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221 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Parasympathetic gastric innervation
Anterior: left vagus; posterior: right vagus
Blood supply: gastric fundus
Short gastric aa
Blood supply: greater gastric curvature
Gastroepiploic aa.
Blood supply: lesser gastric curvature
Gastric aa.
Blood supply: gastric pylorus
Gastroduodenal a.
Principal cells of the gastric fundus and body
Parietal cells (acid and intrinsic factor) and Chief cells (pepsin)
Principal cells of the gastric antrum
G cells (gastrin)
Functions of gastrin
Stimulate acid and pepsin release, growth factor for gastric mucosa
Factors affecting gastrin release
Stimulated mainly by amino acids; inhibited by somatostatin and low antral pH
Three sources of parietal cell stimulation
Vagus nerve; gastrin; histamine
Major pathogeneses of PUD
H. pylori and NSAIDs
Two major complications of PUD
Bleeding (MC), perforation
Alarm symptoms among known PUD patients
Weight loss, recurrent vomiting, dysphagia, anemia
Dx: patient with known PUD develops early satiety, weight loss, and recurrent nonbilious vomiting
Gastric outlet obstruction from pyloric/duodenal scarring
Blood type association with PUD
Type O
Dx: burning epigastric pain relieved by food
Duodenal ulcer
Dx: duodenal ulcer
Endoscopy
Dx: Zollinger-Ellison
Gastrin > 1,000
Dx: H. pylori
Biopsy, urease breath test, serology
H. pylori triple therapy
PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin
H. pylori quadruple therapy
PPI + bismuth + tetracycline + metronizadole
When surgery for PUD?
Hemorrhage, perforation, obstruction
Surgical options for PUD
Vagatomy/antrectomy
MC location for gastric ulcer
Lesser curvature
Most gastric ulcers are associated with ___ acid production
Normal or low
Define: Curling ulcer
Gastric ulcer in burn patients
Define: Cushing ulcer
Gastric ulcer in elevated ICP
Dx: burning epigastric pain exacerbated by food
Gastric ulcer
Define: type A gastritis
Fundal gastritis; parietal cell antibodies with achlorhydria and pernicious anemia
Define: type B gastritis
Antral; H. pylori gastritis
MC complication of vagatomy
Post-vagatomy diarrhea
Define: early dumping syndrome
Passage of hyperosmolar bolus from stomach to small bowel causes fluid shift with resultant pain, tachycardia, nausea 10-15 minutes postprandially
Define: late dumping syndrome
Absorption of hyperosmlar bolus causes massive insulin spike with resultant hypoglycemia, dizziness, diaphorese, 2-3 hours postprandially
Define: afferent loop syndrome
Postprandial RUQ pain with bilious vomiting and steatorrhea after gastrojejunostomy
Surgical management of gastric outlet obstruction
Truncal vagatomy with pyloroplasty
Indications for bariatric surgery
BMI >35 with complications or >40
Risk factors for gastric adenocarcinoma
FAP, chronic gastritis, H. pylori, nitrites, smoking
Tumor markers for gastric adenocarcinoma
CEA, CA 19-9
Tx: gastric adenocarcinoma
Subtotal gastrectomy
Location of gastric adenocarcinoma and prognosis
Proximal tumors have worse prognosis than distal tumors
Gastric adenocarcinoma survival by stage
80/60/40/20/0
Second MC gastric malignancy
Lymphoma
MC site for primary GI lymphoma
Stomach
Tx: low-grade MALToma
H. pylori eradication
MC symptoms of gastric tumors
Possible anorexia, weight less, occult bleeding, vague pains
Define: Sister Mary Joseph’s nodule
Periumbilical nodal metastasis
Define: Blumer’s shelf
Rectouterine gastric tumor metastases palpable on rectal exam
Best method for diagnosing gastric tumors
Endoscopy
Genetic mutation associated with GIST
c-kit
MC site for GIST
Stomach
Dx: slow-growing, submucosal gastric tumor
GIST
Tx: GIST
Resection, Imatinib
Biopsy gastric polyps greater than __ mm for neoplasia
5 mm
Define: Ménétrier’s disease
Hyperplasia of gastric glandular mucosa leading to hypertrophic, tortuous rugae and protein-losing enteropathy
Sx: Ménétrier’s disease
Epigastric pain with fatigue, weight loss, and hypoalbuminemia
Tx: Ménétrier’s disease
H2 blocker/PPI +/- H. pylori testing
Tx: bezoar
Papain proteolysis
Define: Dieulafoy’s Lesion
Dilated submucosal GI artery that erodes the overlying mucosa and produces large-volume, painless hematemesis
Brochardt’s triad of gastric volvulus
Intermittent severe epigastric pain with distention; inability to vomit; difficult with NG placement
Most cases of gastric volvulus are associated with concurrent _____
Paraesophageal hernia
At ___ weeks gestation , differentiation into foregut, midgut, and hindgut begins
4 weeks
At ___ weeks gestation, midgut prolapses through the umbilicus
5 weeks
At ___ weeks gestation, the midgut that has prolapsed through the umbilicus returns to the abdominal cavity
10 weeks
The primitive gut initially communicates with the _____
Yolk sac
Failure of the _____ to regress leads to Meckel’s
Vitelline duct
The vitelline duct connected _____ to _____
Primitive gut tube to yolk sac
At ___ weeks gestation, the midgut rotates 270° around an axis made by the SMA
10 weeks
Anatomic relationship of third portion of duodenum to abdominal vasculature
Anterior to aorta/IVC; posterior to SMA/SMV
Blood supply to proximal duodenum
Gastroduodenal artery
Blood supply to distal duodenum
Pancreaticoduodenal arteries
___ plexus is submucosal; ___ plexus is in the bowel muscle
Meissner; Auerbach
MCC of SBO
Adhesions
Other causes of SBO besides adhesions
Hernias, tumors, intussusception, volvulus, Crohn’s disease
Fundamental function of somatostatin
Slows GI motility, reduces GI secretions
Fundamental function of motilin
Speeds GI motility
How do you differentiate the ileum from the jejunum based on vascular anatomy?
Jejunum has few vascular arcades with long vasa recta; ileum has many vascular arcades with short vasa recta
The vast majority of GI absorption occurs within the ___
Jejunum
The only thing the duodenum absorbs better than the jejunum
Minerals (especially iron)
Four things the ileum absorbs better than the jejunum
Chloride, bile salts, B12, and vit C
Causes of functional SBO AKA “ileus”
Postoperative; electrolytes abnormalities (e.g. hypokalemia); peritonitis; medications (narcotics, anticholinergics)
How does bowel necrosis occur in SBO?
Increased intraluminal pressure proximal to obstruction overwhelms perfusion pressure -> ischemia -> necrosis
S/Sx of SBO
Colicky pain; distention; N/V; hyperactive bowel sounds
Signs of strangulation with SBO
Fever, tachycardia, white count, acidosis
Non-operative SBO management
IVF, NPO, NGT, Foley, electrolytes
How can you tell the difference between Crohn’s and UC if only the colon is involved?
Crohn’s spares the rectum
MC sx of Crohn’s
Crampy abdominal pain (usually RLQ) with chronic diarrhea, weight loss, fever
Perianal manifestations of Crohn’s
Skin tags, fissures, fistulas, abscesses
Classic pathogens causing right-sided colitis
Yersinia, Campylobacter
Features distinguishing Crohn’s from UC
Fistulas, transmural disease, skip lesions, granulomas
Extraintestinal manifestations of Crohn’s
Oral ulcers, arthritis, ophthalmitis, pyoderma gangrenosum
Dx: Crohn’s
History/physical; colonoscopy/EGD: imaging
Most benign small bowel tumors found in the ____
Duodenum
Three hereditary syndromes associated with small bowel tumors
Peutz-Jeghers (hamartomas); Gardner’s (adenomas); FAP (adenomas)
MCC of intussusception in adults
Small bowel tumor
MC sx of small bowel tumor
Intermittent obstruction
Ideal imaging study for small bowel tumor
Enteroclysis
Top four malignant small bowel tumors
Adenocarcinoma>carcinoid>GIST>lymphoma
Top three benign small bowel tumors
Adenoma>leiomyoma>lipoma
Labs: carcinoid tumor
Urinary 5-HIAA, plasma chromogranin A
Medical management of carcinoid syndrome
Cyproheptadine, octreotide
MCC of fistulas
Iatrogenic (previous surgery)
If an enterocutaneous fistula has a large volume of output (>500mL/day), where it is located?
Proximal gut (greater volume of GI contents)
In the absence of an iatrogenic cause, what are the MCCs of fistulas?
Crohn’s and cancer
Dx: pneumaturia
Colovesical fistula
Iatrogenic fistulae usually appear __ to __days postoperatively
5-10 days
Management: fistulas
Initially, conservative to allow for spontaneous closure (bowel rest, TPN, fluids, infection management)
How long should a fistula be managed conservatively before surgical intervention?
~6 weeks
Factors associated with poor fistula healing
Foreign bodies, infection, prior radiation, cancer
MCC of acute mesenteric ischemia
SMA embolism
MC vessel in acute mesenteric ischemia
SMA
Approximate time between onset of acute mesenteric ischemia and bowel necrosis
6 hours
2nd MCC of acute mesenteric ischemia
Vasospasm (“Non-occlusive AMI”)
Most sensitive/specific testing for acute mesenteric ischemia
Mesenteric angiography
Risk factors for acute mesenteric ischemia
Arrhythmias, atherosclerosis, hypercoagulable state
Classic presentation of acute mesenteric ischemia
Diffuse, colicky abdominal pain out of proportion to physical findings; may be associated with N/V/D
Management: acute mesenteric ischemia
IVF, broad-spectrum abx, NGT, correction of acidosis
Classic management for embolic acute mesenteric ischemia
Laparotomy with embolectomy
Management: acute venous mesenteric ischemia
Heparin
Management: non-occlusive acute mesenteric ischemia
Papaverine infusion with laparotomy if peritoneal signs develop
MCC of chronic mesenteric ischemia
Atherosclerosis
Classic presentation of chronic mesenteric ischemia
“Abdominal angina”: dull, crampy postprandial abdominal pain
Management of chronic arterial mesenteric ischemia
Revascularization with bypass
Define: “short bowel syndrome”
< 200 cm of small bowel, leading to poor abruption with malnutrition, dehydration, chronic diarrhea
Common etiologies among adults with short bowel syndrome
Acute mesenteric ischemia, Crohn’s, cancer
Common etiologies among kids with short bowel syndrome
Volvulus, necrotizing enterocolitis
Three major risks associated with long-term TPN
1. catheter-associated infection/sepsis 2. Hepatic and renal failure 3. Venous thrombosis
Medical management of short bowel syndrome
Chronic TPN; PPIs to minimize gastric acidity; antimotility agents to slow transit through remaining small bowel; octreotide to reduce small bowel secretions
Pelvic floor muscles
Pubococcygeus, puborectalis, iliococcygeus
Internal anal sphincter provide __% of resting rectal pressure
80%
External anal sphincter provide __% of resting rectal pressure
20%
External anal sphincter is an extension of which pelvic floor muscle?
Puborectalis
Blood supply to the anus
Internal pudendal a.
Two MC flora in large bowel
B. fragilis and E. coli
Above dentate line, anus drains to ___ nodes; below dentate line, anus drains to ___ nodes
Mesenteric; inguinal
In order for a GI bug to cause bloody diarrhea, it has to be an ___ pathogen.
Invasive
MOA: post-vagatomy diarrhea
Rapid passage of unconjugated bile salts into colon, causing osmotic diarrhea
Complications of C. diff colitis
Toxic megacolon, perforation
MC location of ischemic colitis
Splenic flexure: watershed area
Classic scenario surrounding ischemic colitis
Recent AAA repair
Pain in ischemic colitis vs. mesenteric ischemia
Ischemic colitis is much more insidious, less severe
Classic acute presentation for diverticulosis
Massive painless GI bleed
Hinchey staging of diverticulitis
1. pericolic abscess 2. Extracolonic abscess 3. Purulent peritonitis 4. Feculent peritonitis
Diverticulitis management by Hinchey stage
Stages 1 and 2 IV abx with drainage; 3 and 4 operative management with Hartmann takedown
MCCs of lower GI bleeding
Diverticular disease and angiodysplasia
Three MCCs of LBO
CRC, fibrosis from diverticular disease, and volvulus (cecal/sigmoid)
Tagged RBC scan can identify bleeding at a rate of ___
0.5 mL/min
Angiography can identify bleeding at a rate of ___
1 mL/min
Initial management: sigmoid volvulus
Flexible sigmoidoscope to attempt to detorse the bowel
Define: Ogilvie’s syndrome
Massive right colonic dilation in the absence of mechanical obstruction
Risk factors for Ogilvie’s syndrome
Infection, recent surgery, trauma
Three classic electrolyte abnormalities in Ogilvie’s syndrome
Hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia
Management of Ogilvie’s syndrome
NG and rectal tubes; IVF; correct electrolytes; neostigmine for decompression; possible colonoscopic decompression if necessary
Inflammatory pseudopolyps are classically seen in _____
Ulcerative colitis
The only type of polyp with malignant potential
Adenomatous polyps (not pseudopolyps, lymphoid, hyperplastic, hamartomatous)
Risk of CA in adenomatous polyp < 1 cm
3%
Risk of CA in adenomatous polyp > 2 cm
40%
Risk of CA in tubular vs. villous polyps
5% vs 40%
5-step genetic process in CRC
Lose APC; lose methylation; lose Ras; lose DCC; lose p53
Define: Gardner’s syndrome
Colonic polyps, osteomas, epidermal cysts, and fibromas
Define: Turcot’s syndome
Colonic polyps and CNS tumors
Define: Lynch I syndrome
Colonic polyposis
Define: Lynch II syndrome
Colonic polyps + endometrial CA (and stomach, pancreas, ovary, etc.)
CRC in Lynch syndrome is classically ___-sided
Right-sided
Classic chemo used in CRC management
5-FU
Classic presentation of appendicitis in a pregnant lady
Uterus displaces right colon upward, leading to RUQ pain with appendicitis
Classic carcinoid triad
Nausa, diarrhea, flushing
Dx: first periumbilical pain, now RLQ pain with a RLQ mass on exam
Appendiceal abscess
Three MC hernia types
Indirect inguinal > direct inguinal > femoral
DDx: femoral bulge
Hernia, lymphadenopathy, lipoma, aneurysm
Define: Richter’s hernia
Only part of the bowel is contained within the hernia, and can become strangulated but not produce obstructive symptoms
Three hernias associated with obesity
Direct inguinal, umbilical, hiatal
The liver receives 50% of its oxygen from the hepatic arteries and 50% from the ____
Portal vein
The liver receives 25% of its total blood flow from the hepatic arteries and 75% from the ___
Portal vein
Coronary ligament attaches the liver to the ___
Diaphragm
The hepatoduodenal ligament contains ____
CBD, portal vein, proper hepatic artery
Bile components
Cholesterol, lecithin, bile acids, bilirubin
TBili level required for jaundice
~2
Classic signs of obstructive jaundice
Acholic stools, dark urine
General rule to guide decision to pursue surgical vs. medical management of patients
Hemodynamic stability
Hydatid cysts: etiology, treatment
Echinococcus; tx with albendazole, never aspirate the cyst
For whatever reason, most hepatic pathology (infectious, traumatic, etc.) is in the ___ lobe
Right
Benign hepatic lesions that may present with RUQ pain or mass
Hydatid cyst, adenoma, hemangioma, hamartoma, focal nodular hyperplasia
Two hepatic lesions associated with OCPs
Adenomas and focal nodular hyperplasia
Classic appearance: hepatic lesion with central scar
Focal nodular hyperplasia
Classic finding: RUQ bruit
Hepatocellular carcinoma (or bad cirrhosis)
Three MC mets to liver
Breast, colon, lung
Possible causes of portal HTN other than EtOH, viral hepatitis
Hemochromatosis, Wilson’s disease, Budd-Chiari
Five components of a Child-Pugh score
Bilirubin, albumin, ascites, neurologic sx, INR
___ of patients with cirrhosis develop portal HTN
2/3
___ of patients with portal HTN develop varices
2/3
___ of patients with varices bleed from them
2/3
MC clinical finding in portal HTN
Splenomegaly
Classic exam finding with hepatic encephalopathy
Asterixis
Classic findings of long-standing chronic liver disease
Palmar erythema, spider telangiectasia, muscle wasting
Precipitating factors for hepatic encephalopathy
Infection, bleeding, electrolyte abnormalities
Drugs for hepatic encephalopathy
Lactulose, neomycin
Medication: ascites
Spironolactone
Boundaries of Calot’s triangle
Common hepatic duct medially, cystic duct laterally, cystic artery superiorly
85% of gallstones are ___, 15% are ___
Cholesterol, bilirubin
Define: Mirizzi syndrome
Compression of the hepatic duct by a large stone in the cystic duct
Who classically gets emphysematous cholecystitis?
Elderly, diabetic men
What percentage of acute cholecystitis is acalculous?
10%
Who gets acalculous cholecystitis?
Generally seen in very ill patients: ICU, burns, trauma, sepsis
Charcot’s triad
RUQ pain, fever, jaundice
Reynold’s pentad
RUQ pain, fever, jaundice, AMS, hypotension
Bacteriology of cholangitis
Enterococcus, E. coli, Klebsiella
Dx: patient with signs/symptoms of gallbladder disease and SBO
Gallstone ileus
Courvoisier’s sign
Non-tender, palpable gallbladder + jaundice = pancreatic cancer
Define: Klatskin tumor
Cholangiocarcinoma at the bifurcation of the left and right hepatic ducts
MC congenital pancreatic anomaly
Pancreas divisum
Classic presentation of pancreas divisum
Recurrent idiopathic pancreatitis
Classic presentation of annular pancreas
Recurrent bilious emesis and distention in infancy
Spinal level of pancreas
L2
Average daily volume of pancreatic secretions
1-2L
Pancreatic acinar cells secrete ____
Zymogens (trypsin, chymotrypsin, amylase, lipase, etc.)
MCC of chronic pancreatitis
EtOH
S/Sx of chronic pancreatitis
Steatorrhea, malnutrition, diabetes
MC islet cell tumor
Insulinoma
Define: “gastrinoma triangle”
Junction of D2 and D3, cystic duct, SMA
WDHA syndrome
VIPoma: watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria
MC symptoms of glucagonoma
Necrolytic migratory erythema and weight loss