Surgery & Procedural Derm Review

Front 1

Three branches of Cranial Nerve V.

Back 1

Ophthalmic (V1), Maxillary (V2), Mandibular (V3)

Front 2

Branches of Ophthalmic (V1) nerve

Back 2

Supratrochlear, Infratrochlear, Supraorbital, External nasal branch of anterior ethmoidal nerve, Palpebral branch of Lacrimal nerve

Front 3

Branches of Maxillary (V2) nerve

Back 3

Infraorbital, Zygomaticotemporal, Zygomaticofacial

Front 4

Mandibular (V3) nerve

Back 4

Emerges from foramen ovale, Mental, Auriculotemporal (damage=Frey's), Buccal

Front 5

Destruction of what nerve causes Trigeminal Trophic Syndrome?

Back 5

CN V at the gasserian ganglion (surgery, encephalitis, or leprosy)

Front 6

Name the branches of CN 7

Back 6

Temporal, Zygomatic, Buccal, Marginal mandibular, Cervical

Front 7

C2 sensation (lesser occipital)

Back 7

scalp posterior to ear, superior portion of the posterior auricle

Front 8

C2,C3 (greater auricular)

Back 8

overlying the parotid, lower anterior ear, lower posterior ear, and mastoid process

Front 9

C2 (greater occipital)

Back 9

occipital scalp

Front 10

C2,C3 (transverse cervical)

Back 10

anterior portion of neck

Front 11

C3, C4 (supraclavicular)

Back 11

lower neck, clavicle and shoulder

Front 12

C3, C4 (supraclavicular)

Back 12

lower neck, clavicle and shoulder

Front 13

Sural Nerve innervates:

Back 13

posteriolateral sole

Front 14

Posterior Tibial Nerve innervates:

Back 14

anteromedial sole

Front 15

Deep Peroneal Nerve innervates:

Back 15

great toe and toe cleft b/tw 1st and 2nd toe

Front 16

Superficial Peroneal Nerve innervates:

Back 16

Dorsum of the foot

Front 17

Name the six major arteries supplying the face

Back 17

Facial, Superficial temporal, Maxillary, Posterior auricular, Occipital, Ophthalmic

Front 18

Facial artery branches

Back 18

Branches off in the following order: submental, inferior labial, superior labial, angular arteries

Front 19

Superficial temporal artery branches

Back 19

transverse facial, superficial temporal artery anterior & posterior branches, zygomatico-orbital artery, and frontal arteries

Front 20

Maxillary artery branches

Back 20

Infraorbital, buccal, inferior alveolar (mental) arteries

Front 21

Ophthalmic artery branches (What is its origin?)

Back 21

supraorbital artery, supratrochlear artery, palpebral artery, dorsal nasal artery, anterior ethmoidal artery, and lacrimal artery; OFF OF THE ICA

Front 22

Where does the median nerve lie?

Back 22

Within the carpal tunnel, deep and radial to the palmaris longus (PL) tendon and medial to the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) tendon

Front 23

Where do you inject for a median nerve block?

Back 23

between palmaris longus and flexor carpi radialis; 2-3 cm proximal to the distal crease of the wrist

Front 24

What is being demonstrated?

Back 24

Median Nerve block (between palmaris longus and flexor carpi radii)

Front 25

Name the sensory nerves to the plantar foot.

Back 25

Front 26

How do you anesthetize the ankle?

Back 26

5 nerves are required: a line along the anterior ankle (superficial peroneal nerves), deep peroneal nerve), saphenous nerve, sural nerve, posterior tibial nerve.

Front 27

What five nerves are involved with an ankle block?

Back 27

5 nerves are required: a line along the anterior ankle (superficial peroneal nerves), deep peroneal nerve), saphenous nerve, sural nerve, posterior tibial nerve. See picture.

Front 28

What five nerves are involved with an ankle block?

Back 28

Posterior Tibial Nerve, Saphenous Nerve, Deep Peroneal Nerve, Superficial Peroneal Nerve, Sural nerve

Front 29

Where do you inject for a posterior tibial block?

Back 29

Between Medial Maleolus and Achilles tendon (medial aspect). The posterior tibial artery runs appx 1 cm from the site marked.

Front 30

Purpose of a Basting stitch

Back 30

Anchors tissue to bed of wound (ensures aposition of a FTSG to recipient bed)

Front 31

Purpose of a running locked stitch

Back 31

for wounds under tension and to provide hemostasis

Front 32

Purpose of a suspension or tacking suture

Back 32

holds skin to periosteum or perichondrium to permanently elevate an area, maintain concavity or alter tension vector near a free margin

Front 33

Purpose of a vertical mattress suture

Back 33

relieves tension to place other sutures, produces eversion and approximation of skin edges to eliminate dead space

Front 34

Purpose of a horizontal mattress suture

Back 34

remove tension from the edges of the wound; assists with hemostasis

Front 35

Purpose of a running subcuticular stitch

Back 35

reduces track marks; use prolene due to low coefficient of friction

Front 36

Purpose of a tip stitch

Back 36

half-buried horizontal mattress - aligns tissue and prevents vascular compromise

Front 37

What does the number on the suture mean?

Back 37

specifies the diameter of that suture material that is required to produce a certain tensile strength (smaller the diameter the higher the number assigned)

Front 38

Branches of Maxillary Artery

Back 38

Middle meningeal artery; Inferior alveolar artery --> MENTAL ARTERY (aka mental branch of inferior alveolar artery); Deep temporal arteries; Masseteric artery; INFRAORBITAL ARTERY; sphenopalatine artery; descending palatine artery;

Front 39

What are the major arteries off the ECA supplying the face?

Back 39

Facial, Maxillary, Superficial temporal, Posterior auricular, Occipital

Front 40

What are the major arteries off the ICA supplying the face

Back 40

Opthalmic (branches are supraorbital, supertrochlear, palpebral, dorsal nasal, lacrimal)

Front 41

The ICA & ECA anastamose where?

Back 41

Angular artery (ECA from Facial a) to Dorsal nasal branch (ICA from Ophthalmic)

Front 42

Damage to temporal nerve causes what?

Back 42

Inability to raise eyebrow (lid ptosis), visual field compromise, flattened forehead lines (loss of expression)

Front 43

What innervates the: Frontalis muscle

Back 43

Temporal branch of facial nerve

Front 44

What innervates the: Corrugator supercilli muscle

Back 44

Temporal br of facial n

Front 45

What innervates the: Orbicularis oculi muscle (upper portion)

Back 45

Temporal br of facial n

Front 46

What innervates the: Auricular muscle (aka temporoparietalis, anterior and superior)

Back 46

Temporal br of facial n

Front 47

What innervates the: Orbicularis oculi muscle (lower)

Back 47

Zygomatic br of facial nerve

Front 48

What innervates the: Nasalis muscle

Back 48

Zygomatic br of facial n (alar portion); Buccal does the rest

Front 49

What innervates the: Procerus muscle

Back 49

Zygomatic br of facial n

Front 50

What innervates the: Upper lip muscles

Back 50

Zygomatic & Buccal br of facial n

Front 51

What innervates the: Levator anguli oris muscle

Back 51

Zygomatic br of facial nerve

Front 52

What innervates the: zygomaticus major muscle

Back 52

Zygomatic br of facial nerve

Front 53

What defect occurs when zygomatic branch of facial nerve is damaged?

Back 53

Inability to tightly close eyelid

Front 54

What innervates the: buccinator muscle (mastication)

Back 54

Buccal branch of facial nerve

Front 55

What innervates the: depressor septi nasi muscle?

Back 55

Buccal branch of facial nerve

Front 56

Nasalis muscle (transverse portion) innervated by?

Back 56

Buccal branch of facial nerve

Front 57

Zygomaticus major muscle?

Back 57

Buccal branch of facial nerve & Zygomatic branch of facial nerve

Front 58

Zygomaticus minor muscle?

Back 58

Buccal branch of facial nerve

Front 59

Orbicularis oris muscle?

Back 59

Buccal branch & Marginal Mandibular branch of facial nerve

Front 60

Levator anguli oris muscle?

Back 60

Buccal branch of facial nerve

Front 61

Lower lip muscle - orbicularis oris muscle innervation?

Back 61

Buccal branch of facial nerve & Marginal mandibular branch

Front 62

What defect occurs when Buccal branch of facial nerve is damaged?

Back 62

Accumulation of food between teeth and buccal mucosa with chewing

Front 63

Depressor anguli oris muscle innervation?

Back 63

Marginal Mandibular branch of the facial nerve

Front 64

Depressor labii inferioris muscle innervation?

Back 64

Marginal Mandibular branch of the facial nerve

Front 65

Mentalis muscle innervation?

Back 65

Marginal Mandibular branch of the facial nerve

Front 66

Risorius muscle innervation?

Back 66

Buccal n of facial n (Marginal Mandibular branch of the facial nerve - per Bolognia)

Front 67

Platysma (upper portion)

Back 67

Marginal Mandibular branch of the facial nerve

Front 68

What defect occurs with damage to the Marginal Mandibular branch of the facial nerve

Back 68

Cannot form symmetric smile, not appreciated when patient is at rest. Inability to pull lower lip down/lateral, cannot evert vermilion border

Front 69

Damage to both zygomatic and buccal?

Back 69

Drooling, food accumulation between cheeks/gingivae, muffled speech

Front 70

Temporalis muscle innervation?

Back 70

Motor of Trigeminal (V3)

Front 71

Masseter muscle innervation?

Back 71

Motor of Trigeminal (V3)

Front 72

CN7 supplies sensation to what?

Back 72

Conchal bowl & Anterior tongue (chorda tympani)

Front 73

What is the only nerve that supplies the muscle on the superficial surface?

Back 73

Buccinator

Front 74

What nerves are at Erb's point?

Back 74

Greater auricular, lesser occipital, spinal accessory

Front 75

Sutures ability to stretch and return to its original form?

Back 75

Elasticity

Front 76

Suture's ability to stretch and maintain its new length?

Back 76

Plasticity

Front 77

Defines stiffness of the suture and its inherent ability to return to its original shape after deformation

Back 77

Memory

Front 78

Force required to cause knot slippage (depends on the smoothness and memory of the suture)

Back 78

Knot strength

Front 79

Polygalactin 910?

Back 79

Vicryl (braided, absorbable)

Front 80

Polyglycolic Acid?

Back 80

Dexon (braided, absorbable)

Front 81

Poliglecaprone 25?

Back 81

Monocryl (monofilament, absorbable) - highest initial strength and knot security of absorbables

Front 82

Polglyconate: glycolide and trimethylene carbonate?

Back 82

Maxon (monofilament, absorbable) - higher initial strength but absorbed faster than PDS

Front 83

Polydioxanone?

Back 83

PDS (monofilament, absorbable); slowest absorption; best tensile strength (more than vicryl, dexon & maxon).

Front 84

Other names for Nylon?

Back 84

Ethilon, Dermalon, Nurolon, Surgilon (monofilament, braided, nonabs)

Front 85

Polybutester?

Back 85

Novafil (monofilament, nonabs) - expansile and contractile elasticiy, good for swelling tissue

Front 86

Polyester, uncoated?

Back 86

Mersilene (braided, nonabs) - soft yet high tensile strength, second only to metal sutures

Front 87

Polyester, coated?

Back 87

Ethibond (braided, nonabs) - soft yet high tensile strength, second only to metal sutures; has less friction than mersilene.

Front 88

Polypropylene

Back 88

Prolene (monofilament, nonabs) - very low friction coefficient

Front 89

Silk?

Back 89

braided/twisted, non-abs; best for mucosal surfaces

Front 90

Stainless steel?

Back 90

Monofilament/braided/twisted

Front 91

How are esters metabolized?

Back 91

pseudocholinesterase in plasma

Front 92

What do esters cross react with?

Back 92

sulfa, thiazides, PABA, PPD

Front 93

Longest acting ester? shortest acting?

Back 93

Tetracaine is longest (2-3 hours); Procaine is shortest (15-60 min)

Front 94

How are amides metabolized?

Back 94

Cytochrome P450 3A4

Front 95

Longest acting amides?

Back 95

Bupivicaine/Levobupivacaine (2-4 hours); Etidocain (3 hours); Ropivacaine (2-4 hours)

Front 96

Shortest acting amides?

Back 96

Lidocaine, mepivacaine, prilocaine (0.5-2hrs)

Front 97

What can prilocaine cause?

Back 97

Methemoglobinemia (avoid use in children)

Front 98

Does adding sodium bicarb increase its onset of action?

Back 98

Yes

Front 99

What is wrong with keeping pre-mixed solution of lidocaine with sodium bicarb around?

Back 99

Epinephrine is stable only in an acidic environment (epinephrine activity is lost at a rate of 25% per week in neutral or alkaline environment)

Front 100

Why do anesthetics work less in tissue with low pH?

Back 100

Its all about the proportion of the anesthetic that is in the ionized form;
The HIGHER the pH – the HIGHER the proportion in the ionized form;
HIGH pH correlates to FASTER onset of action;
Alkalinization of the anesthetic solution increases the amount of base and the anesthetic’s onset of action

Front 101

What are the three portions of chemical structure of anesthetics? And, what do they determine?

Back 101

1. Aromatic ring - onset of activity;
2. Intermediate (middle) chain - determines class (amide vs ester)
3. Amine - determines duration

Front 102

Loss of sensation/function occurs in what order with local anesthetic?

Back 102

Temperature, pain, touch, pressure, vibration, proprioception, motor function

Front 103

How many miligrams of lidocaine are in 1cc of 2% lidocaine?

Back 103

2% = 0.02g/ml = 20mg/ml

Front 104

Max total of 1% lido w/o or w/ epi (1:100,000)

Back 104

Without: Adults 4.5mg/kg = 300mg/70kg (30cc); Child 1/3-1/2 mg/kg
With: Adults 7mg/kg = 500mg/70kg (50cc); Child 3-4.5mg/kg

Front 105

Recommended dose for tumescent anesthesia?

Back 105

Recommended 35-55mg/kg;
Lidocaine 0.1% (klein's formula) with Epi (1:1,000,000) 1mg/L

Front 106

How many miligrams of lidocaine are in 1cc of 2% lidocaine?

Back 106

2% = 0.02g/ml = 20mg/ml

Front 107

Max total of 1% lido w/o or w/ epi (1:100,000)

Back 107

Without: Adults 4.5mg/kg = 300mg/70kg (30cc); Child 1/3-1/2 mg/kg
With: Adults 7mg/kg = 500mg/70kg (50cc); Child 3-4.5mg/kg

Front 108

Recommended dose for tumescent anesthesia?

Back 108

Recommended 35-55mg/kg;
Lidocaine 0.1% (klein's formula) with Epi (1:1,000,000) 1mg/L

Front 109

Class B or C? Bupivicaine, Lidocaine, Prilocaine, Mepivacaine, Etidocaine

Back 109

Category C: Bupivicaine (cardiotoxic risk), Mepivacaine (BM is bad)
Category B: Lidocaine, Prilocaine, Etidocaine

Front 110

What is methemoglobinemia?

Back 110

Hemoglobin Fe2+ gets oxidized to Fe3+ which reduces its oxygen carrying capacity

Front 111

Treatment of methemoglobinemia?

Back 111

< 30% removal of drug, O2, observe; >30% Tx with IV methylene blue 1-2mg/kg as a 1% solution (or Ascorbic acid 300-1000 mg/day iv in three to four doses for G6PD deficiency patients)

Front 112

What drug prevents methemoglobinemia with Dapsone use?

Back 112

Cimetidine (reduces hepatic oxidation of dapsone to hydroxylamine, thereby limiting methemoglobinemia formation)

Front 113

Hexachlorophene

Back 113

Phisohex
- Gram+
- Do NOT use on children or pregnant women
- Potential neurotoxicity, therefore it was discontinued in 1970s (ex., Mohs fellow getting tingling in her fingers - Steifel question)
- Teratogenicity

Front 114

Chlorhexidine

Back 114

Hibiclens
- Gram +, Gram -
- Keratitis & allergic rxn if direct ocular contact
- Tympanic membrane damage

Front 115

Iodophor or Povidone-iodine

Back 115

Betadine
- Gram +, Gram -
- Allergic contact dermatitis

Front 116

What two topical medications have polymyxin B?

Back 116

Polysporin (Bacitracin/Polymyxin B) and Neosporin (Neomycin/Bacitracin/Polymyxin B)
Polymyxin B has pseudomonas coverage (vs the others - neomycin, bacitracin, bactroban, erythromycin)

Front 117

Name three topical antibiotics with Gram negative coverage

Back 117

Gentamicin (resistance seen), Neomycin (no pseudomonas coverage), Polymyxin B (pseudomonas coverage)

Front 118

What is in polysporin?

Back 118

Bacitracin & Polymyxin B

Front 119

What is Neosporin?

Back 119

Neomycin, bacitracin, polymyxin B

Front 120

What are some side effects of silvadene?

Back 120

Neutropenia, kernicterus, ACD with sulfa allergies

Front 121

Thin Film Dressing Uses?

Back 121

Skin tears, STSG donor site, laser resurfacting, Mohs

Front 122

Foam dressing uses?

Back 122

Chronic wounds, dermabrasion, burns, mohs, laser resurfacing; AVOID IN DRY WOUNDS

Front 123

Hydrogel dressing uses?

Back 123

Ulcers, dermabrasion, laser resurfacing, superficial thermal burns, chemical peels, graft donor sites; AVOID IN INFECTED WOUNDS

Front 124

Alginate dressing uses?

Back 124

Chronic highly exudate wounds, Full thickness burns, surgical wounds, STSG donor sites, Mohs

Front 125

Hydrocolloid uses?

Back 125

Chronic ulcers, burns, trauma wounds, surgery wounds, dermabrasion, bullous dz, inflammatory disease; AVOID IN INFECTED WOUNDS

Front 126

What is the temperature of liquid nitrogen?

Back 126

Temp: -196 C (or -320 F)

Front 127

What is goal for temperature at the periphery of the ice ball in cryosurgery?

Back 127

Temp: - 50-60C

Front 128

What is resistance? what makes it higher or lower?

Back 128

Resistance = ability of conductor to impede passage of electric current (ohms W)
- Proportional to length of substance
- Inversely proportional to its x-sectional area
- Fat has high resistivity
- Muscle has low resistivity
- Skin has variable resistivity
Ex., Dry skin 100 000 W and Wet skin 200 W

Front 129

What is Ohm's Law?

Back 129

Voltage = IR (current x resistance)

Front 130

Biterminal?

Back 130

Low resistance; Low voltage needed for adequate current

Front 131

Monoterminal?

Back 131

High resistance, requries high voltage for adequate current

Front 132

Undamped wave?

Back 132

Pure tissue separation with minimal hemostasis

Front 133

Damped wave?

Back 133

Marked tissue destruction - greater damping means increased tissue damage and hemostasis; lesser damping - less hemostasis/better healing

Front 134

Continuous vs Discontinuous wave?

Back 134

continuous wave results in greater tissue heating

Front 135

Best waveform for pure cutting

Back 135

Continuous, undamped (may also use discontinuous, undamped)

Front 136

Best waveform for cutting and coagulation

Back 136

Continuous, damped

Front 137

Best wave form for desiccation and coagulation

Back 137

Discontinuous, damped

Front 138

Name the monoterminal circuits

Back 138

Electrofulguration, Electrodessication (remember DEF Va (high voltage, low amperage)

Front 139

Name the Biterminal circuits

Back 139

Electrocoagulation, Electrosection with coagulation, Electrosection without coagulation (low voltage, high amperage)

Front 140

Which electrosurgical technique has not circuit?

Back 140

Electrocautery

Front 141

What is the most important cell in the vascular phase of wound healing?

Back 141

platelets

Front 142

What is the most important cell for the inflammatory phase of wound healing?

Back 142

Macrophages - the only cell that can tolerate low O2

Front 143

What is a Life Tenant obligated to do?
(4 things - physical and financial):

Back 143

(i) preserve the land and structures in a reasonable state of repair,
(ii) pay interest on mortgages (not principal);
(iii) pay ordinary taxes on the land;
(iv) pay special assessments for public improvements of short duration (improvements of long duration are apportioned between the life tenant and future interest holder).

Front 144

What are the four stages of successful graft?

Back 144

Imbibition, Inosculation, Neovascularization, Maturation (I'm In No Mood)

Front 145

Explain in detail the stages of successful graft healing?

Back 145

Imbibition (first 48 hours, graft sustained by RECIPIENT bed)
Inosculation (day 2-3, blood vessels from the GRAFT establish connection with the wound bed)
Neovascularization (Day 7 - ingrowth of new vessels INTO the graft)
Maturation (Months - sensory innervation)

Front 146

Name the wavelengths of light

Back 146

Gamma rays
X-rays

UVC = 200-290
UVB = 290-320
UVA = 320-400
Visible light = 400-760
IR > 760-1400

Microwaves
Radiowaves

Front 147

What are the three important features of LASERs?

Back 147

Coherent – waves of light are in phase in time & space
Represents uniform wave front --> allows energies to be ADDITIVE

Monochromatic – 1 wavelength ONLY

Collimated – Parallel, NON-divergent waves
I.E., Diameter of the beam changes minimally over distance focused

High Intensity (as per Dr. Ross)

Front 148

Definition of:
Energy (Radiant Exposure)

Back 148

Fundamental unit of work

Unit: Joules

Front 149

Definition of:
Power

Back 149

Rate at which energy is delivered

Unit: Watts = (J/s)

Front 150

Definition of: Fluence

Back 150

Amount of energy delivered per unit area

Unit: Joules/cm2

Front 151

Definition of: Irradiance (Power density)

Back 151

Power delivered per unit area

Watts/cm2

Front 152

Definition of: Pulse Duration / Width

Back 152

Laser exposure duration

Units: seconds

Front 153

Definition of: Spot Size

Back 153

Diameter of the laser beam on skin surface

Unit: mm

Front 154

Definition of: Chromophore

Back 154

Medium that absorbs light

Front 155

Definition of: Thermal Relaxation Time

Back 155

Time required for heated tissue to lose 50% of its heat through diffusion

Unit: seconds

Front 156

Name the wavelengths of light

Back 156

Gamma rays
X-rays

UVC = 200-290
UVB = 290-320
UVA = 320-400
Visible light = 400-760
IR > 760-1400

Microwaves
Radiowaves

Front 157

What are the three important features of LASERs?

Back 157

Coherent – waves of light are in phase in time & space
Represents uniform wave front --> allows energies to be ADDITIVE

Monochromatic – 1 wavelength ONLY

Collimated – Parallel, NON-divergent waves
I.E., Diameter of the beam changes minimally over distance focused

High Intensity (as per Dr. Ross)

Front 158

Definition of:
Energy (Radiant Exposure)

Back 158

Fundamental unit of work

Unit: Joules

Front 159

Definition of:
Power

Back 159

Rate at which energy is delivered

Unit: Watts = (J/s)

Front 160

Definition of: Fluence

Back 160

Amount of energy delivered per unit area

Unit: Joules/cm2

Front 161

Definition of: Irradiance (Power density)

Back 161

Power delivered per unit area

Watts/cm2

Front 162

Definition of: Pulse Duration / Width

Back 162

Laser exposure duration

Units: seconds

Front 163

Definition of: Spot Size

Back 163

Diameter of the laser beam on skin surface

Unit: mm

Front 164

Definition of: Chromophore

Back 164

Medium that absorbs light

Front 165

Definition of: Thermal Relaxation Time

Back 165

Time required for heated tissue to lose 50% of its heat through diffusion

Unit: seconds

Front 166

Wavelength of:
Argon?
Argon pumped tunable dye?
Copper Vapor / Bromide?
KTP?
Nd:YAG?
Pulsed dye?
Ruby?
Alexandrite?
Krypton?

Back 166

Argon? 488, 514
Argon pumped tunable dye? 577, 585
Copper Vapor / Bromide? 510, 578
KTP? 532
Nd:YAG? 532
Pulsed dye? 510, 585
Ruby? 694
Alexandrite? 755
Krypton? 568

Front 167

What is wavelength of:
Woods Lamp
Blu U
Diode
Nd:YAG
Erbium
CO2
Excimer
Red U
Light therapy for neonatal hyperbilirubinemia

Back 167

Woods Lamp 366nm
Blu U 400-410
Diode 810, 1450
Nd:YAG 1064
Erbium 2940
CO2 10,600
Excimer 308
Red U 630
Light therapy for neonatal hyperbilirubinemia 460

Front 168

Fraxel Wavelength?

Back 168

1550nm

Front 169

What is Gold STD laser for vascular lesions?

Back 169

PULSED DYE

585-95nm (PDL), 510nm (Pigmented PDL)

Green / Yellow

Vascular (red color), scars/striae, NON-ablative dermal remodeling
- GOLD STD for VASCULAR LESIONS

510nm --> Epidermal Pigment & Tattoos
- Red/orange/yellow tattoos (ROY)

Front 170

What is Gold Standard for Hiar removal in types I-4 skin?

Back 170

ALEXANDRITE
755nm

Borderline of Visible & Near IR spectrum

QS: Dermal pigment, Epidermal pigment, & **GREEN**/blue/black tattoos

PREFERRED LASER FOR GREEN TATTOO REMOVAL

Normal mode: hair removal, leg veins (blue color)

GOLD STD OF HAIR REMOVAL IN TYPES 1-4 SKIN

Front 171

Best Tatoo for GREEN tatoos?

Back 171

ALEXANDRITE
755nm

Borderline of Visible & Near IR spectrum

QS: Dermal pigment, Epidermal pigment, & **GREEN**/blue/black tattoos

PREFERRED LASER FOR GREEN TATTOO REMOVAL

Normal mode: hair removal, leg veins (blue color)

GOLD STD OF HAIR REMOVAL IN TYPES 1-4 SKIN

Front 172

Best laser for Nevus of OTA?

Back 172

RUBY

694nm
Red

QS: Dermal pigment, Epidermal pigment green/blue/black tattoos

GOLD STD FOR NEVUS OF OTA TREATMENT

Normal mode: hair removal & leg veins

Front 173

Name the substance that creates the following tatoo pigment:
Red?
Blue?
Black?
Green?
Yellow?
Brown?
Violet/Purple?
White?

Back 173

Red? Cadmium Selenide, Mercury, Cinnabar

Blue? Cobalt

Black? Carbon, Iron Oxide

Green? Chromium/Chromate, Cyanide

Yellow? Cadmium Sulfide

Brown (Ferric hydrate)? Ochre

Violet/Purple? Manganese

White? Titanium and Zinc Oxide

Front 174

Best Laser for tatoo removal?

Back 174

KTP = Red

Pigmented PDL = Yellow
*archaic laser seldom used today*

Alexandrite = Green

Nd:Yag = Blue, Black

Front 175

Laser choices for Tatoo pigment?

Back 175

Black/Blue:
Q-switched ruby (694)
Q-switched Alex (755)
Q-switched Nd:Yag (1064)***

Green
Q-switched Alex (755)***
Q-switched Ruby (694)

Red
- Freq doubled Q-switched Nd:Yag (532nm)***
-Pigmened pulsed dye (510)

Yellow
- Pigmented pulsed dye (510)

Front 176

What is Jessner’s made of (4 components)?

Back 176

Resorcinol, sal acid, lactic acid, ethanol

Hint 176

MN – JESS & SALI LACked the RESORces to buy EtOH

Front 177

What is the Baker-Gordon Formula?

Back 177

Deep Depth Peels:

Baker-Gordon Formula = most widely used
Contains 88% phenol, croton oil, septisol, H2O
Croton oil is keratolytic/epidermolytic that enhances phenol penetration
Variations:
Littons = glycerin for septisol
Beeson McCollough formula which uses defatting & heavier application of Baker-Gordon

Front 178

Which chemical peel requires Neutralization?

Back 178

Glycolic acid:
Can be neutralized with H2O or Sodium Bicarb

Front 179

What is the active ingredient in sunless tan lotion?
What epidermis layer does it stain?

Back 179

Dihydroxyacetone (DHA);
Stratum Corneum