• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/600

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

600 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
An operating procedure or technique which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is a _____?
Caution
Center of gravity problems affecting longitudinal stability during flight should be considered prior to ________.
personnel movement within the cabin area
Which of the following is true with an engine shutdown due to a failed turbine rotor shaft?
A loud bang will be audible Engine restart is not possible
(T/F) If the engine will not start with the ignition switch in STBY, the manual mode should be used.
FALSE
(T/F) If either electronic fuel control fails, the synchronization system is still operative.
FALSE
(T/F) Avoid finger lift actuation to preclude inadvertent engine shutdown when retarding the throttles toward idle.
TRUE
(T/F)Repeated or prolonged exposure to high concentrations of bromotrifluoromethane (HALON) caused by engine fire extinguishing units, should be avoided.
TRUE
A popped fuel system circuit breaker ___________________.
should not be reset
Operating transfer pumps dry ____________________.
is unacceptable
In the event of an engine fire, following fire extinguisher bottle actuation, jet pump switches should be placed in the off position to _________________.
stop fuel flow to the engine
During preflight inspection, a drop of fuel hanging on the sniffle valve ______.
is acceptable
(T/F) During crossfeed operation, the boost pump in the nonselected fuel feed chamber willnot activate if the boost pump switch is in AUTO and the fuel feed line pressure drops below 5 psi.
False
In the event of a fuel quantity indicator failure, which of the following are true?
Both gauges' dial pointers move off scale to below the zero mark to indicate an inoperative condition
In the event of electrical system failure, excluding the aircraft battery, placing the battery switch to the EMER position causes the battery to power the _________________.
Aural warniing
Batt FDR PROT
cabin sighn
copilot clock
copilot audio
door seal
emer ldg position emer lt emer no 2 inverter
emer pitch trim
emer warn lt
fire bell
flood inst
fus smk det
L eng fire ext
L gnd safe
L hyd sol v
left stall warn
L N1
L ign
L sol valv
L N2
nav 1
O2 cont pass
R eng fire ext
R hyd sol v
R sol valve
trim warning
WG A/I sys 1
What provides ground fault protection for external power?
Battery protection circuits
(T/F)Fuel quantity indicators are unreliable at high angles of attack and/or any angles of side-slip.
TRUE
Due to high hydraulic pump output and low hydraulic reservoir capacity, a pressure line rupture will cause _____________.
a rapid and complete loss of system hydraulics
If it is necessary to press the DOWN LOCK RELEASE switch to move the LDG GR handle to the UP position, the crew member should suspect ________________.
a malfunction of the landing gear ground safety switch
Normal landing gear extension takes approximately _____ seconds andretraction takes approximately _____ seconds.
7, 7
Do not land with the brakes applied. A failed touchdown protection mechanism could result in ___________.
blown tires and damage to the aircraft
(T/F)When the "ANTI-SKID FAIL" annunciator is illuminated, anti-skid braking is not available and braking will be in the power brake mode.
TRUE
(T/F)Normal braking can be used with emergency braking because the systems are independent.
FALSE
The parking brake should not be set ___________________.
if the brakes are hot, during low temperatures, when an accumulation of moisture is present, using the copilot's brake pedals
In reference to the flap system, if the 26 VAC primary shed bus is lost ____________.
flap asymmetry detection is not available, the flap position indicator will be inoperative
Failure to set the proper AOA value ________________.
may cause erroneous on-speed indications
The rudder is _________ linked to the nosewheel steering system.
mechanically
The rudder boost ______ the loss of thrust in an asymmetric condition.
is not designed to fully compensate for
Which of the following trim surface will not disengage the autopilot?
Pressing the rudder trim paddles.
Which of the following affects the flight deck accelerometer (G meter)?
Speed, Altitude, Weight and fuel loading
Aircraft ______ power is required for clock display lighting.
DC
(T/F)The aft fuselage door is designed such that the lower section must be opened prior to the upper section
TRUE
(T/F)Discoloration, crazing, or scratches will weaken the structural strength of the windows
FALSE
Cabin window shades are to be open for ________________.
Takeoff and landing
(T/F)Do not block air distribution system return air grates and openings in the aircraft.
TRUE
When throttles are advanced to ______ on the ground, the cabin is pressurized to a positive 80 to 120 foot differential.
takeoff position
(T/F)Moving the manual pressurization control beyond its normal range could result in damage to the needle valve's seat.
TRUE
The "CABIN PRESSURE LO" annunciator illuminates when cabin altitude exceeds _______.
9500 ± 500 ft
Electric heat subsystem can only be used when the aircraft is _______.
on the ground and operating on external power
(T/F)Wing inspection lights are provided to aid in visual detection of ice formation on each wing.
TRUE
(T/F)The wing anti-ice system should only be operated on the ground during preflight check and landing roll out.
TRUE
(T/F)The horizontal stabilizer anti-ice and de-ice systems must operate together. Should either system fail, both must be turned off.
TRUE
(T/F)The backup de-ice system manual mode may be used for deicing on the ground
FALSE
Manual de-ice operation must not be used on the ground
to avoid damage to electrothermal heating elements in mats
Do not operate engine anti-ice on the ground at temperatures above _____°C OAT/SAT except for preflight check.
10
(T/F)Use of the high heat mode of the windshield is authorized during takeoff and landing.
FALSE
Operating the windshield wipers at speeds greater than _____ KIAS can cause damage to the wiper motor and possible blade separation.
200
An electronic flight display is considered failed when the display:
flickers. is missing characters.is missing lines.
the basic nav information provided on the composite display is the _________.
compass display selected course selected heading
(T/F)Air to ground TACAN in the inverse mode and tuned to a combined VOR/DME station will provide a reasonable bearing and can be used for navigation
FALSE
(T/F)The term "Astern" is now used in place of the term "Contact".
FALSE
If TCAS displays traffic or a traffic advisory (TA mode) is announced, you should
do nothing, displays and advisories are only for assistance in visually locating the traffic
(T/F)T-1 WX Hold Status is used to describe wx conditions that are deteriorating, but are expected to rapidly improve. Select T-1s will remain airborne, and divert fuels will apply for airborne a/c.
TRUE
Once TCAS announces "clear of conflict," the pilot should:
return to his/her ATC clearance or as directed by ATC.
(T/F)In regards to departures, if a crew loses an engine between S1 and 400ft AGL, the crew will fly SE climb profile and airspeeds to 2200ft AGL or crew determined safe altitude whichever occurs first).
TRUE
(T/F)If the ARC format is selected on the DSP, the EHSI will present an expanded 70° (approximate) compass segment
TRUE
Due to weather radar system limitations, ________.
do not rely on the system as the only means to avoid adverse weather.
Transient fault conditions in the WX radar system may be cleared by
momentarily selecting the standby mode then reselecting the desired mode.
If the antenna on WX radar is tilted down too far and GCS mode is selected, a GCS wedge may occur. The wedge is displayed as a black area located within ______ of aircraft heading.
± 10°
(T/F)If higher priority methods of departing IFR are not possible, T-1 aircrews may subtract 48 ft/nm from the required climb gradient.
TRUE
The decision height trip signal sent to the ground proximity computer is only from the:
radio altimeter indicator.
The GPWS self test may be accomplished while airborne if the radio altimeter is above _____________.
200 ft AGL
(T/F)On a battery start you should allow the amps to drop below 150 before starting the second engine.
TRUE
(T/F)The flap override system automatically resets on climb out.
FALSE
(T/F)On a VFR leg, pilots are not required to activate a VFR flight plan as long as they have ATC flight following.
FALSE
Landing lights should be extinguished as soon as landing and taxi requirements are met to prevent __________.
damage due to overheating
(T/F)Pilots are not required to check the Jeppeson NOTAMS prior to flight, only distant NOTAMS and TFRs.
FALSE
Which switch is used to control the lighting intensity of those instrument panel lights that do not have separate intensity controls?
IND LT DIM-BRT switch.
(T/F)Power carts are required for engine start at temperatures below 5 Deg F.
TRUE
As oxygen cylinders become chilled, the pressure is reduced. A temperature drop of 100°F will reduce pressure 20%. If the pressure begins to drop while the aircraft is in level flight or descending, __________.
Suspect an oxygen leak
After flushing the lavatory, __________ to prevent contents from overflowing.
leave the knife valve open
(T/F)The audio mute switch is not functional for tone generator signals.
TRUE
Asterisk items in the checklist:
need not be accomplished on subsequent flights by the same crew flying the same aircraft on the same day.
(T/F)The exterior door handle will stow by activation of the interior handle.
FALSE
(T/F)Operation of windshield wipers on dry surfaces is acceptable.
FALSE
Typical nose strut extension is approximately _____ inches, based on nominal CG location.
3.5
How many static wicks are attached to the aircraft and how many can be missing?
12, none.
If the thermal relief plug on fire extinguisher discharge indicator is blown out, you should:
consult maintenance prior to flight.
(T/F)The hot beverage container must be removed to check the circuit breaker inside the beverage container compartment
TRUE
(T/F)During the walk around, support the main landing gear door if releasing by the manual system.
TRUE
(T/F)The entrance door must be closed and locked prior to starting interior inspection
FALSE
If a passenger oxygen mask container is open,
leave it alone for proper maintenance inspection
Failure to remove the escape hatch lock pin will
make hatch inoperable from the outside. make hatch inoperable from the inside. delay emergency ground egress from the escape hatch.
When the cabin pressure controller is set, set the altitude to _____ feet above the highest anticipated cruise altitude or according to mission requirements.
1,000
(T/F)Manual pressure controller should be set at FULL INCR for normal takeoff.
TRUE
During the interior inspection, generator reset switches must be positioned to ________ for a battery start.
NORM
(T/F)Whenever changing any electrical source (other than preflight checks), you must advise the crew.
TRUE
(T/F)Seat and rudder pedals must be adjusted to allow full rudder pedal deflection.
TRUE
During the before exterior inspection without external power, battery voltage when checked should read _____ volts.
22-24
When the battery feed test button is pushed with the battery switch ON, check for:
FDR FAIL annunciator illuminated STBY PWR ON annunciator illuminated
After placing the EMER LT switch to TEST, check to see that power is supplied to ____ emergency light packs.
4
When checking the stall warning system _______________.
the master test switch must remain in L or R STALL until stick shaker actuates twice. check that the indexer on the glare shield follows AOA gauge indication
When doing the stall warning test on the left or right side, the stick shaker should activate
twice when the AOA pointer passes 0.4 to 0.5 and 0.7.
When running the pitch or roll trim switch for _____ seconds continuously, the trim warning horn will activate
5
Ice may form on the compressor blades and guide vanes when in visible moisture at an OAT/SAT of 5 degrees C or colder. When the proceeding conditions exist, the engine start should be delayed until the takeoff can be accomplished within _____ minutes to keep ice buildup to a minimum.
10
(T/F)If the start button or the starter disengage button does not illuminate when the start button is depressed, abort the start.
TRUE
During engine start, the Electronic Fuel Control (EFC) light will extinguish by _____% N2.
38
If the throttle is placed to cutoff anytime during the start sequence you should:
abort the start.
If there is no N1 rotation during the start (after TCTO 1T-1A-649), you should move the throttle to CUTOFF and allow the starter to continue for ______ seconds to purge fuel.
15
If starting engines with battery power only, do not start the second engine until the first engine's loadmeter reads below _____ amps.
150 (for a gcu start the engine just must be in idle)
The stabilizer anti-ice fail annunciator will illuminate in _____ seconds once the anti-ice switch is set to the test position
3
Do not use the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice on the ground because a squat switch failure could cause damage to the ___________.
horizontal stabilizer
Do not operate engine anti-ice during ground operations (except for preflight test) at temperatures above _____°C OAT/SAT
10
The throttles should be set at _____ to ensure that the anti-ice valve is open when checking wing and engine anti-ice.
70% N2
(T/F)Taxiing close to another aircraft in ice or snow keeps the snow melted off of the wings.
FALSE
(T/F)Do not turn the weather radar on in a congested area.
TRUE
(T/F)If operating the VCCS, it should be turned OFF prior to cycling the right non-essential bus switch.
TRUE
For takeoff and landing, do not use windshield heat on ______.
HIGH
During takeoff, initially, apply enough back pressure on the yoke to attain _____° to _____° pitch attitude.
13, 15
During a wake turbulence takeoff, allow a minimum of _____ minutes behind a large type aircraft. With an effective crosswind over _____ knots, this interval may be reduced
2, 5
After the gear is retracted on a normal takeoff, with two engines operating, adjust the pitch to climb at a minimum of_____ until reaching _____ feet above field elevation
Vco + 10, 400
Reduce throttles momentarily to a maximum of _____ prior to turning on engine or wing anti-ice to avoid exceeding ITT limits
90% N1
Ignition switches should be on
when flight is through turbulence and/or visible precipitation, for all takeoffs, approaches, and landings, low levels
Starting a descent at FL 200, maximum range descent is flown at _____, enroute descent is flown at _____, and rapid descent is flown at _____.
230, 250, 330
During the descent check, the crew briefing should cover as a minimum:
destination weather. how the approach will be flown
The penetration descent profile is only used below 20,000 feet due to:
landing gear limitations.
Before entering anticipated icing conditions turn anti-icing systems on and maintain approximately ____ to ensure high enough temperature to provide proper wing anti-ice operation.
70% N2
(T/F)Crossfeed must not be used for takeoff, final approach, or landing to prevent a single system failure from causing dual engine flameout.
TRUE
Maximum fuel imbalance is _______ pounds of fuel if a touch-and-go landing is to be performed.
100
(T/F)Steep idle power approaches, or approaches requiring late changes in pitch attitude during the landing flare are acceptable in the T-1A due to the stressed landing gear.
FALSE
In the event of a suspected hard landing:
make an AFTO Form 781 write up with your gross weight, airspeed, and RA/VSI. gear should remain down and the mission terminated.
During a missed approach or go around, if remaining in the visual pattern the flaps may be left at _______.
10°
Failure to properly reset the trim can result in
lower than normal yoke forces ,over-rotation ,higher than normal yoke forces
After landing on a snow or slush covered runway:
do not retract flaps beyond 10°.
(T/F)The flight crew shall make entries into the AFTO Form 781 indicating when any flight limits have been exceeded.
TRUE
(T/F)During the Engine Running On-Load/Off-Load (ERO) checklist, ensure that the cabin is depressurized and all loose items are secured prior to opening the crew entrance door
TRUE
Airborne minimum control speed was determined using
5° of bank into the operating engine. no more than 180 lbs. of rudder control force. rudder boost system operating.
Ground minimum control speed (Vmcg) is __________.
88 KIAS
If the engine is being shut down in flight with no mechanical difficulty, stabilize ITT at idle thrust for
1 minute.
(T/F)If any system emergency affecting safety of flight is experienced prior to S1 speed, the takeoff should be aborted.
TRUE
(T/F)If the aircraft is decelerated and engages the barrier perpendicular to the middle half, no damage to the aircraft should be expected
FALSE
(T/F)If engine shutdown or failure occurs in flight, consider the use of crossfeed to balance the fuel load, unless fuel system contamination is suspected
TRUE
With dual Remote Tuning Unit (RTU) failure, how can VHF guard (121.5) be tuned?
Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker.
Pulling and resetting the UHF circuit breaker after dual RTU failure does what?
Turns off the squelch. Returns to the frequency tuned at the time of failure.
What are the symptoms of flight director failure?
Departure from the intended flight path. Failure to follow NAV, LOC, or GS commands. Attitude deviations exceeding defined limits.
Indications of an engine fire include _______________.
smoke and/or flames high ITT fluctuating or high fuel flow
(T/F)The primary indication of an engine fire is illumination of the Bottle Armed Switch
FALSE
The most likely cause of nose wheel steering loss is due to:
the torque link safety pin not being installed.
If continued flight is not possible after an engine failure during takeoff, extend the gear, lower flaps to 30° if possible, and maintain a minimum of _______.
climb out speed
Securing an engine after a failure/fire on takeoff should not be accomplished prior to _______.
400 ft AGL (1500 optional) clear of obstructions
(T/F)Do not attempt to restart an engine that has been shut down due to obvious mechanical difficulties.
TRUE
During a starter assisted airstart, a relight should normally be obtained within _____ second(s) after the throttle is moved to idle.
10
(T/F)Failure of jet engines are generally the result of improper fuel scheduling caused by a malfunction of the fuel control system or incorrect operating techniques during critical flight conditions.
TRUE
(T/F)The autopilot is not capable of controlling the aircraft in the event of an engine failure.
FALSE
How many knots above Vapp should you fly final on a single engine autopilot coupled approach
5
What is an indication of engine failure due to a failed turbine rotor shaft
A loud report.
Who normally actuates the switches during engine shutdown due to an engine fire?
Pilot Monitoring (PM)
In the event of an electrical fire, if the cause cannot be determined and an immediate landing is not feasible, ___________________.
turn the master switches to emergency and the battery off.
When both generator master switches are placed to EMER and the battery selected OFF, all electrical power except _____ is lost.
DC standby power
If smoke or fumes are emanating from the air-conditioning vents, select L ENG or R ENG in an attempt to isolate the source. Bleed air source selector must remain in each position approximately _____ seconds to allow adequate purging.
20
If high oil temperature is experienced _______________.
increase affected engine throttle within N1 limits
Under high temperature, low altitude, high throttle setting conditions, engine oil temperature may exceed ______ when the throttles are reduced due to a reduction in cooling fuel through the fuel/oil heat exchanger. The maximum transient limit is _____ and _____ should not be exceeded for more than _______ minutes
121°C, 135°C, 121°C, 15
(T/F)If the fuel filter bypass annunciator is illuminated, the bypass filter is purifying the fuel to the engine
FALSE
When fuel level in the collector tanks drops below approximately_____ pounds, the L or R FUEL FEED annunciator illuminates.
70
If the rudder is jammed out of neutral position, the nosewheel will be cocked on landing. To maintain directional control __________________.
move the CG aft to keep the nose off of the runway, use differential braking to maintain directional control
If the stabilizer is jammed in the aircraft nose down position _____________.
follow the no-flap approach/landing procedures
With a jammed elevator, use pitch trim for longitudinal control, fly a flat approach with flaps set to
30
(T/F)If an asymmetric flap situation cannot be corrected, land from a straight-in approach
TRUE
(T/F)If the speed brakes fail in the extended position, do not extend flaps beyond 10
TRUE
(T/F)Local Altimeter setting is used in the Vance Western MOA.
TRUE
(T/F)Air entering the cabin for pressurization during air conditioning emergency operation will still be hot until the bleed air selector has been turned off.
TRUE
(T/F)If the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminates, the system will switch from normal to emergency pressure mode automatically
TRUE
(T/F)The emergency descent procedures are intended to be used for a maximum rate descent to quickly escape the high altitude environment.
TRUE
(T/F)Initiate the level-off after an emergency descent only when pressurization is no longer required.
FALSE
(T/F)Do not attempt an actual single engine go-around after selecting flaps to 30
TRUE
No-flap approach should be flown at Vref + 20 KIAS, landing distance will increase approximately
35%
(T/F)If the landing gear cannot be extended, secure all loose equipment and make a normal approach with a 10° flap setting.
FALSE
(T/F)Instructors may log two CT "sorties" (A/D, A/R, FORM, etc) if they fly a minimum of a 2.0 duration.
TRUE
(T/F)Prior to contacting the water during a ditching maneuver, all crew members except the pilot should unstrap in order to provide the quickest escape.
FALSE
(T/F)Instructors may log instrument approaches for CT events if they are flying with students and are in actual WX conditions or at night
TRUE
Which of the following is true regarding ditching?
If possible ditching should be made while power is still available on both engines. Ditch parallel or near to the crest of a swell unless the crosswind is > 20 knots. If strong winds are evident ditch heading should be more into the wind and slightly across swell.
(T/F)Ignition switches should be on when in visible precipitation and/or turbulence.
TRUE
(T/F)When landing with a flat tire on one main gear, land on the side of the runway corresponding to the bad tire
FALSE
(T/F)The autopilot is required to be disengaged by 300 ft AGL for landing.
FALSE
(T/F)Pushing the AV STBY BLO button isolates power to the failed blower system
FALSE
Electrical loads up to _____ amps are permissible for single generator operations above 32,500 feet.
280
(T/F)A/C chock times may be disregarded on out and back sorties, and are there just to keep maintenance guys "happy."
FALSE
When both generator master switches and the battery switch are placed to EMER, ___________.
both the battery feed emergency bus and DC standby bus are powered
(T/F)During a dual generator failure situation, if the generators fail to reset and flight conditions permit, attempt to reset by turning both generator switches OFF, and reset them one at a time.
TRUE
Which of the following will cause the BATTERY FDR FAIL light on the overhead panel to illuminate?
Failure of the emergency bus feeder
After prolonged flight in cold temperature, followed by a rapid descent
one or both H PMP PRESS LO annunciators may illuminate momentarily when gear down is selected ,gear extension time may be slightly increased ,increasing N2 may assist in hydraulic pressure recovery
The following hydraulic powered systems will not be functional when electrical power is lost __________.
flaps speed brakes anti-skid system
(T/F)The speed brakes will be blown down if they are extended when complete loss of hydraulic pressure occurs.
TRUE
(T/F)if the engine anti-ice system has failed, avoid further icing conditions.
TRUE
Holding the horizontal stabilizer deice backup switch momentarily to the spring loaded MANUAL position energizes the system for
30 seconds
(T/F)If the DOOR UNLOCK annunciator illuminates in flight, the jump seat may check the security of the cabin door as long as he/she stays strapped in.
FALSE
(T/F)The crew member occupying the jump seat will actuate controls on the shroud or instrument panel only if he/she is an instructor pilot.
FALSE
(T/F)If only two pilots are onboard, crew members will exchange seats only when the autopilot is engaged
FALSE
(T/F)Only the pilot and copilot need to monitor UHF and VHF frequencies during descent when three crew members are aboard the aircraft.
FALSE
Maximum allowable airspeed pointer on the standby airspeed indicator ______________.
adjusts with altitude
Takeoff rated thrust may be used for____________.
5 minutes starting when the throttle is first advanced to TRT
Normal hydraulic pressure is
1350 to 1550 psi.
ITT during ground starts should not normally exceed _____°C.
550
The following are prohibited maneuvers
Aerobatic maneuvers Takeoff or landing from unprepared surfaces Spins
(T/F)Do not operate surface anti-ice systems inflight at ram air temperatures above 8°C.
FALSE
(T/F)During ground aborts within a given stopping distance, the same amount of heat is generated by the brakes whether the brakes are applied in one steady application or a series of short applications.
TRUE
When _____ million foot pounds of brake energy are absorbed per brake, thermal fused screws may release resulting in flat tires
4.05
What must you do if you suspect hot brakes?
Taxi only as necessary to clear the active runway Do not set the parking brake Do not approach the hot brakes for 30 minutes
For practice approach to stalls what power setting should be used to recover?
MCT
(T/F)Intentional spins in the aircraft are prohibited.
TRUE
A target speed of ___________ will provide adequate attitude control when penetrating turbulent air.
200 KIAS or .58 Mach, whichever is less
(T/F)If a thunderstorm cannot be avoided, it is acceptable to use trim to control pitch attitude
FALSE
(T/F)Prior to making an initial aircraft inspection following a suspected lightning strike, ensure the aircraft is properly grounded
TRUE
(T/F)If acceptable takeoff performance can only be achieved by selecting 0° flap and/or ACM off, takeoff in the presence of potential windshear is not recommended
TRUE
(T/F)During windshear recovery, the best pitch attitude is one which will nibble in and out of the stick
TRUE
After landing on a snow or slush covered runway, do not retract the flaps beyond _____.
10°
(T/F)The weather radar system will always detect volcanic dust.
FALSE
An RCR of 12 equates to the ICAO report of __________.
medium
Under most operating conditions, take-off with flaps set to 10° will yield the shortest CFL and the lowest Vcef or Vr except at ___________ where a 0° flap take-off may provide the required rate-of-climb for take-off.
higher take-off weights high pressure altitude high outside air temperatures
The climbout charts are based on landing gear retraction being initiated no later than reaching ______ ft
50
(T/F)Additional delays in gear retraction past 50 feet will result in an increase in the take-off flight path distance and may adversely affect obstacle clearance capability
TRUE
(T/F)Reduced N1 takeoff with ACM off is not approved.
TRUE
S1 is equal to or greater than the higher of either ____________, but not greater than the lowest of ___________.
Vmcg or Vcef; Vrot, Vr, or Vmb
The results shown in the climb charts can only be achieved if
speed is maintained within ±5 Knots or ±.01 M.
Maximum Range level flight AOA is approximately
.18 AOA units
If all anti-ice is activated, endurance will be decreased by _______________.
9%.
Reference speed (Vref) is __________________.
30° flap approach speed.
When runway braking is reported as poor, this equates to an RCR of
5
Landing distances are based on the following procedures and assumptions:
Idle thrust at 50 feet. Maximum braking is obtained upon attaining taxi attitude, and is continued to a full stop. A 3° approach at Vref to the 50-foot obstacle height.
(T/F)When carrying payload (cargo and/or passengers), the forward CG limit may easily be exceeded (at zero or low fuel conditions).
TRUE
Deviations from any flight rule are authorized only when:
An inflight emergency requires immediate. Deviation is necessary to protect lives. When safety of flight dictates.
When computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel flow for:
maximum endurance at 10,000 feet.
Clearance to taxi to a runway that does not include hold instructions is clearance to taxi
across all other runways and taxiways, but must not taxi across or on the assigned runway. (Aim 4-3-18 para 6-7 and a few beyond it talk about taxi clearence)
Pilots operating retractable gear aircraft must report "gear down" before _____.
runway threshold.
USAF aircraft must fly under IFR when:
operating in Class A airspace. operating within a federal airway. operating at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR.
VFR cloud clearance and Visibility minimums in Class B airspace are _________________.
Clear of clouds and 3 statute miles
(T/F)Emergency frequencies must be monitored at all times
TRUE
If a RAIM failure occurs, or the receiver does not sequence from "Armed" to"Active", prior to the final approach waypoint (FAWP):
Contact ATC for an alternate clearance
As a guide for instrument turns of 30 degrees or less, the bank angle should approximate _____. For turns of more than 30 degrees, use a bank angle of
the number of degrees to be turned, 30 degrees.
Reliable DME signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude with an accuracy of _____mile or _____ percent of the distance, whichever is greater
1/2, 3.
(T/F)Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions, unless being radar vectored.
TRUE
Groundspeed checks made below ____ feet are accurate at any distance from the DME station.
5,000
When checking the altimeter against a known checkpoint on the ground, the maximum allowable error is ____ feet.
75
If there is a requirement to execute an approach procedure with an incompatible missed approach, alternate missed approach/departure instructions must be coordinated with ATC before the ___ .
IAF.
Minimum safe altitude is the minimum altitude which provides at least _____ feet of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility upon which the procedure is based
1,000
Touchdown zone elevation is the highest point in the first _____ feet of the landing runway.
3,000
When checking the VOR at a designated ground checkpoint, the allowable CDI error is _____ degrees
4
When flying a Departure Procedure, aircrew must delay all turns until at least_____ feet above airport elevation, unless otherwise instructed
400
ATC should issue holding instructions at least _____ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Within ______minutes of reaching the fix and clearance beyond the fix has not been received, reduce to holding airspeed.
5, 3.
If the holding course is NOT within 70 degrees of the aircraft heading (using the 70 degree method):
turn outbound in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course. if this turn places you on the non-holding side, parallel or intercept course outbound.
Prior to the IAF you must:
recheck the weather (if appropriate). review the IAP. check the heading and attitude systems. obtain clearance for the approach.
When flying a non-DME high-altitude teardrop approach, if you arrive at the IAF at an altitude below that published:
maintain altitude and proceed outbound 15 seconds for each 1,000 feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting descent.
The remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from:
the procedure turn fix.
The localizer has a usable range of at least _____ miles within 10 degrees of the course centerline.
18
If you are more than one dot below or two dots above glide slope on an ILS, you
eather you should not descend below localizer minimums. Or you must discontinue the approach.
When an ASR approach will end in a circle, furnish the controller with:
your aircraft category.
(T/F)Instrument hold lines ensure proper ILS operation during weather conditions less than 800 feet ceiling and (or) 2 miles visibility. You must listen to the current weather to know when to hold short of the instrument hold line.
FALSE
(T/F)Circling approaches normally should be attempted from precision approaches.
FALSE
Non-precision approach descent gradient will not exceed _____.
400 feet per nautical mile.
Any abnormal indications experienced within ____ degrees of the published front course centerline of an ILS localizer should be reported immediately
35
(T/F)If a SID cannot be retrieved from the database, then you may not use RNAV (GPS) procedures to fly the SID prior to the SID termination point
TRUE
T F Virga poses a wind shear threat to aircraft.
TRUE
T F Relative humidity is the ratio of the actual humidity to the humidity that the air would contain if saturated
TRUE
Be alert for fog or low cloud formation any time the surface air temperature is within ______ of the dew point, and the spread between the two is ________.
4* F; decreasing
T F For frost to form, the dew point of the surrounding air must be colder than freezing
TRUE
For unusual attitude recoveries, initiate recoveries above ____ KIAS and below _____ KIAS
130, 270
(T/F)Operational system checks will only be performed during student training sorties on a non-interference basis
TRUE
Do not taxi with less than _____ feet of wingtip obstacle clearance unless using a marshaller in conjunction with a wingwalker at the affected wingtip. Never taxi within _____ feet of any obstacle
25, 10
The minimum runway length for full stop landings is ____________________.
6,000 feet or computed landing distance, whichever is greater
Minimum runway length restrictions and operations where runway available is less than critical field length may be waived by the _______________.
Operations Group Commander
(T/F)Do not practice traffic pattern stalls beyond the stick shaker
TRUE
The following maneuvers are prohibited at night: __________________________.
formation
Approach to stalls, traffic pattern stalls, and slow flight must be completed above ___________ feet AGL.
5,000
Minimum altitude for formation position changes is ______ feet AGL
1,000
(T/F)The T-1A can be flown in areas of forecast severe icing
FALSE
(T/F)Simulated emergency procedures do not have to be pre-briefed or announced to be performed
FALSE
Frost forming on airframes results in _______ drag and _______ lift.
increased; decreased
T F Precipitation usually originates in the form of ice crystals
TRUE
T F Direct solar radiation accounts for the largest portion of the heat absorbed by the atmosphere
FALSE
The decrease of temperature with altitude is called the ______.
lapse rate.
T F The standard lapse rate in the troposphere is 2 degrees C (3.6 degrees F) per 3,000 feet
FALSE
The standard atmospheric pressure at sea level is_______, which corresponds to 29.92 inches of mercury
1013.25 mb
METAR is a scheduled observation taken between _______ minutes past the hour.
55-59
T F Reported wind direction is in magnetic north because runways and aircraft instruments are oriented toward magnetic north.
TRUE
T F When reading a METAR, winds transmitted long-line are reported in knots (kts) and true direction
TRUE
If winds are gusting, the next two or three digits immediately following the letter G (on the METAR line) will be the gust speed or _______ speed
peak wind
When reading a METAR, runway Visual Range (RVR) is reported when the prevailing visibility is one statute mile or _____ and/or the RVR for the designated runway is 6,000 feet/1830 meters or _____.
less; less
Regarding runway visual range (RVR), if reading a METAR reporting M0500FT, this means
RVR is less than 500 feet.
T F The aerodrome forecast (TAF) is a forecast for several terminals in a particular region covering a period of time up to 24 hours
FALSE
Convective SIGMETs (WST) are issued for
Severe thunderstorm with surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots. Hail greater than or equal to 3/4 inches in diameter Tornados
T F AIRMETs (Airmen's Meteorological Information) concern weather of less severity than that covered by SIGMETs
TRUE
T F Night Vision Goggle (NVG) Operations Weather Software (NOWS) calculates sunrise/set, moonrise/set, and illumination levels for NVG operations and includes atmosphere-induced effects on illumination while offering decision aids tailored for routes and areas.
TRUE
T F Integrated Weather Effects Decision Aid (IWEDA) is a rule-based application to provide critical friendly and threat weapon systems performance impacts required for Army (and some Air Force) mission planning and execution.
TRUE
(T/F)For the instrument cockpit check, it is not necessary to check the heading system for the correct direction of turns during taxi and the proper heading displayed during runway alignment.
FALSE
(T/F)During critical phases of flight, direct reference to the checklist is not required
TRUE
Before takeoff, the PNF sets the airspeed marker on _____, the PF sets _____, and they memorize _____ if different than S1.
S1, Vco, Vrot
(T/F)Because the TCAS will not be able to display all air traffic, the pilot is still responsible to clear for other aircraft.
TRUE
(T/F)Actual traffic pattern stalls or approach to stall situations frequently result from improper aircraft handling, maneuvering, or configuration.
TRUE
On initial for a VFR Tactical Pattern, the airspeed is _____ KIAS and altitude is _____ AGL
200, 1,500
The normal landing zone for the T-1 is _____ down the runway
500 - 2000 feet
What should you do if you lose sight of the leader when wings level?
Turn 45 degrees away for 10 seconds and then turn back to the original heading.
For a formation takeoff, position the wing on the upwind side of the runway ____________________.
when the crosswind component exceeds 10 knots
(T/F)During air refueling, an overrun is indicated anytime the receiver appears to be moving ahead of the tanker during the rendezvous.
TRUE
(T/F)Once you pass the IP and initiate a slowdown, be prepared to visually locate the DZ and maneuver the aircraft to maintain the run-in heading to the DZ. Also be prepared to adjust for drift to maintain a proper ground track to the DZ.
TRUE
(T/F)When the autopilot is engaged and transfer of aircraft control is made, there is no requirement to physically take control of the yoke and throttles.
TRUE
On final, tower clears you for the option. This means that you may __________.
touch and go full stop low approach
Height above airport (HAA) is associated with which of the following approaches?
Circling.
When ATC requests a speed adjustment for spacing, pilots are expected to maintain that speed ± _____ knots or ±_____ mach.
10, .02
Class D airspace dimensions are _____________.
surface to 2500 ft AGL surrounding the airport and individually tailored to contain published instrument procedures
If a pilot is given a vector taking the aircraft off a previously assigned non-radar route, he will be advised briefly what the vector is to achieve.
TRUE
(T/F)When departing non-military airports, the pilot must ensure that the actual departure time is passed to the tie-in FSS serving the departure airport.
TRUE
(T/F)CAPs objective is to focus supervisory attention on a student's progress in training, specific deficiencies, and potential to complete the program.
TRUE
(T/F)Generally, CAP is intended as a long-term program. A student requiring an extended period of increased supervision should be considered for additional training
FALSE
Who maintains overall authority and responsibility of CAP administration?
SQ/CC
(T/F)Every flight and simulator mission will have an EP briefing
TRUE
(T/F)Briefing and debriefing of CRM core concepts and skills are required on every aircraft and simulator mission
TRUE
Direct grade sheet comments to the _________.
flight commander
Which of the following is(are) required to be documented on AF Form 4293?
Student becomes airsick (passive or active).
Mission Briefings should do which of the following?
Set the tone of the lesson. Discuss techniques and procedures for flying the mission before or after the mission briefing. Cover specific objectives, mission accomplishment, and specific flight or simulator restrictions.
Who is responsible for maintaining student Instructor Continuity?
Flight Commanders
PICs will ensure that current copies of ______________ are on board the aircraft.
FLIP en route supplement and enroute charts Flight Information Handbook Appropriate arrival, approach and departure procedures
(T/F)When operating in FAA airspace, pilots will declare minimum/emergency fuel to the controlling agency when, in their judgment, the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the required/emergency fuel reserve.
TRUE
A PIC may make changes to a route or destination not shown on the original flight plan without re-filing provided:
The change does not penetrate an Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) The controlling agency approves the change for an IFR flight The PIC ensures the facility providing flight following is notified of the change The change complies with applicable national rules in an overseas area
The PIC's signature on the flight plan is evidence of approval and means all of the following except
The aircraft has been inspected and is deemed suitable for flight
(T/F)Unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstrations, maneuvers or "fly-bys" are acceptable if approved by ATC.
FALSE
Aircrew shall not consume alcoholic beverages within 12 hours of _______.
Takeoff
(T/F)Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic.
TRUE
When converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on or approximately so), the aircraft to the other's _______ has the right-of-way.
right
(T/F)An overtaken aircraft has the right-of-way. The overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right.
TRUE
(In the NAS) The PIC will not allow the aircraft to exceed _____ knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) below 10,000 ft. MSL unless the MAJCOM has approved a higher speed
250
(In the NAS)The PIC will not allow the aircraft to exceed _____ knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) in the airspace underlying Class B airspace designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace area, unless required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.
200
(T/F)An ATC taxi clearance to or from the assigned runway that does not include hold instructions authorizes the aircraft to taxi across all other runways and taxiways en route to or from the assigned runway
TRUE
(T/F)Air Force pilots may passively participate in Land and Hold Short Operations (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance).
TRUE
Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over congested areas or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least ______ ft. above the highest obstacle within a ______ ft. radius of the aircraft.
1,000, 2,000
Mission permitting, do not operate aircraft less than _____ ft. AGL over national recreation areas and wildlife refuges.
2000
(T/F)If equipped, anticollision lights must be on from takeoff to landing.
TRUE
(T/F)Notify ATC when encountering wake turbulence on ANY approach
TRUE
(T/F)When flying VFR, the PIC will request and utilize VFR Radar Advisory Services (Flight Following) to the maximum extent possible.
TRUE
An integral oil tank in each engine has a capacity of _______________.
2.03 gallons
(T/F)Operation of the engines with the EFCs off has no effect on the engine, as long as TRT is not exceeded
. False
If the left engine fails with the engine synchronization system on, _______________
There will be a maximum of 1.5% spool down of the right engine
. In the event of a hung start, you should ________________
not advance throttle beyond idle
(T/F)Crossfeed will supply fuel to a single engine from both wing tanks simultaneously
FALSE
(T/F)Charging a low state battery (less than 22 volts) using external power will significantly reduce battery life due to the high charge rate
TRUE
If it becomes necessary to yaw the aircraft to fully extend the landing gear during emergency gear extension, you should _____________
Apply rudder into the unsafe gear
(T/F)With the anti-skid switch placed to "OFF," the brake system functions in either the manual or power mode as determined by availability of 1,500 psi hydraulic system pressure to the power brake anti-skid control valve
TRUE
With engines off, how do you set the parking brake?
Pull out the handle, then pump the toe brakes
The speed brakes have two different rates of extension. Under what conditions is the faster rate achieved?
Weight on wheels
(T/F)If the stick shaker activates, you are in a full stall
FALSE
When approach mode is selected
roll rate is limited to four degrees per second, automatic crosswind correction with crab angles up to 30 degrees is provided, half bank mode is cleared if used with heading or roll mode, turbulence mode is cleared automatically at LOC capture
Selecting descend mode below 5000 ft MSL initiates a ____ descent
1000 ft/min
(T/F)The magnetic compass is erratic and unreliable when the side window defog heater/ blower units are operating and windshield heat is on high
TRUE
Which of the following methods are employed to de-ice and defog the flight deck windows?
Built-in wire heating elements in the windshield to prevent ice accumulation. Air ducts to the windshield and to the side windows for condensation removal and prevention. Supplemental electrical heater/blower to prevent or remove condensation from the side windows.
(T/F)You should never clean a dry window surface without using water or a mild soap solution
TRUE
(T/F)The ground air (fresh air) blower will operate with the bleed air switch on while the aircraft is in flight
FALSE
The CABIN PRESSURE HI annunciator illuminates when cabin pressure differential exceeds ____psi.
11 +- 1
By turning the manual depressurization valve knob counterclockwise 8 complete revolutions, the cabin may be depressurized to a maximum of ____ feet
12,500 +- 1500
(T/F)Adjusting the manual pressurization control will not extinguish a CABIN PRESS HI annunciator
FALSE
When using the manual pressurization control, you should raise cabin pressure
Slowly, to prevent injury to the ears
With the small knob located in the lower left portion of the cabin controller, the pilot can control the cabin altitude rate of change within a range of approximately _______ to ________ feet per minute
50, 2,000.
Three overtemperature switches are installed in each wing to monitor the bleed air temperature. One switch is located near the center of the inboard leading edge and closes at approximately _____degrees F, and the other two switches located forward of the front wing spar close at approximately _____ degrees F
350, 212.
(T/F)The cabin dump valve handle is secured in the closed position with a red guard
FALSE
. (T/F) The horizontal stabilizer anti-ice and de-ice systems must operate together. Should either system fail, both must be turned off
TRUE
If the backup switch is held in the MANUAL position, power to the gap heater elements will be maintained longer than the ______ standard momentary switch operation, and overheating could result
30 sec
(T/F)The air data systems anti-ice heaters are powered separately for the pilot and copilot systems from the left and right overhead bus respectively
TRUE
Flight in visible moisture without pitot heat can result in erratic operation or failure of the following pilot and/or copilot systems
Mach/airspeed indicator .IVSI. altimeters.
To prevent damage to the windshield glass surface and wiper blades, do not
operate on a windshield covered with abrasive particles such as dust or sand. go directly from ON to PARK (switch should be moved from ON to OFF, then to PARK).
The weather radar antenna is located
inside the nose cone of the airplane
If a LOC frequency is tuned and the selected course is greater than _____ degrees from the heading, the back course annunciation label B/C is displayed to the right of the lubber line
105
(T/F)When using cross side display operations, due to lack of comparator warnings pilots should crosscheck position, attitude, and altitude with other reliable instruments such as standby instruments
TRUE
Comparator warning flags are displayed on the _______.
EADI.EHSI.MFD.
The aural warning system may activate when power is applied to the aircraft if the altitude preselect is within 1,000 feet of field elevation. The warning can be silenced by ____
pulling and resetting ADC 1 circuit breaker
Fast slave alignment takes 15-35 seconds and may be performed
in level unaccelerated flight
The AHRS standby battery provides approximately ____ minutes of operating power to Altitude Heading Computers number one and two in the event of primary power loss
11
(T/F)The TCAS system gives both vertical and horizontal flight path collision avoidance alerts.
false vertical only
(T/F)The pilot should not initiate evasive maneuvers using information from the traffic display only or on a traffic advisory (TA) without visually sighting the traffic
TRUE
When does the weather radar automatically switch to STBY after landing?
TAS is less than 50 knots and a 60 second timer has expired
Pushing the GND COMM switch will activate which of the following
UHF radio VHF radio
(T/F)The decision height trip signal sent to the ground proximity computer GPC is only from the radio altimeter indicator (pilots or copilots)
TRUE
The decision height warning "MINIMUMS-MINIMUMS" is activated when the aircraft reaches which of the following settings: (Assume gear is down, tactical mode is not active)
The decision height set on the radio altimeter
When will the GPWS warning "GLIDESLOPE" be activated during an ILS approach?
1000 feet AGL and/or at more than 1.3 dots below glideslope
The excessive bank angle warning sounds when:
10* bank is exceeded below 25 feet
Automatic deployment of the passenger oxygen system during a pressurization malfunction will occur at what altitude? (-1,1-385)
12,500 feet cabin altitude +/- 500 feet
What is the "L ENG ICE TEMP LO" annunciator an indication of? (-1,1-394)
Left engine anti-ice temperature below 120 degrees F
What does the "FLAP ASYM" annunciator indicate? (-1,1-394)
Main flap asymmetry of 7 degrees or more
What is the maximum cargo floor loading for the T-1A? (-1,1-396)
100 lbs per sq ft
To test the AHRS battery, ____________. (-1,2-2A)
hold for five seconds and check AHRS BATT TEST annunciator illuminated
During the Before Exterior Inspection, when inspecting the lavatory knife valve, ensure it is open at least _________. (-1,2-2A)
1/4 inch
(T/F)Cargo can safely be stored on the aircraft and need not be considered in performance data calculations. (-1,2-2)
FALSE
(T/F)Check voltage before connecting a GPU to the aircraft. (-1,2-3)
TRUE
After pushing the battery feed test button and the battery switch is placed to "EMER," check for operation of _______. (-1,2-3)
RTU #1
(T/F)Whenever power is applied to the aircraft, one crewmember must be onboard at all times. (-1,2-3)
TRUE
(T/F)Check the inflatable seal on the crew entrance door for signs of damage or wear. (-1,2-3)
TRUE
During the Exterior Inspection, what is the extension of a main gear strut? (-1,2-5)
1.1 inches minimum
If oil level OK indicator fails to illuminate, you should _________
use the dipstick to check the oil level
When testing the indicator lights, the following lights do not illuminate: _______.
red light in gear position indicators. starter disengage switchlight. engine start button
When checking stall warning systems, the master test switch must remain in the L or R STALL position until stick shaker actuates twice to check the ______________
altitude compensator.
After selecting the left tank during the fuel crossfeed check, these lights will illuminate
Left boost pump light, right jet pump light, Xfeed light
When the RAT is 5ºC or below and visible moisture is present _____________
if engines are started, advance power to as high as practical for 10 seconds every 10 minutes. (70% n2 min)
When visible moisture is in the vicinity and OAT is 5 degrees C or less, and the dew point is 4 degrees C or less, do not start the engines unless the takeoff can be accomplished within ________.
10 min
If starter dropout has not occurred by _____ N2, press the starter disengage button
45
(T/F)While accomplishing the horizontal stabilizer de-ice test, if one of the 12 elements is open, the operation lights will remain off for the 1-2 second test
TRUE
The horizontal stabilizer de-ice "TEST" position will _______________
applies power to the heater elements for 0.6 seconds in sequence with a pause after each six.
(T/F)Taxiing close to another aircraft during ice or snow keeps the snow melted off of the wings
FALSE
(T/F)During the Wing Anti-Ice check, it is a requirement to check for two ITT rises when the wing anti-ice switch is turned on
FALSE
Wing anti-ice annunciator will extinguish when the engine inlet temperature rises to ____ degrees F
140
If the weather radar cannot be switched from the "TEST" mode
cycle the right non-essential bus "OFF" then "ON."
The throttles should be set at _____ to ensure that the anti-ice valve is open when checking wing and engine anti-ice
70% N2
When does the pilot flying call for "flaps up"?
passing 400 AGL and VCO + 10 KIAS minimum
When does the pilot flying place both hands on the control yoke?
S1
Allow a minimum of ____ minute(s) before takeoff following a helicopter
two
Allow a minimum of ________ minutes before taking off or landing behind a larger type aircraft
2
Engine, wing, and horizontal tail anti-ice and de-ice will be on whenever temperature is ____________.
below 8 degrees C RAT and visible moisture is present
During a crosswind takeoff with crosswinds less than 5 knots, allow a minimum of _______ minutes behind heavy jet aircraft before taking off.
3
Windshield heat must be on for cruise ___________
above 18,000 MSL
Maximum range descent is _________.
idle, clean, 0.70 IMN above 35,900 ft, 230 KIAS below 35,900 ft.
Maximum en route descent is _________.
idle, speed brakes, 0.70 above 32,300 ft, 250 KIAS below 32,300 ft
Maximum penetrateion descent is _________.
. idle, 180 KIAS, speed brakes, gear, 3 degrees nose low
What is a rapid decent pitch and power?
idle, speed brakes, 0.78 IMN above 24,800 ft, 330 below 24,800 ft.
For noise abatement takeoffs retract the flaps at ___________.
1500' AGL
What is the recommended holding airspeed
180 KIAS (unless there is a fuel problem, then check the charts)
When maneuvering at bank angles in excess of 15 degrees, add _____ knots to the appropriate speed for flap configuration. Maintaining this speed will ensure adequate margin above stall for bank angles up to ____ degrees
10, 30
Prior to initiating a low altitude approach, slow the aircraft to ______ in the clean configuration. Prior to the ________ configure with gear and flaps as appropriate
180, Final Approach Fix
(T/F)The flaps can be lowered to 10 degrees and the gear lowered prior to calling for the Before Landing Checklist
TRUE
If icing conditions are encountered during flight, no greater than 10 degrees flaps may be utilized for landing unless _____________.
eather a RAT of +5 degrees C or warmer is observed during the approach …icing conditions were encountered for less than 10 minutes and the RAT during such encounter was warmer than -8 degrees C
In the traffic pattern, lower flaps to 30 degrees no later than _____.
300 feet AGL
During a circle lower the flaps to 30 degrees when ______________.
departing the circling MDA
(T/F)After landing, when an engine is shutdown it is still permissible to use the aux cool.
FALSE
During emergency braking rotating down on the EMER BRAKE handle _________.
Applies nitrogen pressure to the brakes …Provides pressure for at least 7 applications.
(T/F)Emergency braking has anti-skid protection
FALSE
The base of the escape hatch is ____ feet above the ground with the landing gear extended
4.5
Airborne minimum control speed, Vmca, is ____
89 KIAS
Upon reaching 400 feet, level off and accelerate. Passing _____ retract the flaps. Climb at _______ until 2200 feet above field elevation or desired pattern altitude.
vco+10, Vco+15
Taxi over cables lying on the runway is acceptable for slow taxi speeds (less than ____ knots).
5
Airborne minimum control speed was determined using ___________.(-
5 degrees of bank into the operating engine. rudder at 180lbs of deflection. takeoff rated thrust.
(T/F)During abort, the use of speedbrakes is optional as warranted by the situation
FALSE
What is the single engine best rate enroute climb speed?
170 knots
. If an engine fire occurs immediately after takeoff, to what altitude must you climb at Vco + 15?
2200 feet AGL or clear of obstacles, whichever is higher
If an engine fire occurs immediately after takeoff when performing an ECS OFF takeoff procedure, when may you turn the ECS back on?
2200 feet AGL or clear of obstacles, whichever is higher
When an engine fails during takeoff, securing the engine should not be accomplished prior to reaching ____feet AGL, or clear of obstructions.
400
. (T/F) If fuel crossfeed is required after engine shutdown, the fuel boost pump must be turned on to ensure crossfeed capability
TRUE
What speed will you maintain on final when performing an engine-out autopilot coupled approach?
Vapp + 5 knots
If the engine is being shutdown with no mechanical difficulty, stabilize ITT at IDLE thrust for ____.
1 minute
. During a windmilling start, a relight should occur within ___ seconds. If an overheat occurs, windmill the engine for ____ seconds before attempting another start
10, 30
The minimum speed of the air start envelope is ______.
100 knots
Airstarts will be starter assisted below ____ knots
200
What is the maximum speed for an engine airstart
250
What is the minimum speed for a windmilling engine airstart
200 knots
(T/F)Battery power is used for all in flight starter assisted air starts, regardless of the position of the generator reset switch
TRUE
(T/F)With the EFC off, the throttle angle to achieve similar thrust settings will be different
TRUE
(T/F)When the fuel filter bypass annunciator illuminates, land as soon as possible
TRUE
If the temp is below ______ and the iceing light is not on you can shed the ele heat to the aircraft
-22ºC
(T/F) When the LH load bus loses power and the NO 1 inverter has also failed, a load shedding circuit is activated which causes the emergency bus to power the NO 2 inverter.
false RH not LH
what hydraulic powered systems will not be functional when electrical power is lost
flaps, speed brake, antiskid, power brakes and normal ldg gr estenshion
With the FLAP ASYM annunciator illuminated, do not exceed ____
the Vfe of the ammount of flaps deployed ( the indicator only shows the right flap)
If a spin is entered, how do you get out?
apply anti spin controls
With the speed brakes extended, level flight stall speeds will increase ____ knots
5
(T/F)Prolonged use of emergency pressurization can result in the melting of aircraft trim panels near the rear bulkhead
TRUE
When accomplishing an emergency descent, lower the nose to approximately ____ degrees nose-low and allow the airspeed to accelerate to _____ whichever is slower
20; .78 Mach or 330 KIAS
Landing with flaps at 10 degrees will increase landing distance by how much
approximately 20 %
What speed will be the minimum speed on final for an all engine failure, forced landing?
140 knots
During a forced landing (no power), plan to arrive at high key ____ft above the terrain
4000
When accomplishing a side window landing, landing distance will increase approximately ________ due to the increased approach speed
20%.
For landings with zero hydraulic pressure, increase computed 30 degree flap landing distance by ____ to determine landing distance.
90%
For a no-flap landing, fly final approach at _____. Landing distance will increase approximately ______.
Vref+20, 35%
During emergency gear extension, the landing gear should down lock in approximately ____ seconds
30
(T/F)If UHF guard mode was on when RTU failure occurred, guard reception is still available
TRUE
Illumination of the avionics blower fail annunciator may indicate ____________________.
an overheat condition in the avionics rack. loss of air in the avionics duct system. a malfunction of the blower motor.
(T/F)The crew member occupying the jump seat will actuate controls on the shroud or instrument panel only if he/she is an instructor pilot.
FALSE
(T/F)If only two pilots are aboard the aircraft, pilots shall only exchange seats with the autopilot engaged
FALSE
What seven actions require verbal communication so that personnel and aircraft safty are not jeopaedized?
1 ac control 2 repositioning for fuel control switches 3 a crew member leaves position or get on or off communication 4 goiong on of off O2 5 eletrical power is changed 6 auto pilot is changed 7 pilot preforming a criticial manuver ( abourt, go around, landing)
If the crew is utilizing supplemental oxygen or the aircraft altitude is above ______ feet, the PNF will periodically initiate a check of the oxygen system pressure.
25,000
In the case of exceeding an aircraft limitation, you must annotate in the AFTO Form 781 ___.
time interval of the excessive limitations. instrument reading of the limitation.
Only time that 400 amps is used for one generator is? Other wise it is 280
FROM GROUND TO 32,500
. For generator assisted starts on the second engine, the operating engine must be at ______ or the generator may be damaged
IDLE
What are the acceleration limits with flaps up?
-1.0 to +3.2 G's
Maximum Zero fuel weight for the T-1A is
13,000
What are the acceleration limits with flaps extended
. 0 to +2.0 G's
What is the T-1A maximum ramp weight
16,300 lbs
As much as ____ of energy per mile can be absorbed by the brakes on a level taxiway
5 million ft/lbs per mile (2 million per mile if downhill)
Maximum rate of descent at touchdown (for the T-1A) is_______feet per minute
600
Approved fuels which do not contain icing inhibitors must have fuel system icing inhibitors added in portions not less than______ nor more than _____ by volume.
0.10%, 0.15%
. (T/F) During ground aborts within a given stopping distance, the same amount of heat is generated by the brakes whether the brakes are applied in one steady application or a series of short applications
TRUE
(T/F)Any effort between 8.1 and 14.8 million ft/lbs should be regarded as hot brakes
TRUE
Which of the following T-1 aerodynamic designs increases the critical Mach number most effectively
wing sweepback
Allowable asymmetric fuel conditions are no more than ____ pounds between wings for takeoff, and ____ pounds for all other phases of flight
100, 300
Dutch roll should be stopped by all but which of the following
engaging the yaw damper . engaging the full autopilot. manual use of the control wheel
For practice approach to stalls what power setting should be used to recover
MCT
During stall recoveries, fly the aircraft around __________________.
approximately 0.8 to 0.85 AOA to minimize altitude loss
(T/F)Prior to making an initial aircraft inspection following a suspected lightning strike, ensure the aircraft is properly grounded.
TRUE
Severe windshear is that which produces airspeed changes greater than ___ knots or vertical speed changes greater than ___ feet per minute.
15, 500
When windshear is present, fly approaches up to ___ knots fast, and stabilize the approach no later than ___ feet AGL
10, 1000
If icing conditions are encountered during flight, no greater than 10 degrees flaps may be used for landing unless the following condition(s) are met:
the icing conditions were encountered for less than 10 minutes. the RAT during the icing encounter was warmer than -8 degrees C. a RAT of +10 degrees C or warmer is observed during approach
Critical Engine Failure Speed is
. the speed at which one engine can fail and the same distance is required to either continue to accelerate to lift-off speed, or to abort and decelerate to a full stop
Ground minimum control speed allows a lateral deviation on the runway of not more than
25 feet
S1 is the higher of either ____________, but not greater than ___________.
. Vmcg or Vcef; Vrot, Vref, or Vmb
The minimum climbout factor for all takeoffs is
2.5
Apply ___ % of the tailwind component to CFL
150
The scheduled initial 1 engine climb-out speed must be reached by _____ ft AGL and maintained to _____ ft AGL. Greater airspeeds will result in a decrease in aircraft climb performance and an increase in the climb-out flight path distance.
50, 400
Reference Zero _______
Will occur no later than the departure end of the runway. Is the point at which the aircraft reaches 50 feet above the runway elevation.
Rate climb airspeed is
220 KIAS to 33.600 ft and M = 0.64 above 33,600 ft
Range climb airspeed is
250 KIAS to 28,000 ft and M = 0.64 above 28,000 ft
Service ceiling corresponds to a climb of ____ fpm
100
Cruise ceiling corresponds to a climb of ____ fpm
300
Combat ceiling corresponds to a climb of ____ fpm
500
(T/F)The range climb speed schedule will result in a somewhat longer time and a greater fuel usage than the rate climb.
TRUE
The results in the climb charts can only be achieved if the scheduled speeds are maintained within:
+/- 5 knots or +/- 0.01 Mach number
With all anti-ice on, the 2 engine ceilings will be lowered by _____ feet.
10,500
With engine anti-ice on, the 2 engine ceilings will be lowered by _____ feet
7,200
Best range is defined as _________.
The level flight speed at which the maximum value of nautical air miles per pound of fuel is obtained
Best endurance AOA is approximately _____
0.45
(T/F)With the landing gear down, range decreases by up to 40%
TRUE
For one-engine operation, decrease range by ____% for each 20ºC above standard day.
1
For any combination of gross weight, there is an optimum combination of altitude and airspeed that will yield the largest endurance time. This is the ______
maximum endurance altitude
Having all anti-ice equipment on decreases endurance by _______.
9%
Determining endurance, variations of _____ feet or _____ knots will not appreciably affect the overall endurance time
. 4000, 10
(T/F)While descending with anti-ice on, time and distance may be 50% more than is read from the charts. And fuel burned more than 350%
TRUE
While descending with anti-ice systems on, maintain approximately _____% N2
70
(T/F)The cruise checklist need not be accomplished if actual cruise time will be of short duration (approximately 15 minutes)
TRUE
(T/F)On all sorties, it is required to only carry T.O. 1T-1A-1 (not T.O. 1T-1A-1-1)
FALSE
On all sorties, the aircraft commander must ensure the following items are on board the aircraft: _________
Aircraft technical orders. a flashlight for each crewmember. suitable terrain charts
Do not taxi with less than _____ feet from any obstacle without a wingwalker. Never taxi within _____ feet of any obstacle
25, 10
Declare minimum fuel as soon as it can be determined that your fuel at touchdown will be less than ________ pounds (dual) or ________ pounds (team).
500, 700
T-1A aircraft will not be flown in areas of ____________ turbulence or icing
forecast or reported severe
(T/F)Do not cruise or conduct multiple approaches in actual moderate icing conditions
TRUE
Do not exceed ______ degrees of bank in IMC, unless safety of flight dictates otherwise
30
The minimum runway length for T-1A takeoffs is ___________________________.
6,000 feet or critical field length, or distance to reach ref zero whichever is greater
The minimum runway length for full stop landings is ____________________.
6,000 feet or computed landing distance, whichever is greater
Minimum takeoff factor for all takeoffs is _________
2.5
__________ and _________ tactical overheads are prohibited
single engine and no-flap
Limit power during ground operations to approximately _________ in congested areas
70% N2
Maintain a minimum of _________ KIAS during the closed pull-up
160
Plan not to exceed _____ degrees of bank in the final turn or on final
30
(T/F)You may practice no-flap full stop landings
FALSE
The following maneuvers are prohibited at night: __________________________.
Team sorties, formation low lovels dual engine flame out patterns…and… stalls, slow flight, unusual attitudes, steep turns etc..
Simulated emergency patterns and circles may be flown at night if the weather is at or above ____________.
2000; 3 or circ mins whatever is higher
The minimum altitude for a seat swap is ________.
1000 feet AGL
Do not exceed _________ while flying a low level route
270 KIAS
. Maximum planned groundspeed on military training routes is __________.
210-240
When terrain varies on a low level, maintain a minimum of ______ above the highest terrain within ______ feet of the aircraft
500; 2000 feet
For towers on or near the low level route, fly a minimum of _______ feet above the highest obstacle within _____ NM of the aircraft
500; 2
While flying an airdrop sortie as wing, never fly ___________.
below lead or below 500 feet AGL whatever is higher
Airdrop configuration is ______ flaps and ______ KIAS minimum
10º; 140
(T/F)Simulated emergency procedures do not have to be pre-briefed or announced to be performed
FALSE
(T/F)You can conduct simulated emergencies in IMC weather conditions (i.e., single engine ILS).
FALSE
(T/F)Do not practice a single-engine go-around after selecting 30º flaps
TRUE
The minimum altitude to practice simulated engine failure during takeoff or landing is ______ feet
500
Before takeoff, the PNF sets the airspeed marker on _____, the PF sets ___, and both memorize ______ if different than S1
S1, Vco, Vrot
The decision about when to make an abort should be made _________
In the briefing room.
The normal landing zone for the T-1A is ____.
between 500 and 2000 feet down the runway
(T/F)At bases other than the home field, glidepath guidance must be available and monitored during night VFR pattern operations
TRUE
(T/F)A precision (ILS) system constitutes acceptable glidepath guidance during night VFR pattern operations
TRUE
While flying at 0.6 Mach, a 1 degree pitch decrease gives approximately a ____ fpm descent
600
Use ___ KIAS for holding at all altitudes
180
The T-1A is a Category __ aircraft for instrument approaches and ___ for circ approaches
B, C
When APPR mode is selected, automatic crosswind correction is provided using crab angles up to ___ degrees
30
In APPR mode, the maximum command AOB is
15
For a no-gyro approach, use ___ AOB for one-half standard rate turns
10
Lower flaps to full on a circling approach when
descending out of the MDA. when intercepting a normal glidepath
For a circle, plan to roll out on final a minimum of ___ miles(s) from the end of the runway
2-Jan
(T/F)For navigation on the low altitude system, a lead point is required for all turns to remain within the protected airspace of the airway
TRUE
(T/F)An alphabetic identifier displayed on the EHSI is the same as identifying and monitoring the NAVAID aurally
TRUE
For a VFR arrival, cancel IFR approximately ___ NM from the destination and coordinate with approach control or tower to proceed to the rectangular pattern or a visual straight-in.
30
Clearance for a visual approach is clearance for
a straight-in
Lead's primary responsibilities are
Clearing. Planning
Bingo fuel is
a prebriefed fuel state or time, which will be used to terminate maneuvering and start a return to base
. If you lose sight of lead as number two in level flight, you should
Turn 45ºaway for 10 seconds using 30º of bank
If you are on the inside of a turn, what should you do if you lose sight of the leader?
Maintain the turn. Instruct the leader to roll out
. If VMC is regained after two has lost sight of lead, lead must coordinate with
the wingman and the controlling agency
Minimum taxi interval between aircraft is:
150 feet (approx 3 ship lengths)
(T/F)A formation requires a minimum of a 150-feet-wide runway for both aircraft to take the runway at the same time
TRUE
When is the rejoin initiated on an IMC interval departure
when both aircraft are above the weather. once the wingman has reported visual contact with lead
. Basic visual position is defined as
600-700 feet behind and 200-300 feet to the right
(T/F)Offset position is defined as 600-4000 feet of spacing and oriented radially around lead from the in-trail position up to line abreast
TRUE
Lead's maneuvering parameters in Offset Maneuvering include which of the following?
No more than 45º bank. plus or minus 20 º pitch. airspeed limited to 180-260 knots
As a guide, use approximately _____ of overtake to complete a turning rejoin
20 KIAS
A position change is effective when
Two passes abeam lead
As the wingman, you should breakout when
you lose sight of lead. crossing under or in front of lead. directed by lead. hazard to the formation
. The drag maneuver should be flown to allow a minimum spacing of _____ between aircraft
6,000 feet or 20 sec
The receiver must be established __________ prior to crossing the ARIP
1,000 feet below the tanker
The ARCT is the______________.
receiver's planned arrival time at the ARCP
The tanker may only declare MARSA when which of the following conditions have been met?
. Positive altitude separation, position identification, and radio contact
. Ensure the A/A TACAN mode is operating and the radios are set at least_________.
15 minutes prior to the ARCT
. (T/F) If TCAS is not operating, the tanker will direct the receiver to cycle the A/A TACAN off, then on, to make positive identification
TRUE
The Tanker's navigation method should be
FMS as primary, VOR TACAN radial and DME fixes as backup
The tanker will depart the orbit _____________.
when the receiver calls the ARIP
As receiver, be established ______ the Tanker's altitude prior to the ARIP and adjust airspeed to______.
1,000 feet below, 285 KIAS
(T/F)You should be approximately one-thirds of the turn range from the tanker when the tanker is halfway through the turn
TRUE
(T/F)As the receiver, pan to roll out 1-3 NM behind the tanker at 285 KIAS
TRUE
The receiver's closure rate is
285 at 1 NM, 275 at 1/2 NM, and slowing to 250 KIAS when arriving at precontact
(T/F)At 1 NM, you must have the tanker in sight and be cleared by the tanker to begin climbing to air refueling altitude
TRUE
The ___________ will initiate overrun procedures
tanker or receiver
Precontact position is defined as:
50 feet behind, 15 feet below, with the tanker's wingtips filling the windscreen
The turbulence limit for precontact and contact position is
Light
The contact envelope is defined as:
±10º vertically and laterally, ± 6 feet fore and aft
When selecting turn points, the best features to use are
natural features with funneling features or vertical development
When designing your map for a low level, annotate it with the following
The route corridor. Circles around the turn points. A turn radius for bank angle and TAS. 1-minute markers
Continuation fuel is
The minimum fuel required to complete the route at planned airspeeds and return to base with AFI 11-202v3 reserves
Emergency route abort altitude (ERAA) provides
1000' (2,000' in "mountainous" terrain) above the highest obstacle within 25 NM of the entire route
(T/F)Set the Radio altimeter to terrain clearance altitude, and the DH on the EHSI to 10% below terrain clearance altitude (e.g. 500 in radio altimeter, 450 in DH).
TRUE
(T/F)An IFR clearance is required to enter an SR or VR route
FALSE
Squawk on an IR route is ______, on a VR route is ______, and on an SR route is _____.
as assigned by ATC, 4000, 1200
(T/F)If your fuel remaining is less than continuation fuel at a checkpoint, abort the route and proceed to the base of intended landing
TRUE
If you are flying 240 knots GS and arrive at a turnpoint 10 seconds early, the proper correction would be
Decrease GS 10 knots for 4 minutes
Standard Correction Angle dictates:
1 minute flown on the SCA will make a 1 NM correction
(T/F)When leaving an IR route, you are required to contact the controlling agency and receive an exit clearance
TRUE
(T/F)Once a low-level has been aborted, it can be re-entered provided you have positive position awareness and the required cloud clearance
FALSE
Airdrop altitude is
1000 feet AGL
(T/F)Lead initiates a climbing slowdown approximately 3 to 7 miles from the DZ
TRUE
Proper drop configuration is
flaps 10. 140 KIAS
For an escape, lead sets power to ___________, raises flaps, and begins a descent to _________________
MCT-5%, route altitude