Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
259 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Systems Physiology Test 1Q
|
Systems Physiology Test 1A
|
|
|
|
|
BASIC CONCEPTS - HOMEOSTASIS
|
BASIC CONCEPTS – HOMEOSTASIS
|
|
1. What is the principle of Complementarity?
|
1. Function always reflects structure
|
|
2. Secondary active transport requires what?
|
2. Concentration gradient for energy source
|
|
3. What are organs?
|
3. Anatomical and functional units made up of 2 or more primary tissues
|
|
4. What is homeostasis?
|
4. Ability for an organism to maintain a stable internal environment
|
|
5. What are the three steps of homeostasis?
|
5. Reception, integration, effects
|
|
6. What are the three independent components of control mechanism?
|
6. Receptor, control center, effector
|
|
7. What does the control center do?
|
7. Determines the set point at which a variable will be kept
|
|
8. Homeostasis is primarily maintained by ____________.
|
8. Negative feedback loops
|
|
9. What are the two regulatory mechanisms? Describe both.
|
9. Intrinsic (in organ regulated), Extrinsic (outside regulation, e.g. nervous/endocrine)
|
|
10. What are the three components of negative feedback? Describe each.
|
10. Sensor (detect dev/ from setpoint), Intergration center (determines response), effector (effect)
|
|
11. Give an example of negative feedback? Positive feedback?
|
11. Blood glucose (rise when fasting, drop when eating), Blood clotting (platelets attract platelets)
|
|
12. What may occur if negative feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed?
|
12. Destructive positive mechanisms take over
|
|
|
|
|
MUSCULAR SYSTEM BASICS
|
NERVOUS SYSTEM BASICS
|
|
13. What are the three main functions of the nervous system?
|
13. Sensory input, integration, motor output
|
|
14. Sensory (afferent) in the PNS has both somatic and _______ portions.
|
14. Visceral
|
|
15. Motor (efferent) in the PNS has both somatic and _______ portions.
|
15. Autonomic
|
|
16. Somatic divisions refer to _____________.
|
16. Voluntary control
|
|
17. Describe the ganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system.
|
17. Short pre-ganglionic and long post-ganglionic neurons
|
|
18. What do Dual innervations allows for?
|
18. System counteraction and smoothing
|
|
19. What cell has a 5x higher concentration than neurons?
|
19. Glial cells (for homeostasis)
|
|
20. _________ moves soluble compounds toward __________ via rhythmic contractions of axon.
|
20. Axoplasmic flow, nerve endings
|
|
21. Describe the ganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system.
|
21. Long pre-ganglionic and short post-ganglionic neurons
|
|
22. What is axonal transport?
|
22. Moves large & insoluble compounds bidirectionally along microtubules. Very fast.
|
|
23. What is movement toward the axon terminal?
|
23. Anterograde
|
|
24. What are the functions of neurons?
|
24. Generate/transmit APs, secrete neurotransmitters from axonal terminals
|
|
25. What is the blood-brain-barrier?
|
25. Specialized capillary tight junctions allowing only certain compounds to enter brain
|
|
26. What is the underlying functional feature of the nervous system?
|
26. Action potentials
|
|
27. Neurons are ___________.
|
27. Highly irritable
|
|
28. Neuron action potentials are always the same regardless o f___________.
|
28. Stimulus
|
|
29. The resting membrane potential is maintained by what?
|
29. Large cations trapped in cell, Na/K pump, Na+ outside, K+ inside & negatively attracted
|
|
30. In a neuromuscular junction, ________ neurons use _________ as a neurotransmitter.
|
30. Cholinergic, Ach
|
|
31. What are the large EPSPs call on skeletal muscle?
|
31. End-plate potentials
|
|
32. The large EPSPs do what?
|
32. Open voltage gated channels beneath the end plate causing muscle contraction
|
|
33. What is a drug that blocks Ach action at an NMJ?
|
33. Curare
|
|
34. What are presynaptic inhibitions?
|
34. Inhibitory interactions that stabilize the central nervous system
|
|
35. What is a Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) caused by?
|
35. Increased Cl- conductance of postjunctional membrane
|
|
36. What is a Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) caused by?
|
36. ↑ conductance of the postsynaptic membrane to Na+ and K+ responding to a neurotransmitter
|
|
|
|
|
RECEPTORS
|
RECEPTORS
|
|
37. What two inhibitory receptors are from the same superfamily of ligand-gated ion channels?
|
37. GABA and Glycine
|
|
38. GABAA receptor is a ____________________.
|
38. Cl- channel
|
|
39. GABAB receptor is a ____________________.
|
39. Metatropic receptor
|
|
40. Excitatory amino acid receptors are all activated by __________.
|
40. Glutamate
|
|
41. What are the excitatory amino acid receptors and provide any extra information if available.
|
41. AMPA, NMDA (permits flow of Na+ K+ and Ca2+, blocked by Mg), Kinate, L-AP4
|
|
42. What is the full name for AMPA?
|
42. α-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoazole
|
|
43. What is the full name of NMDA?
|
43. N-methyl-D-aspartate
|
|
44. Metabotropic receptors mobilize ____ and increase _____________.
|
44. IP3, Ca2+
|
|
45. Metabotropic receptors sometimes associate with __________________, a.k.a. _________.
|
45. Guanine nucleotide-binding protein (g-proteins)
|
|
46. What are the five basic properties of receptors?
|
46. Binding is saturable reversible, and of high affinity, specificity, physiological action, multiplicity
|
|
47. What is the saturable/reversible equation and what does each factor stand for?
|
47. *R+ + *L+ ↔ *RL+ : R = concentration of receptors, L = concentration of ligand, RL is the complex
|
|
48. Bmax corresponds to what?
|
48. Limited number of protein molecules
|
|
49. What is the equation of the dissociation constant? What is another name for it?
|
49. Kd = [R] * [L] / [RL] : Binding constant
|
|
50. What is the equation of the association constant?
|
50. Ka = [RL] / [R] * [L]
|
|
51. How much is high-affinity? Practically, how does high-affinity apply here?
|
51. Less than a micromolar concentration : a small quantity is needed to saturate a receptor
|
|
52. How are receptors defined?
|
52. By the pharmacological agent(s) that binds to it
|
|
53. Reversible agonist will ____ with the actual intended ligand, which may _____________.
|
53. Compete, boost ligand production
|
|
54. Irreversible agonists will ______ and may _____________.
|
54. Continually excite, destroy a receptor and associated neuropeptide
|
|
55. Secondary messenger molecules will continue to send inhib/excit signals until what?
|
55. A specific cellular function is accomplished
|
|
56. Ion channels alter what?
|
56. Polarization of membrane according to ion permeability
|
|
57. There is often ___________ receptor for a central neurotransmitter.
|
57. More than 1
|
|
58. When do different effector mechanisms exist for the same central neurotransmitter?
|
58. When different concentrations of the NT is released at the site
|
|
59. What are autonomic receptors coupled with?
|
59. GTP-binding proteins (g-proteins)
|
|
60. G proteins are ________ with __, __, and __ subunits.
|
60. Heterotrimeric : α, β, γ
|
|
61. What are the two kinds of α subunits?
|
61. Stimulatory αs and Inhibitory αi
|
|
62. If a α-subunit binds to a ______ it becomes inactive.
|
62. GDP
|
|
63. Binding of GTP activates __________, causing _________, thus _________ the G protein.
|
63. Intrinsic GTPase activity, GTP hydrolysis producing GDP, inactivating
|
|
64. To initiate physiological actions, what do enzymes do G-proteins couple GPCR with?
|
64. Adenylate cyclase (AC) & Phospholipase C
|
|
65. AC produces what secondary messenger?
|
65. cAMP
|
|
66. Phospholipase C produces what secondary messenger?
|
66. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)
|
|
67. Usually the secondary messengers _________.
|
67. Amplify a signal which is sent on a cascade till a physiological action is produced
|
|
68. Norepineprine acts as _________ messenger.
|
68. First
|
|
|
|
|
NEUROTRANSMITTERS & NEUROPEPTIDES
|
NEUROTRANSMITTERS & NEUROPEPTIDES
|
|
69. What are the neurotransmitters?
|
69. Ach, NorEpi, Epi, Dopamine, 5HT, histamine, purine, GABA, glutamate, aspartate, glycine, NO2
|
|
70. How are NTs inactivated?
|
70. Active reuptake and enzymatic metabolism
|
|
71. The synaptic vesicle membrane is recycled by ______________.
|
71. Clathrin-mediated endocytosis
|
|
72. What is additionally need to recycle the synaptic vesicle?
|
72. Na and Mg
|
|
73. What are the five basic steps of chemical nerve transmission?
|
73. Synthesis of NT, vesicle storage, synaptic release, receptor stimulation, termination of NT
|
|
74. Depolarization opens ______ channels in the presynaptic nerve terminal leading to exocytosis.
|
74. Voltage gated Ca2+
|
|
75. The influx of Ca2+ is the result of what 4 factors?
|
75. Calcium channels opening, mitochondria/ER/calcisome release of stored calcium
|
|
76. When Ca2+ floods the active site, which vesicles undergo exocytosis?
|
76. Small fast neurotransmission NT synaptic vesicles
|
|
77. After repetitive stimulation, what is release from distinct areas other than the active sites?
|
77. Large dense neuropeptides and proteins
|
|
78. NT receptors are present _________, and can ___________ upon subsequent depolarization.
|
78. Pre & post synaptic, inhibit or enhance exocytosis
|
|
79. What NTs are reuptaken by a transport protein coupled to the Na+ gradient?
|
79. Dopamine, NorEpi, Glutamate, and GABA
|
|
80. Which NTs are degraded?
|
80. Ach, and peptides
|
|
81. Which NTs are uptaken and metabolized by glial cells?
|
81. Glutamate
|
|
82. Epinephrine is produced from what amino acid? Serotonin? NO2?
|
82. Tyrosine, Tryptophan, Arginine
|
|
83. VIP and CCK, both neuropeptides, are used in the GI tract for ___________.
|
83. Digestion
|
|
84. PIPs _____ + _____ . What classification are the products?
|
84. IP3, DAG, Secondary Messanger Molecules
|
|
85. Neurotransmitters act: _________ and _________________.
|
85. Fast, on another neuron within a short distance
|
|
86. Neurotransmitters release: ___________ and _____________.
|
86. In small quantities, in a quantal fashion
|
|
87. NTs elicit a _______. If they do not, but still adhere to a receptors, it is a ____________.
|
87. Specific action, binding protein
|
|
88. NTs bind to specific receptors in a ____________ and ____________ manner.
|
88. Saturable, reversible
|
|
89. The quantal theory of neurotransmitters is called ____________.
|
89. Vesicular hypothesis of quantal neurotransmitter release
|
|
90. A quantum is a __________.
|
90. Vesicle
|
|
91. Exocytosis is led by sequential ________________ located in the ______________.
|
91. Phosphorylation of Synapsin-I proteins, synaptic vesicular membrane
|
|
92. What structures are phosphoralated on the synapsin? What does the phosphoralation?
|
92. First the outside OH, then the two inside OH’s : Kinases
|
|
93. Non-peptide neurotransmitters are biosynthesized by _________________________.
|
93. Several enzymes by Varying sources of starting material
|
|
94. Peptide neurotransmitters are biosynthesized by __________ and transported to the _______.
|
94. The cell body, nerve terminal
|
|
95. What are the large dense core vesicles that NTs are synthesized, packed, and stored in?
|
95. Synaptic vesicles
|
|
96. In autonomic ganglion, what are the Ach receptors?
|
96. Muscarinic, Nicotinic
|
|
97. In autonomic ganglion, what are the neuropeptide receptors?
|
97. Substance P, Enkephalin, Lutenizing hormone, Neurotensin, Somatostatin
|
|
98. What are the 2 forms of Ach?
|
98. Membrane bound and soluble
|
|
99. Where is AchE found?
|
99. In the cleft
|
|
100. What blocks the nicotinic cholinergic receptor? Muscarine?
|
100. Curare, Atropine
|
|
101. Preganglionic nicotinic receptors for the PNS & SNS are present at the ______ and _________.
|
101. Neuromuscular junction, adrenal medulla
|
|
102. Binding of nicotinic Ach causes what ions influx/efflux?
|
102. Influx Na, Efflux K
|
|
103. Postganglionic muscarinic receptors are located where?
|
103. Heart, smooth muscle, and glands
|
|
104. Activation of the M1 receptors results in what?
|
104. Calcium influx (may be due to Ca Store depletion)
|
|
105. Activation of the M2 receptors inhibits _________ resulting in ________________.
|
105. Adenylate cyclase, decreased levels and production of cAMP and slower rate of depolarization
|
|
106. What are the major CNS exctiory neurotransmitters?
|
106. Glutamic acid & aspartic acid
|
|
107. What is the most common inhibitory NT in the brain?
|
107. GABA
|
|
108. Adenlase cyclase turns what into cAMP; cAMP is a ______________ molecule.
|
108. ATP, secondary messenger
|
|
109. Glycine is an _______ NT, opening ________ channels and can be blocked by _____________.
|
109. Inhibitory, Cl-, strychnine
|
|
110. GABAa receptors have what pharmalogical binding sites?
|
110. Thyroid hormone, steroid, and BZ
|
|
111. Neuropeptides can cause a _______ of effects and not thought to ____________.
|
111. Wide range of effects, open ion channels
|
|
112. Many neuropeptides are ____________ and involved in _________ and ____________.
|
112. Neuromodulators, learning and neural plasticity
|
|
113. Cholecystokinin promotes what?
|
113. Satiety following meals
|
|
114. Substance P is a ________ neuropeptide.
|
114. Pain
|
|
115. What are the analgesic neuropeptides?
|
115. Endorpins, enkephalins, and dynorphin
|
|
116. _________, an ____________, blocks the analgesic effects of some peptides.
|
116. Naloxone, opiate antagonist
|
|
117. Describe the most common neuropeptide.
|
117. Neuropeptide Y : inhibits glutamate in hippocampus, stimulates appetite
|
|
118. What is the only lipid neuropeptide? What is its effects?
|
118. Endocannabinoids : analgesic effects similar to that of THC in marijuana
|
|
119. What are the gaseous neuropeptides?
|
119. NO and CO
|
|
120. What system do gaseous neuropeptides work through?
|
120. Act through gCAMP secondary messenger system
|
|
121. What specifically does NO cause?
|
121. Smooth muscle contraction
|
|
122. Analgesic peptides may also be blocked by what?
|
122. Enzymatic destruction
|
|
123. What are the monoamine neurotransmitters?
|
123. NorEpi, dopamine, and serotonin
|
|
124. What happens when monoamine NT’s are activated?
|
124. G-protein cascade to affect ion channels and/or other membrane proteins
|
|
125. When an monoamine NT binds to the β-receptor, the _______ dissociate and _______ bonds.
|
125. G-protein subunits (α, β, δ), GTP bonds with α
|
|
126. The α-GTP activates the ___________ producing ___________ via ____.
|
126. Adenylate cyclase, Cyclic AMP, ATP
|
|
127. The cyclic AMP activates ___________, which _______________.
|
127. Protein kinases, opens ion channels
|
|
128. When an monoamine NT binds to the α2-receptor, _____________ is inhibited.
|
128. Adenylate cyclase is inhibits, so less cAMP and protein kinase activation
|
|
129. Monamines are mostly broken down by enzymes (__%), what is the primary enzyme?
|
129. 90%, Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
|
|
130. MAOI’s are used as _____________.
|
130. Antidepressants
|
|
131. Serotonin is involved in the regulation of _____, _____, _____, _____, and _____.
|
131. Mood, behavior, appetite, sleep, cerebral circulation
|
|
132. What pharmaceutical is structurally similar to serotonin?
|
132. LSD
|
|
133. SSRIs, which function by _________________, include what named antidepressants?
|
133. Block reuptake of serotonin, Prozac, Zoloft, Paxil, Luvox
|
|
134. Norepinephrine, is a neurotransmitter where?
|
134. Brain and postganglionic sympathetic neurons
|
|
135. Dopamine’s biological activity occurs in the _____, most significantly in the ________.
|
135. Periphery, kidney
|
|
136. Where and how is epinephrine released?
|
136. N-methylation of NE, adrenal gland
|
|
137. Epinephrine stimulates a variety of ________, as well seen in small amount in the __________.
|
137. Organs, brainstem
|
|
138. Dopamine, which is involved in ______ and ________, have ______(#) of receptors.
|
138. Motor control and emotional reward, D1-D5 (5)
|
|
139. Degeneration of the dopamine motor system may result in _____________.
|
139. Parkinson’s disease
|
|
140. Anti-dopamine drugs may be used to treat what psychological syndrome?
|
140. Schizophrenia
|
|
141. NE is used in PNS as a ___________ neurotransmitter.
|
141. Sympathetic
|
|
142. NE in the CNS affects _________________.
|
142. General level of arousal
|
|
143. ____________________ stimulates NE pathways.
|
143. Amphetamines
|
|
144. How are adrenergic receptors classified?
|
144. Basis of the response against a series of sympthomimetic amines
|
|
145. In general α-receptors on smooth muscle has a ________ effect; β-receptors ____________.
|
145. Excitatory, inhibitory
|
|
146. Where are α1 adrenergic receptors located?
|
146. Skin & splanchnic vacular SM, GI & bladder sphincters
|
|
147. α1 receptors are (excitatory/inhibitory), and receptor activation produces ________________.
|
147. Excitatory, formation of IP3 & Increase of Ca2+
|
|
148. Where are α2 adrenergic receptors located?
|
148. Walls of GI tract fat cells and platlets
|
|
149. α2 receptors are (excitatory/inhibitory), and receptor activation produces ________________.
|
149. Inhibitory, inhibit adenylate cyclase (AC) & decreases cAMP
|
|
150. Where are β1 adrenergic receptors located?
|
150. Heart
|
|
151. β1 receptors are (excitatory/inhibitory), and receptor activation produces ________________.
|
151. Excitatory, produces cAMP and activates AC
|
|
152. Where are β2 adrenergic receptors located?
|
152. GI tract & bladder, vascular & bronchial smooth muscle, cerebellum and uterus
|
|
153. β2 receptors are (excitatory/inhibitory), and receptor activation produces ________________.
|
153. Relaxation (trick!), produces cAMP and activates AC
|
|
154. α1 receptors are predominantly _______; the agonist is _______, the antagonist is _________.
|
154. Postsynaptic, phenylephrine, prazosin
|
|
155. α2 receptors are predominantly _______; the agonist is _______, the antagonist is _________.
|
155. Postsynaptic, Clonidine, Yohimbine & phentolamine
|
|
156. Βx receptors are predominantly _______; the agonist is _______, the antagonist is _________.
|
156. Postsynaptic, isoproterenol and propranolol
|
|
157. Give an example of a pharmaceutical Βx agonist and what it does?
|
157. Isuprel (cardiac stimulant)
|
|
158. Give an example of a pharmaceutical Βx antagonist and what it does?
|
158. Inderal (antihypertensive)
|
|
|
|
|
AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM
|
AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM
|
|
159. ____ autonomic preganglionic neurons release _________ onto __________ receptors.
|
159. All, Ach, Cholinergic nicotinic receptors
|
|
160. ____ postganglionic sympathetic neurons secrete ____________ onto __________ receptors.
|
160. Most, NE, adrenergic
|
|
161. ____ postganglionic parasympathetic neurons secrete _________ onto _________ receptors.
|
161. Most, Ach, cholinergic muscarnic receptors
|
|
162. ANS Postganglionic neurons synapse where?
|
162. Visceral effector organs
|
|
163. The sympathetic nervous system tends to go off ___________, while the para __________.
|
163. All together, activate where/when needed
|
|
164. The parasympathetic nervous system is known as what system?
|
164. Rest and Digest
|
|
165. What occurs to the pupil during SNS stimulation?
|
165. Pupil dilation due to NE receptor activation
|
|
166. What occurs to the pupil during paraSNS stimulation?
|
166. Constriction due to Muscarinic Ach
|
|
167. What is the control center of the ANS?
|
167. Hypothalamus
|
|
168. The adrenal medulla is an extension of the _______________.
|
168. Sympathetic nervous system
|
|
169. The action of the adrenal is under control of the _________, and act like ________________.
|
169. Hypothalamus, combined autonomic ganglion and postsynaptic sympathetic nerve
|
|
170. What does the adrenal medulla release in emergency situations and in what percentages?
|
170. Epinephrine (80%), and NE (20%)
|
|
|
|
|
MUSCULAR SYSTEM BASICS
|
MUSCULAR SYSTEM BASICS
|
|
171. A motor unit is _______.
|
171. Single alpha motor neuron
|
|
172. A twitch is produced in response to a ___________.
|
172. Single stimulus
|
|
173. What is the order of muscle tissue?
|
173. Muscle fiber, sarcomere, myofibril, myofilament
|
|
174. What is the functional unit of skeletal muscle?
|
174. Sarcomere
|
|
175. Describe the A-band?
|
175. Dark myosin filament (thick)
|
|
176. Describe the I-Band?
|
176. Light actin filament (thin)
|
|
177. Where does actin bind?
|
177. Z-disc
|
|
178. What is the H-band?
|
178. Area in center of sarcomere where myosin and actin do not overlap
|
|
179. What is a globular form of actin?
|
179. G-actin
|
|
180. Describe f-actin.
|
180. actin filament formed from g-actin) with an ADP molecule bound
|
|
181. What covers the binding sites on active and provides stability?
|
181. Tropomyosin
|
|
182. What attaches tropomyosin to actin & intiates the contraction process?
|
182. Troponin
|
|
183. What are the three subunits of troponin and what does each do?
|
183. TnC (binds Ca2+), TnI (blocks cross bridges from binding to actin), TnT (binds to tropomyosin)
|
|
184. How are cross-bridges formed?
|
184. Myosin heads interacting with actin
|
|
185. Myosin heads cannot bind to actin until ________.
|
185. It binds to ATP
|
|
186. What does Myosin ATPase do?
|
186. Hydrolyzes ATP into ADP + Pi
|
|
187. What lies in the grooves between the G-actins?
|
187. Tropomyosin
|
|
188. ________ is attached to tropomyosin at a interval of every 7 actins.
|
188. Troponin
|
|
189. What happens when calcium levels rise about 10-6M?
|
189. Troponin changes, Tropomyosin moves, cross-bridges may form and allow contraction
|
|
190. Where is the action potential transmitted in the muscle?
|
190. Along the sarcolemma & down transverse tubules until they reach the sarcoplasmic reticulum
|
|
191. Where is Ca2+ released from? What is it released into?
|
191. Terminal cisternae of the SR, Myoplasm
|
|
192. What ion influx into the muscle cell (as a result of Ach), initiates the AP?
|
192. Na+
|
|
193. What is a twitch?
|
193. Single AP eliciting a single contraction
|
|
194. What is a summation?
|
194. Repeated stimulus resulting in increased force
|
|
195. What is tetanus?
|
195. Ability to increase F of contraction by repeated stimulation w/out relaxation
|
|
196. What are the factors that affect muscular force generation?
|
196. Motor unit recruitment, Ca2+ conc., frequency, degree of muscle stretch, area, age, fiber type
|
|
|
|
|
SKELETAL MUSCLE
|
SKELETAL MUSCLE
|
|
197. Fast twitch fibers have _________ activity, and use ___________ metabolism.
|
197. High myosin ATPase activity, Glycolytic
|
|
198. The ____ pigmented fast twitch fibers _____ rapidly and develop tension ___ than slow twitch.
|
198. Pale, fatigue rapidly, 2-3 times faster
|
|
199. Fast twitch fibers have high SERCA. What is serca?
|
199. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum Calcium ATPase
|
|
200. In the absence of oxygen, what product results out of glucose?
|
200. Lactic Acid
|
|
201. In the presence of oxygen, Pyruvic acid can enter what?
|
201. The TCA cycle
|
|
202. Complete depletion of ATP results in ____________.
|
202. Rigor Mortis
|
|
203. Slow twitch fibers have _________ activity, and use ______________ metabolism.
|
203. Slow-acting myosin ATPase, Oxidative phosphorylation (aerobic)
|
|
204. Slow twitch fibers are ________ pigmented, due to high levels of __________.
|
204. Dark-red, myoglobin
|
|
205. Slow twitch fibers have a _______ diameter and ________ cross-bridges.
|
205. Smaller, slower
|
|
206. ST fibers, who have numerous _____________, are fatigue ____________.
|
206. Large mitochondria, fatigue-resistant
|
|
207. What are the two types of muscle contraction?
|
207. Isotonic, and Isometric
|
|
208. In isotonic contraction, the force ______________ throughout the shortening process.
|
208. Remains constant
|
|
209. In isotonic contraction, the muscle ____ and moves a load. Tension and load remain ________.
|
209. Shortens, remain constant
|
|
210. Isotonic contractions are often used for what?
|
210. Moving and lifting objects
|
|
211. What are the two types of isotonic contraction?
|
211. Eccentric (lengthening to greater load than force), Concentric (shortening)
|
|
212. In isometric contraction, the length of fibers _________ and _____ and _____ do not move.
|
212. Remains constant, load and bone
|
|
213. Although __________, muscle length overall does not change.
|
213. Sarcomere shorten to develop tension
|
|
214. ATP can be produces by what three methods?
|
214. Direct phosphorylation, Glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
|
|
215. What donates a phosphate to ADP in direct phosporylation? Via what enzyme?
|
215. Creatine phosphate, creatine kinase
|
|
216. In glycolysis, what are the three products?
|
216. ATP + Pyruvate, Lactic Acid
|
|
217. What are the products of Oxidative phosphorylation?
|
217. ATP + CO2
|
|
218. During heavy exercise, skeletal muscle respires ____________ for the first _________seconds.
|
218. Anaerobically, 45-90 seconds
|
|
219. Energy comes from what source during light exercise?
|
219. Aerobic respiration of fatty acids
|
|
220. During moderate activity, what is the energy source?
|
220. Fatty acids and glucose
|
|
221. The liver increases ___________.
|
221. Glycogenolysis
|
|
222. During heavy exercise, GLUT-4 is moved where? What is GLUT-4?
|
222. Muscle cell plasma membrane, carrier protein that transports glucose into cell
|
|
223. Lactic acid accumulates due to the __________.
|
223. Oxygen debt
|
|
224. Phosphocreatine levels are _________ than ATP levels in muscle cells.
|
224. 3x more
|
|
225. Single unit smooth muscle cells are _______ coupled. Multi-unit?
|
225. Electrically, not-electrically
|
|
226. What is a phasic smooth muscle contraction? Tonic?
|
226. Contracts a single unit, continuously active
|
|
227. What senses a degree of stretch and speed of contraction?
|
227. Muscle spindle
|
|
228. What does a golgi tendon organ do?
|
228. Detects tension, inhibits agonist & stimulates antagonist to prevent damage
|
|
|
|
|
SMOOTH MUSCLE
|
SMOOTH MUSCLE
|
|
229. Relaxation occurs when ______________.
|
229. Ca2+ concentration decreases
|
|
230. During relaxation, myosin is _____ and can no longer _________.
|
230. Dephosphorylated, form cross-bridges
|
|
231. Smooth muscles have _____ contractions and can form what important state?
|
231. Slow, Latch state (prolonged binding for maintained force with little energy)
|
|
232. Calcium binds to _____, which the complex then activates ___________.
|
232. Calmodulin (CaM), Myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)
|
|
233. MLCK phosphorylates _____________ and increases ____________ resulting in binding.
|
233. Light chains on myosin heads, myosin ATPase activity
|
|
234. What are calveioli and what do they do?
|
234. Invaginations of SM membrane, increase surface area of cells
|
|
235. The SR interacts with calveioli and are important in what role ________________.
|
235. Regulation of intercellular Ca2+
|
|
236. What are the Ca2+ channels?
|
236. IP3-Gated and Ryanodine receptor
|
|
237. What critical dissociation occurs during muscle relaxation?
|
237. Ca2+ from calmodium
|
|
238. What causes sustained muscle contraction fatigue?
|
238. Accumulation of extracellular K+
|
|
239. During moderate exercise, how does muscle fatigue occur?
|
239. ST fibers deplete glycogen, FT are recruited producing Lactic acid which blocks Ca2+ transport
|
|
240. What is central fatigue?
|
240. Brain is unable to activate muscles even if they are not-fatigued
|
|
241. What drug blocks angiotensin II promoting vasodialation?
|
241. ACE inhibitors
|
|
242. A elevation of Myoplasmic Ca2+ causes _________. What NT can cause this?
|
242. Vasoconstriction, NE
|