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11 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A cohort of 50 men and 50 women is followed for one year; 10 women develop uterine cancer. What is the incidence of uterine cancer?
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The incidence is 20%. Incidence only refers to the population at risk. Men are not at risk.
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Which of the following marker: disease associations is incorrectly matched?
CA19-9 ; Pancreatic cancer CA 125:Hepatocellular cancer hCG; Testicular cancer tyrosinase: Melanoma |
CA125 is not associated with hepatocellular cancer. Rathter, it is a marker for ovarian cancer. AFP is sometimes used as a marker for hepatocellular cancer (large tumors)
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From which surgical diseases do pregnant women enjoy a decreased risk?
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None. Special attention must be paid to uncommon symptoms in these patients (ie, RUQ pain with appendicitis)
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Which CAMs are important for leukocyte recruitment?
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Leukocyte rolling is mediated through low affinity molecules (selectins), while adhesion is through high affinity molecules ( integrins, ICAM, PECAM)
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In what setting is the Mann-Whitney U-Test used?
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Also called a Wilcoxon rank-sum test. Used in the setting of ordinal data or continuous data that is not normally distributed. Compares the distribution of two samples and determines similarity or difference.
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A man whith know ITP presents with petechiae and nosebleeds. Platelet count is 8000/uL. He has undergone steroid and IV Ig therapy, with no result. How do you proceed?
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Consider platelet transfusin if bleeding leads to hemodynamic compromise, but transfused platelets will bind IgG as well. This patient needs to undergo splenectomy.
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Describe the mutations associated with MEN-1 and MEN-2.
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MEN-1: Mutation of TSG, MENIN. MEN-2: Mutation of proto-oncogene, RET
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Why does heparin primarily affect PTT over PT?
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Heparin augments the activity of ATIII, further inhibiting the conversion of Factor XI -> XIa and XII -> XIIa in the intrinsic pathway. Intrinsic pathway is assessed via PTT.
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A young female complains of frequent nosebleeds, bruising, and heavy menstruation. Labs show increase BT. What are the diagnosis and plan?
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This is likely von Willebrand's disease. the first line of therapy is DDAVP. If this fails, she may have type II or III vWD. Treat these with cryoprecipitate.
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After anesthesia induction, a man develops angioedema of the skin, airway, and intestines.. what is the presumed cause? Management?
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Hereditary angioedema is an autosomal dominant disease caused by decreased production or function of C1 inhibitor. Treat with steroids, antihistamines, and epinephrine. Prophylaxis includes FFP.
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Will transfusion of leukocyte- reduced PRBCs result in a lower incidence of TRALI?
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No. TRALI is caused by donor antibodies reacting with recipent leukocytes. The complexes then aggregate in the alveoli, triggering the syndrome.
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