Systems

Front 1

ACARS uses the _____ VHF radio to exchange data with ground stations. [FM: 17.10.]

Back 1

center

Front 2

ACARS data is entered and transmitted manually or automatically. When the parking brake is first released after all cabin doors are closed, the _____ report is automatically transmitted. [FM: 17.10.]

Back 2

Out

Front 3

The airborne telephone system (AIRFONE) is powered from the _____ bus. [FM: 17.10.]

Back 3

ground service

Front 4

cockpit voice recorder digitally records cockpit audio inputs for _____ minutes. [FM: 17.10.]

Back 4

30

Front 5

When the OBS AUDIO ENT switch is positioned ON, passengers can select channel 9 at their seat and monitor _____. [FM: 17.10.]

Back 5

all channels selected on the first observers audio panel

Front 6

The Flight Recorder starts automatically when _____ or _____. [FM: 17.10.]

Back 6

either engine is running, the aircraft is in flight

Front 7

With an AC electrical power failure, which VHF radio remains powered to allow communication? [FM: 17.10.]

Back 7

Left

Front 8

The left VHF communications radio is powered by the _____ bus. [FM: 17.10.]

Back 8

standby DC

Front 9

The cabin interphone system permits communication between the cockpit and various flight attendant stations in the cabin. To contact and speak to all flight attendants at once select the _____ on the cabin call panel. [FM: 17.20.]

Back 9

ALERT switch

Front 10

The CALSEL alert at the LDOC facility is activated when the appropriate digit on the DTMF Microphone is pushed for a minimum of 2 seconds. Response is delayed for a minimum of _____ seconds while the LDOC operator re-tunes the transmitter. [FM: 17.20.]

Back 10

60

Front 11

(B757 ER, B767) The HF coupler requires tuning whenever a new HF frequency is selected. This is accomplished by momentarily keying the microphone and waiting until the 100Hz coupler tone ceases before transmitting. Coupler tuning can take up to _____ seconds. [FM:17.30.]

Back 11

15

Front 12

(B767 56K) A wider ACARS printer is installed which incorporates a full page format. [FM: 17.50.]

Back 12

True

Front 13

The center autopilot receives power from the center busses and are normally powered from
the _____. [FM: 18.10.]

Back 13

left main AC and DC busses

Front 14

With at least two generators operating and three autopilots armed for an autoland approach, the center busses transfer from the left main busses directly to the _____ and _____. [FM:18.10.]

Back 14

Static inverter, hot battery bus

Front 15

Between arming of the three autopilots and 200 feet RA, loss of a generator causes the electrical system to _____. [FM: 18.10.]

Back 15

Revert to its normal configuration

Front 16

Three autopilots are engaged for an autoland approach, the airplane is above 200 feet RA, and the APU is not available. With the loss of a generator, which of the following would the
ASA indicate? [FM: 18.10.]

Back 16

NO LAND 3

Front 17

If a generator is lost below 200 feet RA with three autopilots engaged and the APU not
available, the electrical system _____. [FM: 18.10.]

Back 17

Remains in the triple channel configuration

Front 18

AC bus tie breakers are locked open below _____ feet RA during autoland (triple channel
configuration) to prevent the remaining generator from powering both main AC busses. [FM:18.10.]

Back 18

200

Front 19

If the APU is operating, either AC bus tie breaker can close below 200 feet radio altitude to allow the APU generator to power one main AC bus, but both bus tie breakers cannot close to allow the APU to power both main busses. [FM: 18.10.]

Back 19

True

Front 20

A generator is lost below 200 feet RA with three autopilots engaged, and the APU not available. Which of the following would the ASA indicate? [FM: 18.10.]

Back 20

LAND 3

Front 21

Is it possible for the APU to power both main AC busses during a triple channel approach when below 200 feet? [FM: 18.10.]

Back 21

No

Front 22

The electrical system reverts to normal, non-isolated operation when the autopilots are disengaged, or during an autopilot go-around when _____. [FM: 18.10.]

Back 22

Either go around switch is pushed

Front 23

If normal sources of power are lost, what busses are powered by the battery? [FM: 18.10.]

Back 23

Hot battery bus, battery bus, and standby AC and DC busses

Front 24

The normal power source for the battery bus is the _____. [FM: 18.10.]

Back 24

Left main DC bus

Front 25

Both batteries are connected to their own battery charger. The battery chargers operate
whenever there is AC power on the _____ bus. [FM:18.10.]

Back 25

Ground service

Front 26

The standby busses are normally powered from the left main AC and DC busses, but can be
powered from the main aircraft battery by automatic or manual switching if the normal sources fail. [FM: 18.10.]

Back 26

True

Front 27

The two main DC channels are interconnected through a tie bus. In order for the DC bus tie
breaker to operate, at least one of the BUS TIE switches must be in AUTO. [FM: 18.10.]

Back 27

False

Front 28

Each flight instrument transfer bus is normally powered from its associated main AC bus, but
can automatically transfer to the opposite AC bus in the event of failure of the associated AC
bus. In order for this automatic transfer to occur _____.[FM:18.10.]

Back 28

The associated BUS TIE switch must be in AUTO

Front 29

The ground handling bus is powered automatically anytime _____ or _____ electrical power is available on the ground only. [FM: 18.10.]

Back 29

External power, APU

Front 30

The ground service bus is normally powered by the [FM: 18.10.]

Back 30

right AC bus

Front 31

To protect essential equipment during engine start, with the APU supplying electrical and
pneumatic power, what load sheds occur? [FM: 18.10.]

Back 31

First engine sheds both utility and galley busses.

Second engine sheds associated utility and galley busses.

Front 32

Heavy electrical load shed may occur prior to engine start with the APU generator or external
power supplying power to the electrical system. Heavy load shed is caused by what? [FM:18.10.]

Back 32

Turning ON the left and center electric hydraulic pumps

Front 33

On the ground, generator loss load shed is armed by advancing both throttles into the takeoff
range. Advancing throttles on the ground prior to engine start can cause load shedding.
[FM: 18.10.]

Back 33

True

Front 34

Power to the utility busses is controlled by the utility bus switches. These switches also
energize the utility bus galley relays, supplying main AC bus power to the galley busses.
[FM: 18.10.]

Back 34

True

Front 35

When the associated AC bus tie breaker is armed for automatic operation, the AC busses are powered according to which of the following system priorities? [FM: 18.10.]

Back 35

Associated engine generator, APU generator, opposite engine generator

Front 36

The IDG incorporates a generator, a constant speed drive, and the drive oil system cooled by _____. [FM: 18.10.]

Back 36

A fuel/oil heat exchanger which in turn helps heat the fuel

Front 37

The Bus Tie switches in AUTO arm what four automatic features? [FM: 18.20.]

Back 37

Arms associated AC BTB for automatic operation to power the AC busses; allows automatic transfer of the associated flight instrument transfer bus; with both switches in AUTO activates the automatic DC bus tie system; allows the breaker to lock open for a fault trip.

Front 38

When an AC bus tie switch is manually isolated (switch not in AUTO), the breaker is locked
open and prevents the DC bus tie breaker from closing? [FM: 18.20.]

Back 38

True

Front 39

With external power available and both engines operating, what is accomplished by pushing
the EXT PWR switch to ON? [FM: 18.20.]

Back 39

closes the external power contactor (EPC), overriding the normal bus power priorities to trip off the APU and/or engine generators and power the AC tie bus

Front 40

The STBY POWER OFF light is illuminated on the battery and standby power control panel.
What does this indicate? [FM: 18.20.]

Back 40

Indicates one or both standby busses are unpowered

Front 41

What is indicated when the DISCH light is illuminated on the battery and standby power
control panel? [FM: 18.20.]

Back 41

Indicates the battery is supplying a load and is discharging

Front 42

What is accomplished by pushing a GEN DRIVE DISC switch when a GEN DRIVE light is
illuminated? [FM: 18.20.]

Back 42

Activates a circuit to disconnect the associated generator drive from the engine

Front 43

The Left DRIVE light, on the engine generator and utility bus control panel, is illuminated.
This indicates the associated generator drive oil pressure is too _____ for continued
operation or oil temperature is too _____. [FM: 18.20.]

Back 43

Low, high

Front 44

Regardless of switch position, the passenger signs illuminate automatically if cabin altitude
exceeds _____ feet. [FM: 18.30.]

Back 44

10,000

Front 45

Two runway turnoff lights are mounted on the fixed portion of the nose gear. [FM: 18.30.]

Back 45

True

Front 46

(B757 ER) The HMG automatically starts and supplies AC and DC power to designated busses when _____. [FM: 18.50.]

Back 46

Primary AC power is lost on both main AC busses

Front 47

(B757 ER) There is no time limit for HMG operation, and the HMG automatically shuts down when _____. [FM: 18.10.8]

Back 47

AC power is re-established from either engine or APU generator

Front 48

(B757 ER) During HMG operation, battery power is removed from the _____ IRU(s) after 5 minutes to conserve battery power. [FM: 18.50.]

Back 48

right

Front 49

(B767 60K) The cabin signs do not illuminate automatically when passenger oxygen is
activated. [FM: 18.60.]

Back 49

True

Front 50

(B767) The HMG is powered from the _____ hydraulic system. [FM: 18.60.]

Back 50

Center

Front 51

(B767) Both left and right recirculation fans are powered through the respective utility bus.[FM: 18.60.]

Back 51

True

Front 52

(B767) The runway turnoff lights are in the same location as the B757. [FM: 18.60.]

Back 52

False

Front 53

(B767 56K) What signs are illuminated, continuously, regardless of switch position? [FM:18.70.]

Back 53

No smoking

Front 54

(B767 56K) Regardless of switch position, the FASTEN SEATBELT signs illuminate when
passenger oxygen is activated. [FM: 18.70.]

Back 54

True

Front 55

The flight deck oxygen bottle is located in the forward cargo compartment. How can you
monitor bottle pressure? [FM: 19.10.]

Back 55

By selecting the EICAS STATUS page

Front 56

The passenger oxygen masks can be manually deployed from the cockpit with the PASS
OXY switch on the overhead panel. The masks automatically drop from the PSUs if cabin
altitude exceeds _____ feet. [FM: 19.10.]

Back 56

14,000'

Front 57

Once activated, the passenger oxygen generator continues to generate oxygen for
approximately _____ minutes and cannot be shut off. [FM: 19.10.]

Back 57

12

Front 58

The PASS OXY light is illuminated on the overhead panel. This indicates what? [FM: 19.20.]

Back 58

The circuit to open the cabin oxygen module doors has been activated

Front 59

A second bulb in the aft flight deck dome light is powered by the emergency lighting system
to provide illumination for flight deck evacuation. [FM: 19.30.]

Back 59

True

Front 60

Emergency lighting is powered by battery packs located in several zones in the cabin. The
emergency lighting batteries are kept charged from the _____ bus. [FM: 19.30.]

Back 60

Right main DC

Front 61

The EMER LIGHTS can be activated manually or automatically. Manual activation can be from the cockpit EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel or by an EMER LIGHTS switch located _____, regardless of the position of the flight deck switch. [FM: 19.30.]

Back 61

On the aft flight attendant panel

Front 62

All interior and exterior emergency light is illuminated automatically when armed, and the charging power supply is lost or turned off. The exterior lights on the associated side illuminate automatically when an entry/service door or overwing exit on that side is opened with the slide armed. [FM: 19.30.]

Back 62

True

Front 63

When the EMER LIGHTS switch is placed in the ON position, emergency lights are turned on and are powered by what? [FM: 19.40.]

Back 63

Associated battery packs

Front 64

There are _____ overwing exits, _____ on each side of the fuselage. [FM: 19.50.]

Back 64

4, 2

Front 65

An evacuation signal system provides an aural and visual means of alerting the
crewmembers that an evacuation is initiated. The horns can be silenced individually at each panel, however, the system remains active until _____. [FM: 19.50.]

Back 65

All command switches are turned off

Front 66

The EMER ESCAPE squib test lights on the auxiliary panel indicate the associated overwing
escape slide squib circuitry is operative when the TEST 1 switch is pushed, and associated
overwing escape slide inflation bottle pressure is satisfactory when the TEST 2 switch is
pushed. [FM: 19.60.]

Back 66

True

Front 67

Emergency flashlights are installed throughout the cabin and at each flight attendant
jumpseat. Is the Emergency flashlight battery rechargeable? [FM: 19.70.]

Back 67

No

Front 68

One halon extinguisher is located in the cockpit. Halon extinguishers are effective on all
types of fires, but are used primarily on electrical, fuel, and grease fires. [FM: 19.70.]

Back 68

True

Front 69

A Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) unit provides approximately _____ minutes of
oxygen. [FM: 19.70.]

Back 69

15

Front 70

(B757 ER) There are _____ portable water-activated VHF/UHF radio beacons and _____portable water-activated VHF/UHF transceivers installed in the cabin. [FM: 19.90; 19.100.]

Back 70

4, 2

Front 71

(B767 60K) There are 12 supplemental oxygen packs located throughout the cabin.
Supplemental oxygen can supply 10 percent of the cabin occupants for _____ minutes. [FM:
19.100.]

Back 71

40

Front 72

(B767) A single portable exit light mounted over the flight deck door provides flight deck
emergency lighting. The light is powered by self-contained batteries which are kept charged from the _____ bus. [FM: 19.100.]

Back 72

standby DC

Front 73

(B767) The EMER ESCAPE lights on the auxiliary panel indicate associated overwing escape slide squib circuitry is operative when the TEST 1 switch is pushed, and the associated wing spoiler squib circuitry is operative when the TEST 2 switch is pushed. [FM:
19.100.]

Back 73

True

Front 74

The PTU uses hydraulic pressure from the right engine driven pump to power a hydraulic
motor which, in turn, drives a hydraulic pump in the left hydraulic system. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 74

True

Front 75

The PTU activates automatically if the _____ fails or _____ pressure is low. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 75

left engine, left engine pump

Front 76

When activated, the PTU augments the electric pump to operate the _____, _____, and
_____. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 76

landing gear, nose wheel steering, flaps and slats

Front 77

The PTU is inhibited if the right engine is shut down. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 77

True

Front 78

The _____ system reservoir includes a standpipe to reserve fluid for the PTU pump in the
event of a system leak. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 78

Left

Front 79

If the PTU does not operate properly, EICAS displays a _____ status message. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 79

POWER XFER UNIT

Front 80

To prevent electrical overload, the center _____ electric hydraulic pump is inhibited anytime
only one generator (APU or engine) or only external power is available and both center
hydraulic system electric pump switches are ON. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 80

No. 2

Front 81

A RAT located in the body fairing of the right main gear is available to supply center system
flight controls in the event of a _____ in flight. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 81

Dual engine failure

Front 82

When deployed, the RAT drives a hydraulic pump that supplies adequate pressure for flight
controls down to an airspeed of approximately _____ knots. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 82

130

Front 83

The center system reservoir includes a standpipe to reserve fluid for the [FM: 25.10.]

Back 83

RAT

Front 84

The RAT is armed on the ground above _____ knots and deploys in flight automatically if
_____. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 84

80, both engines fail

Front 85

The RAT can be deployed manually at any time using the flight deck switch on the overhead
panel. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 85

True

Front 86

The RAT deploys by [FM: 25.10.]

Back 86

spring force

Front 87

The right hydraulic system electric pump operates, regardless of switch position, when the
_____ switch is activated. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 87

RESERVE BRAKES

Front 88

The _____ system reservoir includes a standpipe to reserve fluid for the reserve brake
system. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 88

Right

Front 89

All hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized by the pneumatic system to ensure _____.
[FM: 25.10.]

Back 89

Positive fluid flow

Front 90

The RSVR light on the overhead panel and associated EICAS message indicates _____
and/or _____. [FM: 25.10.]

Back 90

low fluid quantity, low air pressure

Front 91

High demand items, such as flaps, slats, and landing gear are powered by which hydraulic
system? [FM: 25.20.]

Back 91

Left

Front 92

The L HYD QTY EICAS message displays, and RSVR light are illuminated. This indicates
the quantity in the associated system is below _____ percent. [FM: 25.20.]

Back 92

50

Front 93

When a hydraulic pump PRESS light is illuminated, this indicates low pressure from the
associated pump regardless of switch position. [FM: 25.20.]

Back 93

True

Front 94

The OVHT light for the R ELEC PUMP is illuminated with the associated EICAS message
displayed. This indicates an overheat condition in the pump and the light extinguishes when
the _____ cools. [FM: 25.20.]

Back 94

Fluid

Front 95

When hydraulic quantity for a system is at _____ percent or below, RF appears indicating
the reservoir needs refilling. [FM: 25.20.]

Back 95

75

Front 96

The PRESS light in the RAT switch on the overhead panel is illuminated. This indicates the
RAT is _____. [FM: 25.20.]

Back 96

supplying satisfactory pressure to the center hydraulic system

Front 97

(B757 ER) An HMG is installed which is automatically powered by the left engine hydraulic
pump whenever both main AC busses are unpowered. [FM: 25.30.]

Back 97

True

Front 98

(B757 ER) The HMG may be driven by the power transfer unit, if the PTU is operating.
[FM: 25.30.]

Back 98

True

Front 99

(B757 ER) When the HMG is operating, hydraulic flow to the flaps and slats is mechanically
reduced, resulting in _____ operating time for these items. [FM: 25.30.]

Back 99

Increased

Front 100

(B757 ER) The simultaneous extension or retraction of the landing gear and TE flaps while
operating with the HMG can cause hydraulic fluid starvation of the HMG, resulting in
temporary flight instrument display _____. [FM: 25.30.]

Back 100

Blanking

Front 101

(B767) The electric demand pumps located in the left and right hydraulic systems are
normally selected for automatic operation. In automatic operation, the demand pump starts
whenever the associated _____ drops below a preset value or anytime the associated
_____ is closed. [FM: 25.40.]

Back 101

system pressure, engine fuel shutoff valve

Front 102

(B767) To prevent electrical overload, the _____ center hydraulic electric pump is inhibited
when only one generator (APU or engine) or only external power is available and the other
_____ electric pumps are commanded to operate. [FM: 25.40.]

Back 102

No. 2, three

Front 103

(B767) The center _____ hydraulic electric pump operates, regardless of switch position,
whenever the _____ system is activated. [FM: 25.40.]

Back 103

No. 1, reserve brakes and steering

Front 104

(B767) The air demand pump is powered by air from the center pneumatic duct and is
normally selected for automatic operation. The pump operates automatically whenever the
landing gear, flaps, slats, or speed brakes/ground spoilers are selected for operation and
whenever the center system pressure _____. [FM: 25.40.]

Back 104

drops to a preset value

Front 105

(B767) The hydraulic QTY light on the overhead panel indicates [FM: 25.40.]

Back 105

the associated reservoir is below 50 percent

Front 106

(B767) High demand items, such as flaps, slats, and landing gear, speed brakes/ground
spoilers are powered by the _____ hydraulic system. [FM: 25.40.]

Back 106

Center

Front 107

(B767) The RAT is deployed by [FM: 25.40.]

Back 107

electric actuator motor

Front 108

(B767) The HMG is powered by the _____ hydraulic system. [FM: 25.40.]

Back 108

Center

Front 109

(B767) When the HMG is powered, the center system air demand pump operates
continuously to ensure sufficient hydraulic pressure to drive the generator. [FM: 25.40.]

Back 109

True

Front 110

(B767) The C HYD QTY EICAS message is displayed, and QTY light is illuminated. Have
the automatic reserve brakes and steering system been activated? [FM: 25.40.]

Back 110

Yes

Front 111

The water drain masts are _____ heated and when on the ground, the heat is _____ to
prevent injury to ground personnel. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 111

electrically, reduced

Front 112

The engine anti−ice valve is located _____ of the associated engine bleed air valve.
[FM: 26.10.]

Back 112

Downstream

Front 113

The TMC automatically adjusts the maximum EPR limits when engine anti−ice is being used
as a function of engine anti−ice _____ position. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 113

Switch

Front 114

When engine anti−ice is turned ON, a _____ annunciation appears above the EICAS N
display. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 114

TAI (thermal anti−ice)

Front 115

If only one engine bleed source is available when engine anti−ice is ON, the _____ required
for anti−ice operation is displayed on EICAS for the engine supplying bleed air.
[FM: 26.10.]

Back 115

Minimum N1

Front 116

Turning ON the Engine Anti−ice switches automatically energizes _____ and activates
_____ for the associated engine, provided the associated ENGINE START selector is
positioned to AUTO. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 116

continuous ignition, approach idle

Front 117

The wing anti−ice system routes air from the aircraft pneumatic system to the three leading
edge slats _____. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 117

immediately outboard of the engine on each wing

Front 118

Except for a provision to test the wing anti−ice valves, the valves are inhibited from opening
on the ground. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 118

True

Front 119

There is always overheat protection provided for wing anti−ice in flight. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 119

False

Front 120

The TMC automatically adjusts the maximum EPR limits when wing anti−ice is being used
as a function of anti−ice _____ position. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 120

Switch

Front 121

Window overheat protection is provided. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 121

True

Front 122

On the ground, the TAT probe _____, the pitot probes receive _____, and the angle of attack
vanes receive _____. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 122

is not heated, low heat, full heat

Front 123

After liftoff, the TAT probe, pitot probes, and AOA vanes all receive _____ heat.
[FM: 26.10.]

Back 123

Full

Front 124

Loss of heat to the TAT probe or both angle of attack vanes have no effect on an autothrottle
when engaged. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 124

False

Front 125

In addition to electric heat for the windshields and side windows, anti−fogging is provided by
_____. [FM: 26.10.]

Back 125

conditioned air ducted to the upper windshield

Front 126

(B767) The engine anti−ice valve is located _____ of the associated engine bleed air valve.
[FM: 26.30.]

Back 126

Upstream

Front 127

(B767) The engine anti−ice minimum N reference bug is not displayed on EICAS when the
Engine Anti−ice switch is ON. [FM: 26.30.]

Back 127

True

Front 128

(B767) Rotating the Fuel Jettison selector to ON deactivates the window heat on windows
________ to reduce electrical load. [FM: 26.30.]

Back 128

L−3 and R−3

Front 129

(B767) The three outboard leading edge slats on each wing are anti−iced. [FM: 26.30.]

Back 129

True

Front 130

What is the electrical power source for the engines EEC? [FM: 20.10.]

Back 130

PMA (permanent magnet alternator)

Front 131

Each EEC consists of a _____ and _____ channel. [FM: 20.10.]

Back 131

Primary, secondary

Front 132

One EEC channel must be operating for the engine to run, therefore, the EECs cannot be turned off. [FM: 20.10.]

Back 132

True

Front 133

Although capable of supplying EPR information to the primary channel, the secondary channel cannot use that information to directly control _____. [FM: 20.10.]

Back 133

Thrust

Front 134

Is manual EEC channel or EEC control mode selection available to the pilots? [FM: 20.10.]

Back 134

No

Front 135

Automatic EEC channel switching occurs when [FM: 20.10.]

Back 135

an engine is shut down in flight only

Front 136

If both channels in an EEC fail, the associated engine decelerates to and remains at _____.
[FM: 20.10.]

Back 136

Minimum fuel flow

Front 137

The ENG LIM PROT EICAS message and ENG LIM PROT light are illuminated. In this condition, the EEC control mode is [FM: 20.10.]

Back 137

N2 control mode

Front 138

The EEC provides N1 and N2 red−line overspeed protection in all modes except for reverse thrust in the N2 mode. Automatic thrust limit protection is provided only in EPR and N1 modes. [FM: 20.10.]

Back 138

True

Front 139

If the EEC fails to limit the N1 and N2 to their respective red lines, there is a fail−safe backup to prevent uncontrolled acceleration to the point where catastrophic rotor−burst could occur.
If N2 RPM reaches _____ percent, the fuel control unit reduces N2 RPM to _____ percent and mechanically locks the engine at that speed. [FM: 20.10.]

Back 139

105, 85

Front 140

There are _____ engine idle speeds. [FM: 20.10.]

Back 140

3

Front 141

Approach idle is activated when _____ is on, or when the trailing edge flaps are extended beyond position _____. [FM: 20.10.]

Back 141

Engine anti-ice, 20

Front 142

A significant drop in indicated oil quantity occurs after engine start and during ground operations (as much as 14 quarts). In flight, oil quantity may read as low as _____, if oil pressure remains above the redline limit. [FM20.10.]

Back 142

Zero

Front 143

The engine oil pump is driven directly by the _____, so oil pressure varies directly with engine RPM. [FM: 20.10.]

Back 143

N2 rotor

Front 144

EICAS displays L ENG OIL PRESS and ENG OIL PRESS light is illuminated. This indicates the engine oil pressure has dropped below _____ PSI. [FM: 20.10.]

Back 144

70

Front 145

Continuous ignition is automatically provided when the _____ or _____. [FM: 20.10.]

Back 145

Slats are extended, engine anti-ice is on

Front 146

A REV ISLN VAL EICAS advisory message appears (on the ground only) when a fault is detected in the thrust reverser system. The message is inhibited above _____ knots during takeoff and in flight until landing. [FM: 20.10.]

Back 146

80

Front 147

When utilizing reverse thrust, the REV annunciation on EICAS is _____ during transit and _____ when fully deployed. [FM 20.20.]

Back 147

Yellow, green

Front 148

The EICAS N1 speed is not displayed until the associated engine reaches approximately 3
percent N1 ( _____ percent N2). [FM: 20.20.]

Back 148

28-30

Front 149

The EGT start limit radial indicates in red the maximum starting EGT. It is visible during engine start with the fuel control switch in RUN until the _____. [FM: 20.20.]

Back 149

Engine is running and EGT decays below the hot start limit

Front 150

The Fuel On Command Bug is displayed when the engine is shut down on the ground, or in flight when _____ is displayed. [FM: 20.20.]

Back 150

X-BLD

(indicates min N2 for introducing fuel for engine start)

Front 151

The most accurate engine oil quantity readings are obtained within _____ hour(s) after engine shutdown or after motoring the engine. [FM 20.20.]

Back 151

2

Front 152

With the standby engine indicator selector in AUTO, what conditions cause the indications to be automatically displayed? [FM: 20.20.]

Back 152

AC power is lost,
EICAS fails,
both CRTs fail, or
either CRT fails on the ground and STATUS mode is selected

Front 153

Climb thrust derate switches located on the thrust mode select panel select either of two derate values for climb thrust computation. Climb 1 selects approximately _____ percent of CLB thrust, and Climb 2 selects approximately _____ percent of CLB thrust. [FM: 20.20.]

Back 153

92, 85

Front 154

The Thrust Mode Select Panel (TMSP) switches communicate with the Thrust Management Computer (TMC) for reference EPR computation and indicate in _____ the EPR reference and value for the thrust mode. [FM: 20.20.]

Back 154

Green

Front 155

Assumed temperature takeoff thrust is limited to a _____ percent reduction of maximum takeoff thrust or selected climb thrust, whichever is the greater thrust value. When the limit is reached, further clockwise knob rotation does not change the displayed temperature or reference thrust value. [FM: 20.20.]

Back 155

25

Front 156

APU starting is completely automatic once initiated. APU starts may be attempted at any altitude, but the APU may not always start above _____ feet. [FM: 20.30.]

Back 156

35,000

Front 157

Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the _____, but can be supplied from any tank _____. [FM: 20.30.]

Back 157

Left main fuel tank, through the crossfeed system

Front 158

The APU time delay for shutdown is variable from 0 to 120 seconds. If the APU bleed valve has been closed for more than _____ seconds when the APU selector is moved to OFF, the APU shuts down without delay. [FM: 20.30.]

Back 158

60

Front 159

The APU has its own battery and charger. The aircraft battery is also required for ground operation to supply power for _____. [FM: 20.30.]

Back 159

APU fire protection, the APU fuel valve, and the DC fuel pump

Front 160

If the APU FAULT light remains illuminated after placing the APU selector to ON, this would indicate _____. [FM: 20.40.]

Back 160

APU fuel valve is not in the proper position

Front 161

(B767) Each engine EEC consists of two channels designated _____ and _____.
[FM: 20.50.]

Back 161

A, B

Front 162

(B767) The ENG EEC MODE EICAS message is displayed and ALTN light is illuminated.
This indicates the associated engine EEC is operating in the _____ mode. [FM: 20.50.]

Back 162

N1

Front 163

(B767) There is/are _____ engine idle speed(s). [FM: 20.50.]

Back 163

2

Front 164

(B767) Overspeed protection includes a fail−safe backup. If N1 exceeds 117 percent or N2 exceeds 110.3 percent, fuel flow is reduced to the minimum flow setting and locked.
Flameout is likely at low altitude. [FM: 20.50.]

Back 164

True

Front 165

(B767) Engine EGT is displayed on EICAS until the EEC is powered during initial engine rotation. [FM: 20.50]

Back 165

False

Front 166

(B767) Reduced climb thrust is automatically terminated when the airplane reaches [FM: 20.50.]

Back 166

12,500 feet

Front 167

(B767 56K) In addition to engine anti−ice selected ON or trailing edge flaps selected beyond position Flaps 20, approach idle is also automatically provided whenever the start selectors are placed to CONT. [FM: 20.60.]

Back 167

True

Front 168

On initial aircraft power−up, an automatic test system tests the engine fire and overheat detectors, the APU fire detectors, and the cargo compartment smoke detectors. If a fault is detected in one of the loops, the affected system reconfigures itself to a single loop operation. [FM: 21.10.]

Back 168

True

Front 169

The FWD and AFT Cargo Compartments each have two smoke detectors. Both detectors in a compartment must sense smoke particles to activate the cargo fire warning. EICAS monitors each detector for faults. An EICAS status message CARGO DET 1 or CARGO DET 2 indicates one detector has either failed open, (not allowing the detector to sense smoke) or failed closed, (incorrectly detecting smoke). In either case, the other associated detector is unaffected by the condition causing the fault. What must be accomplished to reconfigure the system to a single detector operation? [FM: 21.10.]

Back 169

Accomplish the ENG/APU/CARGO FIRE/OVHT test

Front 170

The Cargo Fire Arm switches, when pushed, silence the fire bell, arm the extinguishing system, and _____. [FM: 21.20.]

FWD:
AFT:

Back 170

FWD - turns off forward cargo heat fan, turns off both recirculation fans

AFT - turns off aft cargo heat fan, turns off the aft cargo heater, turns off the right recirculation fan

Front 171

The wheel well fire detector loop is only tested when the WHL WELL test switch is pushed.
A valid test is indicated by the _____ light illuminating. Failure of the light to illuminate indicates a faulty loop. [FM: 21.10.]

Back 171

WHL WELL FIRE

Front 172

All detection systems have dual detector capability except [FM: 21.10.]

Back 172

wheel well

Front 173

Dual detection loops are installed in the APU compartment. What occurs If a fire is detected in the APU or surrounding compartment? [FM: 21.10.]

Back 173

Automatically shuts down the APU, bypassing the cool down delay in the normal shutdown
sequence.

Front 174

When a single engine fire loop fault is detected, a message is displayed as _____. [FM:
21.10.]

Back 174

EICAS status message

Front 175

EICAS displays FIRE/OVHT SYS and the FAIL light is illuminated. What condition(s) cause these indications? [FM: 21.10; 21.20.]

Back 175

A failure or fault in both loops of the engine fire, engine overheat, and APU fire or cargo fire
detection system.

Front 176

How many bottles are installed for engine fire suppression? [FM: 21.10.]

Back 176

2

Front 177

A single fire extinguisher bottle is installed for APU fire suppression. [FM: 21.10.]

Back 177

True

Front 178

The wheel well fire detection system does not detect _____ without an associated fire. [FM:
21.10.]

Back 178

hot brakes

Front 179

If a cargo fire detector fails open, a status message does not display until the remaining detector senses smoke. This failure renders the cargo fire warning system _____ until the system is tested. [FM: 21.10.]

Back 179

Inoperative

Front 180

Two cargo smoke detector fans are located in each cargo compartment. One operates to draw air from the compartment through the smoke detectors. If the operating fan fails, the other fan _____. [FM: 21.10.]

Back 180

Starts automatically

Front 181

How many fire extinguisher bottles are installed for cargo fire suppression? [FM: 21.10.]

Back 181

2

Front 182

The fire warning bell and master warning lights (for fire only) are inhibited from nose strut extension until reaching _____ feet RA, or for 20 seconds, whichever occurs first. [FM:
21.10.]

Back 182

400

Front 183

A smoke detector is installed in each lavatory. The detectors are powered by _____.
[FM: 21.10.]

Back 183

the airplane electrical system

Front 184

A fire extinguisher is installed in each lavatory trash bin. The extinguisher’s nozzle tip is normally _____ in color and changes to a _____ color after being discharged.
[FM: 21.10.]

Back 184

black, aluminum/silver

Front 185

Engine and APU bottle discharge lights indicate _____ in the associated bottle.
[FM: 21.20.]

Back 185

Low pressure

Front 186

(B767) There are _____ fire extinguisher bottles installed to provide fire protection for the cargo compartments. [FM: 21.30.]

Back 186

3

Front 187

(B767) Pushing the single BTL DISCH switch discharges Bottle 1 immediately into the selected cargo compartment. _____ minutes later or _____, whichever occurs first, a metered discharge of the remaining bottles is automatically initiated. [FM: 21.30.]

Back 187

30, upon touchdown

Front 188

There is no manual reversion for the elevators, ailerons, and rudder. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 188

True

Front 189

The trailing edge flaps and leading edge slats are normally powered by the _____ hydraulic system. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 189

Left

Front 190

Hydraulic power is shut off to both the flap and slat drive units for [FM: 22.10.]

Back 190

LE or TE asymmetry or disagreement

Front 191

A Flap/Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) monitors the system and controls the operation of the drive units. If a failure or abnormal condition occurs, the FSEU _____. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 191

shuts down the hydraulic drive

Front 192

A flap load relief system retracts the flaps from position _____ to position _____ if the Flaps _____ speed limit is exceeded. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 192

30, 25, 30

Front 193

The leading edge slats extend to the landing position when the trailing edge flaps extend beyond position [FM: 22.10.]

Back 193

20

Front 194

If the leading edge slats are in the takeoff position and the left hydraulic system is pressurized, a stall warning causes the slats to extend to the landing position. This system is inoperative when the alternate flap system is selected. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 194

True

Front 195

The flaps and slats can be extended and retracted independently with the alternate flap system driven by _____. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 195

electric motors rather than hydraulic power

Front 196

When using the alternate flap system, the only protection provided is _____. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 196

asymmetry for the leading edge slats only

Front 197

Flight control system overrides protect against control column or flight control jams.
Overrides bypass the restricted portion of the control system when higher than normal
_____. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 197

control forces are applied

Front 198

The two single elevators are each powered by three hydraulic actuators. Two independent
feel systems are powered by the _____ hydraulic systems to provide artificial feel forces to
the control columns. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 198

center and right

Front 199

The horizontal stabilizer is positioned by dual (left and right) hydraulic motor/brake modules
powered by the _____ hydraulic systems. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 199

center and right

Front 200

The rate of stabilizer trim varies with _____ and the number of _____ operating.
[FM: 22.10.]

Back 200

airspeed, trim modules

Front 201

The stabilizer is controlled automatically by the _____ system or by the _____.
[FM: 22.10.]

Back 201

Mach/speed trim, autopilot(s)

Front 202

Electric or manual pilot trim inputs inhibit the Mach/speed trim system. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 202

True

Front 203

The MACH/speed system is inhibited on the ground and engages _____ seconds after
takeoff. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 203

20

Front 204

Electric trimming disengages the autopilot when _____. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 204

only one is engaged

Front 205

Trimming with the STAB TRIM levers (ALTN STAB TRIM switches, as installed) overrides the
autopilots no matter how many are engaged and causes autopilot disengagement.
[FM: 22.10.]

Back 205

False

Front 206

Hydraulic power must be available from _____ system to set aileron trim accurately.
[FM: 22.10.]

Back 206

at least one hydraulic

Front 207

If aileron trim is inadvertently activated while an autopilot is engaged, the repositioning of the
aileron neutral trim point is not apparent to the pilots. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 207

True

Front 208

Only _____ of the six spoiler panels on each wing operate with the ailerons to assist with roll
control. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 208

Five

Front 209

In flight, movement of the speed brake lever signals the control system electronic units
(CSEUs) to extend or retract _____ flight spoiler panels simultaneously to the selected
position. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 209

10

Front 210

With the speed brake lever in the ARMED position, the ground spoilers automatically extend
upon landing and the lever moves to the UP position when there is hydraulic pressure to
both landing gear truck tilt actuators, both truck tilt sensors detect a no−tilt condition on the
ground, and _____. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 210

both throttles are at idle

Front 211

With the AUTO SPD BRK light illuminated, a fault may cause inflight deployment with the
lever armed. What action also extends the ground spoilers? [FM: 22.10]

Back 211

If either reverse thrust lever is raised to its interlock stop and all other conditions are met

Front 212

The yaw damper controllers receive inputs from _____ and _____. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 212

IRS, ADC

Front 213

The yaw damper system improves _____ and _____. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 213

turn coordination, dutch roll damping

Front 214

The yaw damper controllers receive inputs from the IRS and ADC and provide signals to
_____. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 214

two (left and right) hydraulic yaw damper actuators

Front 215

The rudder ratio changer receives air data computer airspeed inputs and provides signals to
an actuator powered by the _____ hydraulic system. [FM: 22.10.]

Back 215

Left

Front 216

A fault in the Rudder Ratio system illuminates the RUDDER RATIO light and EICAS
message. How much rudder authority is available? [FM: 22.10.]

Back 216

Low speed/full authority

Front 217

Flaps 1, selects position 1 for the TE flaps and the takeoff position for the LE slats.
[FM: 22.20.]

Back 217

True

Front 218

Pushing the leading edge alternate flap switch allows trailing edge slats to be extended
manually with the flap lever. [FM: 22.20.]

Back 218

False
(shuts off hydraulic power to both LE & TE systems, making the flap handle useless)

Front 219

If a LEADING EDGE or TRAILING EDGE light is illuminated with an associated EICAS
message, this would indicate _____. [FM: 22.20.]

Back 219

one or more leading edge slats or trailing edge flaps failed to reach the position called for by the flap handle

Front 220

EICAS displays RUDDER RATIO and the RUDDER RATIO light is illuminated indicating
_____. [FM: 22.20.]

Back 220

a fault in the rudder ratio system

Front 221

The SPEED BRAKES light on the center instrument panel is illuminated indicating _____.
[FM: 22.20.]

Back 221

the speed brake lever is aft of the ARMED position and the airplane is below 800 feet RA and above 15 feet; or the lever is aft of the ARMED position and landing flaps are extended above 15 feet RA

Front 222

The SPOILERS light on the overhead panel and associated EICAS message are illuminated
indicating _____. [FM: 22.20.]

Back 222

one or more spoiler system faults detected

Front 223

The AUTO SPEEDBRAKE EICAS message and AUTO SPD BRK light are illuminated. This
indicates a fault in the automatic speed brake system. If the speed brake lever is in DOWN
or ARMED, speed brakes may not extend automatically on _____. If the SPEED BRAKE
lever is in ARMED, speed brakes may extend in flight if _____. [FM: 22.20.]

Back 223

landing or rejected takeoff, an additional fault occurs

Front 224

Is the STAB TRIM light on the overhead panel inhibited when an autopilot or the Mach/speed
trim system is engaged? [FM: 22.20.]

Back 224

Yes

Front 225

Is the UNSCHED STAB TRIM light on the overhead panel illuminated when trimming with
the STAB TRIM levers (switches) when an autopilot is engaged? [FM: 22.20.]

Back 225

Yes

Front 226

The MACH SPD TRIM light on the overhead panel is illuminated and associated EICAS
message is displayed indicating _____. [FM: 22.20.]

Back 226

a fault in the Mach/speed trim system

Front 227

The L YAW DAMPER EICAS message is displayed and INOP light is illuminated. With the
switch ON, What does this indicate? [FM: 22.20.]

Back 227

associated yaw damper system is inoperative due to a fault

Front 228

(B767) The trailing edge flaps and leading edge slats are normally powered by the _____
hydraulic system. [FM: 22.30.]

Back 228

Center

Front 229

(B767) The trailing edge flaps do not begin to extend until position _____ is selected.
[FM: 22.30.]

Back 229

5

Front 230

(B767) An asymmetry or disagree condition sensed on the trailing edge flaps shuts off
hydraulic power to the _____ drive unit(s). [FM: 22.30.]

Back 230

TE (only)

Front 231

(B767) The flap load relief system retracts the flaps to position _____ if the associated
maximum extension speed is exceeded with the flaps extended to either position _____ or
_____. [FM: 22.30.]

Back 231

20, 25, 30

Front 232

(B767) Extension of the trailing edge flaps to position _____ or beyond hydraulically drives
the inboard ailerons to _____ percent down, changing the body angle to provide better
approach visibility. [FM: 22.30.]

Back 232

5, 50

Front 233

(B767) An asymmetry or disagreement condition sensed on the leading edge slats shuts off
hydraulic power only to the associated (inboard or outboard) drive unit. [FM: 22.30.]

Back 233

True

Front 234

(B767) No asymmetry or disagree protection or flap load relief is provided during alternate
flap or slat operation. [FM: 22.30.]

Back 234

True

Front 235

(B767) The elevator feel systems are powered by the _____hydraulic systems.
[FM: 22.30.]

Back 235

left and center

Front 236

(B767) There is no autoslat system installed in the B767. Stall protection is provided by a
stick shaker (like the B757) and a _____. [FM: 22.30.]

Back 236

Stick pusher

Front 237

(B767) When does the stick pusher move both control columns forward? [FM: 22.30.]

Back 237

Pushes both columns forward if angle of attack increases after the stick shakers activate, or if the stick shakers activate for several seconds

Front 238

(B767) A pitch enhancement system (PES) is installed which provides a backup source of
hydraulic power to operate the horizontal stabilizer if both the _____ hydraulic systems fail.
[FM: 22.30.]

Back 238

Left and center

Front 239

(B767) The PES trims at approximately _____ the normal rate and when operating, trim is
only available from the electric trim switches on the _____. [FM: 22.30.]

Back 239

1/4, control yoke

Front 240

(B767) The outboard ailerons are mechanically locked out above approximately _____
knots, and unlock below approximately _____ knots TAS. [FM: 22.30.]

Back 240

280, 240

Front 241

(B767) To assist with roll control at low speeds, _____ spoiler panels operate on each wing,
while only _____ spoilers on each wing are utilized at high speeds. [FM: 22.30.]

Back 241

Six, four

Front 242

(B767) When an armed overwing exit is opened, the inboard spoiler panels _____.
[FM: 22.30.]

Back 242

Retract

Front 243

(B767) The AIL LOCK light and associated EICAS message are illuminated. This indicates
_____. FM: 22.30.]

Back 243

one or both outboard ailerons failed to lock at high speed or failed to unlock at low speed

Front 244

The air data system consists of two air data computers, one total air temperature probe, a
pitot static system, and _____. FM: 23.10.]

Back 244

two angle of attack probes

Front 245

The command airspeed bug on each Mach/Airspeed indicator can be positioned
automatically from the FMC CDU or manually from the MCP IAS/MACH selector. VNAV
controls the MCP command airspeed bug to the flap limit speed minus _____ knots.
[FM: 23.10.]

Back 245

5

Front 246

The RDMIs provide FMS waypoint, VOR or ADF bearing information, and waypoint,
VOR/DME, and ILS/DME distance information, as selected by the pilots. FMS waypoint
distance is the _____ distance to the active waypoint while VOR and ILS distance
information is _____ range DME distance. [FM: 23.10.]

Back 246

Horizontal, slant

Front 247

The RDMI and VSI are not operational, and attitude data for the ADI is unavailable, until the
associated IRU has completed alignment and entered the NAV mode. [FM: 23.10.]

Back 247

True

Front 248

There is/are _____ symbol generator(s) installed. [FM: 23.10.]

Back 248

3

Front 249

The HSI compass rose is automatically referenced to magnetic north when aircraft location is
between _____ degrees north and _____ degrees south latitude with the heading reference
in NORM. [FM: 23.10.]

Back 249

73, 60

Front 250

Selectors and switches allow either pilot to select an alternate instrument source. The
alternate source may be a third (center) system, if installed, or the opposite (left or right)
source. A _____ is provided whenever both pilots have selected the same instrument data
source. [FM: 23.10.]

Back 250

Caution alert

Front 251

There are _____ radio altimeters installed. The _____ radio altimeter supplies the
configuration warning system and the ground proximity warning system. [FM: 23.10.]

Back 251

3, left

Front 252

Three radio altimeters provide data to the flight control computers, symbol generators as well
as other using systems. The _____ radio altimeter also supplies the configuration and
ground proximity warning system. [FM:23.10.]

Back 252

Left

Front 253

The Standby Attitude Indicator (SAI) can be powered from the standby DC bus for
approximately _____ minutes in the event all other electrical power fails. [FM: 23.10.]

Back 253

30

Front 254

Normally, the left IRU provides the F/O RDMI heading reference. When an IRS FAULT
occurs, selecting the IRS switch changes the source of heading, track, attitude, and speed
data for the associated ADI, HSI, VSI, and opposite RDMI to the _____ IRU. [FM: 23.20.]

Back 254

Center

Front 255

(B757 Non−ER) On the Instrument Source Selector Panel, pushing the Captain’s FMC
switch _____. [FM: 23.20.]

Back 255

selects the right FMC as the source for the left and center symbol generators and FCCs

Front 256

There are three symbol generators (SGs). Pushing the EFI switch to ALTN selects the _____
symbol generator. [FM: 23.20.]

Back 256

Center

Front 257

If an engine fails after liftoff, the pitch bar on the ADI commands the greater of _____ or
_____, but not more than _____. [FM: 23.20.]

Back 257

existing speed, V2, V2+15

Front 258

During flight, the amber FD flag appears. This indicates _____. [FM: 23.20.]

Back 258

the selected flight director has failed

Front 259

With the flaps extended, a Pitch Limit Indicator (PLI) on each ADI indicates _____.
[FM: 23.20, 31.10]

Back 259

stick shaker pitch attitude when visible

Front 260

TCAS traffic is displayed in all HSI modes. [FM: 23.20.]

Back 260

False

Front 261

During flight, the amber MAP flag appears on the HSI, this indicates _____. [FM: 23.20.]

Back 261

failure of associated FMC−generated map display

Front 262

The ALT light on each primary altimeter indicates the aircraft is within _____ feet above or
below the altitude set in the MCP altitude indicator and extinguishes when within _____ feet
of the MCP altitude. [FM: 23.20.]

Back 262

900, 300

Front 263

The radio altitude display on the ADI indicates radio altitude at _____ feet and below.
[FM: 23.20.]

Back 263

2500

Front 264

DIST−L/DIST−R indicators on the RDMI display distance in nautical miles to the next active
waypoint or tuned radio facility, as indicated by a letter prefix. An “L” prefix indicates
[FM: 23.20.]

Back 264

slant range distance is to the tuned ILS/DME

Front 265

During flight, the HDG flag appears on the Captains RDMI. This indicates _____. [FM:
23.20.]

Back 265

Selected IRS heading source is unreliable, no computed data is available, or instrument has failed

Front 266

If the Captain’s clock fails, time inputs to both FMCs switch to the First Officer’s clock.
[FM: 23.20.]

Back 266

True

Front 267

(B757 ER) A NAV selector is installed in place of the FMC switch on each INSTR SOURCE
SEL panel. Placing the selector in the CDU−L or CDU−R position displays the _____ route
on the associated HSI. [FM: 23.30; 23.40.]

Back 267

Standby navigation

Front 268

(B767 56K) When pushed, the CTR switch located on the HSI control panel toggles between
_____ and _____ displays when the HSI mode selector is in the MAP, VOR, or APP position.
[FM: 23.50.]

Back 268

Full, expanded rose

Front 269

All fuel is contained in _____ tanks, labeled _____, _____, and _____. [FM: 24.10.]

Back 269

three, L, C, and R

Front 270

The fuel quantity in each tank is measured electronically, corrected for density, and displayed
_____. [FM: 24.10.]

Back 270

on a digital indicator for each tank

Front 271

Surge tanks are provided in each wing tip. Fuel from the surge tank is drained into the
_____. [FM: 24.10.]

Back 271

associated main tank

Front 272

Normal fueling and defueling is done through dual fuel nozzles in the fueling bay under the
_____ wing. [FM: 24.10.]

Back 272

right

Front 273

The AC pumps provide fuel under pressure to the engine driven fuel pumps. The _____
pump in the _____ tank normally supplies the APU. [FM: 24.10.]

Back 273

Forward, left

Front 274

With center tank pumps off, remaining center tank fuel is automatically scavenged into the
main tanks when the left main tank is less than _____ percent full at a rate of approximately
_____ pounds per hour. [FM: 24.10.]

Back 274

50, 400

Front 275

To reduce electrical loads, the center tank boost pumps are normally inhibited in flight or on
the ground when the associated engine N is less than _____ percent. [FM: 24.10.]

Back 275

50

Front 276

A DC motor driven pump is installed in the _____ tank as a backup source of fuel pressure
for _____. [FM: 24.10.]

Back 276

left, starting the APU

Front 277

With the center fuel pump switches selected ON, illuminated PRESS lights indicate _____.
[FM: 24.20.]

Back 277

output pressure is low, no fuel remains in the center tank with pump switch ON, associated N 2 is below 50 percent with pump switch ON

Front 278

The FUEL TEMP Indicator displays the temperature of the fuel in the _____ main tank. [FM:
24.20.]

Back 278

Right

Front 279

On the ground, the left forward fuel boost pump starts automatically, regardless of switch
position when _____ and _____. [FM: 24.20.]

Back 279

the APU selector is positioned to START or ON, AC power is available

Front 280

The FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the quantity in either main tank is below
approximately _____ pounds. [FM: 24.20.]

Back 280

2200

Front 281

When lateral fuel imbalance is _____ pounds between the main tanks, the FUEL CONFIG
light illuminates. [FM: 24.20.]

Back 281

1800

Front 282

The FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the center tank contains more than _____
pounds of usable fuel with the center pump switches off. [FM: 24.20.]

Back 282

1200

Front 283

A single crossfeed switch opens and closes the valve. What indicates correct valve position?
[FM: 24.20.]

Back 283

Valve light not illuminated

Front 284

(B757 ER) Extended Range aircraft are equipped with dual crossfeed valves. [FM: 24.30.]

Back 284

True

Front 285

(B767) The fueling bay is located under the _____ wing. [FM: 24.40.]

Back 285

Left

Front 286

(B767) The FUEL CONFIG light for a lateral imbalance is triggered by an imbalance of
_____ pounds between the main tanks. [FM: 24.40.]

Back 286

2000 +/-
500

Front 287

(B767) A fuel jettison system is installed which jettisons fuel from the center tank only and at
a rate of _____ pounds per minute. [FM: 24.40.]

Back 287

2600

Front 288

(B767) Positioning the fuel jettison selector to ON automatically inhibits _____ window heat
and selects _____ mode for equipment cooling in order to reduce electrical demand.
[FM: 24.40.]

Back 288

L−3 and R−3, OVRD

Front 289

(B767) With the center tank pumps off, scavenge of remaining center tank fuel begins when
the main tanks are approximately _____. [FM: 24.40.]

Back 289

Half full

Front 290

(B767) The FUEL TEMP indicator displays the temperature of the fuel in the _____ main
tank. [FM: 24.40.]

Back 290

Left

Front 291

(B767) The FAULT light on the overhead fuel jettison panel remained illuminated when the
fuel jettison selector was placed ON. This could indicate a jettison pump is not operating as
commanded or _____. [FM: 24.40.]

Back 291

a jettison valve is not in the commanded position

Front 292

Normal gear extension is operated by [FM: 27.10.]

Back 292

hydraulic pressure

Front 293

The _____ hydraulic system provides power for landing gear retraction and extension.
[FM: 27.10.]

Back 293

left

Front 294

The normal brake system is powered by the _____ hydraulic system. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 294

right

Front 295

The alternate brake system is powered by the _____ hydraulic system. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 295

left

Front 296

If pressure in the right hydraulic system drops below approximately _____ PSI, braking
automatically shifts to the alternate brake system. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 296

1500

Front 297

The alternate brake system has all the capabilities of the normal brake system except for
automatic braking. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 297

True

Front 298

The normal antiskid system provides what protection feature(s)? [FM: 27.10.]

Back 298

a) Skidding
b) Wheel lockup
c) Hydroplaning
d) Touchdown
e) All of the above *

Front 299

The alternate antiskid system provides the same protection as the normal system, but
receives inputs from transducers which monitor _____ rather than individual wheels.
[FM: 27.10.]

Back 299

paired wheels on the same axle

Front 300

The autobrakes system is available through the normal brake system. With loss of the
_____ hydraulic system, autobraking is not used due to the potential loss of _____ capability.
[FM: 27.10.]

Back 300

left, nose wheel steering

Front 301

With the autobrakes system armed and both throttles at idle, automatic braking is initiated at
touchdown when _____, _____, and _____. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 301

main gear trucks untilt, wheel spinup occurs, the IRS senses aircraft pitch at 1 degree or less

Front 302

Autobraking delays for up to _____ seconds if the IRS pitch attitude remains above
1 degree. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 302

8

Front 303

The autobraking system disarms immediately when an _____ or _____ system fault occurs.
[FM: 27.10.]

Back 303

autobrakes, normal antiskid

Front 304

Manual braking, advancing either throttle, moving the speed brake lever out of the UP
position, or selecting the DISARM or OFF position on the selector disarms the autobrakes
system. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 304

True

Front 305

With the RTO mode armed, the autobrakes system applies maximum braking when both
throttles are retarded to idle above _____ knots. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 305

85

Front 306

The same conditions that disarm the autobrakes system during landing, also disarm the
autobrakes system after RTO mode has engaged. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 306

True

Front 307

The reserve brake source system and brake accumulator provide backup pressure sources
for the normal (right) brake system if both the _____ hydraulic systems fail. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 307

Left and right

Front 308

When the RESERVE BRAKES switch is activated, fluid trapped below the standpipe in the
_____ hydraulic system reservoir is made available to the _____ system electric hydraulic
pump. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 308

Right, right

Front 309

The BRAKE SOURCE EICAS message and BRAKE SOURCE light are illuminated. This
indicates braking is available from _____. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 309

the accumulator only

Front 310

The accumulator can provide several braking applications or parking brake applications.
[FM: 27.10.]

Back 310

True

Front 311

The normal antiskid system provides full antiskid protection when the _____ brake system is
pressurized by either the reserve brake source or the brake accumulator. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 311

Normal

Front 312

The main gear trucks tilt _____ following liftoff. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 312

Aft

Front 313

Alternate gear extension uses a _____ to release the gear doors and gear uplocks, allowing
the gear to free fall to the down and locked position. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 313

small electric hydraulic pump

Front 314

The landing gear cannot be extended using the alternate extension system without _____
and trapped fluid within the supply line to the pump. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 314

Electrical power

Front 315

All gear doors remain open after alternate gear extension whether or not the left hydraulic
system is pressurized. [FM: 27.10.]

Back 315

True

Front 316

An illuminated ANTISKID light and associated ANTISKID EICAS message indicates
[FM: 27.20.]

Back 316

a fault in the active antiskid system

Front 317

Is the ANTISKID light on the overhead panel inhibited when the parking brakes are set?
[FM: 27.20.]

Back 317

Yes

Front 318

When illuminated, the AUTO BRAKES light on the center instrument panel could indicate
which of the following? [FM: 27.20.]

Back 318

Autobrake system has disarmed

Front 319

The amber GEAR light on the center instrument panel is illuminated, this indicates the
landing gear position _____. FM: 27.20.]

Back 319

disagrees with position called for by landing gear lever

Front 320

The nose wheel steering tiller turns the nose wheels a maximum of _____ degrees either
side of center for ground operations when hydraulic pressure is available from the _____
hydraulic system. [FM: 27.20.]

Back 320

65, left

Front 321

The rudder pedals can turn the nose wheels a maximum of _____ degrees either side of
center for ground operations. [FM: 27.20.]

Back 321

7

Front 322

The accumulator can only be pressurized by the _____ hydraulic system. [FM: 27.20.]

Back 322

Right

Front 323

The PARK BRAKE light on the control pedestal and associated EICAS message are
illuminated, this indicates the PARK BRAKE handle is not retracted and _____.
[FM: 27.20.]

Back 323

the antiskid return line valve is closed

Front 324

(B767) The _____ hydraulic system provides power for landing gear retraction and
extension. [FM: 27.30.]

Back 324

Center

Front 325

(B767) The reserve brakes system provides nose wheel steering in the event the _____
hydraulic system fails. [FM: 27.30.]

Back 325

Center

Front 326

(B767) The alternate brake system is powered by the _____ system, but can be powered by
a _____ system when necessary. [FM: 27.30.]

Back 326

center, reserve brake and steering source

Front 327

(B767) Fluid trapped below the standpipe in the center hydraulic system reservoir is
reserved for [FM: 27.30.]

Back 327

reserve brake and steering

Front 328

(B767) When the RESERVE BKS & STRG switch is activated, the _____ electric hydraulic
pump starts operating regardless of switch position. [FM: 27.30.]

Back 328

center No. 1

Front 329

(B767) Automatic reserve brake and steering source operation occurs when the center
system reservoir fluid quantity drops below approximately _____ percent. [FM: 27.30.]

Back 329

50

Front 330

(B767) When the main gear is retracted, it is held up by the _____. [FM: 27.30.]

Back 330

Landing gear doors

Front 331

(B767) Alternate gear extension uses a/an _____ actuator to release the main gear doors
and nose gear uplatches. [FM: 27.30.]

Back 331

Electric

Front 332

(B767) The rudder pedals can turn the nose wheels a maximum of _____ degrees either
side of center during ground operations. [FM: 27.30.]

Back 332

6

Front 333

(B767) The tailskid is powered by the _____ hydraulic system and retracts and extends with
the landing gear. [FM: 27.30.]

Back 333

Center

Front 334

(B767) A TAILSKID light is illuminated, and an associated EICAS message is displayed. This
would indicate _____. [FM: 27.30.]

Back 334

tailskid position does not agree with landing gear lever position

Front 335

The AFDS/autothrottle GA mode arms when _____ is captured or _____ are extended. [FM:
28.10.]

Back 335

Glideslope, flaps

Front 336

When GA mode engages, the autothrottle increases thrust as required up to the GA thrust
limit to establish a climb rate of at least _____ FPM. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 336

2000

Front 337

If the airplane is descending or is below 400 feet, the AFDS can only be taken out of GA
mode by _____. If flaps are at position 25 or 30, the autothrottle can only be taken out of GA
mode by _____. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 337

disengaging all autopilots and turning off both flight directors, disengaging it

Front 338

When level or climbing above 400 feet, the AFDS can be taken out of GA mode by _____.
[FM: 28.10.]

Back 338

selecting another pitch and/or roll mode

Front 339

When in the TO or GA modes, the windshear recovery system is activated automatically.
[FM: 28.10.]

Back 339

True

Front 340

When in other than TO or GA modes, the windshear recovery system is activated by pushing
_____. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 340

either go−around switch

Front 341

There is/are _____ flight control computer(s) to integrate the functions of the autopilots and
flight directors. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 341

3

Front 342

An FCC _____ operate an autopilot in command, and supply flight director commands
simultaneously. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 342

Cannot

Front 343

Flight director commands are not available during triple autopilot operation. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 343

True

Front 344

At least _____ FCCs must be operating for an autopilot to be engaged or remain engaged.
[FM: 28.10.]

Back 344

Two

Front 345

The normal power source for the left and center FCCs is the [FM: 28.10.]

Back 345

left AC bus

Front 346

When armed for a three autopilot approach, the power source for the center FCC switches to
the _____ to satisfy a bus isolation requirement for autoland. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 346

hot battery bus and standby inverter

Front 347

Upgraded FCCs may be installed. Depending on the mix of FCCs installed, NO AUTOLAND
may be annunciated on the ASA at _____ feet AGL during single autopilot approaches. [FM:
28.10.]

Back 347

600

Front 348

In general, all automatic flight control modes can be disengaged by selecting another mode,
disengaging the autopilot, and/or turning off both flight directors. The exception is the APP
mode after localizer and glideslope capture, which can only be disengaged by _____ or
_____. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 348

disengaging the autopilot and turning off both flight directors, by engaging the GA mode

Front 349

When armed, the LNAV, VNAV, LOC, BCRS, and APP modes can be disarmed by _____.
[FM: 28.10.]

Back 349

pushing the mode switch a second time

Front 350

Both throttles can be moved manually without disengaging the autothrottle, but the throttles
reposition themselves in response to computed thrust requirements when released, except
in the _____ mode. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 350

THR HOLD

Front 351

The autothrottle can be disengaged manually by _____ or _____. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 351

pushing either autothrottle disconnect switch, positioning the A/T ARM switch to OFF

Front 352

When does autothrottle disengagement occur automatically? [FM: 28.10.]

Back 352

a) Either reverse lever is raised through the interlock
b) A fault is detected in the active autothrottle mode
c) Either engine RPM falls below EEC activation speed (approx. 10−20 percent N)
d) Heat is lost to the TAT probe(s) or both AOA vanes
e) The EEC EPR mode fails
f) All of the above*

Front 353

What are the basic functions of the TMC? [FM: 28.10.]

Back 353

a) Calculate thrust limits and thrust settings or follow FMS thrust settings
b) Generate fast/slow indications for display on the ADIs
c) Detect and transmit autothrottle failures
d) Actuate the throttles through the servo and clutches
e) All of the above*

Front 354

Flight mode annunciations (FMAs) on the ADIs are the only valid indications of the operating
status of the autothrottle and/or AFDS. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 354

True

Front 355

Flight mode annunciations appear in _____ when the mode is armed for engagement, and
changes to _____ when the respective mode engages. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 355

White, green

Front 356

A _____ box surrounds a flight mode annunciation for _____ seconds when the mode
initially engages. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 356

Green, 10

Front 357

A _____ line through an AFDS pitch or roll mode annunciation indicates a _____ in that
mode. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 357

Yellow, fault

Front 358

Flap limit speeds, aircraft angle of attack for the configuration (alpha), and aircraft maximum
speed limits are automatically monitored by the AFDS and TMC in all modes except _____.
[FM: 28.10.]

Back 358

Vertical speed

Front 359

Each ASA consists of two windows, the upper window displays _____, can only appear in
the APP mode with two or more autopilots armed for the approach, and all other conditions
for a two or three autopilot autoland approach are satisfied below _____ feet RA.
[FM: 28.10.]

Back 359

LAND 3 and LAND 2, 1500

Front 360

Below _____ feet RA, the ASA display can only change to indicate a _____ condition. [FM:
28.10.]

Back 360

200, NO AUTOLAND

Front 361

The ASA system does not monitor the status of all ground and airborne equipment required
for CAT ll and CAT lll operations. [FM: 28.10.]

Back 361

True

Front 362

In flight, turning ON the first F/D switch engages the associated flight director in the current
mode of autopilot if the autopilot is engaged in CMD, or in _____ and _____ modes if
autopilot is not engaged. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 362

heading hold, vertical speed

Front 363

With LNAV armed and the aircraft not on a heading to intercept the active leg, the CDU MSG
lights illuminate and _____ appears in the scratch pad of both CDUs. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 363

NOT ON INTERCEPT HEADING

Front 364

VNAV cannot be engaged after takeoff while the thrust mode is in TO when below _____ feet
RA. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 364

400

Front 365

The BANK LIMIT selector is in the AUTO position and HEADING SELECT is the engaged
ROLL mode. At 260 KTAS, bank angle is limited to _____ degrees. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 365

15

Front 366

Heading hold mode causes the AFDS to roll out and/or hold magnetic heading existing at
_____. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 366

Wings level

Front 367

Heading hold is the basic pitch mode for flight directors and autopilot if no other pitch mode
is engaged. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 367

False (not a pitch mode)

Front 368

Vertical speed is the basic _____ mode for AFDS if no other _____mode is engaged. [FM:
28.20.]

Back 368

Pitch, pitch

Front 369

The vertical speed mode allows the aircraft to fly away from the altitude set in the MCP
altitude indicator. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 369

True

Front 370

If the intercept angle is greater than _____ degrees, LOC capture does not occur.
[FM: 28.20.]

Back 370

120

Front 371

Pushing the APP switch on the MCP arms the AFDS to capture and track both localizer and
glideslope. Glideslope capture does not occur if the intercept track angle is not within _____
degrees of localizer course. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 371

80

Front 372

During a CAT lll approach, all three FCCs must recognize LOC and G/S capture before
multi−channel autopilot engagement occurs. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 372

True

Front 373

The amber AUTO PILOT caution light on the center instrument panel is illuminated. This
indicates at least one engaged autopilot is operating _____. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 373

in a degraded mode

Front 374

The red A/P DISC light on the center instrument panel is illuminated, this indicates an
autopilot has _____. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 374

Disengaged

Front 375

Is it possible to display more than one limit mode on the ADI in the autothrottle annunciation
mode area? [FM: 28.20.]

Back 375

No

Front 376

ALPHA is annunciated in the pitch annunciated area of each ADI when windshear recovery
guidance is being provided. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 376

False

Front 377

The ASA upper indicator is blank until approach mode is selected and all requirements for a
CAT ll or CAT lll approach have been satisfied below _____ feet RA. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 377

1500

Front 378

The ASA lower indicator can appear anytime electrical power is available. [FM: 28.20.]

Back 378

True

Front 379

(B767 60K) The AFDS/AUTOTHROTTLE GA mode increases thrust with _____, to maintain
a climb rate of 2000 FPM. [FM: 28.30.]

Back 379

adjustment, as necessary

Front 380

The FMCs contain two databases, one for _____ data and one for _____ data.
[FM: 29.10.]

Back 380

navigational, performance

Front 381

If both FMCs are operating, they operate independently, but occasionally compare data.
[FM: 29.10.]

Back 381

True

Front 382

One FMC is designated the master and the other is the slave. The left FMC is the master
unless the _____, or all autopilots are disengaged, the _____ is OFF and the _____ is ON.
[FM: 29.10.]

Back 382

right autopilot is engaged in CMD, left flight director, right flight director

Front 383

Positioning an FMC switch, located on an instrument source selector panel, to ALTN
connects the associated _____ and _____ to the opposite FMC. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 383

HSI, CDU

Front 384

The Inertial Reference System consists of _____ Inertial Reference Unit(s) with individual
controls on a single panel. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 384

3

Front 385

Full IRU alignment requires about _____ minutes while the system determines level attitude
and true heading. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 385

10

Front 386

Present position (latitude and longitude) must be manually entered for the IRU to complete
the _____. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 386

Alignment process

Front 387

IRS alignment can only be accomplished while the airplane is parked. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 387

True

Front 388

If an IRU shuts down due to a loss of power (both AC and DC), the IRU stores the present
position provided the selector is in NAV. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 388

False

Front 389

The IRS has a _____ capability that can be used to remove accumulated IRS errors on
through flights. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 389

30−second fast alignment

Front 390

What is/are the reason(s) an IRU ALIGN light flashes? [FM: 29.10; 29.20.]

Back 390

a) Position disagreement
b) Fault
c) Position not entered in time after start of alignment process
d) Airplane movement during alignment process
e) All of the above*

Front 391

The IRUs can operate on either AC or DC power. Normally the _____ bus powers the left and center IRU and the _____ bus powers the right IRU. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 391

left AC, right AC

Front 392

(B757 Non−ER) If AC power is lost to the IRUs, after 5 minutes, power is removed from the ____IRU(s) to conserve battery power. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 392

left and center

Front 393

If the IRS reverts to DC power on the ground, the ground crew call horn, in the nose wheel
well, sounds continuously to alert personnel of the _____. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 393

High battery drain

Front 394

If IRU alignment is lost during flight, the NAV mode is inoperative for the remainder of the
flight. However, attitude information can still be obtained by moving the IRU mode selector to
_____. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 394

ATT

Front 395

While in flight, the FMC refines its position calculations based on the average position of all
operating IRUs and inputs from the _____, _____, and _____. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 395

DME, VOR, ILS

Front 396

The FMCs continuously update the IRS position. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 396

False

Front 397

After _____ minutes, with no radio updating, the _____ message appears on the CDUs. [FM:
29.10.]

Back 397

10, IRS NAV ONLY

Front 398

Once above _____ feet RA, the VNAV mode can be engaged if the MCP altitude is above
the airplane altitude. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 398

400

Front 399

The VNAV mode disengages if the MCP altitude is intercepted before reaching the FMC
cruise altitude. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 399

True

Front 400

During a VNAV descent, the target speed is economy above 10,000 feet MSL and
_____knots below 10,000 feet until necessary to begin a deceleration to reach the final
approach fix inbound at _____ knots. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 400

240, 170

Front 401

During a VNAV descent, the ADI VNAV annunciation is _____ whenever the airplane is on
the VNAV profile and the throttles are at idle thrust. Any time thrust increases to maintain a
given airspeed or rate of descent, the annunciation is _____. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 401

VNAV PATH, VNAV SPD

Front 402

The _____ ILS receiver provides input to the standby attitude indicator. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 402

Center

Front 403

Neither the ILS frequency nor the front course can be changed after localizer or glideslope
capture with multiple autopilots engaged. [FM: 29.10.]

Back 403

True

Front 404

The ON DC light is illuminated for the right IRU. This indicates the right IRU is _____.
[FM: 29.20.]

Back 404

operating on backup (aircraft battery) DC power

Front 405

The DC FAIL light for the left IRU is illuminated. This indicates _____. [FM: 29.20.]

Back 405

DC power is not available to the left IRU

Front 406

The FAULT light is illuminated for the center IRU. This indicates _____. [FM: 29.20.]

Back 406

a fault in the center IRU which could cause erroneous outputs
(if ON during alignment or while in ATT mode, indicates failure of center IRU)

Front 407

The VOR frequency selector tunes the VOR and DME when the associated HSI is in the
VOR, MAP, PLAN, or ILS mode. [FM: 29.20.]

Back 407

False

Front 408

The FMC light on the center instrument panel is illuminated. This indicates _____.
[FM: 29.20.]

Back 408

FMS is displaying a message on the CDUs

Front 409

The C−Pegasus FMC incorporates ANP/RNP, SATCOM, or GPS. [FM: 29.30.]

Back 409

False

Front 410

(B757 ER) In the event of a dual FMC failure, each Multifunction Control Display Unit
(MCDU) is capable of a backup navigation function, known as _____. [FM: 29.40.]

Back 410

Standby navigation

Front 411

(B757 ER) The MCDU contains a permanent navigational database which is accessed when
both FMCs fail. [FM: 29.40.]

Back 411

False

Front 412

(B757 ER) During HMG operation, the _____ bus (powered by HMG AC) continues to power
the left IRU. [FM: 29.40.]

Back 412

left AC Transfer

Front 413

(B757 ER) During HMG operation, the _____ (powered by HMG DC) powers the center and
right IRUs. [FM: 29.40.]

Back 413

Main aircraft battery

Front 414

(B757 ER) During HMG operation, power is removed from the _____ IRU(s) after 5 minutes
to conserve battery power. [FM: 29.40.]

Back 414

Right

Front 415

(B757 ER) The navigation radios must be manually tuned when using the standby navigation
system, since no radio updating of the present position occurs. [FM: 29.40.]

Back 415

True

Front 416

During engine start, the APU inlet guide vanes move to the maximum output position when
the start valve opens. For this reason, the duct pressure available for start from the APU
cannot be confirmed until _____. [FM: 30.10.]

Back 416

After the start is initiated

Front 417

During engine start, the APU bleed valve is allowed to open, regardless of engine bleed
valve position, as a function of engine start _____. [FM: 30.10.]

Back 417

Selector position

Front 418

APU pneumatic output is reduced when combined electrical and pneumatic loads exceed
design capacities. [FM: 30.10.]

Back 418

True

Front 419

Barometric control of the APU components automatically reduces APU pneumatic output
and results in insufficient pressure for cabinpressurization above _____ feet.

Back 419

17,000

Front 420

During low thrust operation, the high stage valve _____, allowing _____ pressure air to
supply the pneumatic system. [FM: 30.10.]

Back 420

Opens, high

Front 421

The Pressure Regulating and Shut Off Valve (PRSOV) is _____ controlled and _____
actuated. [FM: 30.10.]

Back 421

electrically, pneumatically

Front 422

The L DUCT LEAK light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed.
This indicates _____. [FM: 30.20.]

Back 422

leak in the left, center, or left wing anti−ice duct

Front 423

The R BLEED light on the overhead bleed air panel is illuminated, and the associated EICAS
message is displayed. This indicates _____. [FM: 30.20.]

Back 423

right engine high stage and bleed air valves have automatically closed due to engine bleed
air temperature exceeding the maximum temperature limit

Front 424

The L HI STAGE light on the overhead bleed air panel is illuminated, and the associated
EICAS message is displayed. This indicates _____. [FM: 30.20.]

Back 424

left engine high stage bleed valve has automatically locked closed due to an overpressure in
the engine bleed system

Front 425

The APU VALVE light is illuminated with the APU bleed switch selected ON. This indicates
_____. [FM: 30.20.]

Back 425

position of the APU bleed valve disagrees with the position of the switch or position called for
by system logic

Front 426

The L engine bleed air OFF light is illuminated with the L engine bleed switch selected ON.
This indicates _____. [FM: 30.20.]

Back 426

left engine bleed valve is closed

Front 427

The air conditioning packs can provide a normal flow or a high flow schedule. When is the
high flow schedule automatically activated? [FM: 30.30.]

Back 427

a) If one pack is inoperative
b) If the associated recirculation fan is off or inoperative
c) On the ground, when only the APU or external air is supplying pneumatic air (both packs)
d) All of the above*

Front 428

High flow to the opposite pack is inhibited when the RPM of either engine falls below _____.
[FM: 30.30.]

Back 428

A preset value

Front 429

The right recirculation fan is powered by the _____ bus, and the left recirculation fan is
powered by the _____ bus. [FM: 30.30.]

Back 429

right utility, left main AC

Front 430

If the left recirculation fan is turned off or fails in flight, the overboard exhaust valve _____
and remains _____ until landing. [FM: 30.30.]

Back 430

Latches open, open

Front 431

The automatic temperature control system has two operating modes, _____ and _____.
[FM: 30.30.]

Back 431

Normal, backup

Front 432

The normal mode (temperature control) is operative when the temperature control selectors
are positioned in the auto range, pack selectors are set to AUTO, and the TRIM AIR switch
is ON. [FM: 30.30.]

Back 432

True

Front 433

(B757 PS) Due to lower passenger density and a relocation of bulkheads, initially use target
zone temperatures of _____F / _____F / _____F respectively for the FLT DK/FWD
CAB/AFT CAB zones. [FM: 30.30.]

Back 433

72, 72, 69

Front 434

What condition(s) causes the backup mode (temperature control) to operate? [FM: 30.30.]

Back 434

a) TRIM AIR switch is OFF
b) All three temperature control selectors are positioned to OFF
c) Cabin (zone) temperature controller is inoperative
d) All of the above*

Front 435

In backup mode (temperature control), both packs provide a _____ output temperature to
attempt to keep all compartments at a _____ temperature. [FM: 30.30.]

Back 435

Constant, comfortable

Front 436

The standby temperature control system consists of _____ level(s) of operation.
[FM: 30.30.]

Back 436

3

Front 437

Supplemental heating of the AFT cargo compartment air is accomplished by _____. [FM:
30.30.]

Back 437

Electric heater

Front 438

There are two supply fans to assist with the cooling of the FWD equipment compartment.
Should the operating fan fail, the alternate fan automatically starts running. [FM: 30.30.]

Back 438

False

Front 439

When the pressure differential is _____ PSI or the left recirculation fan is off or inoperative,
an overboard exhaust valve _____ automatically. [FM: 30.30.]

Back 439

Less than 2.5, opens

Front 440

When the pressure differential is _____ PSI, all exhaust air is discharged into the _____.
[FM: 30.30.]

Back 440

greater than 2.5, mix manifold

Front 441

The AFT E/E equipment racks are cooled by air drawn over the racks by the _____ vent
system. [FM: 30.30.]

Back 441

Lavatory/galley

Front 442

Smoke has been detected in the FWD equipment exhaust duct. Is the OVHT light inhibited
for 5 minutes? [FM: 30.30.]

Back 442

No

Front 443

When smoke is no longer detected in either the supply or exhaust ducting, the air
conditioning packs automatically return to normal operation and the recirculation fans are
automatically turned back on. [FM: 30.30.]

Back 443

True

Front 444

The FWD CAB INOP light located on the air conditioning panel is illuminated, and the
associated EICAS message is displayed. This indicates _____. [FM: 30.40.]

Back 444

an overheat condition, fault, or FWD CAB temperature control selector is OFF
(All three INOP lights illuminated − TRIM AIR switch is OFF)

Front 445

The temperature control selector on the air conditioning panel is selected to AUTO. This
allows the temperature to be automatically maintained from _____F in the C position to
_____F in the W position. [FM: 30.40.]

Back 445

65, 85

Front 446

The L PACK INOP light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This
indicates _____ or _____. [FM: 30.40.]

Back 446

excessive pack outlet temperature, fault in the automatic pack temperature controller

Front 447

The R PACK OFF light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This
indicates _____ or _____. [FM: 30.40.]

Back 447

pack selector is in the OFF position, loss of air to the pack

Front 448

The PACK INOP and PACK OFF lights are both illuminated on the L Pack. This indicates
_____. [FM: 30.40.]

Back 448

the pack has shut down due to an internal pack overheat

Front 449

The Pack selector has been placed in the STBY N (normal) position. This position controls the
associated pack to a constant _____ outlet temperature. [FM: 30.40.]

Back 449

comfortable

Front 450

When the EQUIP COOLING switch is positioned to ALTN, the alternate supply fan in the
forward equipment cooling system is selected and the overboard exhaust valve is opened.
[FM: 30.40.]

Back 450

True

Front 451

The EQUIP COOLING OVHT light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is
displayed. Could this condition be caused by the failure of the selected forward equipment
cooling system supply fan? [FM: 30.40.]

Back 451

Yes

Front 452

The EQUIP COOLING OVHT light illuminates when there is low airflow in the forward
equipment cooling system on the ground. What additional crew alerting is indicated if this
condition occurs? [FM: 30.40.]

Back 452

Ground crew call horn sounds

Front 453

Two identical independent automatic systems control cabin altitude using a single outflow
valve powered by _____. [FM: 30.50.]

Back 453

Two AC motors

Front 454

A manual system allows direct flight deck control of the outflow valve using a DC motor
which is powered by the _____ bus. [FM: 30.50.]

Back 454

Standby DC

Front 455

If cabin altitude reaches _____ feet, the outflow valve automatically closes and can reopen
again when cabin altitude descends below _____. [FM: 30.50.]

Back 455

11,000, 9500

Front 456

On the ground, the pressurization system begins pressurizing the aircraft to slightly below
airport elevation when _____. [FM: 30.50.]

Back 456

the throttles are advanced for takeoff

Front 457

Once airborne, the pressurization system does not remember the departure station airport
elevation. [FM: 30.50.]

Back 457

True

Front 458

During climb, cabin altitude increases at a rate proportional to aircraft rate of climb until the
maximum normal differential pressure of _____ PSI is reached at approximately _____ feet.
[FM: 30.50.]

Back 458

8.6, 35,000

Front 459

The cabin altitude descends to approximately _____ feet below the selected landing altitude
so that the cabin is pressurized on landing. [FM: 30.50.]

Back 459

100

Front 460

When the MODE SELECT selector on the pressurization control panel is positioned to MAN,
the outflow valve moves at _____ the automatic rate. [FM: 30.60.]

Back 460

1/2

Front 461

The CABIN ALTITUDE warning lights are illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is
displayed. This indicates _____. [FM: 30.60.]

Back 461

cabin altitude is above 10,000 feet

Front 462

If the CABIN ALTITUDE warning lights are illuminated in flight, they do not extinguish until
the cabin altitude descends below _____ feet. [FM: 30.60.]

Back 462

8500

Front 463

(B757 ER) An auxiliary equipment cooling fan provides backup cooling for the forward
supply system. The fan operates when _____ or _____ and the EQUIP COOLING switch is
selected to ALTN. [FM: 30.70.]

Back 463

both main AC busses are unpowered, both forward supply fans fail

Front 464

(B767) Ground pneumatic air enters the pneumatic system via the _____ duct(s).
[FM: 30.80.]

Back 464

Left

Front 465

(B767) The APU bleed valve automatically closes, if open, when either engine bleed valve
opens, except during engine start, or when the center isolation valve is open. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 465

False

Front 466

(B767) The L STRUT DCT LEAK EICAS message is displayed, and the DUCT LEAK light is
illuminated. This indicates _____. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 466

a left engine strut duct leak has been detected

Front 467

(B767) EICAS is displaying a R ENG BLD OVHT message, and the BLD OVHT light is
illuminated. This indicates a bleed air overheat has occurred and the _____ has
automatically closed. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 467

HPSOV

Front 468

(B767) If the _____ remains open when only low stage air is required, the associated _____
light illuminates. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 468

HPSOV, BLEED

Front 469

(B767) If the pressure regulating valve (PRV) fails in the full open position, the associated
BLEED light illuminates, and EICAS displays a caution message. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 469

True

Front 470

(B767) When is the Pack high flow inhibited? [FM: 30.80.]

Back 470

a) Wing anti−ice is ON and only one engine is supplying bleed air
b) N2 RPM of either engine is below a preset value
c) Flaps are not up
d) All of the above*

Front 471

(B767) The airplane is divided into _____ primary zones for temperature control and there
are also _____ auxiliary zones. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 471

4, 2

Front 472

(B767) The cockpit electric heaters operate on the ground and also in flight. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 472

False (only in flight)

Front 473

(B767) Supplemental cargo heat is controlled by switches on the overhead panel using
_____. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 473

warm air from the pneumatic system

Front 474

(B767) The BULK cargo compartment can be maintained at a higher temperature by
selecting the _____ position on the auxiliary panel. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 474

VENT

Front 475

(B767) The forward equipment cooling STBY mode is used if an _____ is indicated during
AUTO mode operation, or if the _____ light illuminates after both engines are started. [FM:
30.80.]

Back 475

Overheat, VALVE

Front 476

(B767) The forward equipment cooling OVRD mode is used if _____ or _____. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 476

overheat condition remains after selecting STBY, smoke is detected in the forward
equipment cooling system

Front 477

(B767) Positioning the EQUIP COOLING selector to OVRD turns off the supply and exhaust
fans, opens the smoke clearance valve, and arms the NO COOLING light. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 477

True

Front 478

(B767) The NO COOLING light illuminates if _____ is detected. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 478

No reverse air flow

Front 479

(B767) Positioning the fuel jettison selector to ON automatically selects the _____ mode
regardless of the position of the equipment cooling selector. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 479

OVRD

Front 480

(B767) The ground crew call horn in the nose wheel well sounds continuously if _____ is
selected on the ground or _____. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 480

OVRD, overheat condition exists

Front 481

(B767) When illuminated, the OVHT light for the forward equipment cooling system indicates
_____ or _____. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 481

high temperature, lack of air flow

Front 482

(B767) Selecting STBY on the EQUIP COOLING selector turns off and inhibits the OVHT
light for _____ minutes. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 482

5

Front 483

(B767) Selecting OVRD on the EQUIP COOLING selector _____ the OVHT light.
[FM: 30.80.]

Back 483

Deactivates

Front 484

There are three types of aural warnings: _____, _____, and _____. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 484

bell, siren, voice

Front 485

There are two types of CAUTION aurals: _____ and _____. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 485

Beeper, voice

Front 486

A takeoff configuration WARNING system is armed automatically when the aircraft is on the
ground and either engine is accelerated to _____. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 486

Near takeoff thrust

Front 487

The configuration warning for gear not down with throttles in idle receives altitude information
from the _____ radio altimeter. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 487

Left

Front 488

The landing configuration WARNING is given when any landing gear is not locked down and
the aircraft is at or below _____ feet RA with either throttle in idle or _____.
[FM: 31.10.]

Back 488

800, landing flaps are selected

Front 489

Pitch Limit Indicators (PLIs) indicate _____ and are normally in view only when the _____
are extended. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 489

stick shaker pitch attitude, flaps

Front 490

An overspeed warning occurs if _____ limits are exceeded. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 490

VMO/MMO

Front 491

The overspeed warning indications remain active until? [FM: 31.10.]

Back 491

Airspeed is reduced below VMO/MMO, and The master WARNING light is pushed

Front 492

To prevent potential conflicts between required maneuvers, the warning systems prioritize as
follows: [FM: 31.10.]

Back 492

GPWS Windshear, Predictive Windshear, Terrain, TCAS

Front 493

The fire bell and master warning lights (for fire only) are inhibited during takeoff, from _____
until reaching _____ feet RA, or for 20 seconds, whichever occurs first.
[FM: 31.10.]

Back 493

nose strut extension, 400

Front 494

During takeoff, the beeper and master caution lights are inhibited, for all cautions, beginning
at _____, and ending when the airplane reaches _____ feet RA or 20 seconds after _____,
whichever occurs first. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 494

80 knots, 400, nose strut extension

Front 495

Transponder mode _____ ground operation permits transponder interrogation by ATC and
other aircraft for ground surveillance purposes. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 495

S

Front 496

EICAS messages that alert the pilots to an abnormal operational or system condition
requiring immediate pilot awareness and corrective action best describes a/an [FM: 31.10.]

Back 496

Warning

Front 497

EICAS messages that alert the pilots to an abnormal operational or system condition
requiring immediate pilot awareness and timely corrective action best describes a/an
[FM: 31.10.]

Back 497

Caution

Front 498

If installed, EICAS communication alerts advise the pilots of incoming normal
communications and direct the pilots to the appropriate system. The three levels of communication alerts are _____, _____, and _____. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 498

Low, medium, high

Front 499

STATUS messages indicate equipment conditions that require awareness at _____ and that
are not otherwise shown on the flight deck. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 499

Dispatch

Front 500

The Altitude Alerting System is inhibited in flight with landing gear down and locked. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 500

True

Front 501

A TCAS corrective RA advises the pilots to change the current pitch to maintain adequate
separation. Response is required within _____ seconds. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 501

5

Front 502

Following a corrective RA, TCAS may issue a strengthened RA. Response time for a
strengthened RA is required within _____ seconds. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 502

2.5

Front 503

Preventive RAs are inhibited below _____ feet AGL on climb and _____ feet AGL on
descent. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 503

1100, 900

Front 504

The EGPWS database contains all runways in the world that are longer than _____ feet for
which terrain data exists. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 504

3500

Front 505

During a predictive terrain caution or warning alert, TCAS reverts from RA to the TA mode
and TCAS aural alerts are inhibited. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 505

True

Front 506

Below _____ feet RA, the GPWS monitors for hazardous flight path conditions and provides
visual and aural warnings, alerts, or advisories when such conditions are encountered. [FM:
31.10.]

Back 506

2450

Front 507

PWS uses the Doppler capability of the X−Band weather radar to detect the presence of low
altitude horizontal wind flow and to predict the presence of one or more windshear
occurrences. The PWS system operates only below _____ feet RA. [FM: 31.10.]

Back 507

2300

Front 508

The PWS symbol displayed on the HSI is available in all modes except [FM: 31.10.]

Back 508

PLAN

Front 509

How can the pilot inhibit the below glideslope aural advisory and GND PROX light on the
instrument panel cluster? [FM: 31.20.]

Back 509

By pushing the light below 1000 feet RA

Front 510

On the EICAS control panel, what action resets an overspeed or overtemp display?
[FM: 31.20.]

Back 510

Pushing the MAX IND reset switch

Front 511

The WINDSHEAR light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This
indicates _____. [FM: 31.20.]

Back 511

a windshear condition has been detected

Front 512

The PULL UP light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This
indicates _____ or _____. [FM: 31.20.]

Back 512

excessive terrain closure rate with gear and flaps not in the landing configuration, excessive
sink rate in any configuration

Front 513

The ALT ALERT light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This
indicates _____. [FM: 31.20.]

Back 513

aircraft has deviated 300 feet from MCP altitude

Front 514

When pulled, the THRUST REF SET knob on the EICAS control panel causes the thrust
mode indicator to display _____ and reference EPR indicator to display_____ EPR. [FM:
31.20.]

Back 514

MAN, 1.55

Front 515

(B767) The left recirculation fan is powered from the _____ bus, and the right recirculation
fan is powered from the _____ bus. [FM: 30.80.]

Back 515

left utility, right utility