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221 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Parasympathetic gastric innervation
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Anterior: left vagus; posterior: right vagus
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Blood supply: gastric fundus
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Short gastric aa
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Blood supply: greater gastric curvature
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Gastroepiploic aa.
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Blood supply: lesser gastric curvature
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Gastric aa.
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Blood supply: gastric pylorus
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Gastroduodenal a.
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Principal cells of the gastric fundus and body
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Parietal cells (acid and intrinsic factor) and Chief cells (pepsin)
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Principal cells of the gastric antrum
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G cells (gastrin)
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Functions of gastrin
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Stimulate acid and pepsin release, growth factor for gastric mucosa
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Factors affecting gastrin release
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Stimulated mainly by amino acids; inhibited by somatostatin and low antral pH
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Three sources of parietal cell stimulation
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Vagus nerve; gastrin; histamine
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Major pathogeneses of PUD
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H. pylori and NSAIDs
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Two major complications of PUD
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Bleeding (MC), perforation
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Alarm symptoms among known PUD patients
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Weight loss, recurrent vomiting, dysphagia, anemia
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Dx: patient with known PUD develops early satiety, weight loss, and recurrent nonbilious vomiting
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Gastric outlet obstruction from pyloric/duodenal scarring
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Blood type association with PUD
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Type O
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Dx: burning epigastric pain relieved by food
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Duodenal ulcer
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Dx: duodenal ulcer
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Endoscopy
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Dx: Zollinger-Ellison
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Gastrin > 1,000
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Dx: H. pylori
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Biopsy, urease breath test, serology
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H. pylori triple therapy
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PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin
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H. pylori quadruple therapy
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PPI + bismuth + tetracycline + metronizadole
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When surgery for PUD?
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Hemorrhage, perforation, obstruction
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Surgical options for PUD
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Vagatomy/antrectomy
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MC location for gastric ulcer
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Lesser curvature
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Most gastric ulcers are associated with ___ acid production
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Normal or low
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Define: Curling ulcer
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Gastric ulcer in burn patients
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Define: Cushing ulcer
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Gastric ulcer in elevated ICP
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Dx: burning epigastric pain exacerbated by food
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Gastric ulcer
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Define: type A gastritis
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Fundal gastritis; parietal cell antibodies with achlorhydria and pernicious anemia
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Define: type B gastritis
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Antral; H. pylori gastritis
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MC complication of vagatomy
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Post-vagatomy diarrhea
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Define: early dumping syndrome
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Passage of hyperosmolar bolus from stomach to small bowel causes fluid shift with resultant pain, tachycardia, nausea 10-15 minutes postprandially
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Define: late dumping syndrome
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Absorption of hyperosmlar bolus causes massive insulin spike with resultant hypoglycemia, dizziness, diaphorese, 2-3 hours postprandially
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Define: afferent loop syndrome
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Postprandial RUQ pain with bilious vomiting and steatorrhea after gastrojejunostomy
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Surgical management of gastric outlet obstruction
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Truncal vagatomy with pyloroplasty
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Indications for bariatric surgery
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BMI >35 with complications or >40
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Risk factors for gastric adenocarcinoma
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FAP, chronic gastritis, H. pylori, nitrites, smoking
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Tumor markers for gastric adenocarcinoma
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CEA, CA 19-9
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Tx: gastric adenocarcinoma
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Subtotal gastrectomy
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Location of gastric adenocarcinoma and prognosis
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Proximal tumors have worse prognosis than distal tumors
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Gastric adenocarcinoma survival by stage
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80/60/40/20/0
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Second MC gastric malignancy
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Lymphoma
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MC site for primary GI lymphoma
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Stomach
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Tx: low-grade MALToma
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H. pylori eradication
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MC symptoms of gastric tumors
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Possible anorexia, weight less, occult bleeding, vague pains
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Define: Sister Mary Joseph’s nodule
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Periumbilical nodal metastasis
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Define: Blumer’s shelf
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Rectouterine gastric tumor metastases palpable on rectal exam
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Best method for diagnosing gastric tumors
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Endoscopy
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Genetic mutation associated with GIST
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c-kit
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MC site for GIST
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Stomach
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Dx: slow-growing, submucosal gastric tumor
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GIST
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Tx: GIST
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Resection, Imatinib
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Biopsy gastric polyps greater than __ mm for neoplasia
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5 mm
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Define: Ménétrier’s disease
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Hyperplasia of gastric glandular mucosa leading to hypertrophic, tortuous rugae and protein-losing enteropathy
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Sx: Ménétrier’s disease
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Epigastric pain with fatigue, weight loss, and hypoalbuminemia
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Tx: Ménétrier’s disease
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H2 blocker/PPI +/- H. pylori testing
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Tx: bezoar
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Papain proteolysis
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Define: Dieulafoy’s Lesion
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Dilated submucosal GI artery that erodes the overlying mucosa and produces large-volume, painless hematemesis
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Brochardt’s triad of gastric volvulus
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Intermittent severe epigastric pain with distention; inability to vomit; difficult with NG placement
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Most cases of gastric volvulus are associated with concurrent _____
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Paraesophageal hernia
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At ___ weeks gestation , differentiation into foregut, midgut, and hindgut begins
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4 weeks
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At ___ weeks gestation, midgut prolapses through the umbilicus
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5 weeks
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At ___ weeks gestation, the midgut that has prolapsed through the umbilicus returns to the abdominal cavity
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10 weeks
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The primitive gut initially communicates with the _____
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Yolk sac
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Failure of the _____ to regress leads to Meckel’s
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Vitelline duct
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The vitelline duct connected _____ to _____
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Primitive gut tube to yolk sac
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At ___ weeks gestation, the midgut rotates 270° around an axis made by the SMA
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10 weeks
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Anatomic relationship of third portion of duodenum to abdominal vasculature
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Anterior to aorta/IVC; posterior to SMA/SMV
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Blood supply to proximal duodenum
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Gastroduodenal artery
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Blood supply to distal duodenum
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Pancreaticoduodenal arteries
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___ plexus is submucosal; ___ plexus is in the bowel muscle
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Meissner; Auerbach
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MCC of SBO
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Adhesions
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Other causes of SBO besides adhesions
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Hernias, tumors, intussusception, volvulus, Crohn’s disease
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Fundamental function of somatostatin
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Slows GI motility, reduces GI secretions
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Fundamental function of motilin
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Speeds GI motility
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How do you differentiate the ileum from the jejunum based on vascular anatomy?
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Jejunum has few vascular arcades with long vasa recta; ileum has many vascular arcades with short vasa recta
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The vast majority of GI absorption occurs within the ___
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Jejunum
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The only thing the duodenum absorbs better than the jejunum
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Minerals (especially iron)
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Four things the ileum absorbs better than the jejunum
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Chloride, bile salts, B12, and vit C
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Causes of functional SBO AKA “ileus”
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Postoperative; electrolytes abnormalities (e.g. hypokalemia); peritonitis; medications (narcotics, anticholinergics)
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How does bowel necrosis occur in SBO?
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Increased intraluminal pressure proximal to obstruction overwhelms perfusion pressure -> ischemia -> necrosis
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S/Sx of SBO
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Colicky pain; distention; N/V; hyperactive bowel sounds
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Signs of strangulation with SBO
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Fever, tachycardia, white count, acidosis
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Non-operative SBO management
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IVF, NPO, NGT, Foley, electrolytes
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How can you tell the difference between Crohn’s and UC if only the colon is involved?
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Crohn’s spares the rectum
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MC sx of Crohn’s
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Crampy abdominal pain (usually RLQ) with chronic diarrhea, weight loss, fever
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Perianal manifestations of Crohn’s
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Skin tags, fissures, fistulas, abscesses
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Classic pathogens causing right-sided colitis
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Yersinia, Campylobacter
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Features distinguishing Crohn’s from UC
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Fistulas, transmural disease, skip lesions, granulomas
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Extraintestinal manifestations of Crohn’s
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Oral ulcers, arthritis, ophthalmitis, pyoderma gangrenosum
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Dx: Crohn’s
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History/physical; colonoscopy/EGD: imaging
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Most benign small bowel tumors found in the ____
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Duodenum
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Three hereditary syndromes associated with small bowel tumors
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Peutz-Jeghers (hamartomas); Gardner’s (adenomas); FAP (adenomas)
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MCC of intussusception in adults
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Small bowel tumor
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MC sx of small bowel tumor
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Intermittent obstruction
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Ideal imaging study for small bowel tumor
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Enteroclysis
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Top four malignant small bowel tumors
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Adenocarcinoma>carcinoid>GIST>lymphoma
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Top three benign small bowel tumors
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Adenoma>leiomyoma>lipoma
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Labs: carcinoid tumor
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Urinary 5-HIAA, plasma chromogranin A
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Medical management of carcinoid syndrome
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Cyproheptadine, octreotide
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MCC of fistulas
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Iatrogenic (previous surgery)
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If an enterocutaneous fistula has a large volume of output (>500mL/day), where it is located?
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Proximal gut (greater volume of GI contents)
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In the absence of an iatrogenic cause, what are the MCCs of fistulas?
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Crohn’s and cancer
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Dx: pneumaturia
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Colovesical fistula
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Iatrogenic fistulae usually appear __ to __days postoperatively
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5-10 days
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Management: fistulas
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Initially, conservative to allow for spontaneous closure (bowel rest, TPN, fluids, infection management)
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How long should a fistula be managed conservatively before surgical intervention?
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~6 weeks
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Factors associated with poor fistula healing
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Foreign bodies, infection, prior radiation, cancer
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MCC of acute mesenteric ischemia
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SMA embolism
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MC vessel in acute mesenteric ischemia
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SMA
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Approximate time between onset of acute mesenteric ischemia and bowel necrosis
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6 hours
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2nd MCC of acute mesenteric ischemia
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Vasospasm (“Non-occlusive AMI”)
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Most sensitive/specific testing for acute mesenteric ischemia
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Mesenteric angiography
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Risk factors for acute mesenteric ischemia
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Arrhythmias, atherosclerosis, hypercoagulable state
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Classic presentation of acute mesenteric ischemia
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Diffuse, colicky abdominal pain out of proportion to physical findings; may be associated with N/V/D
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Management: acute mesenteric ischemia
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IVF, broad-spectrum abx, NGT, correction of acidosis
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Classic management for embolic acute mesenteric ischemia
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Laparotomy with embolectomy
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Management: acute venous mesenteric ischemia
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Heparin
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Management: non-occlusive acute mesenteric ischemia
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Papaverine infusion with laparotomy if peritoneal signs develop
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MCC of chronic mesenteric ischemia
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Atherosclerosis
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Classic presentation of chronic mesenteric ischemia
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“Abdominal angina”: dull, crampy postprandial abdominal pain
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Management of chronic arterial mesenteric ischemia
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Revascularization with bypass
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Define: “short bowel syndrome”
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< 200 cm of small bowel, leading to poor abruption with malnutrition, dehydration, chronic diarrhea
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Common etiologies among adults with short bowel syndrome
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Acute mesenteric ischemia, Crohn’s, cancer
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Common etiologies among kids with short bowel syndrome
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Volvulus, necrotizing enterocolitis
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Three major risks associated with long-term TPN
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1. catheter-associated infection/sepsis 2. Hepatic and renal failure 3. Venous thrombosis
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Medical management of short bowel syndrome
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Chronic TPN; PPIs to minimize gastric acidity; antimotility agents to slow transit through remaining small bowel; octreotide to reduce small bowel secretions
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Pelvic floor muscles
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Pubococcygeus, puborectalis, iliococcygeus
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Internal anal sphincter provide __% of resting rectal pressure
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80%
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External anal sphincter provide __% of resting rectal pressure
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20%
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External anal sphincter is an extension of which pelvic floor muscle?
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Puborectalis
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Blood supply to the anus
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Internal pudendal a.
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Two MC flora in large bowel
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B. fragilis and E. coli
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Above dentate line, anus drains to ___ nodes; below dentate line, anus drains to ___ nodes
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Mesenteric; inguinal
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In order for a GI bug to cause bloody diarrhea, it has to be an ___ pathogen.
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Invasive
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MOA: post-vagatomy diarrhea
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Rapid passage of unconjugated bile salts into colon, causing osmotic diarrhea
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Complications of C. diff colitis
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Toxic megacolon, perforation
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MC location of ischemic colitis
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Splenic flexure: watershed area
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Classic scenario surrounding ischemic colitis
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Recent AAA repair
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Pain in ischemic colitis vs. mesenteric ischemia
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Ischemic colitis is much more insidious, less severe
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Classic acute presentation for diverticulosis
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Massive painless GI bleed
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Hinchey staging of diverticulitis
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1. pericolic abscess 2. Extracolonic abscess 3. Purulent peritonitis 4. Feculent peritonitis
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Diverticulitis management by Hinchey stage
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Stages 1 and 2 IV abx with drainage; 3 and 4 operative management with Hartmann takedown
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MCCs of lower GI bleeding
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Diverticular disease and angiodysplasia
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Three MCCs of LBO
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CRC, fibrosis from diverticular disease, and volvulus (cecal/sigmoid)
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Tagged RBC scan can identify bleeding at a rate of ___
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0.5 mL/min
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Angiography can identify bleeding at a rate of ___
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1 mL/min
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Initial management: sigmoid volvulus
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Flexible sigmoidoscope to attempt to detorse the bowel
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Define: Ogilvie’s syndrome
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Massive right colonic dilation in the absence of mechanical obstruction
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Risk factors for Ogilvie’s syndrome
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Infection, recent surgery, trauma
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Three classic electrolyte abnormalities in Ogilvie’s syndrome
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Hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia
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Management of Ogilvie’s syndrome
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NG and rectal tubes; IVF; correct electrolytes; neostigmine for decompression; possible colonoscopic decompression if necessary
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Inflammatory pseudopolyps are classically seen in _____
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Ulcerative colitis
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The only type of polyp with malignant potential
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Adenomatous polyps (not pseudopolyps, lymphoid, hyperplastic, hamartomatous)
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Risk of CA in adenomatous polyp < 1 cm
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3%
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Risk of CA in adenomatous polyp > 2 cm
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40%
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Risk of CA in tubular vs. villous polyps
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5% vs 40%
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5-step genetic process in CRC
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Lose APC; lose methylation; lose Ras; lose DCC; lose p53
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Define: Gardner’s syndrome
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Colonic polyps, osteomas, epidermal cysts, and fibromas
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Define: Turcot’s syndome
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Colonic polyps and CNS tumors
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Define: Lynch I syndrome
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Colonic polyposis
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Define: Lynch II syndrome
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Colonic polyps + endometrial CA (and stomach, pancreas, ovary, etc.)
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CRC in Lynch syndrome is classically ___-sided
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Right-sided
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Classic chemo used in CRC management
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5-FU
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Classic presentation of appendicitis in a pregnant lady
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Uterus displaces right colon upward, leading to RUQ pain with appendicitis
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Classic carcinoid triad
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Nausa, diarrhea, flushing
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Dx: first periumbilical pain, now RLQ pain with a RLQ mass on exam
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Appendiceal abscess
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Three MC hernia types
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Indirect inguinal > direct inguinal > femoral
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DDx: femoral bulge
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Hernia, lymphadenopathy, lipoma, aneurysm
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Define: Richter’s hernia
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Only part of the bowel is contained within the hernia, and can become strangulated but not produce obstructive symptoms
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Three hernias associated with obesity
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Direct inguinal, umbilical, hiatal
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The liver receives 50% of its oxygen from the hepatic arteries and 50% from the ____
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Portal vein
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The liver receives 25% of its total blood flow from the hepatic arteries and 75% from the ___
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Portal vein
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Coronary ligament attaches the liver to the ___
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Diaphragm
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The hepatoduodenal ligament contains ____
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CBD, portal vein, proper hepatic artery
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Bile components
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Cholesterol, lecithin, bile acids, bilirubin
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TBili level required for jaundice
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~2
|
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Classic signs of obstructive jaundice
|
Acholic stools, dark urine
|
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General rule to guide decision to pursue surgical vs. medical management of patients
|
Hemodynamic stability
|
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Hydatid cysts: etiology, treatment
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Echinococcus; tx with albendazole, never aspirate the cyst
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For whatever reason, most hepatic pathology (infectious, traumatic, etc.) is in the ___ lobe
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Right
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Benign hepatic lesions that may present with RUQ pain or mass
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Hydatid cyst, adenoma, hemangioma, hamartoma, focal nodular hyperplasia
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Two hepatic lesions associated with OCPs
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Adenomas and focal nodular hyperplasia
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Classic appearance: hepatic lesion with central scar
|
Focal nodular hyperplasia
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Classic finding: RUQ bruit
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Hepatocellular carcinoma (or bad cirrhosis)
|
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Three MC mets to liver
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Breast, colon, lung
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Possible causes of portal HTN other than EtOH, viral hepatitis
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Hemochromatosis, Wilson’s disease, Budd-Chiari
|
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Five components of a Child-Pugh score
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Bilirubin, albumin, ascites, neurologic sx, INR
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___ of patients with cirrhosis develop portal HTN
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2/3
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___ of patients with portal HTN develop varices
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2/3
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___ of patients with varices bleed from them
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2/3
|
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MC clinical finding in portal HTN
|
Splenomegaly
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Classic exam finding with hepatic encephalopathy
|
Asterixis
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Classic findings of long-standing chronic liver disease
|
Palmar erythema, spider telangiectasia, muscle wasting
|
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Precipitating factors for hepatic encephalopathy
|
Infection, bleeding, electrolyte abnormalities
|
|
Drugs for hepatic encephalopathy
|
Lactulose, neomycin
|
|
Medication: ascites
|
Spironolactone
|
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Boundaries of Calot’s triangle
|
Common hepatic duct medially, cystic duct laterally, cystic artery superiorly
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85% of gallstones are ___, 15% are ___
|
Cholesterol, bilirubin
|
|
Define: Mirizzi syndrome
|
Compression of the hepatic duct by a large stone in the cystic duct
|
|
Who classically gets emphysematous cholecystitis?
|
Elderly, diabetic men
|
|
What percentage of acute cholecystitis is acalculous?
|
10%
|
|
Who gets acalculous cholecystitis?
|
Generally seen in very ill patients: ICU, burns, trauma, sepsis
|
|
Charcot’s triad
|
RUQ pain, fever, jaundice
|
|
Reynold’s pentad
|
RUQ pain, fever, jaundice, AMS, hypotension
|
|
Bacteriology of cholangitis
|
Enterococcus, E. coli, Klebsiella
|
|
Dx: patient with signs/symptoms of gallbladder disease and SBO
|
Gallstone ileus
|
|
Courvoisier’s sign
|
Non-tender, palpable gallbladder + jaundice = pancreatic cancer
|
|
Define: Klatskin tumor
|
Cholangiocarcinoma at the bifurcation of the left and right hepatic ducts
|
|
MC congenital pancreatic anomaly
|
Pancreas divisum
|
|
Classic presentation of pancreas divisum
|
Recurrent idiopathic pancreatitis
|
|
Classic presentation of annular pancreas
|
Recurrent bilious emesis and distention in infancy
|
|
Spinal level of pancreas
|
L2
|
|
Average daily volume of pancreatic secretions
|
1-2L
|
|
Pancreatic acinar cells secrete ____
|
Zymogens (trypsin, chymotrypsin, amylase, lipase, etc.)
|
|
MCC of chronic pancreatitis
|
EtOH
|
|
S/Sx of chronic pancreatitis
|
Steatorrhea, malnutrition, diabetes
|
|
MC islet cell tumor
|
Insulinoma
|
|
Define: “gastrinoma triangle”
|
Junction of D2 and D3, cystic duct, SMA
|
|
WDHA syndrome
|
VIPoma: watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria
|
|
MC symptoms of glucagonoma
|
Necrolytic migratory erythema and weight loss
|