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157 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

At present, the best we can do in monitoring cardiac output in our anesthetized patients is to measure_______________

Blood pressure

Low circulating blood volume is termed ___________

Hypovolemia

Vocalization, body posture, and guarding are _________ signs of pain.

behavioral

The minimum laboratory blood tests for any general anesthesia procedure should include a Packed Cell Volume, and a ______ _______.

total protein

Local anesthetics are valuable adjuncts to multimodal pain therapy because they inhibit:

- peripheral sensitization of nociceptors


- central sensitization


- impulse conduction

What is the best way to reduce windup?

provide preemptive pain management

What is the minimum fasting time for a ruminant undergoing an elective general anesthetic procedure?

24 hours

The most effective drug category for managing severe to moderate pain in the post-operative period are the ______________

opioids

What is surgical asepsis?

prevention of microbial contamination of living tissues by killing or removing micro-organisms

Exogenous sources of pathogens

OR environment


Surgical instruments


Surgical team

Endogenous sources of pathogens

Patient's resident flora**

SSI - what is it and what causes it?

Surgical site infection - most common form of nosocomial infection, usually from endogenous flora in/on patient

Bacteria that cause SSI

Staph


E. coli


Strep


Enterobacter


Enterococcus

T/F Once opened, sealed edges of the pouches are not sterile

True

How long does it take a nosocomial infection to develop following hospitalization?

48 hours

Antiseptic

antimicrobial substance applied to living skin/tissue

Disinfection

Applying antimicrobial substances to inanimate objects. Doesn't necessarily kill ALL microorganisms (spores can survive).

Sterilization

any process that eliminates or kills all forms of life

What should be used to clean instruments?

DI or distilled water, soft brush, ultrasonic cleaner




NEVER SALINE or WD40

T/F Chemical sterilization indicators provide verification of sterility.

False - they provide verification that the inside of the pack was exposed to appropriate sterilization temps for the appropriate length of time

What are methods of instrument and pack sterilization?

1. steam - autoclave


2. low temp plasma-peroxide - $$


3. Ionizing radiation - $$


4. Cold chemical - glutaldehyde or H2O2




NO ETHYLENE OXIDE

What should be used to clean cameras, arthroscopes, laproscopes?

cold chemicals - glutaldehyde or hydrogen peroxide




or PLASMA

What is the recommendation for sterilization temp/pressure?

15 psi @ 250* for 30 min

What are the two types of autoclave? Which is more effective?

Pre-vaccum - mechanical air removal - more effective because that greates resistance to steam sterilization is removal of air




Gravity - air displaced by steam

What is important to remember about bacteria and spores in autoclaves?

They can survive in air pockets @ 273*F

What is one of the greatest problems with autoclave sterility?

Wet packs

How can verification of proper autoclave function be done?

biological testing - chemical indicators don't prove sterilization!

Which cold chemical should NOT be used to sterilize instruments?

Nolvasan - used as a disinfectant

How long will a double wrapped two layer muslin pack last on a shelf?

4 weeks

What is the longest shelf life possible for packs?

1 year if plastic-peel pouches and heat sealed

How long should dogs and cats be fasted prior to surgery if over 4 months? Under 4 months?

Over: 6-12 hours


Under: 4 hrs due to hypoglycemia risk

Should water be restricted for dogs and cats prior to surgery?

No

How long should horses be fasted prior to surgery? Water restriction?

6-12 hrs


No water restriction

How long should cattle be fasted prior to surgery? Water restriction?

24-28 hrs fast


12-24 hrs water restriction

How long should sm rmts over 4 weeks be fasted pre-op? Water restriction? Less than 4 wks?

>4 weeks: 12-24 hrs fast, free water


<4 weeks: 2-4 hrs fast

What is the scale used for anesthesia physical status? Which means fine? Which means almost dead?

I-V


I = normal


V = serious health issues

What are some disadvantages to premedicating patients?

Bradycardia


Hypotension


Excitment/dysphoria

Premed sedative drugs - dogs

Acepromazine


Dexmedetomidine


Midazolam/diazepam

Premed opioids - dogs

Butorphanol


Buprenorphine


Hydromorphone


Morphine


Methadone


Fentanyl

Premed sedative and analgesic - cats

Dex + opioid (butorphanol, buprenorphine)


+/- ketamine

Premed sedative + opioid - equine

Alpha 2 agonsit - xylazine, detomidine


Butorphanol


NSAID - phenylbutazone, flunixin

Which anesthetic premeds are good for ruminants

Butorphanol, low dose xylazine

What is noteworthy about xylazine in ruminants?

cows = 1/10 equine dose


Can cause hypoxemia in sheep

Anesthetic inducers: dogs and cats

Propofol, ketamine

Anesthetic inducers - horses

ketamine,benzodiazepine

Which anesthetic inducer can be used in all animals?

ketamine

Opiods can inhibit pain perception, central sensitization, peripheral sensitization of nociceptors but do not inhibit ___________.

transmission

The initial fluid therapy rate for treating shock due to hypovolemia is to administer one _______ ________ over one hour.

blood volume

Fluids containing electrolyte and nonelectrolyte solutes capable of entering all body fluid compartments are called _________ solutions.

isotonic

The most important reason for withholding food from patients undergoing anesthesia is to prevent vomiting and resultant ____________ ____________.

aspiration pneumonia

Spinal cord synapses are the sites where __________ of the pain response occurs.

modulation

Pain perception occurs in the ______.

brain

The combined use of a local anesthetic, an NSAID, and an opioid along with a general anesthetic is a good example of ___________ anesthesia

multimodal

What do anesthetists monitor?

anesthetic depth


Oxygenation


Ventilation


Circulation


Body temp

What is the minimum alveolar concentration?

inhalant anesthetic concentration in the lungs required to prevent purposeful movement in 50% animals in response to a noxious stimulus

What is strike through?

Term used to describe contamination that occurs when moisture carries bacteria from a nonsterile to a sterile surface

What is the most useful method to detect apnea, hypoventilation?

End tidal carbon dioxide (EtCO2)

Fluid therapy that contains ions/solutes that distribute to all body fluid compartment, are isotonic, and have a composition similar to extra-celllar fluid

crystalloids : LR, Sodium Chloride, Normosol

What sort of fluid therapy would be given to a patient with low albumin (want to increase oncotic P)?

colloids

What fluid therapy can be given to increase blood volume and blood pressure?

hypertonic saline

What is the pathway of pain?

Transduction --> transmission --> modulation --> projection --> perception

Transudction

1st in pain pthwy




Nociceptors transform stimuli into action potentials

Transmission

2nd in pain pthwy




Action potential transmitted via dorsal root gg to the grey matter of spinal cord

Modulation

3rd in pain pthwy




Occur @ level of spinal cord -- impulses synapse in dorsal horn of spinal cord and are amplified

Projection

4th in pain pthwy




Nociceptive information conveyed to brain by nerve tracts

Perception

5th in pain pthwy


integration, processing, recognition -- mult areas of brain

The glasgow pain scale is based on:

behaviour based on observation, interaction

The CSU pain scale is based on:

body tension, arousal (behaviour too)

Which surgical hand scrub is the most used?

Chlorhexidine Gluconate

Which scrubless solution is the most popular?

Avagard (chlorhexidine with ethyl alcohol)

How long is skin protected when scrubless solution is used?

6 hours

How are alcohol products used to scrub patients?

One coat - skin must be clean beforehad


NOT for open wounds/mm

What is the minimum contact time for patient scrubbing?

3 scrubs with 3 minute contact time minimum

Which drape material is NOT waterproof?

cotton and linen

Theoverall incidence of glove defects increases significantly in surgicalprocedures exceeding ___ minutes in length.

60

The best group of drugs to inhibit transmission of sensory afferent nerve impulses of pain are _____________

local anesthetics

Wheredoes "windup" occur?

spinal cord

Hairremoval prior to surgical skin preparation should be accomplished as follows:

#40 clipper just prior to surgery

What are Halsted's surgical principles?

1. gentle tissue handling with appropriate instruments


2. use aseptic technique


3. use sharp dissection of tissue


4. meticulous hemostasis


5. obliterate dead space


6. avoid tension

Which of the following in NOT one of Halsted's surgical principles.


Answers:


Use aseptic technique


Use preoperative antibiotics


Use sharp dissection of tissue


Employ meticulous hemostasis

Use preoperative antibiotics

T/F Oneof the principles of restraint in large animals is that in most instances ifyou control the head, you can control the animal.

True

What are the 4 ways to restrain horses?

Halter


Stocks


Nose twitch


Chemical

Which has a contact time: scrub or solution?

scrub

Types of retractors:

Balfour


Senn


Kelly


Ribbon


Army navy


Weitlaner


Gelpi

Types of forceps

Lahey (sharp pointy teeth)


Sponge


Mosquito

External method of castration for pendulus scrotums

burdizzo emasculotome

Best kind of emasculator

Serra

The mineralocorticoid, aldosterone, is synthesized and released in the adrenal zona ________.

glomerulosa

Most histamine in body tissues is found in _____ cell granules.

mast

Following injury, the initial systemic proteolysis and increased urinary nitrogen excretion are mediated primarily by ___________.

glucocorticoids

If an animal has symptoms of SIRS, and it has an identifiable source of bacteria, then the animal has _______.

sepsis

In the liver, cortisol stimulates ____________, but induces insulin resistance in muscle and adipose tissue.

gluconeogenesis

SIRS stands for _____________________.

Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome

The recruitment of circulating neutrophils to endothelial surfaces is mediated by adhesion molecules called _______ that are elaborated on cell surfaces.

selectins

Eicosanoids are generated from arachidonic acid by either teh cyclooxgenase pathway or the ___________ pathway.

lipooxygenase

The hypermetabolic state observed following severe injury is attributed to activation of the ___________ system.

adrenergic

Histamine causes _______capillary permeability.

increased

Following ischemia and restoration of blood flow and oxygen supply, large quantitites of oxygen metabolites (free oxygen radicals) are produced, leading to _________ injury.

reperfusion

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone signaling activates intracellular pathways that lead to cortisol production within the zona _________ if the adrenal gland.

fasciculata

Lipopolysaccharide has a dominate role in signaling the immune system of the presence of gram ________bacteria.

negative

Following any type of injury, there is a central nervous system response, a hormonal response, and a _________ response.

cellular

Following injury, afferent signals from the site of inflammation are sent to the hypothalamus via the _______ nerve.

vagus

The primary goal of administering a readily available energy source (glucose) to post-operative surgical patients or traumatized patients is to prevent _________.

muscle wasting

If an animal is showing the clinical signs of increased temperature, increased heart rate, and increased white blood cell count, then by definition, it is displaying _____________________.

SIRS

This leukocyte is considered one of the first responders in the local inflammatory response.

neutrophil

_________ appear to be the most potent mediators of the inflammatory response.

cytokines

The major function of aldosterone is to conserve ________ and thereby maintain intravascular fluid volume.

sodium

What are vicryl sutures made from and how long does it take for 50% strength retention?

braided synthetic - rapide takes 1 week, other takes 3 weeks

Which ethicon suture will last 4 weeks?

PDS - synthetic monofilament

Which synthetic monofilament lasts 1 week?

monocryl

Which synthetic monofilament lasts indefinitely?

Prolene (polypropylene)

How long does Ethilon (nylon) last? What is it made of?

20% loss/year - made of synthetic monofilament

When is the "golden period" in wound contamination?

6-8 hours

What is the limiting factor to natural wound healing?

Debridement - collagen debrides very slowly


debridement is the most important part of treating a wound!

In general, how can most hemorrhage be stopped?

direct compression

IPF

Infection potentiating factors - in clay soil, as few as 100 organisms can cause infection

Which parts of the body requiring suturing and which should you leave?

head and legs - suture because they don't get infected that much


Limbs - heal slower, contract less, bigger scar


Body - let it close alone by 2nd intent

Should animals should be given antibiotics prophylactically or after debriding?

PROPHYLACTICALLY! (IV antibiotics prior to treating the wound)

What are the steps to treating a wound?

1. prep skin around wound


2. prep skin - use clippers


3. disinfect the skin - detergents ONLY for skin around wound - they irritate it!


4. anesthetize before debriding (lidocaine)


5. block nerves


6. Debridement (included lavage and dissection)

What happens if you use lidocaine with epinephrine on a leg?

it causes vasoconstriction and can cause ischemia because there is limited blood flow on the leg

What is the best product to use for wound lavaging?

saline

Why is low pressure lavage better?

It minimizes the tissue damage that happens with high P leading to remaining bacteria

Which tissue will heal more quickly?


- skin


- urinary bladder


- muscle fascia


- tendon

urinary bladder

What type of needle is most appropriate to use when anastamosing a blood vessel that has been severed?

taper

What is the smallest diameter suture material?

0000

Which of the following suture materials is broken down by hydrolysis?


- polypropylene


- polyester


- polyglycolic acid


- chromic catgut

polyglycolic acid

T/F Catgutis a natural suture derived from the submucosa of cats.

False

Whichof the following instruments does NOT remove the testicle when performing acastration:


- Reimber emasculator


- Henderson emasculator


- Burdizzo emasculatome


- Serra emasculator

Burdizzo emasculatome

Whichof the following suture patterns should never be used to close the skin?




Halsted


Ford interlocking


Horizontal mattress


Vertical mattress

Halsted

Whichof the following is not an inverting suture pattern?




Gambee


Cushing


Lember


Connell

Gambee

Ifyou see granulation tissue in a wound, you know that at least that part of thewound is in the __________________ phase of wound heaing.




Proliferation/repair


Inflammatory/debridement


Remodeling/maturation

Proliferation/repair

Whichgrowth factor is considered to have the greatest "profibrotic"influence on wound repair?




TGF-b


TGF-a


FGF-a


FGF-2

TGF-b

Theprimary cell type responsible for hemostasis and the initiation of theinflammatory phase of wound healing is the

platelet

T/F Woundcontraction will not occur until there is a complete bed of healthy granulationtissue present.

True

T/F Remodelingand maturation of the scar may take a year or more, but eventually the woundregains its original strength.

False

Whichof the following can be used as a tension suture pattern?




Far-far-near-near


Far-near-near-far


vertical mattress


all of above

all

Whichof the following can be a possible consequence of protein-calorie malnutrition?


- muscle atrophy due to protein catabolism


- impaired immunocompetence


- delayed wound healing


- all of the above

all of the above

Insituations of severe trauma, there is an increased blood cortisol level. Whatis the mechanism for this increase?

Inflammationor injury results in the release of corticotropin releasing hormone from thehypothalamus which stimulates the release of ACTH from the anterior pituitarygland, which activates pathways in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal glandthat leads to the production of cortisol.

Insmall animals, the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) ischaracterized by 2 or more specific criteria. It is important that you be ableto recognize these criteria. What are they?

Decreasedor increased temperature, increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, andincreased or decreased white blood cell count.

Itis important for the surgeon to recognize the metabolic changes that occur in atraumatized patient, and to provide the proper nutritional support tocounteract the adverse effects that occur. Which of the following bestsummarizes the metabolic response to injury?

Increasedprotein catabolism, increased Basal Energy Requirement (BER), increasedutilization of triglycerides for energy, increased gluconeogenesis, anddecreased utilization of glucose in muscle.

Whatis the predominant energy source during critical illness and following severeinjury?

Triglycerides from adipose stores in the body

Themost common nutritional state in the post-operative patient is a negativenitrogen balance due to

Increasedmetabolic demand and decreased caloric intakeL

T/F Ifthe post-operative small animal patient will not eat, but the GI tract is stillfunctional, then enteral hyperalimentation is much preferred to over parenteralhyperalimentation.

True

T/F Analgesicsmust be given before a painful stimulus in order to prevent central nervoussystem "wind up".

True

At which level in the nervous system does transduction occur?

tissue level nociceptors

At which level in the nervous system does transmission occur?

Peripheral sensory nerves

At which level in the nervous system does modulation occur?

dorsal horn of the spinal cord grey matter

At which level in the nervous system does projection occur?

spinal cord nerve tracts

At which level in the nervous system does perception occur?

multiple areas of the brain

The term for surgical puncture of the urinary bladder.

cystocentesis

The term for surgical fusion of a joint

arthrodesis

Term for surgical fixation of the stomach to the abdominal wall

gastropexy or gastropexis

Term for surgical creation of a new opening into the colon

colostomy

term for surgical removal of the spleen

splenectomy

term for surgical reconstruction of the larynx

laryngoplasty

term for suturing a hernia

herniorrhaphy

term for visually examining the inside of a joint

arthroscopy