before popping. (B/4/2)
a. maximum current load in amperes
b. maximum current load in volts
c. maximum voltage load in amperes
d. maximum voltage load in volts

Back 105

10.A

Front 106

11. Battery power is controlled through ______ on the right forward switch panel in either cockpit.
(B/5/1)
a. an avionics master switch
b. a battery switch
c. an auxiliary battery switch
d. a bus tie switch

Back 106

11.B

Front 107

12. A switch labeled AUX BAT on the front cockpit left console test panel is positioned forward to test
the ______ during preflight checks. (B/5/2)
a. starter/generator
b. battery charge circuits
c. standby battery
d. auxiliary battery

Back 107

12.D

Front 108

13. External power is controlled by the ______ and distributed on the ______. (B/5/3)
a. generator control switch; generator bus
b. avionics master switch; avionics bus
c. external power switch; external power bus
d. battery switch; battery bus

Back 108

13.D

Front 109

14. Lighting for EFIS displays, the RMU, the AOA indexer and the GPS control panel is adjusted using
the knob labeled INSTR PANEL on the trim control panel. (B/6/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 109

14.B

Front 110

15. ______ lights can be detached and relocated to the right canopy rail for use as an area or map light.
(B/6/2)
a. Console
b. Utility
c. Instrument
d. Knee board

Back 110

15.B

Front 111

16. The landing light will only come on when the landing light switch is activated and ______. (B/6/3)
a. the landing gear switch is activated
b. the landing gear is being extended
c. the landing gear doors are opened
d. the landing gear is down and locked

Back 111

16.D

Front 112

17. When switched on, white position lights at the trailing edge of each wing tip ______. (B/6/4)
a. flash alternately with the anti-collision strobe lights
b. are constantly illuminated
c. are illuminated only at night
d. flash alternately with the red and green navigation lights

Back 112

17.B

Front 113

1. The generator provides 28 VDC power, and is capable of supplying ______ amps.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 400

Back 113

1.C

Front 114

2. The generator can be controlled from either cockpit through use of the ______.
a. generator mode switch
b. generator control switch
c. generator switch panel
d. generator transfer switch

Back 114

2.B

Front 115

3. Click on the switch that provides power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits (except the
backup UHF control head).

Back 115

3. AVIONICS MASTER switch (click on
graphic)

Front 116

4. If a component or circuit malfunctions, the affected ______ will open, shutting off current flow to
that component or circuit.
a. relay
b. circuit breaker
c. fuse panel
d. breaker bar

Back 116

4.B

Front 117

5. The battery can be controlled from either cockpit through use of the _______.
a. battery switch
b. auxiliary battery test switch
c. battery crossfeed switch
d. master control switch

Back 117

5. A

Front 118

6. Light output from the instruments, control panels, and displays can be adjusted by using dimming
controls located on the ______ in each cockpit.
a. right forward switch panel
b. generator control panel
c. trim control panel
d. annunciator panel

Back 118

6.C

Front 119

7. The taxi light is located aft and inboard of the ______.
a. left main landing gear strut
b. nose wheel strut
c. left wingtip navigation lights
d. right main landing gear strut

Back 119

7.D

Front 120

8. A fault occurs in the circuit controlling the anti-collision lights. The COLL circuit breaker will pop on
the battery bus circuit breaker panel located on the ______.
a. right side of the rear cockpit
b. right side of the front cockpit
c. left side of the rear cockpit
d. left side of the front cockpit

Back 120

8. D

Front 121

9. Click on the annunciator that will illuminate if the bus tie switch is set to OPEN.

Back 121

9.BUS TIE annunciator (click on graphic)

Front 122

10. The starter/generator provides 28 volts DC, while the battery and auxiliary battery are ______ VDC
units.
a. 20
b. 24
c. 28
d. 30

Back 122

10.B

Front 123

1. The motive flow system is normally driven by the electric boost pump. (B/1/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 123

1. FALSE

Front 124

2. When using the primary refueling method, the total amount of usable fuel in the tanks is
approximately ______ pounds. (B/2/1)
a. 1050 lbs
b. 1100 lbs
c. 1180 lbs
d. 1200 lbs

Back 124

2. B

Front 125

3. The collector tank holds a maximum of approximately ______ pounds of fuel. (B/2/2)
a. 40
b. 178
c. 530
d. 1100

Back 125

3. A

Front 126

4. What is the primary method of refueling the T-6A? (B/3/1)
a. Over the wing gravity refueling
b. Single point pressure refueling
c. Combat refueling
d. In-flight refueling

Back 126

4. B

Front 127

5. Using the single point pressure refueling method, approximately how long does it take to refuel the
aircraft? (B/3/2)
a. 1 to 3 minutes
b. 3 to 5 minutes
c. 5 to 7 minutes
d. 7 to 10 minutes

Back 127

5. B

Front 128

6. The secondary or backup method for refueling the T-6A is called ______. (B/3/3)
a. over the wing gravity refueling
b. single point pressure refueling
c. combat refueling
d. in-flight refueling

Back 128

6. A

Front 129

7. The engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump is fed from the ______. (B/4/1)
a. fuel flow transmitter
b. low pressure vent line
c. engine-driven low pressure fuel pump
d. refuel/defuel valve

Back 129

7. C

Front 130

8. The motive flow line routes fuel to which of the following pumps? (B/4/2)
a. Primary jet pump and high pressure pump
b. Primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps
c. High pressure pump and spill/vent pump
d. Engine-driven fuel pump and high pressure pump

Back 130

8. B

Front 131

9. The collector tank is equipped with two fuel pumps for engine feed operations. Which one is used
AFTER engine start? (B/4/3)
a. Electric boost pump
b. Engine-driven fuel pump
c. Primary jet pump
d. Transfer jet pumps

Back 131

9. C

Front 132

10. The transfer jet pumps ensure adequate fuel
delivery to the collector tank during engine
operations.
The components highlighted on the graphic at
right are the transfer jet pumps. (B/4/4)
a. True
b. False

Back 132

10. FALSE

Front 133

11. During negative-G flight, the flip-flop valve activates, providing the engine access to fuel located in
the ______. (B/4/5)
a. main wing tanks
b. purge line
c. collector tank
d. motive flow line

Back 133

11.C

Front 134

12. Click on the component which sends a fuel
flow signal to the AEDD. (B/4/6)

Back 134

12.Click on graphic (fuel flow transmitter)

Front 135

15. Once the engine is running and motive flow has been activated, the boost pump is automatically
turned off by the low pressure switch. (B/5/3)
a. True
b. False

Back 135

15.TRUE

Front 136

16. Click on the switch which activates the respective transfer (solenoid) valve and closes the motive
flow line to the light tank. (B/5/4)

Back 136

16.Click on graphic (MANUAL FUEL BAL
switch)

Front 137

17. The wing tanks are internally vented to each other by float valves. (B/6/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 137

17.B False; Wing tanks are internally vented to each other through a cross vent line.

Front 138

18. The fuel system incorporates an auto balance system which maintains the fuel load in each wing tank
to within ______ pounds of the other wing. (B/6/2)
a. 20
b. 40
c. 65
d. 100

Back 138

18.A

Front 139

1. Using the primary refueling method, the maximum fuel quantity for one wing tank is ______ lbs.
a. 500
b. 530
c. 560
d. 620

Back 139

1.B

Front 140

2. The flip-flop valve in the collector tank provides a minimum of ______ seconds of fuel regardless of
aircraft orientation.
a. 15
b. 30
c. 45
d. 60

Back 140

2.A

Front 141

3. Which method of refueling fills the wing tanks simultaneously?
a. Tanker refueling
b. Combat refueling
c. Single point pressure refueling
d. Over the wing gravity refueling

Back 141

3.C

Front 142

4. Click on the annunciator that will light along with the BOOST PUMP annunciator to indicate low
fuel pressure delivery to the engine.

Back 142

4. Click on graphic (FUEL PX annunciator)

Front 143

5. Which of the following maintains fuel balance by shutting off fuel flow to the light wing tank?
a. Fuel flow transmitter
b. Motive flow line
c. Flip-flop valve
d. Transfer (solenoid) valve

Back 143

5. D

Front 144

6. The primary and transfer jet pumps are operated by ______.
a. the generator
b. venturi flow
c. the primary battery
d. ram air flow

Back 144

6.B

Front 145

7. The FUEL BAL annunciator is illuminated and you have switched the FUEL BAL switch to
MAN/RESET. Click on the switch that you would move next to set the system to the “light” fuel
tank.

Back 145

7.Click on graphic (MANUAL FUEL BAL
switch)

Front 146

8. How long does it take to defuel the T-6A through the over the wing gravity refueling ports?
a. 10 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 25 minutes
d. The T-6A cannot be defueled through the over the wing gravity refueling ports.

Back 146

8.D

Front 147

9. Fuel is routed from the engine-driven fuel pump to the primary jet pump through which line?
a. purge line
b. motive flow line
c. pressure relief line
d. cross vent line

Back 147

9. B

Front 148

10. The left and right fuel quantity arrows on the AEDD turn yellow when indicated fuel quantity in the
respective tank is below ______.
a. 75 pounds
b. 115 pounds
c. 150 pounds
d. 185 pounds

Back 148

10.C

Front 149

1. During normal operation, while the bus tie is closed, which electrical buses does the generator
supply? (B/1/1)

Back 149

1. Both generator and battery buses are powered by the generator.

Front 150

2. The GCU is located under a side panel in which cockpit? (B/1/2)

Back 150

2. The GCU is under a panel on the right side of the rear cockpit.

Front 151

3. Generator and battery buses are tied together through which switch? (B/1/3)

Back 151

3. Bus tie switch

Front 152

4. Power for aircraft avionics is supplied by which bus? (B/1/4)

Back 152

4. Both generator and battery buses supply power to avionics and radios.

Front 153

5. Battery bus circuit breakers are located on which side of the cockpit? (B/1/5)

Back 153

5. Battery bus circuit breakers are located on the left side of the cockpit.

Front 154

6. Control of battery power is transferable between cockpits using what? (B/1/6)

Back 154

6. Battery power control is transferable using the battery switch.

Front 155

7. True or false? The auxiliary battery will activate automatically upon failure of the primary battery.
(B/1/7)

Back 155

7. False. It must be activated by the auxiliary battery switch.

Front 156

8. The landing and taxi lights are activated by the LDG and TAXI switches when the gear is ______.
(B/1/8)

Back 156

8. down and locked

Front 157

9. The navigation lights at the leading edge wing tips are what colors? (B/1/9)

Back 157

9. Red at the left wingtip and green at the right wingtip

Front 158

10. Using single point refueling, the T-6A's maximum usable fuel is how many pounds? (B/2/1)

Back 158

10. 1100 pounds

Front 159

11. Which refueling method allows more fuel to be pumped into the wing tanks? (B/2/2)

Back 159

11. Over-the-wing gravity refueling

Front 160

12. The primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps are operated by what means? (B/2/3)

Back 160

12. The primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps are both operated by venturi flow generated
by fuel flowing in the motive flow line.

Front 161

13. Data from the fuel flow transmitter is displayed on what instrument? (B/2/4)

Back 161

13. The AEDD (Alternate Engine Data Display)

Front 162

14. AEDD fuel quantity indications are derived from how many sensors in the fuel tanks? (B/2/5)

Back 162

14. Seven

Front 163

15. What is indicated if the M FUEL BAL annunciator is lighted? (B/2/6)

Back 163

15. The fuel balance switch on the right forward switch panel has been set to MAN/RESET.

Front 164

16. True or false? The weight of fuel in the collector tank is included in the total fuel weight on the
AEDD. (B/2/7)

Back 164

16. True. Collector tank fuel is split between the left and right fuel quantity indications.

Front 165

17. Which component prevents fuel from draining from the wing tank? (B/2/8)

Back 165

17. Float valve

Front 166

18. If tank loads are out of balance, the auto balance system stops motive flow to which tank? (B/2/9)

Back 166

18. Motive flow is halted to the light tank.

Front 167

19. The FUEL BAL annunciator will illuminate if the fuel weight difference between the left and right
tanks exceeds what figure for more than two minutes? (B/3/1)

Back 167

19. 30 pounds

Front 168

20. True or false? Indications of the current limiter and/or actual bus failure are shown on this
annunciator panel. (B/3/2)

BAT BUS
OIL PX
HYDR FL LO
PMU STATUS
TRIM OFF

Back 168

20. True. Illumination of the BAT BUS annunciator accompanied by these annunciators is an
indication of actual battery bus or current limiter failure. If only the CWS circuit breaker is
open, only the BAT BUS light will be illuminated.

Front 169

21. The BOOST PUMP annunciator is cycling on and off. This could be an indication of what? (B/3/3)

Back 169

21. Low fuel pressure

Front 170

1. The generator supplies what voltage to the generator and battery buses?

Back 170

1. 28 volts DC

Front 171

2. The anti-collision strobe lights are located where?

Back 171

2. The strobe lights are located on each wingtip near the leading edge.

Front 172

3. External power is distributed on which bus?

Back 172

3. Battery bus

Front 173

4. Gravity refueling adds how many total pounds to the T-6A normal capacity?

Back 173

4. 100 pounds

Front 174

5. Generator bus circuit breakers are located on which side of the cockpit?

Back 174

5. Right side

Front 175

6. In addition to the indications shown, you have lost all electronic instrument displays except EADI
and AEDD. This is an indication of a failure of what component?

MASTER WARN
MASTER CAUT

GEN BUS
FUEL BAL
TAD FAIL
TAD OFF

Back 175

6. Failure of the generator bus

Front 176

7. True or false? Single-point refueling fills all three tanks sequentially beginning with the collector
tank.

Back 176

7. False. Single-point refueling fills the wing tanks simultaneously

Front 177

8. The control for which shutoff valve is located in the cockpit?

Back 177

8. The firewall shutoff valve control is located on the left console of the front cockpit

Front 178

9. Which annunciator illuminates if the autobalance system has failed or if the difference in weight
between the left and right tanks exceeds 30 pounds for more than two minutes?

Back 178

9. The FUEL BAL annunciator will illuminate in these instances

Front 179

10. Which electrical component provides power for engine starts?

Back 179

10. The primary battery

Front 180

1. The ailerons control movement of the aircraft in the ______axis. (B/2/1)
a. lateral or pitch
b. vertical or yaw
c. longitudinal or roll

Back 180

1.C

Front 181

2. Which of the following is NOT a part of the aileron control system? (B/2/2)
a. Left and right aileron
b. Bellcranks
c. TAD
d. Push-pull rods
e. Front and rear control sticks

Back 181

2.C

Front 182

3. The elevator controls aircraft movement around the lateral or pitch axis. (B/3/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 182

3. TRUE

Front 183

4. What is the purpose of the bobweight located on the forward control stick? (B/3/2)
a. Provides for static balancing of the elevator
b. Provides a connection between the two control sticks
c. Enhances control feedback and helps prevent overstressing of the airframe
d. Mechanically limits the amount of elevator travel

Back 183

4. C

Front 184

5. The rudder controls aircraft movement around the vertical or yaw axis. (B/4/1)
a. True
b. False

Back 184

5. TRUE

Front 185

6. Rudder pedal position is adjusted with a hand crank located on the ______ (B/4/2)
a. left console
b. lower portion of the center console
c. right side of the cockpit
d. upper portion of the center console

Back 185

6. B

Front 186

7. Which flight control electromechanical trim system(s) utilize movement of the actual primary control
surface? (B/5/1)
a. Aileron
b. Elevator
c. Rudder
d. Flaps

Back 186

7.A

Front 187

8. In the event of conflicting aileron or elevator trim inputs from the front and rear cockpit, the front
cockpit input will take priority. (B/5/2)
a. True
b. False

Back 187

8.FALSE

Front 188

9. Visual indication of pitch, roll, and yaw trim can be found on the ______. (B/5/3)
a. triple trim indicator on the center instrument panel
b. trim annunciator system
c. TAD control panel on the center console
d. trim position indicators located on both trim control panels

Back 188

9.D

Front 189

10. A primary purpose of the TAD system is to ______. (B/6/1)
a. assist the pilot in maintaining roll trim
b. assist the pilot in maintaining pitch trim
c. assist the pilot by maintaining reduced control stick forces
d. assist the pilot in maintaining directional trim

Back 189

10.D

Front 190

11. The TAD computes input to the rudder trim system based on ______. (B/6/2)
a. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate
b. engine torque, rudder pedal control forces, and altitude
c. altitude, airspeed, pitch rate, and propeller RPM
d. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and temperature

Back 190

11.A

Front 191

12. In addition to the TRIM OFF annunciator, actuating the trim interrupt button will also illuminate the
______ annunciator light. (B/6/3)
a. NO TRIM
b. TAD OFF
c. RUDDER INOP
d. ELEVATOR FAIL

Back 191

12.B

Front 192

13. What control surfaces are locked when the gust lock is engaged? (B/7/1)
a. Elevator
b. Rudder
c. Ailerons
d. All of the above

Back 192

13.D

Front 193

8. In the event of conflicting aileron or elevator trim inputs from the front and rear cockpit, the front
cockpit input will take priority. (B/5/2)
a. True
b. False

Back 193

8.FALSE

Front 194

9. Visual indication of pitch, roll, and yaw trim can be found on the ______. (B/5/3)
a. triple trim indicator on the center instrument panel
b. trim annunciator system
c. TAD control panel on the center console
d. trim position indicators located on both trim control panels

Back 194

9.D

Front 195

10. A primary purpose of the TAD system is to ______. (B/6/1)
a. assist the pilot in maintaining roll trim
b. assist the pilot in maintaining pitch trim
c. assist the pilot by maintaining reduced control stick forces
d. assist the pilot in maintaining directional trim

Back 195

10.D

Front 196

11. The TAD computes input to the rudder trim system based on ______. (B/6/2)
a. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate
b. engine torque, rudder pedal control forces, and altitude
c. altitude, airspeed, pitch rate, and propeller RPM
d. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and temperature

Back 196

11.A

Front 197

12. In addition to the TRIM OFF annunciator, actuating the trim interrupt button will also illuminate the
______ annunciator light. (B/6/3)
a. NO TRIM
b. TAD OFF
c. RUDDER INOP
d. ELEVATOR FAIL

Back 197

12.B

Front 198

13. What control surfaces are locked when the gust lock is engaged? (B/7/1)
a. Elevator
b. Rudder
c. Ailerons
d. All of the above

Back 198

13.D

Front 199

1. The primary aircraft flight controls consist of the ______.
a. electromechanical trim system, TAD, ailerons, and rudder
b. ailerons, Trim Aid Device, and elevator
c. ailerons, elevator, and rudder
d. control stick, PCL, and rudder pedals

Back 199

1.C

Front 200

2. Which of the following best describes the function of the aircraft’s elevator?
a. The elevator system is used to cause movement around the longitudinal or roll axis.
b. The elevator system is used to cause movement in the lateral or pitch axis.
c. The elevator system is used to cause movement in the vertical or yaw axis.
d. The elevator system’s primary function is to assist the pilot in maintaining directional stability.

Back 200

2.B

Front 201

3. The aileron ground adjustable trim tabs are for maintenance use only and should not be tampered with
by the aircrew.
a. True
b. False

Back 201

3. TRUE

Front 202

4. Which statement best describes the purpose of the bobweight attached to the forward control stick?
a. Provides increased aileron sensitivity during high speed flight
b. Provides increased rudder authority during low altitude turns
c. Prevents aircraft overcontrolling by the Trim Aid Device
d. Provides higher stick forces as G-loading increases, helps prevent overstressing the airframe

Back 202

4.D

Front 203

5. Which of the following is NOT included in the rudder control system?
a. Centering springs
b. Cables
c. Bellcrank
d. Bobweight

Back 203

5. D

Front 204

6. Pilot control of aileron trim is accomplished by movement of an electromechanical trim tab installed
on the right aileron.
a. True
b. False

Back 204

6.FALSE; aileron trip repositions the entire aileron on both sides

Front 205

7. The Trim Aid Device (TAD) computer relays trim input to the ______.
a. elevator trim tab actuator
b. rudder trim tab actuator
c. rudder pedals
d. aileron trim system

Back 205

7.B

Front 206

8. The TAD maintains a takeoff trim setting until ______ KIAS and no weight on the wheels.
a. 40
b. 60
c. 80
d. 100

Back 206

8. C

Front 207

9. A green TAD OFF annunciator will illuminate when ______.
a. there is an internal failure of the TAD system
b. there is a failure of the rudder tab actuator
c. the TRIM DISCONNECT switch is placed in the YAW CONNECT position
d. the TRIM AID switch is set to off

Back 207

9.D

Front 208

10. The flight control gust lock is used to ______.
a. prevent aircraft overcontrol during gusty landing conditions
b. lock the secondary flight control surfaces when parked
c. lock the primary flight control surfaces when parked
d. lock only the elevator and rudder when parked

Back 208

10.C

Front 209

1. What are the four devices operated by the primary hydraulic system under normal operations? (B/1/1)
a. Landing gear/main gear doors, flaps, speed brake, and trim aid device
b. Landing gear/main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake and nose wheel steering
c. Landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and flight controls
d. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake, and lights

Back 209

1.B

Front 210

2. The hydraulic system and the return side of the power package reservoir are pressurized to which
levels respectively? (B/1/2)
a. 2000 ± 120 and 50 psi
b. 2000 ± 120 and 60 psi
c. 3000 ± 120 and 40 psi
d. 3000 ± 120 and 50 psi

Back 210

2.D

Front 211

3. When you select a cockpit control to lower the flaps, which element of the primary hydraulic system
is responsible for activating the corresponding actuator? (B/1/3)
a. Reservoir piston
b. Electrical selector valve
c. Main strut
d. Release valve

Back 211

3. B

Front 212

5. During the loss of engine power, the primary hydraulic system, or the battery bus, the emergency
package will allow a one-time extension of______. (B/2/1)
a. flaps, speed brake, and nose wheel steering
b. flaps, landing gear and speed brake
c. flaps, landing gear and main gear inboard doors
d. flaps, landing gear and main gear inboard doors, and speed brake

Back 212

5. C

Front 213

6. The emergency package’s manifold contains which of the following? (B/2/2)
a. 2 emergency extension selector valves
b. 2 metal bellows compressing helium gas
c. 2 actuators
d. 2000 psi emergency accumulator

Back 213

6. A

Front 214

7. What is the purpose of the pressure release valve in the emergency hydraulic system? (B/2/3)
a. To activate the actuators
b. To automatically release pressure should it reach 3500 psi
c. To prevent engine fires
d. To provide manual reduction in pressure in the emergency accumulator

Back 214

7.B

Front 215

8. When the EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminates, it means that emergency accumulator hydraulic
pressure is below ______ ± 150 psi. (B/2/4)
a. 1790
b. 1880
c. 2400
d. 3000

Back 215

8.C

Front 216

9. Which set of landing gear doors are operated hydraulically? (C/1/1)
a. The nose wheel doors
b. The main gear inboard and outboard doors
c. The main gear inboard doors
d. The main gear outboard doors

Back 216

9.C

Front 217

10. A red light illuminated in the landing gear selector handle indicates that the PCL is approaching
IDLE, with the gear handle up, or which of the following? (C/2/1)
a. The landing gear doors are up and locked.
b. The landing gear doors are not closed.
c. The landing gear circuit breaker needs to be reset.
d. The landing gear is malfunctioning.

Back 217

10.B

Front 218

11. Which of these gear position lights indicate that the gear is down and locked and the inboard main
gear doors are in transit? (C/2/2)

Back 218

11. B :
Green Green Green
Red Red
Red Handle

Front 219

12. Before extending the landing gear______. (C/2/3)
a. activate the aural warning silence button
b. reduce airspeed below 150 KIAS
c. ensure at least 2000 psi is available
d. reduce airspeed below 120 KIAS

Back 219

12.B

Front 220

13. What is the function of the emergency landing gear extension handle? (C/3/1)
a. It releases hydraulic pressure once it reaches 3500 psi
b. It activates the emergency system
c. It closes the slide valve assembly
d. It activates the accumulator piston

Back 220

13.B

Front 221

1. The engine-driven pump pressurizes the hydraulic system to which of the following?
a. 1790 ± 120 psi
b. 2000 ± 120 psi
c. 3000 ± 120 psi
d. 3600 ± 120 psi

Back 221

1.C

Front 222

2. The primary hydraulic system operates which of the following?
a. Landing gear, main gear doors, flaps, trim aid device
b. Landing gear, flaps, nose wheel steering, trim aid device and speed brake
c. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, flaps, nose wheel steering, and speed brake
d. Landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and wheel brakes

Back 222

2.C

Front 223

3. What is true about the power package reservoir?
a. It releases excess pressure at 1790 psi
b. It is pressurized using compressed nitrogen gas
c. It is pressurized using compressed helium gas
d. A piston helps to step-down pressure to protect the pump

Back 223

3.D

Front 224

4. The primary hydraulic system’s selector manifold contains which of the following?
a. Engine-driven pump
b. Electrical selector valves
c. Actuators
d. Reservoir piston

Back 224

4. B

Front 225

5. Two specific conditions in which the emergency hydraulic system is used are:
a. The pressure drops below 3000 psi, and you’re below 6000 feet
b. Loss of engine power or the primary hydraulic system fails
c. Loss of engine power and the airspeed is less than 120 knots
d. More than a 2-second drop in pressure, and altitude is less than 6000 feet

Back 225

5. B

Front 226

6. The emergency hydraulic system specifically operates which of the following?
a. Landing gear, flaps, and speed brake
b. Landing gear, main gear doors, speed brake, and flaps
c. Landing gear, main gear doors, nose gear doors, and flaps
d. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps

Back 226

6.D

Front 227

7. The emergency package receives its pressure from which of the following?
a. Directly from a nitrogen pre-charge in the reservoir
b. From the emergency accumulator
c. Directly from the reservoir piston
d. From the emergency selector valves

Back 227

7.B

Front 228

8. Before lowering the gear using either the primary or emergency systems, ensure the ______.
a. flaps are retracted
b. airspeed is below 120 KIAS
c. flap handle is in the LAND position and airspeed less than 120 KIAS
d. airspeed is below 150 KIAS

Back 228

8.D

Front 229

9. The amber EHYD PX LO annunciator light means which of the following?
a. Pressure in the emergency accumulator is below 2400 psi  150
b. Pressure in the reservoir is below 3000 ± 120 psi
c. Pressure in the emergency package is below 2870 psi
d. Pressure in the emergency package is below 1 Qt

Back 229

9.A

Front 230

10. The HYDR FL LO annunciator means which of the following?
a. Fluid level is below .5 Qt
b. Fluid level is below 1790 psi
c. Accumulator fluid level is below 1 Qt
d. Reservoir fluid level is below 1 Qt

Back 230

10.D

Front 231

11. When the power package slide valve closes, the hydraulic pump pressure is prevented from
energizing any hydraulic components except for the ______.
a. main landing gear actuator
b. nose wheel steering actuator
c. flap actuator
d. emergency selector manifold

Back 231

11.B

Front 232

1. What does using flaps in the landing setting allow you to do? (B/1/1)
a. Maintain approach glidepath while increasing airspeed
b. Decrease approach glidepath while maintaining airspeed
c. Decrease approach glidepath while increasing airspeed
d. Maintain approach glidepath while reducing airspeed

Back 232

1. D

Front 233

2. What happens if the primary hydraulic system fails? (B/1/2)
a. The flaps cannot be used until they are serviced on the ground.
b. The electrical FLAPS CONT circuit breaker must be reset.
c. The flaps can be operated using the emergency system package.
d. The emergency system provides a one-time lowering and retraction of the flaps.

Back 233

2. C

Front 234

3. Before operating the flaps using the emergency system, you must ______. (B/1/3)
a. check the flaps visually to find their position
b. increase your speed above 150 KIAS
c. check the annunciator panel for the BATTERY BUS indicator
d. lower the landing gear using the emergency system

Back 234

3. D

Front 235

4. Which of the following is a critical limitation of the speed brake? (B/2/1)
a. The speed brake will only extend if the flaps are extended.
b. The speed brake does not operate using the emergency hydraulic system.
c. The speed brake extends automatically if the PCL is moved to the MAX position.
d. The speed brake’s actuator is a part of the selector manifold

Back 235

4. B

Front 236

5. Where does the pressure come from that creates the mechanical force to extend the speed brake?
(B/2/2)
a. From the primary hydraulic system
b. From the emergency accumulator
c. From the turning of the torque tube
d. From the circuit breaker placarded SPEED BRAKE on the generator bus circuit breaker panel

Back 236

5. A

Front 237

6. Which of the following is an important difference between using the NWS or differential braking?
(B/3/1)
a. Differential braking results in a wider turn radius than NWS.
b. NWS is more sensitive than differential braking.
c. Differential braking should be avoided above 20 knots.
d. NWS provides a tighter turn radius than differential braking.

Back 237

6. B

Front 238

7. What happens to NWS if the primary hydraulic system fails? (B/3/2)
a. The NWS receives its hydraulic pressure from the emergency accumulator.
b. The pilot must manually deselect NWS.
c. NWS sensitivity will increase because of differential pressure.
d. The NWS system will be inoperative and use of rudder and/or differential braking on the ground
will be necessary.

Back 238

7. D

Front 239

8. Which is true regarding the wheel brake system? (B/4/1)
a. If the hydraulic system fails, the parking brake must be used.
b. The wheel brakes are not serviced by the emergency system, and will not be available if the
primary system fails.
c. The wheel brake system will continue to operate if the primary hydraulic system fails.
d. The wheel brake system shares the primary hydraulic system pressure lines

Back 239

8. C

Front 240

9. Which is the procedure for activating the parking brake? (B/4/2)
a. Pull and turn the handle 90° counterclockwise while pushing on the toe brakes.
b. Push and turn the handle 90° clockwise while pushing on the toe brakes.
c. Pull the handle while pushing on the toe brakes.
d. Pull and turn the handle 90° clockwise while pushing on the toe brakes.

Back 240

9. D

Front 241

1. Which is true regarding the nose wheel steering system?
a. NWS has only one actuator in the manifold.
b. The emergency system provides pressure to NWS through the alternate hydraulic lines.
c. The NWS is separate from the selector manifold.
d. NWS has two actuators in the manifold.

Back 241

1. C

Front 242

2. Which is true regarding the NWS and emergency systems?
a. The emergency system powers the NWS through the accumulator.
b. The NWS will not operate if the primary hydraulic system fails.
c. Differential braking will not work if the primary hydraulic system fails.
d. The emergency system powers the NWS through the selector control valve.

Back 242

2. B

Front 243

3. Which component specifically ensures the nose wheel is properly aligned before it is retracted or
extended?
a. Selector valve
b. Centering valve
c. Servo valve
d. Rotary actuator

Back 243

3. B

Front 244

4. Engaging NWS at high speeds can result in ______.
a. directional control problems due to increased sensitivity
b. damage to the nose wheel steering actuator
c. damage to the nose wheel steering centering valve
d. the speed brake automatically extending, slowing the aircraft down

Back 244

4. A

Front 245

5. What are the functions of the speed brake?
a. Reduce drag and reduce lift
b. Decelerate, and increase descent rate without increasing airspeed
c. Increase drag and accelerate
d. Increase true airspeed while reducing induced and parasite drag

Back 245

5. B

Front 246

6. Which is true regarding the speed brake?
a. It will not operate using the emergency system.
b. It extends only partially using the emergency system.
c. It extends but will not retract using the emergency system.
d. It will remain extended until the PCL is moved to IDLE.

Back 246

6. A

Front 247

7. Which of the following will NOT cause the speed brake to retract?
a. The PCL is moved to MAX.
b. The flaps are extended.
c. The speed brake switch is moved forward.
d. The gear is retracted.

Back 247

7. D

Front 248

8. If the flap indicator fails, how can flap extension be confirmed?
a. Observing a slight nose down tendency
b. Observing a slight nose up tendency
c. The pilot must visually confirm the flap position
d. By using the hydraulic pressure gauge

Back 248

8. B

Front 249

9. Which statement below is correct regarding flap operations?
a. Normal flap operation is available when the battery bus has failed.
b. The flap position indicator will function normally when the battery bus has failed.
c. Emergency flap operation IS NOT available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of
electrical power.
d. Emergency flap operation IS available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical
power.

Back 249

9. C

Front 250

10. Which is true regarding the parking brake?
a. The parking brake will not operate if the hydraulic system fails.
b. It is activated by first pulling and turning the handle 90° clockwise or counterclockwise.
c. The parking brake will operate partially using the emergency system.
d. The parking brake is applied by pushing on the toe brakes while simultaneously activating the
handle.

Back 250

10. D

Front 251

11. Before lowering the flaps, you should ensure your airspeed is less than which value?
a. 120 KIAS
b. 138 KIAS
c. 147 KIAS
d. 150 KIAS

Back 251

11. D

Front 252

12. Which component is responsible for sending pressure to the main wheel brakes?
a. Selector valve
b. Reservoir
c. Master cylinder
d. Solenoid valve

Back 252

12. C

Front 253

13. The ______ is (are) interconnected with the elevator trim tab actuator to automatically input pitch
trim to compensate for pitch effects as it is operated.
a. landing gear
b. flaps
c. rudder
d. speed brake

Back 253

13. D

Front 254

1. The ailerons control aircraft movement around which axis? (B/1/1)

Back 254

1. Longitudinal (roll)

Front 255

2. What are the aileron trailing edge traveling limits? (B/1/2)

Back 255

2.
a. 20º up
b. 11º down

Front 256

3. How are the ailerons mass balanced and what function does this perform? (B/1/3)

Back 256

3. Small weights are placed along the leading edge at the point where the ailerons pivot. These
weights ensure the center of gravity for each aileron is at the pivot point. This is necessary
because the mass of each aileron is rearward of the hinge line.

Front 257

4. What is the function of the bobweight? (B/1/4)

Back 257

4.
a. Provides heavier stick force when G-load is increasing
b. Helps prevent overstressing of aircraft frame

Front 258

5. What is the purpose of the elevator system? (B/1/5)

Back 258

5. It controls the pitch angle of the aircraft around the lateral (pitch) axis.

Front 259

6. If you move the control stick forward in flight, how will the aircraft react? (B/1/6)

Back 259

6. Elevator trailing edge deflects downward and aircraft nose pitches down

Front 260

7. What is the purpose of the rudder system? (B/1/7)

Back 260

7. It controls the aircraft’s yaw movement around the vertical (yaw) axis

Front 261

8. What happens when you step on the right rudder pedal? (B/1/8)

Back 261

8.
a. Moves tail left
b. Causes aircraft nose to yaw right

Front 262

9. How does the pilot adjust the rudder pedals to position them at a more convenient setting? (B/1/9)

Back 262

9. By rotating the pedal adjustment hand crank

Front 263

10. Which primary flight control surface actually moves as part of the trim system? (B/2/1)

Back 263

10. The ailerons

Front 264

20. The fluid level in the reservoir has dropped below one quart.

Back 264

11.
a. The elevator/aileron trim switch located at the top of each control stick
b. The rudder trim switch located on the PCL in each cockpit

Front 265

12. What is the function of the trim disconnect switch? (B/2/3)

Back 265

12. It removes power from the trim system and disengages the Trim Aid Device.

Front 266

13. What are the indications the trim disconnect switch has been selected? (B/2/4)

Back 266

13. The green TRIM OFF and TAD OFF annunciator lights will illuminate.

Front 267

14. How is electrical power provided to operate the aileron and elevator trim system? (B/2/5)

Back 267

14. Through a circuit breaker placarded AIL/EL TRIM located on the battery bus breaker panel
in the front cockpit

Front 268

15. What four factors does the TAD computer consider when calculating the rudder trim setting? (B/2/6)

Back 268

15. Pitch rate, airspeed, altitude and engine torque

Front 269

16. If the gust lock is installed properly, how will the control surfaces appear when they are visually
inspected? (B/2/7)

Back 269

16. The ailerons and rudder will be in a neutral position and the elevator will be in a nose-down
position.

Front 270

17. What aircraft components are operated by the primary hydraulic system? (C/1/1)

Back 270

17.
a. Landing gear and main gear inboard doors
b. Flaps
c. Speed brake
d. Nose wheel steering

Front 271

18. What component is the source of pressure for the primary hydraulic system? (C/1/2)

Back 271

18. The engine-driven pump

Front 272

19. What gauge color indicates hydraulic pressure is in the extended scale, but within safe operating
limits? (C/1/3)

Back 272

19. White

Front 273

20. When the HYDR FL LO annunciator light illuminates, what does it indicate? (C/1/4)

Back 273

20. The fluid level in the reservoir has dropped below one quart.

Front 274

21. What is the purpose of the emergency hydraulic system? (C/1/5)

Back 274

21. It provides a one-time lowering of the landing gear, main gear inboard doors and flaps

Front 275

22. What are the normal operating ranges for the hydraulic system pressure and fluid quantity? (C/1/6)

Back 275

22.
a. Pressure at 2880-3120 psi on the Engine/Systems/NACWS display
b. FULL AC (accumulator charged) or FULL AD (accumulator discharged) displayed on
the green indicating rod in the reservoir level window

Front 276

23. What is the maximum speed to operate the landing gear? (C/2/1)

Back 276

23. 150 KIAS

Front 277

24. When is the emergency landing gear extension system used? (C/2/2)

Back 277

24. Loss of either primary hydraulic system or battery bus power, or in the event of an engine
failure

Front 278

25. What is the normal sequence for the emergency extension of the landing gear? (C/2/3)

Back 278

25.
a. Lower the landing gear selector handle
b. Pull the emergency landing gear extension handle

Front 279

26. What is the maximum flap operating speed? (C/3/1)

Back 279

26. 150 KIAS

Front 280

27. Can the flaps be operated in the event the primary hydraulic system fails? (C/3/2)

Back 280

27. Yes, after the landing gear has been lowered using the emergency system.

Front 281

28. What is the purpose of the speed brake? (C/4/1)

Back 281

28. The speed brake allows you to decelerate. It also allows you to increase descent rate without
increasing your airspeed.

Front 282

29. Where is the SPEED BRAKE circuit breaker located? (C/4/2)

Back 282

29. On the front cockpit generator bus circuit breaker panel

Front 283

30. What can happen if NWS is engaged at high taxi speeds? (C/5/1)

Back 283

30. It can result in directional control problems due to increased sensitivity.

Front 284

31. Which has the larger turn radius, nose wheel steering or differential braking? (C/6/1)

Back 284

31. Nose wheel steering

Front 285

32. What are the indications of abnormal primary flight control operations? (D/1/1)

Back 285

32.
a. Uncommanded pitch, roll or yaw movements
b. sluggish response to control inputs

Front 286

33. What is the corrective action to take in the case of runaway trim? (D/1/2)

Back 286

33. Perform runaway trim checklist procedures

Front 287

34. If the EHYD PX LO illuminates, what aircraft devices should you consider inoperative? (D/2/1)

Back 287

34. Emergency landing gear and flap extension

Front 288

35. What are some indications of unsafe landing gear? (D/2/2)

Back 288

35.
a. Indicator lights
b. Lack of noticeable drag
c. Lack of noticeable noise
d. AOA indexer not active
e. Inability to turn on landing or taxi lights
f. Tendency to roll (main gear)

Front 289

36. What indicator lights would illuminate with the main landing gear full down, the nose gear still fully
retracted, and the PCL above IDLE? (D/2/3)

Back 289

36. Two green mains, two red mains, red gear handle light

Front 290

37. When lowering flaps using the emergency system, what two conditions might result? (D/2/4)

Back 290

37. The flaps might extend only partially and they can take longer to extend.

Front 291

38. What are the indications of wheel brake failure? (D/2/5)

Back 291

38.
a. Inability to maintain directional control
b. Inability to decelerate
c. “Spongy” or soft brake pedal
d. The aircraft pulls to one side

Front 292

1. The elevator controls the aircraft around which axis?

Back 292

1. The lateral (pitch) axis

Front 293

2. The ailerons move opposite each other to cause the aircraft to move about which axis?

Back 293

2. The longitudinal (roll) axis

Front 294

3. The rudder causes a yaw movement around the ______ axis

Back 294

3. vertical (yaw)

Front 295

4. A “ground-adjustable” trim tab is found on ______.

Back 295

4. the ailerons

Front 296

5. What are the factors used by the TAD computer to calculate proper rudder trim tab settings?

Back 296

5. Engine torque, altitude, airspeed and pitch rate

Front 297

6. Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until ______.

Back 297

6. the aircraft accelerates to 80 KIAS and there is no weight on the wheels

Front 298

7. The primary and emergency hydraulic systems are pressurized to what level?

Back 298

7. 3000 ± 120 psi

Front 299

8. What is the function of the hydraulic system engine-driven pump?

Back 299

8. It creates hydraulic pressure that is transferred to the primary system and to the emergency
accumulator.

Front 300

9. The emergency hydraulic system services which aircraft components?

Back 300

9. The landing gear, main gear inboard doors and flaps, for a one-time extension

Front 301

10. When extending the landing gear, which gear door ultimately closes as part of the extension
sequence?

Back 301

10. The main gear inboard doors

Front 302

11. What does the red light in the landing gear selector handle indicate when illuminated?

Back 302

11. The gear doors are not closed, or the PCL is approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP.

Front 303

12. What happens to nose wheel steering if the hydraulic system fails?

Back 303

12. NWS will not operate because it is serviced by the primary hydraulic system.

Front 304

13. What happens to the speed brake if the hydraulic system fails?

Back 304

13. The speed brake will not operate.

Front 305

14. The flaps should not be operated above what airspeed?

Back 305

14. 150 KIAS

Front 306

15. When completing a sharp turn, how should nose wheel steering be used?

Back 306

15. Nose wheel steering should be turned off prior to the turn since the NWS will try to limit the
nose wheel castor.

Front 307

16. What causes the EHYD PX LO annunciator light to illuminate?

Back 307

16. If the emergency accumulator pressure is less than 2400 psi (plus or minus 150 psi)

Front 308

17. Will you have use of the speed brake with the emergency hydraulic system?

Back 308

17. No, the emergency system services only the landing gear, the main gear inboard doors and
flaps.

Front 309

18. Can you expect to use the wheel brakes if operating with a failure of the primary hydraulic system?

Back 309

18. Yes, because the wheel brake system is separate from the primary and emergency hydraulic
systems.

Front 310

Where does the chip detector detect gear damage?

Back 310

reduction gearbox

Front 311

What does the fire warning system measure?

Back 311

Average and discrete temperatures. (Overheat and fire)

Front 312

How is Np measured

Back 312

By Phase shift torque probe

Front 313

how is the aileron mass balanced?

Back 313

Weights on the leading edge to make the center of gravity fall on the hinge line

Front 314

What does the EDM drive?

Back 314

PEDD
AEDD
Engine/Systems/NWCAWS
CWS

non-engine related:
fuel balancing
fuel quantity
NWS annunciator
DC volts,
DC amps
hydraulic pressure
NACWS
cockpit px alt
cockpit delta P

(everything except AOA)

Front 315

What does amber PMU status indicate?

Back 315

The PMU has accomodated a fault.

Front 316

What does the PMU do?

Back 316

Determines available power and provides a near-linear pwr response

Front 317

exhaust system does what?

Back 317

directs expanded gases to the atmosphere

Front 318

if you lose oil, what feathers the propeller?

Back 318

Oil pressure loss will result in feathering of the propeller due to a counter weight in a spring
mechanism in the nose cone

Front 319

if hydraulic fluid indicates within the green, what does it indicate?

Back 319

hydraulic system is fully serviced, and is fully charged or fully discharged

Front 320

When does the PMU fail light illuminate?

Back 320

When the PMU is off or faults prevent the PMU from setting the requested power or respecting engine limits, in which case the system will turn itself off and revert to manual mode.

Front 321

how do the flaps work?

Back 321

Flaps are actuated by hydraulic pressure and controlled by an electric selector valve

Front 322

where is the utility light located?

Back 322

Utility lights are located on the right console in each cockpit

Front 323

how are the FMU and the engine driven fuel pump connected?

Back 323

The engine driven fuel pump are upstream of the FMU

Front 324

how does fuel quantity get displayed to the pilot?

Back 324

fuel probes in fuel tanks send electric signal to the AEDD by way of the EMU for visual display to the pilot

Front 325

which trim tab is ground adjustable by maintenance personnel only?

Back 325

aileron

Front 326

will the fire warning system operate with kinks, twists, or bends?

Back 326

yes, the FWS has integrity!
flattening, twisting, kinking, or denting of the fire warning loop will not affect test or flight operatoin

Front 327

what is the purpose of flaps?

Back 327

flaps allow an aircraft to maintain a landing glidepath while decreasing airspeed

Front 328

HYDR FL LO

EHYD PX LO

Back 328

fluid in the primary hydraulic reservoir is below 1 qt

pressure in emmergency accumulator is below 2400 +- 150 psi

Front 329

If PEDD and ESND displays are blank, which bus has failed?

Back 329

gen

Front 330

what are the major components of the electrical system?

Back 330

Starter/Gen - 28V, 300A
Primary Bat 24 V, 42 A
Aux Bat 24 V, 5 A

Front 331

How is the PMU powered?

Back 331

By the dedicated Primary Magnet Alternator. AC current from the PMA is converted to DC for use by the PMU. If the PMA fails or Np is too low, the PMU is automatically powered by the primary battery.

Front 332

What component stops the fueling process?

Back 332

Level Control Pilot Valves located at the outboard tip of each wing.

Front 333

In what order does Single Point Refueling fill the tanks?

Back 333

simultaneously

Front 334

What indicates that all gear are down and locked?

Back 334

any combination of three green lights, AOA indexer, taxi and landing lights on

Front 335

What indicates asymmetric flaps?

Back 335

Uncommanded rolling motion

Front 336

What are three ways to steer the aircraft on the ground?

Back 336

NWS, differential braking, and rudder (with sufficient airflow)

Front 337

What are the components of the fire warning system?

Back 337

Sensor tube containing helium gas and a central element containing hydrogen.

Front 338

Does the cowling provide an additional 2% lift?

Back 338

NO. The cowling only serves to reduce drag and protect the engine. It does not provide any lift.

Front 339

What controls the Propeller Interface Unit (PIU)?

Back 339

The PMU provides commands to the PIU.

Front 340

If the fuel quantity guage is pointing to 3 on the left side, how much fuel is in the left wing tank?

Back 340

280 pounds (300 pounds - 20 from the collector tank)

Front 341

What is the PMA?

Back 341

Primary Magnet Alternator, affixed near the prop nose cone, provides dedicated power for the PMU.

Front 342

How is the battery bus powered?

Back 342

It is powered by the generator.

Front 343

What is displayed on the AEDD?

Back 343

Raw Inter-Turbine Temperature (RITT),
Torque, Gas generator speed (N1), Cockpit pressure altitude, Cockpit differential pressure (¥P),
Fuel flow, Fuel quantity
o Powered off the battery bus (ALT ENG DIS)

Front 344

What is displayed on the PEDD?

Back 344

Know the Primary Engine Data Display (PEDD) – Torque, Inter-Turbine Temperature (ITT), Gas
generator speed (N1), Propeller RPM (NP), Indicated Outside Temperature (IOAT)
o Powered off the generator bus (PRI ENG DIS)

Front 345

Where does the exhaust gas go after leaving the combustion chamber?

Back 345

Through the power turbines, out the exhaust ports then 180 deg to exit aftwards through the exhaust stacks.

Front 346

what is the size of the propeller?

Back 346

97 inches

Front 347

What voltage does the PMA provide

Back 347

32 VAC

Front 348

what temps and times are required for the PMU to abort a hot start

Back 348

940 for 2 s
870 for 4 s
840 for 19 s

Front 349

What will happen during an auto start or normal operation with ignition switch set to NORM?

Back 349

The PMU will energize and de-energize the igniters as required.