• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/101

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

101 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is the most common cause of fever POD# 1
atelectasis
What are the anorectal causes of rectal bleeding
Haemorrhoids
anal fissure
rectal ulcer
rectal varices
patient reports bright red blood in toilet bowel, pain, and pruritis
Examination reveals a submucosal swelling at the 3 oclock position
Haemorrhoid
Rx
- mild = high fibre diet
- prolapsing = band ligation or sclerotherapy (injection)

low rates of recurrance post Rx
Patient reports difficulty passing stool, painful with small amount of bright red blood on the paper
examination reveals skin tag in posterior midline
Anal fissure

90% are posterior midline
Rx= stool softeners, topical nitroglycerin or nifedipine..
surgery - relieves sphincter spasm
what are 3 perioperative considerations for any patients undergoing Bowel resection
1. bowel prep -reduces both wound and anastamotic sepsis
2. antibiotic prophylaxis
3. VTE prophylaxis
when should someone be advised to stop smoking before surgery to maximise benefits
6 weeks before
what is the infection rate fir a dirty procedure with and without prophylactive Abx
10% and 40-50%
what is the definition of a 'clean' procedure
no contamination - GIT, GUT, respiratory tracts not breached
what is a 'clean contaminated' procedure
GIT, GUT, resp tracts opened but elective and no spillage
what is a contaminated procedure
acute inflammation, infected urine, bile, gross spillage from GIT tract
what is a dirty procedure
established infection prior to procedure
what are the aims of fluid management
correct abnormality (resuss)
provide daily requirement
replace loss
what is the minimum urine output you expect to see
.5ml/kg/hr
patient presents day 2 post op with confusion, cramps, and deteriorating LOC
IDC in situ - urine output over prev two days = 30 and 25ml
Dx- dilutional Hyponatraemia in immediate post op period ADH is increased, therefore fluid should be restricted to 2L/day until diuresis has occured
patient with pre existing renal failure presents day 3 post op with palpitations and muscle weakness. ECG shows broad QRS complex with peaked T waves
Hyperkalaemia
- Rx = Insulin, HCO3, salbutamol (calcium gluconate to stabolise myocardium)
Patient presents with BP 90/60
8 days post op with mild fever; Hb 80 ; WCC = 12
secondary haemorrhage due to erosion of vessel wall by local infection

Often seen when contaminated wounds are closed primarily - in this case should have delayed wound closure
what are the 2 most common causes of vomitting post op
Drug induced (GA)- generally in the first 24 hrs

Atony - presents days after post op.
when are central venous lines used
prolonged IV access
total parenteral nutrition
haemodyalysis
chemotherapy
monitoring central venous pressure
what is the definition of severe malnutrition?
20% weight loss
what are the 6 components of nutrition
protein
water
energy (fat, CHO)
electrolytes
minerals
vitamins
why is dead tissue debrided?
because it is a nidus for bacterial growth
what organisms are most frequently implicated in nosocomial infection?
Staph aureus
Gram -ve bacilli (e.coli)
what are the basic principles of wound infection management
- debride dead tissue
- remove foreign bodies
- drain puss
- targetted antibiotiucs
how long are wound dressings left on post operatively
at least 24 hours
how is phlebitis avoided in post operative period
change IV cannulae every 72 hrs
how often should IV cannulae be changed?
every 72 hours
a patient presents with watery diarrhea after being on antibiotics for 6 days. what is your management
1. take stool for culture
2. treat empirically for C.difficile pseudomembranous colitis
Metronidazole
what is the most common cause of post operative confusion?
hypoxia due to
- chest infection
- opiate OD
- cardiac failure
- sepsis
- ETOH withdrawal.
what is the most common cause of post op oliguria
first few days can be due to body increasing ADH then most likely due to inadequate fluid replacement
what are the important causes of post operative shock
pump failure (cardiogenic)
haemorrhage (hypovolaemic)
Sepsis (septicaemia)
Anaphylaxis (drug reaction)
in a patient with shock, once cardiogenic shock has been ruled out what are the first treatment steps you would take
oxygen, 500ml bolus of isotonic saline.
what is falling blood pressure and rising HR a sign of
haemorrhage
what is the empirical management in patients with assumed gram negative septic shock
MAG
metronidazole, amoxycillin, gentamycin
In a V/Q perfusion scan a pulmonary embolus would likely show
normal ventilation and poor perfusion in a certain area

- if there is poor both it is likely another pathology
- consolidation on Xray with good perfusion and poor ventilation in an area suggests lobar pneumonia.
a 70 year old man presents with post operative confusion - what is the most appropriate first management
- give oxygen - Hypoxia is most common cause of post op confusion.
what are the causes of fever 0-2 days post op?
atelectasis #1
early wound infection - clostridium, group A strep.
aspiration pneumonitis
a patient presents with fever on day 3 post op
infection likely from day 3 on
day 3-5 = UTI, wound infection, IV line
what are the causes of fever POD#5 -
intra-abdominal abscess (spiking)
DVT/PE (usually POD# 7-10)
drug fever
when does epitheliazation of a wound occur
48 hours after wound closure
when should drains be removed?
once drainage is minimal (<30-50cc in 24hr)
what patient characteristics make wound infection more likely
Age, DM, steroids, obese, burns, other infections, traumatic wound, malnutrition (IVDU)
when do wound infections commonly present
POD #3-6 with
- pain
- blanchable wound erythema
- induration
- pus
- warmth
When should post op antibiotics be given
contaminated and dirty procedures, or RF for infection (steroids, DM etc.)

give for 24 hrs
how are wound infections treated
1. reopen affected part and drain/debride dead tissue
2. culture, pack, heal by secondary intention
3. antibiotics.
patient presents post op with pain, swelling, discolouration around wound edges and leakage at wound
wound haemorrhage
- due to inadequate haemostasis if before day 7, could be due to erosion 2ndary to infection after that
what is the treatment of pulmonary oedema
Lasix
Morphine
Nitrates
Oxygen
position - sit up
what are the earliest manifestations of impending respiratory failure
RR>25
pO2<60
when do most MIs occur post op and who is most at risk?
most occur on the day of the operation or day 1-4
those with a previous MI are most at risk
patient is observed to have a spiking fever at POD #3 after having laparotomy for bowel resection.
-most likely intra abdominal abscess - presents with spiking fever ~ day 3.

Rx = IR percutaneous drainage + debridement of dead/infected tissue +ampicillin, gentamycin, metronidazole.
what are the two types of hiatus hernia and which is more common?
sliding and rolling
- sliding =90%
what is the Ix of choice for Dx of dysphagia?
Barium swallow
what are the non pharmacological treatments of GORD
stop smoking, weight loss, elevate head of bed, don't eat 3 hrs before bed, small frequent meals, avoid ETOH, avoid coffee and fatty foods.
patient with Hx of smoking, reflux, gets sudden onset RLQ pain which develops into diffuse pain. CXR shows gas under the diaphragm.
perforated duodenal ulcer - fluid can track down the right paracolic gutter.
what are the complications of duodenal ulcers?
perforation
bleeding
obstruction
penetration into pancreas
what are the common complications of peptic ulcer disease
gastroduodenal bleeding
perforation
what % of peptic ulcers involve H.pylori?
duodenal = 90%
Gastric = 60%
what % of people presenting with dyspepsia have peptic ulcer
20%
what is the most accurate investigation for Dx of peptic ulcer disease
Endoscopy + biopsy
what red flags call for urgent endoscopy relating to peptic ulcer disease
weight loss, age>55, bleeding, anaemia, vomitting, early satiety, dysphagia
40 year old presents with sporadic epigastric pain that is worse after meals and at night with associated dyspepsia, what tests would you order?
- see if dyspepsia/ pain is relieved by antacids
- H.pylori - urea breath test and stool Ag test (beware false -ve on PPIs)
- FOBT and FBC (screen for Ca but unlikely)

NB. this man does not have any red flags therefore invasive endoscopy is not indicated.
patient is haemodynamically unstable, abdominal pain radiating to back w pulsatile mass
AAA
patient has abdo pain disproportionate to the signs on physical examination with a Hx of smoking and AF
mesenteric ischaemia
what are three top causes of small bowel obstruction
1. adhesions
2. hernias
3. cancer
what are the top 3 causes of large bowel obstruction
1. cancer
2. diverticulitis
3. volvulus
what are the DDx of RUQ pain
Biliary colic
cholecystitis
cholangitis
hepatitis
what are the 2 main GIT causes of RLQ pain
Acute appendicitis
Crohn's disease
how is choledocolithiasis managed
ERCP with biliary sphincterectomy and stone extraction
fever, RUQ pain, jaundice
ascending cholangitis
Rx - ERCP + abx

- amoxycillin + gentamycin

(most common cause is e.coli)
what sequence of presentation is present in 95% of acute addendcitis?
Anorexia --> abdo pain --> vomitting
what is mcburneys sign
what is rovsigs sign
what is psoas and obturator sign
RLQ tenderness -
RLQ tenderness wen LLQ palpated
Pain on thigh extension
pain on internal hip rotation
what tests should be ordered if acute appendicitis is suspected
FBC - raised WCC w left shift high discriminatory power when combined with Hx
bHCG
Urine dipstick - UTI and renal colic
30 year old female with acute severe lower abdominal pain and nausea. FBC is normal, bHCG is -ve, urine dipstick is normal. What is the likely Dx
Ovarian torsion

Rx = surgical tetorsion or salpingo-oopherectomy if non viable.
what is the most common cause of acute ischaemic bowel
Embolism - 50%
But take Hx of IHD or PVD into account as 15-20% are from thrombus at origin of SMA.
also 20-30% are due to hypoperfusion - at watershed areas (splenic flexure and recto sigmoid Jn
what are the upper limits for colonic dilatation on abdo Xray
caecum = 10-12 cm
ascending colon = 8cm
recto-sigmoid = 6.5 cm
what are the 3 aims when confronted with acute pancreatitis
1. confirm Dx and rule out severe DDx
2. assess severity/ complications
3. determine cause

(serum amylase/lipase; CT scan - is most useful ithin 48 hrs of presentation; XRAY - AAA, ruptured PU)
patient presents 10 days after episode of acute pancreatitis with spiking fever, BP90/60, HR 120
Infection post pancreatitis. abscess in necrotic tissue

Rx - surgical debridement of necrotic tissue, Abx, drian
what is the treatment for uncomlicated acute inflammatory pancreatitis
IV fluids, analgesia, O2, gut rest for 48 hrs
what is the initial treatment for severe dehydration
IV n.saline 10ml/kg bolus infused over 30 minutes. Then normal maintenance (2-3 litres/day one salt 2 sugar; KCl every 1-2 days)
patient with Hx of recurrent heartburn undergoes endoscopy - linear ulceration is seen
reflux oesophagitis - mucosal ulceration and breakdown due to persistant reflux (GORD). can lead to Barret's oesophagus or peptic stricture.
Patient with long standing GORD presents with worsening dysphagia and globus sensation. Barium swallow shows area of narrowing
Peptic stricture 2ndary to GORD, oesophagitis.

Rx - baloon dilatation
what % of patients with GORD get Barrett's oesophagus and what does it increase you RR of
- 10%
increases RR of adenocarcinoma of Oesophagus by 40x

Rx = PPIs, endoscopy + biopsy every 2-3 years to look for dysplasia
patient with Hx of asthma and eczema presents with worsening heartburn and dysphagia. Serum IgE is raised. Endoscopy shows multiple exudative rings in proximal oesophagus.
Eosinophilic oesophagitis

Rx = flucticasone (seretide - swallow)
elimination diet, montelukast.
what is the 5 year survival of oesophageal Carcinoma
<10%

SCC = alcohol and smoking
Adenocarcinoma = Barret's
what is achalasia?
an oesophageal dysmotility disorder
- failure of the LOS to relax - causes 'pseudo heart burn'; dysphagia.
regurgitation of undigested food.

characteristic barium swallow = 'birds beak'

Rx. = surgery - cut sphincter
dilate with baloon
botox injection

Beware 'pseudoachalasia' which is 2ndary to malignancy
patient presents with dysphagia and chest pain. Dysphagia is with both liquids and solids. Barium swallow shows - corkscrew oesophagus
Diffuse oesophageal spasm
corkscrew oesophagus
diffuse oesophageal spasm
birds beak oesophagus
achalasia
patient presents with drooling, food spillage, inability to swallow, dysarthria
Oral dysphagia ==> most likely neuro cause
how does pharyngeal dysphagia present
globus sensation
cough
dyphonia
repetitive swallowing
patient who has been vomitting profusely presents with chest pain, dyspnoea, subcutaneous empyhsema. CXR shows widening of the mediastinum
Boerhaave's syndrome - oesophageal rupture causing pneumomediastinum

Rx= fluid resuss, abx
if <24 hrs - surgical repair
if >24 hrs diversion followed by delayed reconstruction
What tests should be ordered in someone who presents with oesophageal candidiasis
HIV elisa
OGTT.
what drugs are given to patients presenting with an acute oesophageal varices bleed
Beta blockers - lowers systemic pressure .

Rx - band ligation, tube tamponade.
How is ascending cholangitis managed
1. IV Abx - most likely gram -ve (e. coli) but need gram +ve and anaerobe cover as well
- cefepime (4* C)+ Metronidazole

2. Biliary decompression with ERCP

3. Opiod analgesia.
what are the most common bacterial agents in infective colitis
E. coli; shigella; salmonella; campylobacter; yersinia
first step in treatment of an acute abdomen
1.NBM, antiemetics, analgesia
2. IV fluid resuss
3. order tests

Abx if suspect risk of perforation - MAG or 3rd gen ceph with metronidazole
Fever, lower abdominal/back pain with radiation to the hip and knee.
Psoas abscess
- 1st test - plain Xray will show bulge or gas in sheath (CT more sensitive)

management ==> Abx + surgical drainage

cause - 2ndary to diverticulitis, appendicitis, perforation
30yo female presents with sudden intense lower abdo and pelvic pain which radiates down right thigh, w assoc. N & V. bHCG is negative. she has had similar pain in preceding weeks but not this severe.
What is your next examination
TVUS

Ovarian torsion - doppler will determine whether there is blood flow

Nb. all women presenting with abdo/pelvic pain should have
bHCG, FBC, U/A

Rx = surgery
cystectomy if viable
- salpingooopherectomy if non viable
Mark Fryer, a chronic alcoholic presents with epigastric abdominal pain radiating to the back, steatorrhoea, malnutrition, and diabetes mellitus. What do you think he has? what tests would confirm this?
Chronic pancreatitis

confirm with US, CT or Xray looking for calcifications in pancreas
what are the clinical features of Biliary obstruction
pale stools, dark urine, itch
what needs to be considered pre operatively in a jaundiced patient
jaundiced patients have
- increased VTE risk
- increased infection risk
- increased risk of renal failure
what are the ranson criteria for pancreatitis severity
Age>55
BSL >11
AST>250
LDH>350

after 24 hr
fall in HCT
rise in BUN
PO2<60
serum Ca<2
Fluid sequestration>6L
Base deficit >4