T-6 Mid-Phase French Style

Front 1

When an alternate is required and the pilot uses the ceiling and visibility weather criterion to determine the suitability of the original destination, total flight plan fuel

Back 1

A. need not include the fuel required for an approach and missed approach at the original destination

Front 2

Deviations from any flight rule are authorized only when:

Back 2

An inflight emergency requires immediate action. Deviation is necessary to protect lives. When safety of flight dictates.

Front 3

When computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fule flow for:

Back 3

Maximum endurance at 10,000 ft.

Front 4

On climbout after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach, you may not begin a turn to heading until past the departure end of the runway (if visible), at least 400 feet AGL, and at a safe airspeed unless:

Back 4

Safety dictates otherwise. Specifically cleared by the controlling agency or local procedures authorize it.

Front 5

Pilots operating retractable gear aircraft must report "gear down" before:

Back 5

Runway threshold.

Front 6

USAF aircraft must fly under IFR when:

Back 6

Operating in Class A airspace. Operating within a federal airway. Operating at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR.

Front 7

Aerobatcis is defined as intentionally performed spins, vertical recoveries, and other maneuvers that require pitch and bank angles greater than ______ degrees.

Back 7

90

Front 8

Emergency frequencies must be monitored at all times. T/F

Back 8

True.

Front 9

If a RAIM flag with status annunciation appears after the FAWP (final approach waypoint):

Back 9

Immediately climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to the MAWP and execute a missed appreach.

Front 10

If a RAIM failure occurs, or the receiver does not sequence from "Armed" to "Active," prior to the final approach waypoint (FAWP):

Back 10

Contact ATC for an alternate clearance.

Front 11

You notice your wingman moves his or her hand up and down in front of his or her face (palm toward his or her face). He or she is trying to tell you that:

Back 11

His or her transmitter is out.

Front 12

During a formatino sortie, lead taps his or her earphone, then holds up a clenched fist. This means:

Back 12

Go to prebriefed manual frequency.

Front 13

Maintain a taxi interval of ____ feet when staggered and ____ feet when in trail

Back 13

75, 150

Front 14

The formation signal for attention in the air is to:

Back 14

Execute rapid, shallow wing rock.

Front 15

If a solo student experiences an engine failure, the student may attempt a forced landing with the following restriction: minimum runway length _____ feet.

Back 15

4,000

Front 16

Maintain a taxi interval of _____ feet when staggered and _____ feet when in trail.

Back 16

75, 150

Front 17

Normal recovery fuel (the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate) is _____ pounds:

Back 17

200

Front 18

Minimum runway length for normal T-6 operations is _____ feet.

Back 18

4000

Front 19

Emergency airfield minimum runway length for a T-6 is _____ feet (rated aviator).

Back 19

Not specified.

Front 20

Perform all parts of aerobatics, unusual attitudes, abnormal recoveries, practice lost wingman, extended trail, stalls, and slow flight above _____ feet AGL.

Back 20

6000

Front 21

The minimum altitude to begin a spin entry is _____.

Back 21

13,500

Front 22

Report ECKHO with RAPCON no earlier than ____, with no response change frequencies by

Back 22

5miles, 1mile

Front 23

For interval takeoffs, the ceiling and visibility must be greater than or equal to _____ feet and _____ miles, respectively.

Back 23

1500, 3

Front 24

The maximum crosswind for formation wing takeoffs and landings is _____ knots.

Back 24

15

Front 25

Operations Group Commander approval is required to fly formation at nigh

Back 25

True.

Front 26

When leading fingertip formation, limit maneuvering to 120 knots minimum airspeed, approximately 90 degrees of bank, and 2 to 4 G's. T/F

Back 26

FALSE

Front 27

Low levels may be flow solo. T/F

Back 27

FALSE

Front 28

At Dogface, do not initiate the descent from low key until preceding aircraft is inside to a 1/4 mile final

Back 28

True.

Front 29

It is acceptable to break out after passing low key if you are still above 2000' MSL.

Back 29

False.

Front 30

Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (actual or forecast) in training or operating areas exceed _____ knots

Back 30

35

Front 31

If told "center, extend" from Runway 17C and clearance is delayed climb to 1800' MSL and turn east _____, then maintain 1800' until clear of the inside runway's departure track and ________.

Back 31

when south of Wauomis, breakout

Front 32

Aircrews should use TO or UP flap settings for full-stop and touch-and-go landings when the crosswind (steady state or gust) exceeds _____ knots.

Back 32

10

Front 33

When directed "in the break, roll out":

Back 33

Roll out and re-intercept the initial ground track

Front 34

With operations group commander approval, aircrews may conduct operations at non-towered, public-use airfields, with which of the following restrictions

Back 34

day and single ship only

Front 35

During non-towered airfield operations no more than _____ aircraft (total) military and/or civilian, may be in the pattern at any time.

Back 35

2

Front 36

Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (actual or forecast) in training or operating areas exceed _____ knots.

Back 36

35

Front 37

When spinning over clouds, plan to complete all spin training (to include dive recoveries) at least _____ feet above the clouds

Back 37

3000

Front 38

The minimum runway width for normal T-6 operations is _____ ft.

Back 38

75

Front 39

When on an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan under radar control in a designated ATC military operating area, weather requirements for aerobatics, confidence maneuvers, and extended trail is clear of clouds with __ nm of in-flight visibility.

Back 39

3

Front 40

Taxi spacing will be a minimum of _____ feet and on the taxiway centerline at night.

Back 40

300

Front 41

Acknowledge "break departure end":

Back 41

with callsighn

Front 42

While flying practice instruments approaches in VMC, if the pilot acknowledges reaching PWC minimums and states intentions to crewmembers, he may continue to published minimums. T/F

Back 42

T

Front 43

Planned formation low approaches will _____.

Back 43

Be initiated no lower than 100 ft. AGL

Front 44

To avoid entering IMC during OCF recovery training, a minimum of _____ feet of airspace, clear of clouds must exist below entry altitude.

Back 44

7000

Front 45

The minimum altitude for VFR, non-local, point to point navigation, dictated by operational or training requirements, is _____ feet AGL.

Back 45

3000

Front 46

After commencing a penetration or approach, if weather is reported below the required PWC or published minimums (ceiling or visibility), the pilot _________________.

Back 46

may continue the approach to the PWC or published minimums, whichever is higher.

Front 47

The maximum airspeed for any operation at a non-towered airfield is _____ KIAS.

Back 47

150

Front 48

As a guide for instrument turns of 30 degrees or less, the bank angle should approximate _____. For turns of more than 30 degrees, use a bank angle of _____.

Back 48

The number of degrees to be turned. 30 degrees

Front 49

The glide slope signal is usable to a distance of _____ NM from the glide slope antenna unless otherwise depicted on the IAP.

Back 49

10

Front 50

Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions. In general, the only time a wind correction should not be applied is during radar vector. T/F

Back 50

TRUE

Front 51

When proceeding to a station, turning to keep the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line describes:

Back 51

Homing

Front 52

When the name of the approach does not designate a runway and only has a letter such as A, B, C, etc., the approach is designed for circling minimums only. T/F

Back 52

TRUE

Front 53

On multi-facility approaches, the depicted VDP will be for the _____ published.

Back 53

Nonprecision approach with the lowest MDA.

Front 54

ATC should issue holding instructions at least _____ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Within _____ minutes of reaching the fix and clearance beyond the fix has not been received, reduce to holding airspeed.

Back 54

5, 3

Front 55

During an en route descent the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are below a publised altitude restriction. You should:

Back 55

Maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach.

Front 56

When flying an approach with dead reckoning (DR) legs:

Back 56

Use lead points for turns to and from the DR legs. You should fly the depicted ground track. You should apply wind corrections.

Front 57

The localizer has a usable range of at least _____ miles within 10 degrees of the course centerline.

Back 57

18

Front 58

If you are more than one dot below or two dots above glide slope on an ILS, you:

Back 58

Should not descend below localizer minimums. May continue descent to decision height if the glide slope is recaptured.

Front 59

When an ASR approach will end in a circle, furnish the controller with:

Back 59

Your aircraft category.

Front 60

While at an outbase, you notice yellow chevrons in the overrun. This indicates that:

Back 60

The overrun is unusable for taxi, takeoff, or landing

Front 61

The circling MDA and weather minima to be used are for the runway:

Back 61

To which the instrument approach is being flown.

Front 62

The missed approach point for any precision approach is _____.

Back 62

The point at which decision height is reached.

Front 63

In a low altitude approach, a maximum _____ descent is normally planned.

Back 63

400 feet per nautical mile

Front 64

If a SID cannot be retrieved from the database, then you may not use RNAV (GPS) procedures to fly the SID prior to the SID termination point. T/F

Back 64

TRUE

Front 65

When using GPS and a GPS approach is loaded, terminal integrity performance is _____nm; approach integrity performance is plus or minums _____nm.

Back 65

1, .3

Front 66

Bingo fuel and at least one joker is briefed on every _____.

Back 66

Mission

Front 67

A slip is caused by _____________ bank anble in relation to the turn rate of the aircraft.

Back 67

Too much

Front 68

A low-level route abort altitude should be computed to provide _____ ft (_____ft in mountainous terrain) clearance from the highest obstacle within _____ nm of the planned course.

Back 68

1000, 2,000, 10

Front 69

Normal climb speed for the T-6A is _____ KIAS.

Back 69

140-180

Front 70

Attain a minimum of 140 KIAS and 400ft AGL (or per local directives) before the first turn after takeoff. T/F

Back 70

TRUE

Front 71

Initiate recovery from a power-on stall when:

Back 71

Control effectiveness is lost

Front 72

Practice slow flight using the Flaps UP configuration and _____ knots.

Back 72

90-95

Front 73

The AGSM is a continuous strain while simultaneously breathing ever 2 to 3 seconds. T/F

Back 73

TRUE

Front 74

For energy management, the optimum energy level for aerobatics is _____ KIAS at an altitude midway between the top and bottom area limits.

Back 74

180-200

Front 75

Proper spacing for a 30-degree bank final turn (Flaps TO), in calm winds, is approximately when the landing runway is placed half way between the __________ and the __________.

Back 75

Fuel filler cap, wingtip

Front 76

In formation, you notice your wingman holds his or her hand at the top of the canopy, palm down, fingers extended and joined. He or she moves his or her hand forward and down. He or she is trying to tell you:

Back 76

Descend to lower altitude

Front 77

__________ are the top priorities of Number 1 in formation.

Back 77

Clearing, planning, and monitoring Number 2

Front 78

A visor must be worn during all phases of flight (including at night).

Back 78

TRUE

Front 79

__________ are the top priorities of Number 2 in formation.

Back 79

Maintaining flight path deconflictino and proper position as directed by #1

Front 80

During an instrument trail departure, until join up or level off, each aircraft or element will call:

Back 80

When passing even thousands of feet and when initiating heading changes.

Front 81

The HEFOE signal for when five fingers are extended vertically indicates a(n):

Back 81

engine malfunction

Front 82

Fighting Wing is a fluid position defined by a _____ degree cone _____ feet aft of lead.

Back 82

30 to 45 500 to 1000

Front 83

Normal holding airspeed in the T-6 is ____ kias.

Back 83

150

Front 84

Because the circling approach is generally flown at a lower altitude than the overhead pattern proper displacement will appear to be much wider than normal. A good visual reference for proper downwind spacing at 500 feet AGL is:

Back 84

The wing tip on the landing runway.

Front 85

Add _____ ft to charted take off distance for formation wing take offs, assuming lead is using no less than ___ % torque.

Back 85

1000, 85

Front 86

Although there is no time limit for operation at maximum continuous power, sustained operation at maximum power may significantly reduce engine service life. T/F

Back 86

True.

Front 87

Maximum _____ speed is the maximum speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length.

Back 87

Abort

Front 88

The engine has been flat-rated to produce _____ shaft horsepower.

Back 88

1100

Front 89

Engine power output is measured by the __________

Back 89

torque produced in the reduction gearbox.

Front 90

The engine oil system is designed with two oil pick-up elements to permit __________.

Back 90

Inverted-flight

Front 91

Placing the starter switch in the AUTO/RESET position automatically:

Back 91

Engages the starter. Energizes the spark ignition system.

Front 93

During an auto start or normal operation with the ignition switch set to _____, the PMU will energize and deenergize the igniters as required.

Back 93

NORM

Front 94

With two aircraft on crosswind, which aircraft has the priority?

Back 94

the a/c on the inside of the pattern

Front 95

When the ignition control toggle switch is set to ON, or when the igniters are activated in AUTO mode, a green IGN SEL annunciator is illuminated. T/F

Back 95

TRUE

Front 96

Power for the starter control (START) is provided through the _____ bus.

Back 96

Battery

Front 97

Power for the ignition system (IGN) is provided through the __________ bus.

Back 97

Battery

Front 98

The reduction gearbox (RGB) is driven by the power turbine, which is driven by hot gases from the gas generator section. There is no mechanical connection between the gas generator section and the RGB. T/F

Back 98

TRUE

Front 99

The _____ and the _____ automatically control the propeller blade angle (pitch) and propeller speed (Np).

Back 99

PMU, PIU

Front 100

With the PMU not functioning, Np may peak above 100% during power changes and then return to the governed range. T/F

Back 100

TRUE

Front 101

Placing the _____ in the _____ position triggers a microswitch, which activates the feather dump solenoid valve.

Back 101

PCL, OFF

Front 102

The _____ is a computer unit which monitors engine operating parameters and illuminates annunciators and engine systems displays.

Back 102

Engine data manager (EDM)

Front 103

The PMU provides two operating modes, ground and flight, which are controlled by the __________.

Back 103

Weight-on-wheels switch on the main landing gear struts.

Front 104

In the ground mode, the engine idle N1 is _____% and in the flight mode, idle is nominally _____%.

Back 104

60, 67

Front 105

An amber PMU STATUS light one minute after touchdown indicates:

Back 105

PMU accommodated an in-flight fault.

Front 106

An Amber PMU STATUS light in flight indicates:

Back 106

Weight-on-wheels switch fault and/or mis-match between the weight-on-wheels switches.

Front 107

Should the PMU STATUS or PMU FAIL lights illuminate, the system may be reset by cycling the PMU switch to OFF and back to NORM. T/F

Back 107

TRUE

Front 108

When the PMU shifts from auto mode to OFF, both the PMU STATUS and PMU FAIL annunciators will illuminate. T/F

Back 108

TRUE

Front 109

The autostart feature will automatically terminate the ground start sequence upon detection of a malfunction such as a hung or hot start. T/F

Back 109

TRUE

Front 110

The PMU is normally powered by _____.

Back 110

Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA).

Front 111

During an automatic engine start, the PMU:

Back 111

Activates the starter. Activates the boost pump. Activates the igniters. Adds fuel at the proper N1.

Front 112

During a normal (auto) start, the PMU can stop fuel flow and deactivate the igniters/starter to abort the start:

Back 112

Any time provided the PCL is not past the start ready position.

Front 113

After the PCL has been advanced past the start ready position, the PMU will not cut off fuel to terminate a start. T/F

Back 113

TRUE

Front 114

The start may be manually aborted by:

Back 114

Placing the PCL back to OFF. Reselecting the STARTER switch to AUTO/RESET (if PCL is not past idle gate)

Front 115

If a start attempt is aborted after fuel has been introduced:

Back 115

Manually motor the engine for 20 seconds to clear residal fuel.

Front 116

Flattening, twisting, kinking or denting of the fire detection loop will affect test or flight operation. T/F

Back 116

FALSE

Front 117

During inverted flight, the inverted flight fuel pickup provides _____ fuel supply, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system.

Back 117

A minimum of 15 seconds.

Front 118

The fuel auto balance system (provided by the EDM) detects fuel imbalances:

Back 118

As displayed on the fuel gauge.

Front 119

If the fuel imbalance exceeds 30 pounds for more than 2 minutes:

Back 119

The amber FUEL BAL annunciator illuminates. Pilot action is required.

Front 120

Selecting the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to L will:

Back 120

Stop motive flow fuel from feeding from the left tank.

Front 121

When correcting a fuel imbalance, set the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to whichever wing tank is "lighter." T/F

Back 121

TRUE

Front 122

If a fuel probe fails, _____ will continue to provide an accurate indication of minimum fuel level.

Back 122

The low fuel warning lights.

Front 123

Approximately _____ pounds of additional fuel is available when over-the-wing refueling is used.

Back 123

100

Front 124

The generator provides 28 volts DC, which is sufficient to power:

Back 124

All equipment on the generator bus. The battery bus equipment. Charge the battery.

Front 125

If the generator control switch (GEN) has been set in either cockpit, and the occupant of the other cockpit selects ON:

Back 125

It trips the GEN switch in the other cockpit to OFF. Generator function is controlled by the switch set to ON.

Front 126

If there is a generator malfunction in flight:

Back 126

A red GEN light illuminates; reset using the GEN RESET button.

Front 127

In an emergency situation, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments, UHF radio, standby instrument lighting and FIRE 1 fire detection system for approximately:

Back 127

30 minutes

Front 128

A chip detector is mounted in the _____ to detect metal contamination in the oil system.

Back 128

Reduction gear box.

Front 129

The hydraulic system provides _____ psi with a total system capacity of _____ gallons.

Back 129

3000, 1.25

Front 130

During normal operation, the hydraulic system operates the:

Back 130

Landing gear, flaps, speed brake, nosewheel steering main inboard doors.

Front 131

If main hydraulic pressure drops below _____ psi, the hydraulic pressure display will change color to indicate a caution ( _____ ).

Back 131

1800, amber

Front 132

A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately _____ seconds.

Back 132

6

Front 133

Normal cockpit indications when the emergency extension system is used are:

Back 133

Three green gear lights. Red main gear lights, red light in the gear handle.

Front 134

The wheel brake system _____ affected by a failure of the aircraft hydraulic system.

Back 134

is not

Front 135

Flap position is controlled by a three-position flap selector marked:

Back 135

UP, TO, LDG

Front 136

Normal flap operation and indication are unavailable anytime:

Back 136

The battery bus has failed or when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power.

Front 137

Emergency flap extension is enabled:

Back 137

After the gear have been lowered using emergency landing gear extention.

Front 138

During flap deployment or retraction, the flap position pointer moves:

Back 138

To an intermediate position between the marked settings to indicate flap motion.

Front 139

The speed brake _____ be stopped at an intermediate position.

Back 139

may not

Front 140

Once extended, the speed brake remains extended until:

Back 140

Either speed brake switch is moved forward to retract. The flaps are extended. The PCL is moved to MAX.

Front 141

The trim system control circuits give _____ priority if trim selection conflicts between cockpits.

Back 141

The rear cockpit.

Front 142

Actuating the TRIM DISCONNECT switch will:

Back 142

Remove power from the trim system.

Back 143

Illuminate green TRIM OFF and TAD annunciators.

Back 144

Cause the trim aid device (TAD) to disengage.

Front 145

The aileron trim actuator moves:

Back 145

The entire aileron.

Front 146

A bobweight is installed on the front control stick which _____ stick forces as G-load on the aircraft increases, to improve control feel and help prevent overstressing the airframe.

Back 146

Increases

Front 147

The pitch trim, actuator moves:

Back 147

The pitch trim tab on the right side of the elevator.

Front 148

The rudder trim actuator moves:

Back 148

The rudder tab on the rudder.

Front 149

The _____ senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position.

Back 149

Trim aid device (TAD).

Front 150

Actuating the _____ will cause the TAD to disengage.

Back 150

Trim interrupt button on the stick.

Back 151

TRIM DISCONNECT switch.

Front 152

The _____ sets takeoff trim in the yaw axis when the trim aid system is switched on after engine start.

Back 152

Cycling the TRIM AID switch to OFF, then ON

Front 153

Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until:

Back 153

The aircraft accelerates to at least 80 KIAS. There is no weight on the wheels.

Front 154

The trim aid system will not completely trim the aircraft in yaw. T/F

Back 154

TRUE

Front 155

The _____ pitot system probe near the _____ wing tip provides ram air pressures for the air data computer.

Back 155

Primary, right

Front 156

The standby instruments operate from the _____ during a main battery bus failure.

Back 156

Auxiliary battery

Front 157

In the event of a main battery/electrical failure which has required the use of the aux battery, the standby attitude indicator off flag will remain out of sight until the aux battery fails. T/F

Back 157

TRUE

Front 158

The AOA gauge is marked with a white diamond at 8.8 units, which indicates:

Back 158

Maximum endurace AOA

Front 159

The AOA gauge is marked with a white triangle at 4.9 units, which indicates:

Back 159

Maximum range AOA

Front 160

Engine bleed air is utilized for:

Back 160

Environmental control system (ECS), OBOGS, anti-G system, canopy seal.

Front 161

To dump cockpit pressure, select _____ on the pressurization control switch.

Back 161

DUMP or RAM DUMP

Front 162

With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to limit Np below _____, while the electronic governor will maintain Np at 100%.

Back 162

106%

Front 163

With the PMU off (manual mode) the pilot must exercise care to ensure N1, temperature, and torque limits are not exceeded. T/F

Back 163

TRUE

Front 164

If the main system hydraulic pressure drops below 1800 psi indicated, then:

Back 164

The hydraulic pressure display will change color to amber.

Front 165

Anti-ice heat is provided to both the pitot tubes and the static ports. T/F

Back 165

FALSE

Front 166

The air data computer provides air data corrected for temperature, position, or instrument error.

Back 166

FALSE

Front 167

AOA information is valid for all combinations of weight, configuration, and steady state bank angles. T/F

Back 167

TRUE

Front 168

The AOA heat is controlled through a switch labeled:

Back 168

Pbrobes Anti Ice

Front 169

Operation of the Manual Override (MOR) Handle will fire a cartridge to operate:

Back 169

Upper and lower harness locks. Upper and lower bridle locks. The headbox deployment unit.

Front 170

The GPS can store up to _____ flight plans with up to _____ waypoints on each flight plan.

Back 170

25, 30

Front 171

What is the liability of an accessory?

Back 171

Liable for separate, less serious crime of being an accessory after the fact.

Front 172

When the OBOGS is turned on a BIT is initiated and the system enters a system warm-up period which lasts approximately _____ minutes, during which the OBOGS fail annunciator is inhibited.

Back 172

3

Front 173

The flaps will not extend during a Bettery Bus failure.

Back 173

TRUE

Front 174

If the hydraulic reservoir fluid level indicator shows in the area labeled FULL AC or FULL AD:

Back 174

The system is fully serviced.

Front 175

When flying solo, the ISS mode selector shall be set to:

Back 175

SOLO

Front 176

During the anti-suffocation valve check, if the valve is functioning properly, it will be _____ to breathe through the valve when you inhale deeply.

Back 176

Possible

Front 177

When checking the fire detection system, both fire test positions must check good in both cockpits (if occupied). T/F

Back 177

TRUE

Front 178

Ensure minimum adequate canopy/helmet clearance by:

Back 178

Placing closed fist on top of helmet when adjusting seat height.

Front 179

Before engine start, if PMU FAIL or PMU STATUS annunciators are illuminated:

Back 179

Set PMU switch to OFF, then NORM.

Front 180

With the PMU STATUS annunciator illuminated, the PMU auto abort function may be unavailable. T/F

Back 180

TRUE

Front 181

To preclude unnecessary wear to nose whell steering and tire, _____ nose wheel steering prior to executing sharp turns with differential braking.

Back 181

Disengage

Front 182

Any fault discovered during the _____ check is reason for a ground abort.

Back 182

Overspeed governor

Front 183

If climbout obstacles are a factor, rotate to _____ nose high on takeoff and accelerate to best rate of climb speed of ______ KIAS using normal procedures.

Back 183

15 degrees, 140

Front 184

Performing a normal takeoff, the gear may be raised:

Back 184

Once a positive rate of climb is established

Front 185

If Delta P readings other than _____ are encountered at or above 18,069, notify maintenance.

Back 185

3.6 +/- 0.2

Front 186

Before stalling, spinning and aerobatics, verify caution and warning annunciators are extinguished and fuel imbalance is less than _____ pounds.

Back 186

50

Front 187

The recommended missed approach attitude is _____ nose high.

Back 187

10 - 15 degrees

Front 188

Selection of MAX power automatically retracts the speed brake. T/F

Back 188

TRUE

Front 189

Setting flaps to TO or LDG automatically retracts the speed brake. T/F

Back 189

TRUE

Front 190

When landing with a crosswind:

Back 190

Maintain wing low attitude and rudder input through the flare.

Front 191

After landing with maximum effort braking and if overheated brakes are suspected:

Back 191

Do not taxi into a congested area. Do not set the parking brake.

Front 192

Failure to deactivate both OBOGS regulators will result in:

Back 192

A drain on the battery even with all other electrical switches off. Discharging the aircraft battery

Front 193

During the Before Exterior Inspection you will ensure the metal loop in the ejection handle is not frayed or broken. T/F

Back 193

TRUE

Front 194

Hold the auxiliary battery test switch forward and hold for a minimum of _____ seconds, then release.

Back 194

5

Front 195

The recommended holding speed is _____ KIAS in clean configuration or AOA gage reading no less than the maximum endurance AOA mark.

Back 195

120 - 150

Front 196

N2 will automatically reduce from flight idle (____) to ground idle (60%), approximately _____ seconds after touchdown.

Back 196

67%, 4

Front 197

If possible, move the aircraft to a hanger when winds above _____ knots are expected.

Back 197

80

Front 198

In the auto start mode, if a hot start, hung start, or no start is detected, the PMU should terminate the start sequence. The pilot must then perform a _______ second motoring run.

Back 198

20

Front 199

If the following situations occur, execute the emergency engine shutdown boldface:

Back 199

Engine fire, prop strike, departing a prepared surface, chip light.

Front 200

With the ISS selector set to BOTH, both seats will eject, even if one is safely pinned. T/F

Back 200

TRUE

Front 201

Do not delay ejection while attempting airstart at low altitude below _____ ft. AGL

Back 201

2000

Front 202

If an airstart is succesful, useful power will be available after _____ seconds from starter engagement.

Back 202

40

Front 203

If the battery fails, OBOGS will be inoperative. Emergency oxygen is recommended above 10,000 ft. MSL. T/F

Back 203

TRUE

Front 204

If the generator and main battery fail, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments (and their lighting), and UHF tuning for approximately:

Back 204

30 minutes.

Front 205

What will activate the FUEL BAL annunciator:

Back 205

A fault in the autobalance system. Greater than a 30 pound difference between wing tanks for more than 2 min.

Front 206

Illumination of the L FUEL LO annunciator indicates that approximately _____ pounds of usable fuel remain in the left wing tank.

Back 206

110

Front 207

During a controllability check, in no case should the aircraft be slowed below _____ KIAS or to activation of the stick shaker, whichever is _____.

Back 207

90, higher

Front 208

During a trim system malfunction, if the rudder trim circuit breaker is pulled automatic TAD correction inputs for power and configuration changes will be unavailable. T/F

Back 208

TRUE

Front 209

With the bleed air inflow switch set to the OFF position, the following system(s) will still be operational:

Back 209

OBOGS

Front 210

With a sudden or rapid decompression at altitudes near 20,000 feet MSL, there may be a transient OBOGS FAIL indication. T/F

Back 210

TRUE

Front 211

Recommended minimum altitudes for ejection are _____ ft. AGL for controlled ejection, and _____ ft. AGL for uncontrolled ejection.

Back 211

2,000, 6,000

Front 212

The CKPT ALT annunciator light illuminates whenever the cockpit pressure altitude exceeds _____ ft.

Back 212

19,000

Front 213

Approximately _____ ft. of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at the best glide speed of 125 KIAS.

Back 213

1,200

Front 214

You should attempt to manually balance a fuel load when the alternate engine data display is indicating FP FAIL. T/F

Back 214

FALSE

Front 215

Which system(s) should not be considered inoperative when the HYDR FL LO annunciator is illuminated?

Back 215

Wheel brakes

Front 216

Cabin pressurization will bleed out through the _____ when the inflow switch is set to OFF.

Back 216

Cabin pressurization outflow valve.

Front 217

With the Battery Bus inoperative, plan to extend the landing gear using the emergency extension system. T/F

Back 217

TRUE

Front 218

The extra drag during an airstart attempt will cause a greater descent rate than 1350-1500 fpm. T/F

Back 218

TRUE

Front 219

Transit on an unprepared surface may make the CFS system inoperative and/or make the canopy difficult or impossible to open. T/F

Back 219

True.

Front 220

The aircraft shall be flown solo from the front cockpit only. T/F

Back 220

TRUE

Front 221

Maximum ITT during takeoff/MAX is _____ deg C.

Back 221

820

Front 222

Maximum oil pressure during start is _____ psi.

Back 222

200

Front 223

Sustained propeller operation on the ground between _____ and _____ % Np is prohibited to prevent damage from ground resonance.

Back 223

62-80%

Front 224

Do not attempt a battery powered ground start if the battery voltage is below _____ volts.

Back 224

23.5

Front 225

For a clean aircraft, asymmetric (rolling G's) acceleration limits are:

Back 225

+4.7, -1.0

Front 226

The maximum permissible crosswind for a wet runway is _____ knots.

Back 226

10

Front 227

Taxi over arresting cables at _____. Steer to avoid nose and main gear contact with cable support donuts.

Back 227

As slow a speed as possible.

Front 228

The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed _____ knots.

Back 228

40

Front 229

Ejection seats may be operated with the canopy open without injuring the user. T/F

Back 229

False.

Front 230

Normal oil pressure during steady state conditions is _____ PSI.

Back 230

90 - 120

Front 231

Inverted flight time is ____ seconds.

Back 231

15

Front 232

Symmetric G limit (clean) are _____ G's

Back 232

+7.0 to -3.5

Front 233

Maximum ITT for starting is _____ degrees C.

Back 233

1000

Front 234

Maximum tailwind component for take off is _____ knots.

Back 234

10

Front 235

In general, OCF can be divided into three categories:

Back 235

Post-stall gyration, incipient spin, steady-state spin.

Front 236

Takeoffs with FLAPS LDG is not recommended with greater than 10 knots crosswind component. T/F

Back 236

TRUE

Front 237

The T-6 is permitted to transit through a _____ foot band of _____ icing.

Back 237

5000, light rime

Front 238

Taxiing over lowered net barriers (BAK 15) should be avoided if at all possible. T/F

Back 238

TRUE

Front 239

Best glide speed in clean configuration is approximately _____ KIAS with a sink rate of _____ fpm.

Back 239

125, 1350

Front 240

The artificial stall warning margin varies from _____ to _____ knots prior to the stall during power-off, unaccelerated conditions.

Back 240

5, 10

Front 241

With power-off, lateral roll during a wings level stall is typically to the _____, and occurs near full _____ stick.

Back 241

Right, aft.

Front 242

While landing gear position has little effect on the stall, extending the _____ aggravates the roll-off tendency at stall.

Back 242

Flaps

Front 243

A(n) _____ is characterized by oscillations in pitch, roll, and yaw attitudes and rates.

Back 243

Incipient spin

Front 244

The incipient spin phase of the T-6A lasts approximately _____ turns.

Back 244

Two

Front 245

A spiral is a rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady state in that airspeed is _____ and motions are oscillatory.

Back 245

Increasing

Front 246

After completing approximately _____ turns, a spin will have entered a near steady state condition.

Back 246

Three

Front 247

In a steady-state spin, rotation rates will stabilize between _____ to _____ seconds with altitude loss of _____ to _____ feet per min.

Back 247

2 to 3, 400 to 500

Front 248

Ailerons have a pronounced effect on spin characteristics. T/F

Back 248

TRUE

Front 249

An aggravated spin is caused by maintaining _____-spin rudder while moving the control stick _____ of the neutral position.

Back 249

Pro, forward

Front 250

During a spin, oil pressure may decrease below _____ psi with idle power.

Back 250

40

Front 251

Spins below _____ ft. MSL are prohibited, due to high stresses on the propeller.

Back 251

10,000

Front 252

Intentional inverted departures and spins are prohibited. T/F

Back 252

TRUE

Front 253

Intentional spins in other than cruise configuration at idle power are prohibited. T/F

Back 253

TRUE

Front 254

The aircraft will recover from erect spins with controls free and the PCL at IDLE; however, the number of additional turns required for spin rotation to cease after releasing the controls may increase significantly. T/F

Back 254

TRUE

Front 255

Controls-neutral spin recoveries have been demonstrated and generally, spin rotation will cease within _____ additional turns after neutralizing controls in each axis.

Back 255

2

Front 256

Altitude loss during dive recovery is determined by four independent factors:

Back 256

Angle of dive, altitude at start of pullout, airspeed at start of pullout, and acceleration maintained during pullout.

Front 257

Above _____ % torque, full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left rol at stall.

Back 257

60

Front 258

Sustained aggravated spins are characterized by spins in excess of _____ turns and have the potential to exceed engine operating limits.

Back 258

2

Front 259

When executing a windshear-precautions takeoff, use takeoff flaps, but delay rotation to Vrot plus up to _____ knots.

Back 259

10

Front 260

If windshear is encountered during an approach for landing, execute _____.

Back 260

A go around/waveoff.

Front 261

The potential for lightning strikes increases near the _____.

Back 261

Freezing level.

Front 262

During takeoff in hot weather, the aircraft will accelerate _____ than normal and ground run will be _____ because the air is less dense.

Back 262

Slower, longer

Front 263

If windshear is encountered during an approach for landing, execute a go around/waveoff. T/F

Back 263

TRUE

Front 264

A PIC may deviate from a flight rule when:

Back 264

An in-flight emergency requires immediate action. Safety of flight dictates. Deviation is required to protect lives.

Front 265

PICs will ensure that current copies of _____ are on board the aircraft.

Back 265

FLIP en route supplement and enrout charts. Flight Information Handbook. Appropriate arrival, approach, and departure procedures.

Front 266

For stopover flights, the PIC will:

Back 266

Ensure the entire flight is planned to its final destination in the greatest detail possible for the first leg of the flight. Obtain the latest weather and NOTAM information available for the intended route, destination and alternate before departing each intermediate stop.

Front 267

When operating in FAA airspace, pilots will declare minimum/emergency fuel to the controlling agency when, in their judgment the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the required/emergency fuel reserve. T/F

Back 267

TRUE

Front 268

During night flight, each crewmember must have an operable flashlight. T/F

Back 268

Ture

Front 269

If departing from a ninmilitary installation, pilots will file a flight plan with:

Back 269

FSS or ATC facility.

Front 270

The PIC's signature on the flight plan is evidence of approval and means all of the following except:

Back 270

The aircraft has been inspected and is deemed suitable for flight.

Front 271

The PIC will ensure compliance with ATC clearances or instructions unless:

Back 271

An amended clearance is obtained. An emergency exists. Deviation is required in reponse to a TCAS resolution advisory (RA). Deviation is necessary to ensure safety of flight.

Front 272

Unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstrations, maneuvers or "fly-bys" are acceptable if approved by ATC. T/F

Back 272

FALSE

Front 273

Aircrew shall not consume alcoholic beverages within 12 hours of _____.

Back 273

Takeoff

Front 274

Pilots operating in VMC, under IFR or VFR, whether or not under radar control, are responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain and obstacles. T/F

Back 274

TRUE

Front 275

Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic. T/F

Back 275

TRUE

Front 276

(In the NAS)The PIC will not allow the aircraft to exceed _____ knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) in the airspace underlying Class B airspace designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace area, unless required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.

Back 276

200

Front 277

Air Force pilots may operate their aircraft below 10,000 ft. MSL, within US airspace, in excess of 250 KIAS within MOAs. T/F

Back 277

TRUE

Front 278

USAF pilots may accept Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearances. T/F

Back 278

FALSE

Front 279

Air Force pilots may passively participate in Land and Hold Short Operations (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance). T/F

Back 279

TRUE

Front 280

Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over congested areas or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least _____ ft. above the highest obstacle within a ____ ft. radius of the aircraft.

Back 280

1,000, 2,000

Front 281

Mission permitting, do not operate aircraft less than _____ft. AGL over national recreation areas and wildlife refuges.

Back 281

2,000

Front 282

Display position lights between the hours of official sunset and sunrise _____.

Back 282

Immediately before engine start and when an engine is running. When parked in an area likely to create a hazard while being towed, unless clearly illuminated by an outside source.

Front 283

If equipped, anticollision lights must be on from takeoff to landing. T/F

Back 283

TRUE

Front 284

Pilots will not takeoff, land, or fly an approach at an airport where thunderstorms are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, windshear, and (or) microbursts. T/F

Back 284

TRUE

Front 285

Immediately report a windshear or microburst encounter on takeoff, approach or landing to the most appropriate agency and if possible, include:

Back 285

Altitude of encounter, loss or gain in airspeed or altitude, type of aircraft, location of occurence

Front 286

Virga poses a wind shear threat to aircraft. T/F

Back 286

TRUE

Front 287

Be alert for fog or low cloud formation any time the surface air temperature is within _____ of the dew point, and the the spread between the two is _____.

Back 287

4 degrees, decreasing

Front 288

Frost forming on airframes, results in increased drag and decreased lift. T/F

Back 288

TRUE

Front 289

The standard lapse rate in the troposphere is 2 degrees C (3.6 degrees F) per 1,000 ft. T/F

Back 289

TRUE

Front 290

Pilots may motor the engine with the canopy open. T/F

Back 290

TRUE

Front 291

If requesting High Key from initial and told "Negative High Key," or no response is given, pilots should:

Back 291

Continue to the break zone.

Front 292

Do not request "High Key" when:

Back 292

An aircraft is between 5 and 2 nm on a straight-in. An aircraft is orbiting at High Key. An aircraft is in the chase pattern.

Front 293

The maximum number of aircraft in Hacker's pattern is:

Back 293

8

Front 294

To maximize training, pilots should land offset at Hacker. T/F

Back 294

TRUE

Front 295

When operating in Hacker's pattern, do not request High Key when an aircraft on a HAPL entry:

Back 295

Is between "Report High Key" and "Low Key"

Front 296

When flying under alternating instrument status, pilots will be on final approach for a full stop landing no later than _____ after the last scheduled take off time for the T-6 block.

Back 296

1+15

Front 297

The minimum altitude when transitioning between approved non-towered airfields is:

Back 297

3,000 ft. AGL

Front 298

For IFR departures to local low level nav routes, if unable to maintain VFR approaching the lateral limits of the nav route, coordinate with RAPCON for a descent to _____ (MVA).

Back 298

2,700 ft. MSL

Front 299

ELPs conducted at Lawton or Henry Post Army Airfield should be flown using right hand turns. T/F

Back 299

FALSE

Front 300

The use of formation full stop and taxi back (FFSTB) procedure for student training requires the permission of the OPSUP. T/F

Back 300

TRUE

Front 301

During all break-outs at night climb to _____ MSL squawk normal, remain south of the Red River and contact Arrival on channel 7 for vectors to Bridge or Deans.

Back 301

3,000 ft.

Front 302

G-suits are required on all sorties when planning to exceed 3 G’s during any portion of a sortie

Back 302

TRUE

Front 303

Aircraft expierencing an over G will be treated as an emergency. T/F

Back 303

TRUE

Front 304

Planned two ship formation around the pattern is authorized provided:

Back 304

Pilots brief this option prior to stepping. The traffic situation permits it's execution. The approach and landing are required to complete syllabus or continuation requirements.

Front 305

When recovering to the VOR/DME-E pilots should plan to arrive at HOLDR with _____ lbs. of fuel greater than divert fuel to allow for holding and unplanned delays.

Back 305

100

Front 306

The standard bingo fuel to depart Hacker is ____ lbs. dual, ____ lbs. solo.

Back 306

400, 500

Front 307

To minimize ground ops delays, once a student has demonstrated proficiency, IPs may perform a "split' walk around, or strap into the aircraft while the student performs the walkaround. T/F

Back 307

FALSE

Front 308

To ensure minimum seperation between aircraft while flying the departure, climb at _____ KIAS below 10,000 MSL and _____ KIAS above 10,000 MSL until est. at an asigned altitude, then cruise at ____ KIAS until within assigned area boundaries.

Back 308

180, 160, 200 (180? -- Weird answer I know, but that's what it says)

Front 309

The tops of the high areas are capped at ____ MSL (19,000 for area 13) with a local altimeter setting less than 29.92.

Back 309

21,000

Front 310

During weather recall, all aircraft will fly ____ KIAS to the visual pattern or ____ KIAS to an instrument approach. Recovery to RWY 17/35 will be flown at ____ KIAS.

Back 310

250, 200, 200

Front 311

Low closed patterns are prohibited at Hacker. T/F

Back 311

TRUE

Front 312

ELP patterns to the east are prohibited at Hacker. T/F

Back 312

FALSE

Front 313

For all local sorties pilots will use ____ as the primary forecast weather source.

Back 313

Flying Area Mission Execution Forecast - FAMEF

Front 314

While in the night pattern ____ lights will remain on.

Back 314

Navigation, anti-collision strobe, landing/taxi.

Front 315

T-6 aircraft in the Sheppard VFR pattern will squawk _____.

Back 315

377

Front 316

The RSU will ensure ____ min. take off separation between aircraft entering NAV routes B and C or between the same route. _____ min. spacing will be used for different NAV routes.

Back 316

5, 1

Front 317

T-6 aircraft operating in Hacker's VFR pattern will squawk _____.

Back 317

4000

Front 318

When a runway change occurs at Hacker, all aircraft will depart the pattern. T/F

Back 318

TRUE

Front 319

The standard Bingo to depart Lawton Muni/Henry Post AAF is _____ lbs.

Back 319

400

Front 320

Pilots will contact Sheppard Clearance Delivery to obtain an IFR clearance prior to takeoff for all ____ missions.

Back 320

Direct to Lawton. Out and back/Crosscountry. Simultaneous or Alternating Instrument Status.

Front 321

______ altitude is the altitude at which 100% torque is no longer available

Back 321

Critical

Front 322

Critical altitude occurs at approximately _____ feet MSL on a standard day with PCL at MAX.

Back 322

16,000

Front 323

Although there is no time limit for operation at maximum continuous power, sustained operation at maximum power may significantly reduce engine service life. (T/F)

Back 323

TRUE

Front 324

What are the RCRs for dry, wet, and icy runway conditions respectively?

Back 324

23, 12, 5

Front 325

Increase takeoff speeds by ____% of the gust increment up to a maximum increase of 10 knots.

Back 325

50

Front 326

Maximum ______ speed is the maximum speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length.

Back 326

abort

Front 327

The PT6A-68 engine is a reverse-flow design, with airflow entering the engine:

Back 327

at the rear

Front 328

The engine includes two independent sections:

Back 328

the gas generator section & the power turbine section

Front 329

After starting, the igniters are ____________, and combustion is self-sustaining so long as the proper __________ is supplied.

Back 329

switched off, fuel-air ratio

Front 330

Exhaust gas flows out sideways and is ejected rearward into the atmosphere through the exhaust stacks, providing:

Back 330

thrust which augments that produced by the propeller

Front 331

Maximum Braking Speed

Back 331

Maximum speed from which the aircraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the maximum design energy absorption capability of the brakes.(3.96 million foot pounds total)

Front 332

Maximum Abort Speed

Back 332

Maximum speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length. Allowances in the table are based on a 3 second decision period and a 3 second period to accomplish abort procedures. When abort speed is above rotation speed, rotation speed becomes the abort speed

Front 333

Landing Roll Chart Assumptions

Back 333

Maximum braking from touchdown to full stop

Front 334

How is Max Abort Speed/TOR/LR affected by RCR?

Back 334

Good RCR means higher max abort speed

Front 335

How is Max Abort Speed/TOR/LR affected by Headwind?

Back 335

Headwind means a higher max abort speed

Front 336

How is Max Abort Speed/TOR/LR affected by temperature?

Back 336

Higher temperature means lower max abort speed

Front 337

How is Max Abort Speed/TOR/LR affected by pressure altitude?

Back 337

Higher pressure altitude means lower max abort speed

Front 338

How is TO Roll affected by RCR?

Back 338

Neglible (not on charts)

Front 339

How is TO Roll affected by headwind?

Back 339

Headwinds decrease the takeoff roll

Front 340

How is TO Roll affected by temperature?

Back 340

Higher temperature increase takeoff roll

Front 341

How is TO Roll affected by pressure altitude?

Back 341

Higher pressure increases takeoff roll

Front 342

How is Landing Roll affected by RCR?

Back 342

Good RCR decreases landing roll

Front 343

How is Landing Roll affected by headwind?

Back 343

Decreases landing roll

Front 344

How is Landing Roll affected by temperature?

Back 344

Higher temperature increase landing roll

Front 345

How is Landing Roll affected by pressure altitude?

Back 345

Higher pressure increases landing roll

Front 346

Red Dash on 781

Back 346

Maintenance work is necessary. But will not ground the aircraft.

Front 347

Red Slash on 781

Back 347

Required inspection not made. This will not ground the aircraft.

Front 348

Red X on 781

Back 348

Dangerous condition exists. Aircraft is grounded until corrected.

Front 349

Pre-flight inspection is good for:

Back 349

48 hours or until the end of the day, if the aircraft is flown

Front 350

Thru-flight is accomplished:

Back 350

Between each flight

Front 351

Basic Post-flight is accomplished:

Back 351

After the last flight

Front 352

Min taxi clearance without a wing walker

Back 352

25 feet

Front 353

Min taxi clearance is waived if:

Back 353

Home station if fixed taxi routes are marked and provide a minimum of 10 feet wingtip clearance from other aircraft

Front 354

Min taxi clearance at home station

Back 354

4' with marshaller

Front 355

Obstacle requirement for night ops

Back 355

Must be lighted

Front 356

In AUTOSTART mode, the PMU detects:

Back 356

Hot, hung, and no-start conditions and terminates the start

Front 357

If ITT appears that it will exceed ___ ITT, you should abort the start manually

Back 357

1000

Front 358

If no rise of ITT is evident within ___ seconds after fuel flow indications (no start), you should abort the start.

Back 358

10

Front 359

Dual Only Maneuvers

Back 359

Stalls, Stab Demo, NH/NL Recoveries, NTA ops, OCF recoveries, ELP's or sim. Engine-out maneuver, NF patterns or landings, straingt-in, slow flight, rolling takeoffs, low closed, AOA pattern

Front 360

How does electrical failure affect landing operations?

Back 360

Flap indicator dead, gear must be deployed with emergency landing gear handle, flaps can still be deployed off of the hot battery bus

Front 361

How will Hydraulic Failure effect landing Configuration?

Back 361

Hydraulic failure will not allow normal landing gear/flap extension, expect to use the emergency landing gear extension handle--extension will take longer due to the resulting loss of emergency pressure once activated. Unable to clean up.

Front 362

How long may it take flaps to extend after emer gear extension with hydraulic failure?

Back 362

Up to 2 minutes

Front 363

Normal recovery fuel definition

Back 363

Fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate, if required.

Front 364

Normal recovery fuel

Back 364

Higher of local procedures or 200 pounds

Front 365

Wake Turbulence requirement for takeoff behind large/heavy aircraft

Back 365

2 minutes

Front 366

Wake Turbulence requirement for landing behind large aircraft

Back 366

2 minutes

Front 367

Wake Turbulence requirement for landing behind heavy aircraft

Back 367

3 minutes

Front 368

Min weather for IFR Recoveries status

Back 368

<1500' AGL/3NM

Front 369

Min weather for Restricted Patterns status

Back 369

1500' AGL/3NM

Front 370

Min weather for Unrestricted status

Back 370

2000' AGL/3NM

Front 371

Reduced runway separation criteria

Back 371

Min 3000' between similar aircraft using alternate sides, 6000' for dissimilar aircraft

Front 372

Pattern Priorities

Back 372

Emergencies, Min Fuel, Formations, In the pattern, Radar entries and than VFR entries

Front 373

Altitude/Weather requirement for spins

Back 373

7000' feet of airspace, clear of clouds

Front 374

Spin recoveries must be completed by ___ above clouds

Back 374

3000'

Front 375

Min altitude for stalls/slowflight/recoveries

Back 375

6000' AGL

Front 376

Min altitude for OCF/Spin training

Back 376

13,500 MSL

Front 377

Ensure spinning stops by what altitude?

Back 377

10,000 MSL

Front 378

Min altitude for aerobatics, unusual attitudes, abnormal flight recoveries, trim malfunctions, lost wingman procedures

Back 378

5000' AGL

Front 379

Spin turn rate

Back 379

2-3 seconds per turn

Front 380

Altitude loss during spins

Back 380

400-500' per turn

Front 381

Do not delay decision to eject when below ___ uncontrolled or below ___ controlled

Back 381

6000', 2000'

Front 382

Minimum energy required to perform turnaround maneuver

Back 382

160 KIAS and 1000' AGL

Front 383

Energy loss/gain when setting up for aerobatics

Back 383

50 kts/1000'

Front 384

Loop Entry Parameters

Back 384

250/MAX, 3000' clear above, gain 400' energy

Front 385

Immelman Entry Parameters

Back 385

250/MAX, 2500'-3000' clear above, gain 400' energy

Front 386

Cuban 8 Entry Parameters

Back 386

250/MAX, 3000' clear above, gain energy

Front 387

Chandelle Entry Parameters

Back 387

250/MAX, 2500'-3000' clear above, gain energy

Front 388

Cloverleaf Entry Parameters

Back 388

220/MAX, 3000' above/2500' below, lose 500' per leaf

Front 389

Barrel Roll Entry Parameters

Back 389

220/80%, 3000' above/2000' below, neutral energy

Front 390

Aileron Roll Entry Parameters

Back 390

220/80%, 1000' clear above, neutral

Front 391

Lazy 8 Entry Parameters

Back 391

220/80%, 2000' above/1000' below, gainer

Front 392

Split S Entry Parameters

Back 392

120/Idle-80%

Front 393

BAT BUS

Back 393

Battery bus failure

Front 394

GEN BUS

Back 394

Generator failure

Front 395

PMU FAIL

Back 395

PMU failure

Front 396

GEN

Back 396

Generator failure

Front 397

CKPT PX

Back 397

Cockpit pressurization failure, pressure exceeds 3.9 psi

Front 398

CANOPY

Back 398

Canopy unlocked/unsafe

Front 399

FUEL PX

Back 399

Fuel pressure below 10 psi

Front 400

OIL PX

Back 400

Oil pressure below 40 psi above idle, or below 15 psi at idle

Front 401

OBOGS FAIL

Back 401

OBOGS Failure

Front 402

CHIP

Back 402

Engine chip detector indicates oil contamination

Front 403

CKPT ALT

Back 403

Cockpit pressure altitude above 19,000 feet

Front 404

DUCT TEMP

Back 404

Bleed air in the environmental systems duct has exceeded 300 deg F at either or both of the temperature sensors

Front 405

HYDR FL LO

Back 405

Hydraulic reservoir fluid level below 55 cubic inches (1 qt)

Front 406

BUS TIE

Back 406

Bus tie switch open, or bus tie failure

Front 407

FUEL BAL

Back 407

Fuel imbalance exceeds 30 lbs, or fuel probe fail

Front 408

EHYD PX LO

Back 408

Emergency hydraulic pressure at or below 2400 psi

Front 409

OBOGS TEMP

Back 409

OBOGS temperature above 200 F

Front 410

TAD FAIL

Back 410

Rudder trim aid device failure

Front 411

L FUEL LO

Back 411

Left wing tank below 110 lbs usable fuel

Front 412

R FUEL LO

Back 412

Left wing tank below 110 lbs usable fuel

Front 413

PMU STATUS

Back 413

PMU has detected and accommodated a fault in-flight or WOW switch failure

Front 414

IGN SEL

Back 414

Ignition on

Front 415

M FUEL BAL

Back 415

Fuel balance switch in MANUAL position

Front 416

ST READY

Back 416

PCL positioned for auto start

Front 417

BOOST PUMP

Back 417

Boost pump selected by switch, starter relay, or low pressure switch

Front 418

ANTI ICE

Back 418

Probes anti-ice switch on

Front 419

TAD OFF

Back 419

Rudder trim aid device selected off

Front 420

TRIM OFF

Back 420

Trim disconnect switch activated

Front 421

FAIL

Back 421

IDARS has failed, notify maintenance

Front 422

MAINT

Back 422

IDARS memory is 80% full, notify maintenance

Front 423

When computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel flow for:

Back 423

maximum endurance at 10,000 feet.

Front 424

Clearance to taxi to a runway that does not include hold instructions is clearance to taxi:

Back 424

across all other runways and taxiways, but must not taxi across or on the assigned runway.

Front 425

On climbout after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach, you may not begin a turn to heading until past the departure end of the runway (if visible), at least 400 feet AGL, and at a safe airspeed unless:

Back 425

safety dictates otherwise AND specifically cleared by the controlling agency or local procedures authorize it.

Front 426

Pilots operating retractable gear aircraft must report "gear down" before _____.

Back 426

runway threshold.

Front 427

The minimum weather to file according to VFR to a destination is _____ feet ceiling and _____ statutemiles visibility.

Back 427

1,500, 3.

Front 428

USAF aircraft must fly under IFR when:

Back 428

operating in Class A airspace, operating within a federal airway, operating at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR.

Front 429

VFR cloud clearance and Visibility minimums in Class B airspace are _________________

Back 429

Clear of clouds and 3 statute miles

Front 430

(T/F) Pilots may not select an airport as an alternate if there is a temporary condition (TEMPO) for thunderstorms or rain showers in the forecast below weather specified for an alternate

Back 430

FALSE

Front 431

If the GPS database has expired, the PIC:

Back 431

May continue a mission with an expired database, if the database information required for the flight can be verified with current FLIP. Also will not fly procedures that require terminial or better accuracy (ie ther terminal approach)

Front 432

The HEFOE signal for when five fingers are extended vertically indicates a(n):

Back 432

engine malfunction.

Front 433

While leading a formation, you notice that your wingman holds a closed fist to the top of the canopy with the thumb extended downward. He or she then moves his or her arm up and down rapidly.

Back 433

He or she wants to land immediately.

Front 434

Deviations from any flight rule are authorized only when

Back 434

An inflight emergency requires immediate action. Deviation is necessary to protect lives. When safety of flight dictates.

Front 435

When computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel flow for:

Back 435

maximum endurance at 10,000 feet.

Front 436

Normally an aircraft having the right of way will maintain its course and speed. However, if the danger of a collision exists, all pilots must

Back 436

A. take the necessary action to avoid collision.

Front 437

Pilots operating retractable gear aircraft must report "gear down" before the _____.

Back 437

runway threshold.

Front 438

The minimum weather to file according to VFR to a destination is _____ feet ceiling and _____ statute miles visibility.

Back 438

B. 1,500, 3.

Front 439

Aerobatics is defined as intentionally performed spins, vertical recoveries, and other maneuvers that require pitch and bank angles greater than ______ degrees.

Back 439

D. 90.

Front 440

If the GPS database has expired, the PIC

Back 440

A. May continue a mission with an expired database, if the database information required for the flight can be verified with current FLIP B. Will not fly procedures that require terminal or better accuracy (i.e. terminal or approach)

Front 441

Emergency frequencies must be monitored at all times.

Back 441

A. True

Front 442

If a RAIM flag with status annunciation appears after the FAWP:

Back 442

B. Immediately climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to the MAWP and execute a missed approach

Front 443

A PIC may deviate from a flight rule when:

Back 443

A. An in-flight emergency requires immediate action B. Safety of flight dictates C. Deviation is required to protect lives

Front 444

A PIC may make changes to a route or destination not shown on the original flight plan without re-filing provided:

Back 444

A. The change does not penetrate an Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) B. The controlling agency approves the change for an IFR flight C. The PIC ensures the facility providing flight following is notified of the change D. The change complies with applicable national rules in an overseas area

Front 445

If departing from a nonmilitary installation, pilots will file a flight plan with:

Back 445

FSS or ATC facility

Front 446

Unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstrations, maneuvers or "fly-bys" are acceptable if approved by ATC.

Back 446

B. False

Front 447

Aircrew shall not consume alcoholic beverages within 12 hours of _______.

Back 447

D. Takeoff

Front 448

Aircraft of different categories have the right-of-way in the following order of priority (from highest to lowest priority):

Back 448

D. Balloons, gliders, aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft, airships, rotary or fixed-wing aircraft

Front 449

When converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on or approximately so), the aircraft to the other's _______ has the right-of-way.

Back 449

A. right

Front 450

Aircraft must monitor emergency frequencies at all times (unless the radio equipment on board does not have this capability).

Back 450

A. True

Front 451

The PIC will not allow the aircraft to exceed _____ knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) at or below 2,500 ft. AGL within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area unless authorized or required by ATC, or required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.

Back 451

A. 200

Front 452

The PIC will not allow the aircraft to exceed _____ knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) in the
airspace underlying Class B airspace designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through
Class B airspace area, unless required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the
aircraft T.O.

Back 452

B. 200

Front 453

Post stall gyrations characteristics

Back 453

a. Uncommanded motion about any axis b. Controls = ineffective c. AOA ~18 (stalled/near stall) d. Airspeed = transient/erratic e. turn needle = random deflections

Front 454

Incipient Spin characteristics

Back 454

a. pitch, roll, yaw oscillations b. nose fluctuation below horizon c. yaw rate = increasing d. turn needle = pegged (fully deflected) e. AOA = 18 (stalled) f. Airspeed = increases to ~ 120 KIAS g. Lasts about 2 turns

Front 455

Steady state spins characteristics

Back 455

a. Sustained yaw rate b. AOA = pegged (18+) c. Airspeed = 120-135 KIAS d. Turn needle = deflected e. Lose approximately 4500' for a 6 turn spin

Front 456

OCF Entry Procedures

Back 456

1. Complete pre-spin checks 2. 15-50 nose high (30 = corner of glare shield) 3. PCL = idle, apply before shaker/buffet 4. At 1st stall indication, apply slow & smooth back stick and rudder to direction of spin

Front 457

Stab Demo Entry Parameters

Back 457

1. Pre-stall checks 2. 160 KIAS = 60% pwr 3. 60 deg nose high, wings level 5. PCL = IDLE 6. Flight controls = neutral 7. Recover from dive to level flight

Front 458

Four Types of Spins

Back 458

Erect Progressive Aggravated Inverted

Front 459

At 100% indicated torque, the engine is producing approximately ______ foot-pounds of torque at the prop shaft.

Back 459

2900

Front 460

Engine power output is measured by the __________:

Back 460

torque produced in the reduction gearbox

Front 461

The engine oil system has a capacity of _____ US quarts.

Back 461

18.5

Front 462

The engine oil system is designed with two oil pick-up elements to permit ________.

Back 462

inverted flight

Front 463

The engine data manager (EDM) will activate the red OIL PX annunciator if oil pressure falls below _______ psi when the engine is above _______ power.

Back 463

40, IDLE

Front 464

The ________ displays oil pressure and temperature information on the engine/systems electronic instrument displays in each cockpit.

Back 464

Engine data manager (EDM)

Front 465

Power for the oil pressure transducer (OIL TRX) is provided through the ______ bus.

Back 465

battery

Front 466

When on an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan under radar control in a designated ATC military operating area, weather requirements for aerobatics, confidence maneuvers, and extended trail is clear of clouds with __ nm of in-flight visibility

Back 466

3

Front 467

After a straight-in has reported "two miles", but you do not have him in sight, the appropriate action is to

Back 467

breakout from the pearch

Front 468

In the event of a blind and NORDO situation, if not rejoined the NORDO aircraft will recover ____________, or at 10 minutes after NORDO situation occurs, whichever occurs first

Back 468

100lbs above bingo

Front 469

If either crew member has dropped their ejection pin, taxi back to the shelters, shutdown, but don't unstrap until MX arrives to retrieve the pin

Back 469

FALSE

Front 470

Aircrew landing on the hot side of the runway should request cold side if desiring to exit at DELTA (midfield).

Back 470

False.

Front 471

Minimum speed (except for wing takeoff/landings) for fingertip formation is ___ knots.

Back 471

120

Front 472

On all local SR routes, squawk 4000, and the weather required is 3000'/5

Back 472

False.

Front 473

For the first navigation sortie and all off-station, low-level navigation sorties, ______ is the minimum briefing time.

Front 474

After commencing a penetration or published approach, if weather is reported below the required PWC or published minimums (ceiling or visibility), the pilot _______________________.

Back 474

may continue the approach to the PWC or published minimums, whichever is higher

Front 475

Solo students will not fly:

Back 475

A. Actual or simulated instrument approaches and landings as lead or wing.
B. Close trail as wingman.
C. Practice lost wingman procedures while on the wing.
D. Barrel rolls or over-the-top maneuvers while on the wing.

Front 476

Over-water training flights will not be permitted when forecast or actual wave heights exceed ____ ft or surface winds exceed _____ knots in training or operating areas

Back 476

10, 25

Front 477

The control and performance concept procedural steps are (in order):

Back 477

establish pitch and power, trim off pressures, cross-check, adjust.

Front 478

Absence of an ILS identifier:

Back 478

indicates a unrealible signal

Front 479

When correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer _____ degrees from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and _____ degrees for each 1/2 mile outside the arc. (

Back 479

5, 10

Front 480

_____ NOTAMs do not require wide dissemination and are conditions that do not prevent use of an airfields runways.

Back 480

series L

Front 481

Emergency safe altitude will provide _____ feet of obstacle clearance ( _____ feet in designated mountainous areas) within _____ NM of the facility.

Back 481

1000, (2000), 100

Front 482

Air Force pilots flying non USAF/USN Departure Procedures must plan to cross the departure end of the runway at least _____ feet AGL

Back 482

35

Front 483

Which is a correct standard holding pattern?

Back 483

Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet.

Front 484

When determining bank angle for holding, unless correcting for known winds, make all turns during entry and while holding at _______.

Back 484

A. 3 degrees per second
B. 30 degree bank angle
C. bank angle commanded by the flight director system

Front 485

During an en route descent the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are below a published altitude restriction. You should:

Back 485

maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach

Front 486

While being vectored, repeat

Back 486

A. all headings.
B. all altitudes (departing and assigned).
C. all altimeter settings.

Front 487

If the entry turn places the aircraft on the non-maneuvering side of the procedure turn course, and you are flying in excess of _____ KTAS, you must correct toward the procedure turn course with an intercept angle of at least _____ degrees.

Back 487

180, 20

Front 488

The final approach course on a non-radar final may vary from the runway heading as much as ______ degrees (except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in approach.

Back 488

30

Front 489

Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for:

Back 489

1 minute while being vectored to final.

Front 490

Any abnormal indications experienced within ____ degrees of the published front course centerline of an ILS localizer should be reported immediately.

Back 490

35

Front 491

When using GPS and a GPS approach is loaded, terminal CDI scaling is _____ nm; approach CDI sensitivity is plus or minus ____ nm.

Back 491

1, 3

Front 492

Attain a minimum of 140 KIAS and 400 feet AGL (or per local directives) before the first turn after takeoff

Back 492

TRUE

Front 493

If excess altitude is too great to dissipate with a slip, S-turn, or by lowering the gear early, one technique is to make 360 degree turns prior to high key. Expected altitude loss will be approximately _______ feet for a 30-degree bank turn and _______feet for a 45-degree bank turn.

Back 493

2000, 1500

Front 494

Final turn go-around procedures are the same as those for final approach or landing go-around.

Back 494

False.

Front 495

During a missed approach, which of the following are true?

Back 495

A. Smoothly advance the PCL to max.
B. Set attitude 10-15 nose high on EADI.
C. Check VSI and altimeter to verify climb and raise gear and flaps.

Front 496

The AGSM cycle should last from 10 to 15 seconds with at least 4 to 5 breathing cycles.

Back 496

TRUE

Front 497

Prior to performing a Barrel Roll select a reference point, such as a cloud or landmark, directly in front of the aircraft, _____________ the horizon

Back 497

on or slightly above

Front 498

Maximum abort speed charts allow for a ___ second reaction time to select idle power and a ___ second period to apply the brakes after idle is selected.

Back 498

3, 3

Front 499

To set Maximum Climb Power (MCL), position the PCL so that ITT is ___ degrees below observed maximum ITT at critical altitude (not to exceed 807 degrees Celsius).

Back 499

13

Front 500

Landing distance charts assume what type of braking?

Back 500

Maximum braking

Front 501

Components of the oil system include the following system(s)

Back 501

A. pressure
B. scavenge
C. cooling
D. breather

Front 502

The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of ______rpm (100% Np) during most flight conditions

Back 502

2000

Front 503

When feathered, the propeller blades are aligned nearly ________ the wind.

Back 503

straight into

Front 504

If IOAT exceeds 121 degrees Celsius, the PMU will go offline.

Back 504

TRUE

Front 505

Illumination of both the ______ and _____ annunciators indicates the system is in the manual mode.

Back 505

PMU fail PMU status

Front 506

To possibly discriminate between a fire or overheat condition

Back 506

retard the PCL, if fire warning ceases or is not accompanied by other indications, suspect an overheat

Front 507

The left and right wing tanks have a capacity of _____ pounds of fuel each.

Back 507

527

Front 508

The battery provides _____ volts DC for _______ and ______: (

Back 508

24; engine starts; with the bus tie closed, all electrical systems (except air conditioning)

Front 509

If hydraulic pressure in the emergency accumulator drops below _______ psi, an amber EHYD PX LO annunciator will illuminate.

Back 509

2400 +-150

Front 510

(T/F) The pilot applying the most wheel brake pedal force determines the amount of braking being used.

Back 510

TRUE

Front 511

If the flaps are extended, the speed brake will not extend.

Back 511

TRUE

Front 512

As AOA approaches stall angle (approximately _____ units on the gage), the AOA computer activates the ________, providing stall warning.

Back 512

18, stick shaker

Front 513

If the PMU is activated with the IOAT above ___° C, IOAT and the ITT data will be invalid (amber dashes in the counter display and missing ITT pointer).

Back 513

96

Front 514

Fuel capacity when the system is gravity fueled is approximately ____ gallons (100 pounds) greater than with pressure refueling, if filled to the base of the filler neck in each wing tank

Back 514

15

Front 515

For high altitude ejections, an altitude sensing device and G-limiting device delay seat-man separation an parachute deployment until the seat and pilot are between _______ and _______ ft MSL and a safe parachute deployment speed.

Back 515

14000, 16000

Front 516

The battery will allow the ELT to transmit for at least _____ hours.

Back 516

50 hrs

Front 517

The EADI red chevrons will appear in the black ground raster between ______, and in the blue sky raster between _____.

Back 517

40 and 90 degrees, 40 and 90 degrees

Front 518

Non-precision approaches, DPs and STARs are automatically deleted from the Flight Plan 0 page (active flight plan) in non-volatile memory ___ minutes after the GPS is turned off.

Back 518

5

Front 519

A momentary illumination of the amber OIL PX annunciator while maneuvering is possible but may not indicate a malfunction

Back 519

TRUE

Front 520

When the AOA test switch is held in the LOW position, the front and rear cockpit AOA gages should read

Back 520

10.5 +-.25

Front 521

After initial power-up, the OBOGS FAIL annunciator will be inhibited for approximately _____ during OBOGS monitor warm-up.

Back 521

3 mins

Front 522

Limit taxi speeds to the equivalent of a fast walk with nose wheel steering engaged

Back 522

TRUE

Front 523

Oil level must be checked ______.

Back 523

with the dip stick or sight, with in 30 mins

Front 524

N1 will automatically reduce from flight idle (___) to ground idle (60%), approximately ___ seconds after touchdown.

Back 524

67%, 4

Front 525

Do not delay ejection while attempting airstart at low altitude below _____ feet AGL

Back 525

2000

Front 526

The standby attitude indicator will provide accurate indications for at least _____ minutes after a loss of all electrical power

Back 526

9

Front 527

The generator will remain off line if the starter is in the MANUAL position and the starter will drain the battery in less than ___ minutes if left on.

Back 527

10

Front 528

At idle power during aerobatics or spins, allowable transient oil pressure is _____ psi minimum for a maximum of _____ seconds.

Back 528

15, 5

Front 529

Oil temperatures up to _____ deg C are acceptable for ground operations with torque indicating 20% or less.

Back 529

110

Front 530

Do not use nosewheel steering for takeoff or landing.

Back 530

TRUE

Front 531

The maximum permissible crosswind for an icy runway is _____ knots.

Back 531

5

Front 532

The maximum operating VMO is ____ KIAS up to and including 18,769 feet MSL.

Back 532

316

Front 533

Ejection seat pilot weight limits are a minimum weight with equipment and flight gear of ____ pounds, and a maximum pilot weight with equipment and flight gear of ____ pounds

Back 533

121, 271

Front 534

If the flaps are set to any position other than UP, the speed brake will:

Back 534

B. retract if already extended
C. remain retracted if the pilot attempts to extend it after the flaps are extended

Front 535

While landing gear position has little effect on the stall, extending the _____ aggravates the roll-off tendency at stall.

Back 535

flaps

Front 536

______ are the motions of the aircraft about one or more axes immediately following a stall and prior to the incipient spin.

Back 536

post stall gyrations

Front 537

The best response to a spiral is to ______ controls and reduce the power to idle until motion stops.

Back 537

neutralise the

Front 538

In a steady-state spin, the turn needle will be fully deflected _____ the direction of the spin.

Back 538

in

Front 539

With ailerons held in the direction of spin rotation, roll and yaw become noticeably oscillatory.

Back 539

TRUE

Front 540

During an erect spin recovery, spin rotation will abruptly cease with the aircraft in a steep nose down attitude within _____ turns after applying anti spin controls (full opposite rudder, stick forward of neutral).

Back 540

1.5

Front 541

Hydroplaning can occur above _____ knots for the nose tire when inflated to nominal tire pressures.

Back 541

85

Front 542

The T-6 is approved for transit only through light rime icing conditions.

Back 542

TRUE

Front 543

During hot weather operations, higher than normal oil temperatures may be encountered during taxi.

Back 543

TRUE

Front 544

An overtaken aircraft has the right-of-way. The overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right.

Back 544

True.

Front 545

(In the NAS) The PIC will not allow the aircraft to exceed _____ knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) below 10,000 ft. MSL unless the MAJCOM has approved a higher speed.

Back 545

250

Front 546

At an airport with an operating control tower, you must obtain clearance before:

Back 546

taxiing, taxiing onto a runway, takeoff and landing

Front 547

Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach until at least _____ ft. above the departure end of the runway (DER) elevation, at a _________ airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible)

Back 547

400, safe

Front 548

If an aircrew member remains after flying to perform official duties, the crew rest period begins after termination of these duties.

Back 548

True.

Front 549

(T/F)Relative humidity is the ratio of the actual humidity to the humidity that the air would contain if saturated.

Back 549

True.

Front 550

If power to the flap control circuit is lost (e.g. loss of power to the battery bus, or the FLAP CONT circuit breaker has opened), ________________.

Back 550

A. the flaps will retract to the UP position
B. flap position will not be visible from the cockpit
C. the flap indication will be unreliable

Front 551

A difference of up to, but not including, 1 G (< 1 G) between the accelerometers in the front and rear cockpit is acceptable. (

Back 551

True.

Front 552

Aural tones are inaudible during engine start until the engine's gas generator indication (N1) is above ___%.

Back 552

50%

Front 553

The decrease of temperature with altitude is called the ______.

Back 553

lapse rate

Front 554

The minimum altitude to complete a configured slip is ____ feet.

Back 554

300

Front 555

The visual signal for wingman ready to taxi is:

Back 555

thumbs up

Front 556

Do not climb above 4300 MSL during any part of a practice PEL or SFL at Kegelman or Vance.

Back 556

True.

Front 557

Aircrews will not request direct High Key with more than _____ total aircraft in the pattern?

Back 557

3

Front 558

When answering a fuel check, reply with "2's same" when fuel is _______.

Back 558

with in 50lbs of #1

Front 559

As a guide, each optioned MIF item should be accomplished every _____ sortie.

Back 559

3rd

Front 560

Tire wear limits are a maximum of _____ cords out and back, and ____ cords cross-country:

Back 560

3, 2

Front 561

The high pattern at Eastside/Dogface requires weather minimums of _____ MSL and ____ miles.

Back 561

4500- 3

Front 562

It is acceptable to place small items on the canopy glass.

Back 562

False.

Front 563

Chock time for a local sortie is 1+30, but the Sup may approve 1+45.

Back 563

False.

Front 564

Hearing protection must be worn on the ramp when aircraft engines are running.

Back 564

True.

Front 565

Local radar pattern airspeeds are normally ______ on downwind, and _____ on base.

Back 565

200/ 150 min

Front 566

Cross-country pilots will call command post at the end and beginning of each day they are off-station.

Back 566

True.

Front 567

During a SOF directed recall

Back 567

A. Monitor area control frequency
B. Hold in the area at the top of the block at max endurance

Front 568

At Dogface do not initiate the final turn until the opposite direction traffic is:

Back 568

wings level on final

Front 569

At Dogface, when proceeding direct to high key from departure leg climb_____.

Back 569

to the west

Front 570

SR sorties on the same route will be scheduled with a minimum of: (

Back 570

10 min intervals and arrive witrh in 3 minutes of entery time

Front 571

(T/F) If you lose communications on the SR route and can maintain VMC, squawk appropriately and continue the route to the exit point.

Back 571

True.

Front 572

T-6 aircraft may start and taxi before the end of the quiet period.

Back 572

True.

Front 573

Aircrew must adhere to the EP matrix in the IFG.

Back 573

False.

Front 574

Remain how far away from aircraft being serviced with fuel or oxygen?

Back 574

50

Front 575

A T-6 may taxi behind a T-38 holding in the hammerhead, but not stop directly behind it.

Back 575

True.

Front 576

A T-6 will not taxi behind a T-1 holding in the hammerhead.

Back 576

TRUE

Front 577

Chock time is _____ after scheduled takeoff time for local sorties and _____ for out and backs.

Back 577

1+45, 4+30

Front 578

If cleared "DELTA" but significant manuevering is necessary, it is automatically approved because now you're VFR.

Back 578

False.

Front 579

Minimum fuel is:

Back 579

150 dual/ 200 solo

Front 580

Formations "cleared the block" or "maneuvering" are approved _____ miles lateral and ____ feet vertical separation.

Back 580

2, 2000

Front 581

When directed to "Work North" acknowledge and:

Back 581

Complete the present maneuver and turn to comply.

Front 582

When directed to "Work North immediately", acknowledge and: (

Back 582

Discontinue the present maneuver and turn to comply.

Front 583

When tower directs a go-around for the center runway in VMC and with the runway in-sight, and planning to enter Eastside's pattern

Back 583

Fly between the center and outside runways at/below 1800' MSL until crosswind or closed is granted.

Front 584

Aircraft established on outside downwind have priority over aircraft on crosswind.

Back 584

True.

Front 585

Descent to pattern altitude from ECKHO/FOXTR must occur prior to:

Back 585

crossing hwy 81

Front 586

When cleared a late break:

Back 586

Acknowledge with callsign, and delay break until clear of traffic on downwind.

Front 587

To avoid Woodring Class D airspace do not fly at or below:

Back 587

3800 msl and with in 5.8 NM

Front 588

After a straight-in has reported "two miles" do not perch or initiate descent out of low key unless:

Back 588

A. The traffic is in-sight
B. You can maintain spacing behind the traffic
C. You report the straight-in in-sight

Front 589

When flying between Non-towered Airfields (NTAs), aircrews will fly appropriate VFR hemispherical altitudes at or above:

Back 589

3000 agl

Front 590

Shortly after an aircraft reports initial you may request closed if between midfield and the departure end of the runway and can do so immediately.

Back 590

False.

Front 591

It is acceptable to break with an aircraft orbiting high key if he is half-way or less through the orbit.

Back 591

False.

Front 592

When departing DOGFACE you can immediately climb into the weather, because the RSU issues an IFR clearance when they say, "change to departure."

Back 592

False.