• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/153

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

153 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What structure makes the ring component of the trochoid joint located at the elbow.
a) the axis
b) the ulnar collateral ligament
c) the radial collateral ligament
d),' the annular ligament
e) none of the above as there is no trochoid joint located at the elbow
D) The Annular ligament
This ligament attaches the fovea capitis of the femur to the transverse acetabular ligament.
A) iliofemoral ligament
B) ligamentum teres
c) ischiofemoral ligament
d) "Y" ligament of Bigelow
e) two of the above
B) Ligamentum teres
This connective tissue structure attaches the apex of the patella to the tibial tuberosity.
A) patellar ligament
b) patellar tendon
c) there is no such structure
A) Patellar Ligament
A torn anterior cruciate ligament would allow for __ displacement of the proximal tibia in relation to the
distal femur.
a) anterior
b) posterior
a) anterior
The ___ meniscus of the knee is circular in shape and less commonly damaged.
a) medial
b) lateral
b) Lateral
Synovial joints have a joint capsule but fibrous joints do not.
a) true
b) false
a) true
Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) hinge joint - uniaxial
b) saddle joint - multi axial
c) pivot-joint - atlantoaxial joint
d) ginglymus - interphalangeal joint
e) condyloid joint - metacarpophalangeal joint
B) saddle joint - multi axial
This ligament attaches the transverse ligament of the atlas to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum.
a) alar ligament
b) apical ligament
c) posterior atlantoaxial ligament
d) cranial crus of the cruciate ligament
e) anterior atlanto-occipital membrane
d) cranial crus of the cruciate ligament
This ligament attaches the superior tip of the dens to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum.
a) cranial crus of the cruciate ligament
b) anterior atlanto-occipital membrane
c) alar ligament
d) apical ligament
e) posterior atlantoaxial ligament
d) apical ligament
The articular surfaces of which of the following synovial joints are lined with fibrocartilage.
a) atlanto-occipital joint
b) glenohumeral joint
c) cubital joint
d) temporomandibular joint
e) none of the above
d) temporomandibular joint
The peripheral layer of the IVD is called the .
a) annulus fibrosus
b) nucleolus pulposus
a) annulus fibrosus
The protraction, retraction movement of the TMJ demonstrates the ___ component of the joint.
a) ginglymus
b) synovial
c) gliding
d) circumduction
c) gliding
The inguinal ligament attaches on the ____ and the _____.
a) acetabular notch, PSIS
(b) ASIS, pubic tubercle
c) ASIS, greater trochanter of the femur
d) PSIS, pubic tubercle
e) none of the above
(b) ASIS, pubic tubercle
The linea aspera is located on what aspect of the femur?
a) posteior
b) anterior
c) it is not located on the tibia
a) posteior
The iliotibial tract inserts on what aspect of the tibia?
a) proximal, anterior and medial
b) proximal, posterior and lateral
c) proximal, anterior and lateral
d) proximal, posterior and medial
e) none of the above
c) proximal, anterior and lateral
The fossa of the lateral malleolus (malleolar fossa) is located on what aspect of the fibula?
a) distal, posterior and medial
b) distal, posterior and lateral
c) distal, anterior and medial
d) distal, anterior and lateral
a) distal, posterior and medial
Which of the following classifications apply to the intervertebral joint? (MACA)
a) synchrondosis
b) diarthosis
c) symphysis
d) secondary cartilaginous joint
e) plane joint
c) symphysis
d) secondary cartilaginous joint
Which of the following classifications apply to the zygapophyseal joint? (MACA)
a) plane joint
b) diarthrosis
c) synarthrosis
d) synovial
e) secondary cartilaginous
a) plane joint
b) diarthrosis
d) synovial
What lies in the musculospiral groove of the humerus?
a) the ulnar nerve
b) the deltoid muscle
c) the bicipital tendon
d) the radial nerve
e) none of the above
d) the radial nerve
The subscapular fossa is located on the _ aspect of the scapula.
a) anterior
b) posterior
c) it is not located on the scapula
a) anterior
The ulnar tuberosity is located _ to the coronoid process of the ulna,
a) proximal
b) distal
c) neither is located on the ulna so this does not make any sense
b) distal
Which of the following carpal bones articulate with the radius? (MACA)
a) lunate
b) pisiform
c) capitate
d) scaphoid
e) triquetral bone
a) lunate
d) scaphoid
The anterior surface of the distal radius is _ in shape,
a) concave
b) convex
a) concave
Which of the following contribute to the formation of the acetabulum? (MACA)
a) ischium
b) femur
c) ileum
d) pubis
e) sacrum
a) ischium
d) pubis
During pronation, the __ moves over the __ '
a) radius, ulna
b) ulna, radius
a) radius, ulna
Where would the parietal cells that secrete stomach acid be located?
a) in the outer covering of the stomach
b) in the wall of the stomach
c) in the lumen of the stomach
d) in the fossa of the stomach
e) none of the above
b) in the wall of the stomach
The ligamentum nuchae extends from the _ to the __ '
a) atlas, Tl2
b) inion and median nuchal line, spinous process of C7
c) the lateral masses of the axis, the transverse processes ofTI
d) the external occipital protuberance and occipital crest, spinous process of Tl2
b) inion and median nuchal line, spinous process of C7
The anterior longitudinal ligament of the spine extends from the __ to the __ '
a) occiput, S5
b) axis, SI
c) atlas, S5
d) C7, SI
b) axis, SI
How many ribs articulate with the manubrium?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
b) 4
35)The vertebrosternal ribs are .
a) ribs 1 through 7
b) ribs 9 through 10
c) ribs II and 12
d) there is no such thing
a) ribs 1 through 7
The _ of the rib articulates with the transverse costal facet of the thoracic vertebra.
a) angle
b) head
c) tubercle
d) neck
c) tubercle
The costal tubercle is on the _ end of the clavicle.
a) sternal
b) acromial
c) it is not located on the clavicle
a) sternal
The greater tubercle of the humerus is located to the lesser tubercle.
a) medial
b) lateral
b) lateral
In the PARTS method of diagnosing a subluxation, what does A stand for?
a) anomaly
b) asymmetry
c) anterior
d) assessment
e) abnormality
b) asymmetry
What travels through the transverse foramen of C7?
a) the vertebral artery
b) the spinal accessory nerve
c) the internal carotid artery
d) there is not transverse foramen on C7
e) none of the above listed structures do
e) none of the above listed structures do
Which cervical vertebrae are classified as atypical?
a) C2,3,4
b) Cl,2,7
c) C2,6,7
d) Cl,6,7
e) Cl,2,6,7
b) Cl,2,7
Which thoracic vertebrae are classified as atypical?
a) Tl,9,10,11,12
b) Tl,2,3,4,5,11,12
c) Tl,2,8,10,12
d) Tl,6,7,9,10,11,12
a) T1,9,10,11,12
The first IVD is found between _
a) The occiput and C1
b) the lateral masses of C I and C2
c) the epistropheus and C3
d) the bodies of the atlas and the axis
e) none of the above
c) the epistropheus and C3
The inferior articular facets ofTl2 face _
a) anterolaterally
b) anteromedially
c) posterolaterally
d) posteromedially
b) anteromedially
Which thoracic vertebrae DO NOT posses a transverse costal facet?
a) Tl and 2
b)T9,10
c) T11 and 12
d) T8, 9 and 10
c) T11 and 12
How many ribs articulate with T6 vertebra?
a) I
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
d) 4
The transverse lines of the sacrum represent .
a) fused transverse processes
b) where the IVD used to be
c) attachment points for muscles ofthe pelvis
d) fused intervertebral foramina
e) there are no transverse lines on the sacrum
b) where the IVD used to be
Which one of the following bones DOES NOT contribute to the formation of the orbit?
a) palatine bone
b) ethmoid bone
c) lacrimal bone
d) vomerbone
e) sphenoid bone
d) vomerbone
Two vertebral pedicles plus two lamina form the structure called the "
a) intervertebral canal
b) intervertebral foramen
c) neural arch
d) vertebral foramen
e) transverse foramen
c) neural arch
How many joints are formed by the articulation of L2 to L3 vertebrae?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
b) 3
How many intervertebral discs are there in the adult?
a) 16
b) 23
c) 26
d) 27
e) billions and billions
b) 23
Which of the following are only found on cervical vertebrae? (MACA)
a) mamillary processes
b) transverse foramen
c) bifid spinous processes
d) triangular shaped neural canal e) costotransverse bar
b) transverse foramen
c) bifid spinous processes
e) costotransverse bar
The anterior arch of the atlas is to the odontoid process.
a) anterior
b) posterior
a) anterior
Which of the following structures DOES NOT pass through the superior orbital fissure?
a) cranial nerve III
b) trochlear nerve
c) VI division of the trigeminal nerve
d) optic nerve
e) CN VI
d) optic nerve
Which of the following bones DO NOT touch the sphenoid bone? (MACA)
a) ethmoid bone
b) lacrimal bone
c) nasal bone
d) inferior nasal concha
e) vomer bone
b) lacrimal bone
c) nasal bone
d) inferior nasal concha
Which of the following bones DO NOT touch the occipital bone? (MACA)
a) sphenoid bone
b) temporal bone
c) parietal bone
d) vomer bone
e) mandible
d) vomer bone
e) mandible
The hard palate is formed from which of the following bones?
a) sphenoid bone and maxillary bone
b) ethmoid bone and palatine bone
c) palatine bone and maxillary bone
d) vomer bone and maxillary bone
e) palatine bone and sphenoid bone
c) palatine bone and maxillary bone
Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) empirical ~ trial and error
b) dyspnea ~ difficulty breathing
c) edentulous ~ loss of teeth
d) pancytopenia ~ increase in all blood cells
e) heliotherapy ~ using the sun to treat disease
d) pancytopenia ~ increase in all blood cells
Which of the following bones have a coronoid process? (MACA)
a) ulna
b) radius
c) mandible
d) temporal bone
e) scapula
a) ulna
c) mandible
Which one of the following structures IS NOT found on the temporal bone?
'a) zygomatic process
b) groove for the middle temporal artery
c) temporal lines
d) mastoid process
e) carotid canal
c) temporal lines
Choose the INCORRECT match of structure to bone.
a) superior nuchal line - occipital bone
b) jugular foramen - between the sphenoid bone and temporal bone
c) foramen ovale - sphenoid bone
d) internal acoustic meatus - petrous temporal bone
e) crista galli - ethmoid bone
b) jugular foramen - between the sphenoid bone and temporal bone
Cranial nerves _____and ______enter the ______ and cranial nerve _____ exits the ______.
a) XI, X, jugular foramen, XI, hypoglossal canal
b.) VII, VIII, external acoustic meatus, V, foramen ovale
c) III, VI, superior orbital fissure, II, cribriform plate
d) VII, VIII, internal acoustic meatus, VII, stylomastoid foramen
e)XI, X, foramen lacerum, XII, hypoglossal canal
d) VII, VIII, internal acoustic meatus, VII, stylomastoid foramen
The word petrous means __ .
a) roof
b) flattened projection
c) rock
d) a rounded protuberance
e) crow's beak
c) rock
Which one of the following structures DOES NOT pass through the foramen magnum?
a) spinal cord
b) meninges
c) spinal roots of cranial nerve XI
d) cranial nerve XII
e) vertebral artery
d) cranial nerve XII
When identifying a process on a bone of the skull, the processes are typically named for the bone they are
on. For example the temporal process of the temporal bone forms Y, of the arch commonly referred to as the
zygomatic arch.
a) true
b) false
b) false
Choose the INCORRECT statement.
a) the anterior fontanel becomes the bregma and closes by 6 months of age
b) the posterolateral fontanel is located at the intersection of the squamous and lambdoidal sutures
c) the anterolateral fontanel becomes the pterion and closes at 3 months of age
d) the posterior fontanel closes by 2 months of age and becomes the lambda
a) the anterior fontanel becomes the bregma and closes by 6 months of age
Which four bones come together at the pterion? (MACA)
a) sphenoid bone
b) frontal bone
c) zygomatic bone
d) parietal bone
e) temporal bone
a) sphenoid bone
b) frontal bone
d) parietal bone
e) temporal bone
Which one of the following sutures projects rostrally from the bregma,
a) sagittal suture
b) metopic suture
c) coronal suture
d) squamous suture
e) lambdoid suture
b) metopic suture
What structure is located on the anterior part of the skull opposite to the external occipital protuberance,
a) superior nuchal line
b) groove for the middle temporal artery
c) mastoid process
d) intercilium
e) bregma
d) intercilium
Which of the following openings does the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (or one of its
branches) travel through? (MACA)
a) superior orbital fissure
b) optic canal
c) infraorbital foramen
d) supraorbital foramen
e) foramen ovale
a) superior orbital fissure
d) supraorbital foramen
Which of the following openings does the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (or one of its branches)
travel through? (MACA)
a) infraorbital foramen
b) foramen ovale
c) foramen rotundum
d)inferior orbital fissure
e) superior orbital foramen
a) infraorbital foramen
c) foramen rotundum
d)inferior orbital fissure
Which of the following openings does the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (or one of its
branches) travel through? (MACA) a) foramen ovale
b) foramen rotundum
c) mandibular foramen
d) mental foramen
e) infraorbital foramen
a) foramen ovale
c) mandibular foramen
d) mental foramen
The parietal bone develops by what means of ossification?
a) exochondral
b) endochondral
c) intermembranous
d) intramembranous
e) none of the above
d) intramembranous
The membrane that lines the inside of the chest wall is called the __ .
a) visceral pleura
b) parietal pleura
c) none of the above
b) parietal pleura
The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve would be classified as _
a)afferent
b) efferent
c) both afferent and efferent
a) afferent
Lying on your back, face up, you would be in a _ position.
a) prone
b) supine
b) supine
A plane that divides the body into right and left sections is called a plane.
a) coronal
b) sagittal
c) transverse
b) sagittal
Movement of a body part away from the main axis of the body would best be termed __ .
a) adduction
b) circumduction
c) abduction
d) rotation
c) abduction
Opening the mouth to yawn is called _ of the mandible.
a) elevation
b) depression
c) retraction
d) protraction
b) depression
A fossa is a flattened articular surface found on a bone.
a) true
b) false
b) false
The top of the foot is the _ surface of the foot.
a) plantar
b) ventral
c) dorsal
d) palmar
e) two of the above
c) dorsal
The carpus is _ to the elbow.
a) proximal
b) distal
c) superior
d) medial
e) two of the above
b) distal
The lacertus fibrosus is an aponeurosis of the __ m.
a) brachioradialis m.
b) tensor fasciae latae m.
c) adductor magnus m.
d) biceps brachii m.
e) biceps femoris m
d) biceps brachii m.
The tibialis anterior m. will __ and __ the foot.
a) evert, dorsiflex
b) invert, dorsiflex
c) evert, plantar flex
d) invert, plantar flex
b) invert, dorsiflex
The tibialis posterior m. will __ and __ the foot.
a) evert, dorsiflex
b) invert, dorsiflex
c) evert, plantar flex
d) invert, plantar flex
d) invert, plantar flex
Which of the following is NOT a point of insertion for the tibialis posterior m.?
a) navicular bone
b) calcaneus
c) bases of metatarsal bones 2, 3, and 4
d) all three cuneiform bones
e) cuboid bone
b) calcaneus
Which of the following muscles contribute to the formation of the calcaneal tendon (Achilles tendon)?
a) gastrocnemius m., medial head
b) gastrocnemius m., lateral head
c) soleus m.
d) plantaris m.
e) all of the above do
e) all of the above do
This muscle will NOT flex the knee joint.
a) biceps femoris m.
b) semitendinosus m.
c) gastrocnemius m.
d) soleus m.
e) plantaris m.
d) soleus m.
The flexor digitorum longus muscles inserts on the base of the __ phalanx of digits 2-5.
a) proximal
b) middle
c) distal
d) this muscle does not insert on the base of any phalanx
c) distal
Which of the following nerves innervates the muscles of the posterior leg?
a) femoral n.
b) tibial division of the sciatic n.
c) common peroneal division of the sciatic n.
d) obturator n.
b) tibial division of the sciatic n.
Which of the following is NOT a border of the femoral triangle?
a) sartorius m.
b) rectus femoris m.
c) adductor longus m.
d) inguinal ligament
b) rectus femoris m.
The rectus femoris rn. originates from the?
a) anterior superior iliac spine
b) anterior inferior iliac spine
c) posterior superior iliac spine
d) posterior inferior iliac spine
b) anterior inferior iliac spine
This member of the hamstring muscle gronp inserts on the head of the fibula.
a) semimembranosus m.
b) semitendinosus m.
c) biceps femoris m.
c) biceps femoris m.
The _____is superficial to the ______.
a) semimembranosus m., semitendinosus m.
b) semitendinosus m., semimembranosus m.
b) semitendinosus m., semimembranosus m.

Ted on Merry !!!
The muscles of the anterior thigh are innervated by the nerve.
a) tibial division of the sciatic
b) common peroneal division of the sciatic
c) femoral
d) thoracodorsal
e) rectoanteriorus
c) femoral
This muscle inserts on the fifth metatarsal bone. (MACA)
a) peroneus brevis m.
b) peroneus longus m. -
c) peroneus tertius m.
d) tibialis posterior m.
e) tibialis anterior m.
a) peroneus brevis m.
c) peroneus tertius m.
The fibrous connective tissue structure extending from the apex of the patella to the tibial tuberosity is?
a) called the patellar ligament
b) called the patellar tendon
a) called the patellar ligament
The peroneus longus will __ and ____the foot.
a) evert, dorsiflex
b) invert, dorsiflex
c) evert, plantar flex
d) invert, plantar flex
c) evert, plantar flex
The sartorius muscle will do all of the following EXCEPT?
a) rotate the femur medially
b) flex the femur
c) flex the knee
d) abduct the femur
a) rotate the femur medially
This muscle will extend the knee joint.
a) sartorius m.
b) quadriceps femoris m.
c) psoas major m.
d) gracilis m.
e) piriformis m.
b) quadriceps femoris m
The pectineus m. will_ the femur.
a) abduct
b) adduct
c) have no action on
b) adduct
The gracilis m. will ~_ the femur.
a) abduct
b) adduct
c) have no action on
b) adduct
To demarcate the superior aspect of the piriformis rn, one would draw a line from the _ to the_.
a) posterior superior iliac spine, posterior inferior iliac spine
b) posterior inferior iliac spine, lesser trochanter of the femur
c) posterior superior iliac spine, greater trochanter of the femur
d) posterior superior iliac spine, lesser trochanter of the femur
e) posterior inferior iliac spine, greater trochanter of the femur
c) posterior superior iliac spine, greater trochanter of the femur
The sciatic nerve normally emerges from the superior border of the _ m.
a) obturator extern us m.
b) superior gemellus m.
c) piriformis m.
d) inferior gemellus m.
e) quadratus femoris m.
b) superior gemellus m
This muscle blends in with the iliotibial tract and inserts on Gerdy's tubercle on the tibia.
a) sartorius m.
b) gracilis m.
c) biceps femoris m.
d) tensor fasciae latae m.
e) none of the above do
d) tensor fasciae latae m.
With one exception all components of the hamstring group of muscles originate from the?
a) PSIS
b) ischiatic tuberosity
c) ischial spine
d) lesser trochanter of the femur
e) pectineal line of the pubis
b) ischiatic tuberosity
Which of the following muscles does NOT originate from the medial epicondyle of the humerus?
a) ronator teres m.
b) flexor carpi ulnaris m.
c) extensor carpi ulnaris m.
d) palmaris longus m.
e) flexordigitorum superficialis m.
c) extensor carpi ulnaris m.
This muscle flexes the interphalangeal joint of first digit.
a) flexor digitorum superficialis m.
b) flexor digitorum profundus m.
c) flexor pollicis longus m
d) abductor pollicis longus m.
e) none of the above do
c) flexor pollicis longus m
This muscle does not attach to the ulna.
a) flexor digitorum profundus m.
b) pronator teres m.
c) brachialis m.
d) biceps brachii m.
e) pronator quadratus m.
d) biceps brachii m.
This muscle inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna.
a) biceps brachii m.
b) brachialis m.
c) triceps brachii m.
d) teres minor m.
e) teres major m
c) triceps brachii m.
This muscle originates from the iliac fossa and will flex the femur.
a) rectus femoris m
b) iliacus m.
c) psoas major m.
d) sartorius m.
e) none of the above do
b) iliacus m
The psoas major muscle inserts on the?
a) greater trochanter of the femur
b) lesser trochanter of the femur
b) lesser trochanter of the femur
This muscle inserts on the adductor tubercle of the medial epicondyle of the femur.
a) adductor magnus m.
b) sartorius m.
c) biceps femoris m.
d) semimembranosus m.
e) the adductor tubercle is not on the medial epicondyle of the femur
a) adductor magnus m
The,.!?iriformis muscles inserts on the?
a) greater trochanter of the femur
b) lesser trochanter of the femur
a) greater trochanter of the femur
Which of the following is NOT a border of the triangle of auscultation?
a) latissimus dorsi m.
b) trapezi us m.
c) scapula
d) teres major m.
e) rhomboid major m.
d) teres major m.
This muscle inserts distally on the ulnar tuberosity of the ulna.
a) biceps brachii m.
b) coracobrachialis m.
c) triceps brachii m.
d) brachialis m.
e) brachioradialis m.
d) brachialis m.
Which of the following muscles will rotate the radius from a position which is medial and anterior to the
ulna back to an anatomic position (where the radius is lateral to the ulna)? (MACA)
a) pronator teres m.
b) supinator m.
c) pronator quadratus m.
d) biceps brachii m,
b) supinator m.
d) biceps brachii m,
Which of the following muscles insert on the base of the fifth metacarpal bone? (MACA)
a) extensor carpi ulnaris m.
b) flexor carpi ulnaris m.
c) flexor carpi radialis m.
d) extensor carpi radialis longus m.
e) extensor carpi radialis brevis m.
a) extensor carpi ulnaris m.
b) flexor carpi ulnaris m.
This muscle inserts on the palmar aspect of the base of the distal phalanx of digits 2 through 5.
a) flexor digitorum superficialis m.
b) extensor digitorum m.
c) flexor digitorum profundus m.
d) extensor pollicis longus m.
e) none of the above do
c) flexor digitorum profundus m.
This muscle inserts just proximal to the styloid process of the radius.
a) flexor carpi radialis m.
b) brachioradialis m.
c) pronator teres m.
d) extensor carpi radialis longus Ill.
e) adductor pollicis longus m.
b) brachioradialis m.
Which one of the following muscles originates from the medial 1/2 of the clavicle, the manubrium, and the
body of the sternum?
a) trapezius m.
b) deltoid m.
c) sternocleidomastoid m.
d) pectoralis major m.
e) subclavius m.
d) pectoralis major m.
The extensor muscles located lateral to the posterior border of the ulna are innervated by?
a) radial nerve
b) ulnar nerve
c) axillary nerve
d) median nerve
e) musculocutaneous nerve
a) radial nerve
Which of the following muscles inserts on the pisiform bone, the hamate bone, and the base of MC5?
a) extensor carpi radialis longus m.
b) extensor carpi radialis brevis m.
c) flexor carpi radialis m.
d) palmaris longus m.
e) flexor carpi ulnaris m.
e) flexor carpi ulnaris m.
Which metacarpal bone has no muscle inserting on its base?
a) MC1
b) MC2
c) MC3
d) MC4
e) MCS
c) MC3
What bone is visualized at the base of the anatomic snuffbox?
a) trapezium
b) trapezoid
c) triquetral
d) lunate
e) scaphoid
e) scaphoid
Which of the following muscles will NOT flex the elbow?
a) pronator teres m.
b) biceps brachii m.
c).brachialis m.
d) coracobrachialis m.
e) brachioradialis m
d) coracobrachialis m.
Which of the following muscles attach to the anterior aspect of the scapula? (MACA)
a) serratus anterior m.
b) supraspinatus m.
c) infraspinatus m.
d) subscapularis m.
e) deltoid m.
a) serratus anterior m.
d) subscapularis m.
Which of the following muscles is NOT one of the rotator cuff group of muscles?
a) teres minor m.
b) teres major m.
e) supraspinatus m.
d) infraspinatus m.
e) subscapularis m.
b) teres major m.
What nerve is seen emerging from the quadrangle space?
a) radial nerve
b) ulnar nerve
c) axillary nerve
d) median nerve
e) musculocutaneous nerve
c) axillary nerve
What nerve is seen emerging from the quadrangle space?
a) radial nerve
b) ulnar nerve
c) axillary nerve
d) median nerve
e) musculocutaneous nerve
c) axillary nerve
Which of the following 111USCleisSNOT a one of the rotator cuff group of muscles?
a) teres minor m.
b) teres major m.
e) supraspinatus m.
d) infraspinatus m.
e) subscapularis m.
b) teres major m.
What nerve runs in a groove on the posterior aspect of the medial epicondyle of the humerus?
a) radial nerve
b) ulnar nerve
c) axillary nerve
d) median nerve
e) musculocutaneous nerve
b) ulnar nerve
Which vertebrae serve as points of attachment for both the trapezius and the latissimus dorsi muscles?
a) C7 to T6
b) T6toT12
c) no to L4
d) Ll to L5
e) L4 to Sacrum
b) T6 to T12
Which of the following muscles attaches on the transverse processes ofCl-C4 vertebrae?
a) trapezius m.
b) longissimus capitis m.
c) splenius capitis
d) levator scapulae m.
e) semispinalis capitis m.
d) levator scapulae m.
Which of the following muscles will pull the scapulae posterior (retract the scapula)? (MACA)
a) latissimus dorsi m.
b) trapezius m.
c) deltoid m.
d) rhomboid mm.
e) supraspinatus m.
a) latissimus dorsi m.
b) trapezius m.
d) rhomboid mm.
Which one of the following muscles inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus?
a) supraspinatus m.
b) infraspinatus m.
c) subscapularis m.
d) teres minor 111.
e) teres major m.
c) subscapularis m.
Which of the following muscles attach to the coracoid process of the scapula? (MACA)
a) coracobrachialis m.
b) teres major m.
c) pectoralis minor m.
d) biceps brachii m.
e) triceps brachii m.
a) coracobrachialis m.
c) pectoralis minor m.
d) biceps brachii m.
In order to fully visualize the muscles of the suboccipital triangle you must remove which of the fOllo-'
muscles? (MACA) . Yi,
a) trapezius m.
b) semispinalis capitis m.
c) iliocostalis cervicis m.
d) splenius capitis m.
e) omohyoid m.
a) trapezius m.
b) semispinalis capitis m.
d) splenius capitis m
Which of the following muscles attach to transverse process of the atlas? (MACA)
a) rectus capitis posterior major m.
b) rectus capitis posterior minor m.
c) obliquus capitis inferior m.
d) obliquus capitis superior m.
e) levator scapulae m.
c) obliquus capitis inferior m.
d) obliquus capitis superior m.
Which of the following muscles attach to the spinous process of the axis? (MACA)
a) rectus capitis posterior major m.
b) rectus capitis posterior minor m.
c) obliquus capitis inferior m.
d) obliquus capitis superior m.
e) levator scapulae m.
a) rectus capitis posterior major m.
c) obliquus capitis inferior m.
Which of the following structures can be visualized within the confines of the suboccipital triangle?
(MACA)
a) the lesser occipital nerve
b) the third occipital nerve
c) the suboccipital nerve
d) the vertebral artery
e) the spinal accessory nerve
c) the suboccipital nerve
d) the vertebral artery
Which of the following muscles attach to the mastoid process of the temporal bone? (MACA)
a)longissimus capitis m.
b) sternocleidomastoid m.
c) semispinalis capitis m.
d)splenius capitis m.
e) trapezius m.
a)longissimus capitis m.
b) sternocleidomastoid m.
d)splenius capitis m.
This segmental muscle originates on the transverse process of one vertebra and inserts on the spinous
process of the vertebra immediately superior to its origin.
a) interspinalis mm.
b) intertransversari mm.
c) rotatores mm.
d) multifidus mrn
c) rotatores mm.
Which of the following is NOT true concerning the sternocleidomastoid m.?
a) origin is clavicle and sternum
b) insertion is on the mastoid process of the occipital bone
c) innervated by the spinal accessory nerve
d) flexes the cervical spine
e) extends the head
b) insertion is on the mastoid process of the occipital bone
This muscle attaches from the iliac crest to the inferior six ribs.
a) longissimus lumborum m.
b) iliocostal is thoracis m.
c) spinalis lumborum m.
d) iliocostalis lurnborum m.
e) none of the above do
d) iliocostalis lurnborum m.
The middle column of the erector spinae group of muscles is the?
a) longissimus mm.
b) spinalis mm.
c) iliocostalis mm
a) longissimus mm
The "Y" ligament of Bigelow is also called the?
a) round ligament
b) iliofemoral ligament
c) ligamentum teres
d) transverse acetabular ligament
e) none of the above
b) iliofemoral ligament
The __ cruciate ligament is pulled tight with relationship to the __ ligament when the knee is flexed.
a) anterior, posterior
b) posterior, anterior
b) posterior, anterior
_____attaches muscles to bone.
a) aponeurosis
b) ligaments
c) tendons
d) myofibrils
e)two of the above
e) twof of the above (A/C)
A single motor neuron and all the muscle fihers it innervates is called a?
a) motor end plate
b) motor boat
c) motor unit
d) motor ratio
e) motor system
c) motor unit
Which of the following represents an example of a multipennate muscle?
a) biceps brachii m.
b) rectus femoris m.
c) orbicularis oculi m,
d) deltoid m.
e) none of the above do
d) deltoid m.
The temporalis m. inserts on the zygomatic arch and will elevate the mandible.
a) true
b) false
b) false
The crural region pertains to the?
a) wrist
b) elbow
c) leg
d) foot
e) shoulder
c) leg
The bones found imbedded in tendons as the tendons cross over joints are called?
'a) wormian bones
b) accessory bones
c) sutural bones
d) sesamoid bones
e) flat bones
d) sesamoid bones
Which of the following do NOT contribute to the formation of the acetabulum? (MACA)
a) ischium
b) ilium
c) pubic bone
d) sacrum
e) head of the femur
d) sacrum
e) head of the femur
A symphysis is a joint.
a) synovial
b) synarthrotic
c) primary cartilaginous
d) secondary cartilaginous
e) syndesmotic
d) secondary cartilaginous
The joint present between two adjacent vertebral bodies is? (MACA)
a) a symphysis
b) a diarthrotic joint
c) a syndesmotic joint
d) called a zygapophyseal joint
e) a secondary cartilaginousjoint
a) a symphysis
e) a secondary cartilaginousjoint
The glenohumeral joint is a? (MACA)
a) spheroid joint
b) ball and socket joint
c) diarthrodial joint
d) synovijaolint
e) multiaxial joint
a) spheroid joint
b) ball and socket joint
c) diarthrodial joint
d) synovijaolint
e) multiaxial joint