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62 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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All of the following occur in acute inflammation, except:
A. Migration of Neutrophils B. Calor C. Rubor D. Tumor E. Migration of Lymphocytes |
E.
CHRONIC |
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The primary cell type in acute inflammation is:
A. Macrophages B. Lymphocytes C. PMN`s D. Plasma Cells |
C.
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All of the following are characteristic of chronic inflammation, except:
A. Infiltration of macrophages B. Neovascularization C. Fibrosis D. Predictable pattern |
D.
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Granulomatous Inflammation is a type of chronic inflammation characteristic of all of the following conditions, except:
A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Histoplasmosis D. Ankylosing Spondylitis |
D.
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All of the following would ultimately decrease wound healing, except:
A. Diabetes B. Increased ACTH release C. Predforte Acetate D. Vitamin C |
D.
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Lack of oxygen within a cell causes:
A. Decrease in ATP production B. Acute cellular edema C. An increase in glycolysis and anaerobic respiration D. A and B above E. All of the above |
E.
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Anaphylactic Reactions are characteristic of Type ____ hypersensitivity reactions and occur via the use of _______ antibodies?
A.I, Ig E B.II, IgA C.III, IgE D.IV, IgA |
A.
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Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is an example of a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction?
A.I B.II C.III D.IV |
C.
Recall that Type 1 and Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are quite easy.... --Type 1 uses IgE (allergic disorders) --Type 4 uses T lymphocytes (Tb skin test, contact derm) Recall for Types 2 and 3... --Type 2 ('Takes 2' antibodies - IgG and IgM --Type 3 (Lupus, Rheumatoid arthritis) |
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If your patient undergoes a corneal transplant and it is rejected, which hypersensitivity reaction accounts for this?
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV |
D.
Recall that Type 4 is 'Delayed Hypersensitivity', so theoretically it would take 48-72 hrs for you to know if the transplant was rejected. Similarly, it takes 48-72 hrs before you have a Tb skin test (PPD test) examined. |
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Which of the following autoimmune diseases is characterized by having antibodies produced that attack their own DNA?
A. Graves Disease B. Sjogren`s Syndrome C. Reiter`s Syndrome D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) |
D.
-Remember to watch for 'BUTTERFLY RASH' on the board exam; this is classic in LUPUS patients. -Also, recall that LUPUS patients can have disc edema (unilateral) or papilledema (bilateral). |
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Which of the following autoimmune diseases produces a clinical triad of dry eyes, dry mouth, and arthritis?
A. Graves Disease B. Sjogren`s Syndrome C. Reiter`s Syndrome D. Celiac Sprue |
B.
Next time you diagnose dry eye syndrome in clinic, screen for SJOGREN'S SYNDROME by asking the patient if they also have difficulty with dry mouth. |
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Which of the following autoimmune diseases can cause uveitis AND present with restrictive lung disease?
A. Reiter`s Syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Sjogren`s Syndrome D. Grave`s Disease |
B.
Recall that SARCOID is most common in middle-aged AFRICAN AMERICANS. If sarcoid is diagnosed in the eye, it is most likely going to be in the form of an anterior, bilateral, GRANULOMATOUS (don't forget this!) UVEITIS. Definitely know that the following conditions cause GRANULOMATOUS inflammation.... -- Tuberculosis -- Sarcoidosis -- Histoplasmosis |
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Which of the following autoimmune diseases can produce a clinical triad of urethritis, arthritis, and uveitis?
A. Reiter`s Syndrome B. Sarcoidosis C. Sjogren`s Syndrome D. Grave`s Disease |
A.
Recall that Reiter's shows a positive HLA B-27 gene. |
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Which of the following autoimmune diseases cause lower back pain and uveitis in young males?
A. Ankylosing Spondylitis B. Sarcoidosis C. Sjogren`s Syndrome D. Degenerative Arthritis |
A.
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Which of the following is the most common opportunistic lung infection found in AIDS patients:
A. Kaposi`s Sarcoma B. Toxoplasmosis C. Pneumocystic pneumoniae D. Cytomegalovirus |
C.
BTW, this is also called PCP Pneumoniae - just being careful here in case that is the option given on the exam. Recall that the ELISA and Western Blot tests are utilized for HIV diagnosis. Patients with HIV are considered to have AIDS once... - Their CD-4 count drops below 200... OR ... - Their CD-4 count is above 200 BUT they have an opportunistic infection, such as Kaposi's Sarcoma, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, etc. |
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Which of the following is an opportunistic infection found in HIV patients that most commonly invades the eye?
A. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Pneumocystic pneumoniae D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) |
D.
Recall that CMV Retinitis is treated with IV Gancyclovir. |
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A benign neoplasm of melanocytes is called a:
A. Meningioma B. Nevus C. Melanoma D. Pituitary adenoma |
B.
This is the classic definition for a nevus. A MALIGNANT proliferation of melanocytes is a MELANOMA. |
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Histamine is in rich supply in the following cell(s):
A. Mast cells B. Basophils C. Lymphocytes D. All of the above E. A and B only |
E.
I know that you associate MAST CELLS as having histamine; remind yourself that BASOPHILS are loaded with histamine as well. |
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AIDS is transmitted via all of the following routes, except:
A. Sexual contact B. IV drugs C. Mouth inoculation D. Blood Transfusions |
C.
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The following occurs in reversible cell injury:
A. Accumulation of intracellular Na B. Lactic acid build-up intracellularly C. Cellular edema D. Increase in intracellular pH E. A, B, and C |
E.
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Death of one or more cells as a result of irreversible injury is known as:
A. Apoptosis B. Necrosis C. Apocrosis |
B.
Recall that COAGULATIVE NECROSIS occurs in the heart. Recall that LIQUEFACTIVE NECROSIS occurs in the lungs. |
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Which of the following processes is responsible for programmed death of cells and is pivotal for development during embryogenesis?
A. Apoptosis B. Necrosis C. Apecrosis |
A.
In retinal development over half of the ganglion cells are initially formed with the plan (APOPTOSIS) that they will die to allow the ideal conditions for development. |
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Which of the following is the most common chromosomal disorder?
A. Edward`s syndrome B. Down`s syndrome C. Klinefelter`s syndrome D. Turner`s syndrome |
B.
Recall that we have 46 chromosomes in a cell... - 44 autosomes (non-sex) chromosomes - 2 sex chromosomes KMK stressed 3 conditions that result in 47 chromosomes... -Down's Syndrome: Has an extra chromosome 21. -Edward's Syndrome: Has an extra chromosome 18. -Klinefelter: Has an extra (X) SEX chromosome. KMK stressed 1 condition that results in 45 chromosomes... -Turner's Syndrome: Has an absent (X) SEX chromosome. REMEMBER.... -We Elect at 18 (Edward's) -We Drink at 21 (Down's) -Calvin Kline is a man (feminine man) -Tina Turner is a woman (masculine female) |
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Marfan`s syndrome is an example of a ________ disorder.
A. Autosomal Recessive B. Autosomal Dominant C. X-Linked D. Mitochondrial |
B.
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An extra chromosome 18 causes:
A. Down`s syndrome B. Edwards Syndrome C. Turner`s Syndrome D. Klinefelter`s Syndrome |
B.
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Match the ocular manifestation with the disease:
A. Lisch nodules 1. Marfan`s syndrome B. Lens subluxation 2. Neurofibromatosis C. Blue sclera 3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta D. Optic nerve disease 4. Leber`s Optic Neuropathy |
A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
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Sickle cell anemia occurs as a result of the following amino acid substitution:
A. Glutamic acid replaced by Valine B. Valine replaced by Glutamic Acid C. Arginine replaced by Valine D. Glutamic acid replaced by Arginine |
A.
Recall that Sickle-cell causes 'sea-fan' retinopathy. |
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Which of the following is the most common reason for a Vitamin B12 deficiency?
A. Low HCl levels B. Lack of intrinsic factor C. Pregnancy D. Chronic Disease |
B.
Patients can have gastritis, which results in damaged PARIETAL CELLS. Recall that PARIETAL CELLS produce HCl and INTRINSIC FACTOR; which is needed for absorption of Vitamin B12. Lack of absorption of Vitamin B12 causes PERNICIOUS ANEMIA. Recall from the biochemistry chapter that VITAMIN B12 deficiency is THE MOST COMMON VITAMIN DEFICIENCY seen worldwide - common manifestations are spina bifida and pernicious anemia. |
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The Reed-Sternberg cell is characteristic of what disease?
A. Acute Leukemia B. Chronic Leukemia C. Hodgkin`s Lymphoma D. Non-Hodgkin`s Lymphoma |
C.
Recall that HODGKIN'S has a HIGH ASSOCIATION with EBV. Hodgkin's and Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma are typically diagnosed because of LUMPS OR MASSES felt by the patient in lymph nodes, ESPECIALLY IN THE NECK. In general, LEUKEMIAS do NOT form MASSES like LYMPHOMAS. |
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Auer Rods are classically seen in:.
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia B. Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia D. Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia |
B.
The term LEUK-EMIA, means 'Leuk' (WBC's) in the 'emia' (blood). CLINICAL BACKGROUND TO HELP WITH THE BIG PICTURE.... - Patients with leukemia and lymphoma often present to the doctor with complaints of fever and night sweats. - Complete blood count (CBC) is ordered, which will tell you whether the WBC count is up or normal. - Depending on the CBC and the symptoms of the patient, a bone marrow biopsy is done, which (as described in notes) will tell you what percent of the marrow cells are.... -IMMATURE (if high percentage of cells are immature (blast cells) than it is considered ACUTE LEUKEMIA, like AML and ALL). -MATURE (if predominant cells are mature, then it is considered CHRONIC LEUKEMIA, like CML and CLL). |
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A 40 year old patient presents with complaints of unilateral headaches and jaw pain that begins immediately after chewing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Temporomandibular Disorder (TMJ) B. Migraine Headaches C. Giant Cell Arteritis (GCA) D. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage |
A.
Recall that TMJ patients typically have pain immediately after beginning to chew food, whereas GCA patients have jaw pain after prolonged chewing. Also, be sure to pay attention to the AGE of the patient when given on the exam. GCA patients are almost always going to be over the age of 55. |
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All are true of Parkinson`s disease except...
A. Tremor during movement B. Decreased Dopamine in the striatum C. Rigidity D. Parkinson's meds often cause dry eyes |
A.
-Parkinson's patients have TREMOR AT REST... |
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Which is NOT true about iron deficiency anemia....
A. Small RBC`s B. Decreased Iron content C. Treatment with Oral Iron D. 2nd most common type of anemia |
D.
IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA is the MOST COMMON TYPE OF ANEMIA! A Quick Summary of likely questions for the ANEMIAS... -IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA: Most Common -APLASTIC ANEMIA: Caused by DIAMOX & CHLORAMPHENICOL -SICKLE CELL ANEMIA: VAL for GLUT substitution -PERNICIOUS ANEMIA: Result of lack of B12 |
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Which is true regarding Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIA's)...
A. Symptoms can last for minutes up to 2 hrs before considered a stroke. B. Most symptoms are gone within an hour, but symptoms can last up to 24 hours. C. Diagnosis of a TIA would include numbness or weakness in the face, arm, or leg of up to one week in duration. D. None of the above |
B.
The lack of oxygen (ischemic attack) during a TIA typically lasts only a few minutes. The key in differentiating a STROKE from a TIA is how long the symptoms last. BY DEFINITION... IF THE SYMPTOMS ARE GONE within **24 HRS**, the attack is a 'TEMPORARY' one (TIA). If there are any lasting effects (numbness, speech, etc), the attack is now classified as a STROKE. |
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The No.1 risk factor for stroke is....
A. Obesity B. Family History C. Diabetes D. Hypertension |
D.
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Most strokes are classified as which of the following...
A. Ischemic B. Hemorrhagic C. Aneursyms |
A.
80percent of strokes are ischemic in nature. 20percent of strokes are hemorrhagic. |
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Cluster Headaches:
A. Most commonly affect women 30-50 B. Does not change with alcohol or tobacco use C. Have an association with ipsilateral Horner`s syndrome D. Presents in a band-like distribution |
C.
-Cluster headaches affect MEN ages 30-50. -If a board question talks about SMOKERS or ALCOHOLICS having headaches, CLUSTER HEADACHES is the answer. |
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A 32 year old with pain on eye movement and an afferent pupillary defect (APD) and sudden vision loss is a strong suspect for:
A. Temporal arteritis B. Optic Neuritis C. Myasthenia Gravis D. Pituitary Adenoma |
B.
The optic neuritis treatement trial reported that 90percent of patients with optic neuritis will have PAIN ON EYE MOVEMENT. |
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Which option(s) below would lead to concerns of a brain tumor?
A. 25 yr old college student with new headaches B. 55 yr old businessman with worsening headaches C. 60 yr old retiree who reports three recent headaches that have awakened him in the night. D. 55 yr old with long history of tension headaches who now has a 'new type of headache' that is giving varied symptoms. |
B,C,D.
-Any new type of headache for a patient over the age of 50 is concerning. -Headaches that wake a patient in the night are obviously concerning. -Headaches that are increasing in frequency and/or intensity should also be examined closely. |
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Which answer(s) below are high risk candidates for a thrombus?
A. Females who smoke B. Oral contraceptive users C. Burn victims D. Elderly patients on bed rest |
A, B, C, D.
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Which of the following is abnormal:
A. Total cholesterol of 175 B. LDL of 80 C. HDL of 35C. |
C.
TOTAL CHOLESTEROL: should be <200 HDL: Happy cholesterol should be >40. LDL: Lousy cholesterol should be <130. **The pathology notes mention that LDL should be <100; this is accurate when a patient has HTN or heart disease. If the patient has no cardiac concerns, I would know that LDL should be <130, as indicated above. |
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Atherosclerosis:
A. Does not begin until adulthood B. Includes labs with increased HDL levels C. Is most often found in smaller vessels D. Is caused from fat deposits in the tunica intima of blood vessels |
D.
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A glomerulonephritis that results in protein loss into the urine is called:
A. Post-renal acute renal failure B. Nephritic syndrome C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Goodpasture`s disease |
C.
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Which of the following is true regarding amaurosis fugax?
A. Common in TIA's from coronary artery disease. B. Common in TIA's from carotid artery disease. C. Common in strokes but not TIA's. |
B.
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A patient with chronic conjunctivitis, mucopurulent discharge and burning upon urination is most likely to have which of the following conditions...
A. Chlamydiae B. Gonorrhea C. Herpes Simplex |
A.
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The most common cause of an embolism is:
A. Fat B. Amniotic Fluid C. Thrombus D. Bacteria |
C.
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A patient with Crohn`s disease will have:
A. An increased risk of colon cancer B. Rectal involvement C. Cobblestone mucosa D. All of the above |
C.
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Which of the following lab value(s) are indicative of kidney disease?
A. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) B. Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) C. Increased Creatinine |
A,B,C
High BUN, High Creatinine Low GFR |
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Which of the following is the HIGHEST risk factor for chronic renal failure...
A. HTN B. DM C. Hyperlipidemia |
B.
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A patient with a productive cough for three consecutive months two years in a row is said to have:
A. Emphysema B. Chronic bronchitis C. Bronchietasis D. Pneumoconiosis |
B.
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Which of the following can be used for Herpes diagnosis?
A. Wright-Giemsa Stain B. ELISA testing C. Western Blot D. Acid-Fast Staining |
A.
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A patient with increased thirst, increased urination and normal glucose levels could have:
A. Type 1 Diabetes B. Diabetes Insipidus C. Type II Diabetes D. Addison`s Disease |
B.
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Which of the following is currently the most common bacterial sexually transmitted disease (STD)?
A. Gonorrhea B. Chlamydia C. Trichomonas D. Human Papilloma Virus |
B.
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Ophthalmia Neonatorum, a form of conjunctivitis contracted by newborns during pregnancy, is caused by:
A. Herpes Simplex B. Gonorrhea C. Chlamydia D. Human Papilloma Virus E. B and C above |
E.
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Hashimoto`s Thyroiditis includes...
A. Decreased Free T4 B. Increased Free T4 C. Increased Iodine levels found in the blood D. Over-stimulated Thyroid Function |
A.
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Which of the following is the most common BENIGN brain tumor?
A. Meningioma B. Glioblastoma C. Schwannoma |
A.
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The change of squamous to columnar cells in the esophagus during Barret's Esophagus is an example of which of the following...
A. Neoplasia B. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia |
B.
Recall the following.... -METAPLASIA: change of one MATURE cell-type to another. -NEOPLASIA: NEW growth, which can be benign or malignant. -DYSPLASIA: DISORGANIZED growth that can become premalignant (low-grade dysplasia). CLINICAL SIGNIFICANCE TO HELP WITH THE BIG PICTURE .... In BARRET'S ESOPHAGUS acid reflux irritates the esophageal lining and causes METAPLASIA. If the reflux is not controlled, the new columnar cells can become DYSPLASTIC and cancer can develop. |
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Which of the following is often caused by Staph aureus, and leads to yellow, crusted lesions in kids?
A. Psorias B. Seborrheic dermatitis C. Eczema D. Impetigo |
D.
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Which of the following caused by excessive sunlight and often appears as a 'scaley' lesion in the elderly?
A. Seborrheic dermatitis B. Psoriasis C. Eczema D. Actinic Keratosis |
D.
Remember, ACTINIC KERATOSIS is precancerous to SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA. |
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Loss of which of the following tumor suppressor genes can lead to breast cancer?
A. Ras B. BRCA C. p53 |
B.
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Loss of which of the following tumor suppressor genes can lead to retinoblastoma?
A. Ras B. BRCA C. p53 D. pRb |
D. Picky question and not discussed during lecture. Remember the Rb is abbreviated for RETINOBLASTOMA - Retinoblastoma protein (pRb)
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A pituitary adenoma is most likely to lead to excessive production of which of the following pituitary hormones?
A. Prolactin B. ACTH C. GH D. FSH |
A.
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