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440 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
790: Scope Of Steward Representation

Under what circumstances can stewards represent members?
A steward can represent 1) during review of member evaluations (not the initial review discussion), and 2) Skelly
790: Minimum Overtime (OT on Day Off or return to work after leaving job site)
2.5 hours minimum
790: Minimum Overtime (OT contiguous after regular shift)
No minimum - OT pay for actual time worked.
790: Minimum for Overtime Court Appearances (City Required on day off)
4 hour minimum
790: Minimum Court Overtime (Contiguous with normal work day)
No mimimum - actual time worked.
790: Compensatory Leave Accrual Limit (for memebr assigned to PD)
240 hours
790: Meal Allowance

How many allowances when working 6 hours OT continuously before or after shift?
(2). 10.75 for first 2 hours and one allowance for each 4 hr period that follows.
790: Meal Allowance (Called back to work after leaving job site)

How many meal allwances when working 10 hrs of call back OT?
(2) 10.75 for each 4 hour period worked OT.
790: Meal Allowance (Scheduled to work on scheduled day off with fewer than 24 hours notice)
receives 10.75 if work at least4 hours. Subsequent meal allowances if OT worked past normal hours of shift and then meal allownaces distributed normally (2 + 4)NO MEAL ALLOWANCE WHEN ASSIGNED WORK 24 or more hrs advanced (unless past normal shift)
790: Annual Earned Sick Leave

At what rate is sick leave earned?
a)5 hrs every other pay period? b)1 day every month c)15 days at the beginning of fiscal year d) 1 day every other month
1 full working day per month of service after completion of 3 months of service.
790: Accumulated Earned Sick Leave

What is maximum # days that can be accrued? 100, 150, 180, 480?
150
790: Use Of Sick Leave (Minimum Usage)
Sick leave may be used in minimum increments of one hour.
790: Use Of Sick Leave (Family illness)
Members can take 10, 12, 15, or 18 days for family illnesses? Are such days taken from the employee's sick leave bank?
Immediate family, maximum 12 working days charges against accumalated sick leave hours.
790: Family Illness and Death Leave (Immediate Family Defined)
Parents, in-laws, spouse/partner, children, siblings, grandparents, & grandchildren in the custody of members.
790: Family illness (Critical Illness)
How many regular family illness days allowed? How many when critical illness?
May take more than 12 days in cases of critical or serious illness
790: Annual Sick Leave(Sell-Back/Conversion)

Requirements of converting sick days to vacation:
Have minimum of 60 days sick leave at the beginning of year, may convert 2 sick days to 1 day of vacation up to a maximum of six vacation days
790: Sick Leave (Performance Appraisal Considerations)
when for valid reason and protracted for at least 3 days, may not be taken into account in member's review.
790: Family Death Leave (Entitlement)

Under normal circumstances, employees may take 3, 4, 5, or 6 days for family death.
(5) working days in addition to accrued leave (not charged from sick time)
790: Family Death Leave (Eligibility)

When is member eligible to take death leave?
worked full-time for the City for a period of six (6) consecutive months.
790: Family Death/illness

T or F: Members may be asked to provide documentation of illness or death?
True in both cases
790: Family Death Leave (Exceptional Hardship

How many days normally granted for death leave? How many additional days in cases of exceptional hardship?
5

1 additional paid day
NSA, M-18: Required Field Arrest Approval Situations:
All felonies
narcotics possessions
marijuana when I/C jail
use of force
148 p.c.
243(b)and(c) p.c.
69 p.c.
NSA: Span of Control

___ sup to ____ officers.

Who determines in case of special operation?
Shall not exceed 1 to 8 officers under normal conditions

If special operation, the Area or Watch Commander shall determine the RSOC
NSA: Settlement entered into on (date)_____,____.
January 22, 2003
790: On–The–Job Injury Leave And Compensation for PERMANENT MEMBERS:

What is the max length of paid leave?
maximum of 60 days of consec or nonconsecutive paid on-the-job injury/illness leave per injury or illness.

ODI is not deducted from sick leave accrued.
790: On–The–Job Injury Leave And Compensation for LONG TERM PERMANENT MEMBERS (10+ years):
90 days with same restrictions as perm. members
790: ODI claims: Under what circumstances are members' injuries validated as ODI?
When accepted and qualified as Workman's Comp.
790: Jury Leave

When can employees get time off? With pay?
Time off with pay, but member shall request recusal if hardship for City exists.
790: Leave of Absence

What is maximum length of absence?
Up to 1 year
790: Perm Part-time leave accrual.

How is sick time/leave days/holiday pay calculated for part-time?
pro-rata, 50% of normal accrual rules.
790: Right To Take Accrued Leave

When can member take vacation? How are conflict dates resolved?
A unit member may take accrued vacation, with the prior scheduling approval of
the department head. The City may consider seniority as a factor in resolving
conflicting requests for vacation leave.
790: Vacation Accrual

How many days can be accrued?
2 times regular amount authorized.
790: Vacation Sell Back

When can member sell vacation days? How many days can be sold?
Member can sell 10 vacation days if member took at least 10 days in the previous year.
790: Vacation Cap

What happens when member's vacation days are capped?
earned vacation is forfeited until days are sold or taken.
790: Minimum Usage

What is the minimum vacation time a member can take?
1 day
790: Personal Business Leave

How many days per year for personal business? What is the minimum amount one can take?
2 and 1/2 days - normally taken in 1/2 day increments but can be smaller if authorized. time is taken from accrued vacation.
790: When holiday pay occurs during vacation leave, what occurs?
the workday that is the holiday shall be charged as a holiday and not as a day of
vacation.
790: When serious illness occurs during vacation leave, what occurs?
Not charged as vacation - charged as sick.
790: Floating Holiday:

When are floating holidays given? When may the holiday be taken (restrictions?)
Floating holiday, subject to prior approval of the department head.
Holiday must be taken during the fiscal year in which it is earned.
The floating holiday shall be credited at the beginning of the pay
period that includes July 1.
In order to qualify for receipt of compensation for a designated
holiday, a unit member must be in paid status the work day before
and the workday after the designated holiday.
790: Holiday Pay

What is due to member who works at least 5 hours of shift on holiday?
Time and a half pay
790: Holidays On Regular Days Off:

When holiday falls on members 1st regular day off and holiday not worked, what is due? Is there a difference for dispatchers?

When holiday falls on members 1st regular day off and holiday is worked, what is due? Is there a difference for dispatchers?
when not worked - 1 extra vacation day (For dispatchers: next workday off)

When worked - time and a half for workday plus extra vacation day (For dispatchers, next workday off and time and a half for worked holiday)
790: Holidays On Regular Days Off:

When holiday falls on members 2nd regular day off and holiday not worked, what is due?

What about when 2nd day off worked?
When not worked - Next following day off

When worked - Time and a half for work day plus next day off.
790: Breaks/Rest Periods

Authorized how often? How scheduled?
One fifteen (15) minute rest period shall be scheduled during each work
period of three (3) or more hours; this rest period shall be scheduled at
the discretion of the department head or authorized supervisor, with no loss of pay or time off charged.
790: Shifts and schedules

When are ahift changes and starting times required to be posted? Any exceptions?
10 days, or longer, in advance (except in case of emergency)
790: Xmas and New Years:

When employee scheduled to work both holidays as part of normal schedule, what benefits are entitled? (2 choices)
1) 1/2 of each day off paid or
2) One full shift of either off paid.
790: Xmas and New Years

When both holidays occur on normal work day off, employee has two options:
1)1/2 day paid off on Friday preceding holiday or

2)1 full shift paid off on Friday preceiding either Xmas or New Years.
790: Alcohol/Drug Use

What happens when discipline arises from abuse?
Held in abeyance with respect to counseling
790: Personnel File

What must occur when negatice entries added to file?

Can employee review the file?
members will be given a copy of entries of a derogatory
nature when they are placed in their official personnel files.

A unit member may review his/her official personnel file in the Personnel
Department twice per year
790: Entry Probationary Period

How long is new hire civilian probation?
9 month, +3 month City extension and then +3 month if Union agrees.
790: Performance Appraisals

Goals/Purposes of Appraisals?
(1)regular review of performance
(2) encouraging improvement
(3) determining improvement
(4) providing effective supervision
(5) complimenting performance
790: 9 month probation Reviews:

When does a new hire receive reviews?
(14) days
after the end of 2nd, 5th, and 8th months (and eleventh and fourteenth months of service
where applicable) and annually thereafter,
790: 6 months probation

When does a new hire receive reviews?
(14) days
after the end of 3rd, 5th months and
annually thereafter,
790: Discipline

What provided to employee when discipline?
1) Skelly to emp. or rep.

2)PD employees provided Govt. Code Rights.
Section 3508.1.
790: Grievance Process

Step 1, Informal Discussion, is_________.
Present grievance orally to supervisor within 10 working days from reasonable knowledge of incident occurrence.
790: Grievance Process

If Step 1, Informal Discussion, does not resolve grievance then FORMAL SUBMISSION. Formal submission is__________.
submit the grievance in writing to
the immediate supervisor within the ten (10) working days
790: Grievance Process

What elements must written formal submission contain?
state the specific section of the Memorandum of Understanding, or the Personnel Rules alleged to be violated, or the disciplinary action taken, and the proposed solution.
790: Grievance Process

What must a supervisor do upon receipt of a formal submission? Within what time?
The supervisor shall render a decision in
writing to the unit member and/or Union Representative within
ten (10) working days of the formal submission of the grievance.
790: Grievance Process - Step 2: Appeal To Department Head

When is such appeal made? What must Dept. Head do?
If unresolved,within(10) working days of receipt of the supervisor’s decision, submit the grievance in writing to the department
head.

Dept. Head responds with decision in writing within 10 days of receipt.
790: Grievance Procedure, Step 3: Employee Relations Officer - Union Staff Representative

If unresolved after step 2, what occurs?
Should the grievance remain unresolved, the unit member or Union
Representative may, within ten (10) working days after receipt of the
department head response, submit the grievance in writing to the
Employee Relations Officer. ERO has 10 working days to respond and meet with member/rep.
Step 4: Civil Service Board -Arbitration

What process occurs after unsuccesful meeting with Union Rep? Within what time?
Within 15 days of unsuccesful meeting, either party may submit the
grievance to an impartial arbitrator who shall be selected by mutual
agreement.
790: Grievance Procedures

What if member is unsatisfied with results of arbitration?
Kick Rocks! Arbitration is final and binding.
790: Grievance Procedures

What happens if timelines are not followed by member or union as specified in MOU?
Kick Rocks! Failure shall nullify grievance
790: Grievance Procedures

What happens if timelines are not followed by OPD Supervisor as specified in MOU?
Resolution moves to next higher step.
790: Grievance Procedures

What are the grievance steps?
Step 1: Oral and then written
Step 2: Dept Head Appeal
Step 3: Union or Employee Relations Review
Step 4: Arbitration

Steps may be skipped for immediate arbitration when both parties agree.
OPD MOU: Accrued Leave

Maximum # of allowed accrued Comp hours?
480
OPD MOU: What is paid for standby?
$1.00 for each standby hour.
OPD MOU: Vacation

When can member take vacation time?
Vacation leave may be taken only upon the approval of the Chief
of Police or his designated representative.
OPD MOU: Sick Leave, Entitlement

How many sick days authorized at full pay? At half pay?
60 calander days per injury/illness at full pay. 60 additional calander days per injury/illness at half pay.
OPD MOU: Sick Leave, Maternity

Can maternity be reason for sick leave?
Yes, if unable to perform job duties.
OPD MOU: What is the max allowable leave without pay days?
180 - to perform personal onbligations not feasible to be carried out by someone else.
OPD MOU: Family Death Leave

Immediate Family Defined:
Parents, spouse,, children, siblings, grandparents, parent in-laws
OPD MOU: Family Death Leave, Entitlement:

How many days allowed?
5 days for each occurrence, not charged to sick or vacation. member must have 3 consec months worked.
OPD MOU: Military Leave

How many days paid leave for active duty service?
30 - but must return money paid to member by military.
OPD MOU: What is the max allowable leave without pay days?
180 - to perform personal onbligations not feasible to be carried out by someone else.
OPD MOU: Military Leave

How many days paid leave for active duty service?
30 - but must return money paid to member by military.
OPD MOU: Leave, Vacation

When can R/Os take accrued vacation?
Vacation leave may be taken only upon the approval of the Chief of Police or his designated representative.
OPD MOU: Leave, Sick

How many sick days per illness/injury at full pay? At half pay?
60 full and then 60 at half.
OPD MOU: Meal Allowance

What amount is 1 meal allowance?
$9.25
OPD MOU: Meal Allowance

How many meal allowances for officer working 2 hours before or after shift?
1
OPD MOU: What is considered 3rd watch? (hours worked)
employees whose regular scheduled shift includes five or more hours between the hours of 5:00 P.M. and 12:00 midnight
OPD MOU: What is considered 1st watch hours?
regular scheduled shift
includes five of more hours between the hours of 12:00 midnight and 7:00 A.M.,
OPD MOU: Shift Differential

Do members receive premium shift pay while on paid leave? If so, under what conditions?
up to a total of thirty (30) calendar days,
OPD MOU: Meal Allowances

Explain Meal Allowances
$9.25 allowance given upon 2 hrs worked before or after shift, and additional meal allowance after each additional 4 hours worked beyond.
OPD MOU: Meal Allowance

When is a member not authorized meal allowances when working OT?
When overtime
scheduled at least twenty-four (24) hours in advance, where such overtime is not
an extension of a regular work day...however, extension of the 8 hour scheduled OT shift, meal allowances apply (2 + 4)
OPD MOU: Work Schedules, Transfers and Loans.

How many days notice required prior to OPD initiated semi-permanent transfer from one Div/Unit to another?

Length of notice required prior to member initiated semi-perm xfer?
5 Days

48hrs
OPD MOU: Loan

How much notice given prior to loan?
Max time as possible, but minimum 48 hours.
OPD MOU: Probationary Period

What is the length of R/O probation. Extensions?
12 month probation with 3 month City extension when 11 month review is substandard.
OPD MOU: GRIEVANCE PROCEDURE

1) What can be grieved through process? 2) When can grievance procedure be skipped?
1)Disciplinary action

2) in the case of a
suspension, fine, demotion, or disciplinary discharge, the affected employee may
submit his/her appeal directly to the Civil Service Board
OPD MOU: Grievance Procedure

What is the 1st part of 1st step and timeline in Grievance Process?
Step 1:
-Informal Discussion

Employee or Rep may verbally present grievance to Sup within 7 days of start date. Sup has 7 days to respond.
OPD MOU: Grievance Procedure

What is the 2nd part of the 1st step and timeline in Grievance Process?
Formal Submission. Written Grievance to Bureau Chief within 7 days of sup response to informal discussion. Chief written response within 7 days of receipt.
OPD MOU: Grievance Procedure

What is the 2nd step and timeline in Grievance Process?
Appeal to Department Head. Submit grievance to COP within 7 days of response by Bureau Chief. (May take grievance directly to COP when circumstances justify)
OPD MOU: Grievance Procedure

What is the 3rd step and timeline in Grievance Process?
Employee Relations Officer - Association Representative. Submit grievance within 7 days after COP response. ERO has 30 days to respond.
OPD MOU: Grievance Procedure

What is the 4th step and timeline in Grievance Process?
Civil Service Board/Arbitration. Submit within 14 days following response from ERO.
OPD MOU: Grievance Procedure

What are the 4 steps in grievance procedure?
1. Informl Discussion and, if unresolved, Formal Submission

2. Appeal to Department Head.

3.Employee Relations Officer - Association Representative.

4. Civil Service Board/Arbitration.
OPD MOU: Grievance Procedure

What steps may be waived?
Steps 1 and 2 may be waived by mutual agreement.

Appeals of oral or written
reprimands shall be initiated at Step One. Appeals of fines, demotions,
suspensions and termination may be initiated at Step Three, following completion
of the Skelly process.
OPD MOU: Complaints and Oral Reprimands.

When shall external complaints be purged from pers. file?
removed after 5 years
OPD MOU: Complaints and Oral Reprimands.

When shall records of oral reps be purged?
after 3 years
True or False
The IA process is important in preserving the integrity and morale of the Dept.
True
IB, Supervisor’s Occupational Injury Report

When is a SOIR due?

Who is it submitted to?
- Within forty–eight hours of the occupational Injury

- The Department Safety Coordinator.
IB, (EIS)Early Intervention System

What method does the DOJ guide suggest when conducting PAS review with officer?
The SARA model: Scan, Analyze, Respond, Assess.
True or False

M-3 incorporates the Dept's core values (F.I.R.S.T.)
True
True or False

The IAD Commander approves Administrative Dispositions for tolled cases.
False

He/She approves all Admin Dispositions except for tolled cases
True or False

Administrative Closure can be used for Service Complaints involving an MOR violation
False

NOT involving an MOR
True or False

Administrative Closure can be used when the complainant refuses or is unable to provide information necessary to investigate the complaint.
True
True or False

Tolled cases fall under the provisions of G.C. 3303
False

G.C. 3304
True or False

Allegations involving worker's compensation fraud falls under the provisions of G.C. 3304 (tolling exception)
True
K-3:

Define Lethal Force
“That force which creates a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily injury, as such terms are defined by prevailing law.”
K-3:

T or F - carotid restraint and an intentional impact weapon strike to the head are uses of force classified as less than lethal
F
K-3:
Who conducts the level 1 use of force investigation?
2 parallel, IAD conducts an admin inv and Homi conducts a crim inv.
K-3:
What is of the "highest importance" when at a scene involving personal injury? Under what conditions?
performing life-saving measures if in a manner which is tactically sound and does not endanger officers or others.
IB, 901C Preventables

What are drivers required to do prior to exiting their patrol vehicle?
- Stop
- Put in "park"
- set emergency brake
A subj member/employee can verbally waive the one year deadline to complete an investigation.
False

Has to be in writing
Tolled cases are not actively investigated while tolling.
False
What are the two Classification complaint categories used by the Dept.?
Class I or II
True or False

Class I complaints are the most serious and include the solicitation or acceptance of gifts.
True
An allegation from any source regarding a specific act or omission which would rise to the level of a MOR violation is a...
Misconduct Complaint
Define service complaint
Any complaint from any source regarding an inadequate policy, procedure, practice, service level, or legal standard or statute required of the Dept. that would not result in discipline.
A service complaint is not an allegation of misconduct.
True
Any member/employee who witnesses another member or employee commit a specific act or omission giving rise to the allegations under investigation.
Directly Involved Personnel
True or False

The IAD Commander is the Dept's Discipline Officer.
True
True or False

The COP has the final say regarding discipline.
True
A supervisor, commander, manager, or member of the IAD are authorized to initiate a complaint.
True
What is the 3304 start date?
The date a person authorized to initiate an investigation becomes aware of any act, omission, or other allegation of misconduct.
True or False

The Dept. accepts anonymous complaints
True
True or False

Service Complaints can be resolved using the ICR process.
True
True or False

All unresolved service complaints are forwared for additional follow-up and resolution.
True
IB, Utility Business cards

When, if ever, are utility cards required to be handed out?
cards shall be distributed by OPD field personnel (BFO, SAC, etc.) to citizens
upon request should they require:
a member or employee’s name and serial number, or
• the RD number and follow-up telephone number to any report a member or employee
completes for them.
Special Order 8408:Which is most correct?

Members required to inspect vehicles a) prior to end of shift b)at the beginning of shift c)before leaving transportation d)daily
requires members and employees to inspect their vehicles before departing the transportation area
Special Order 8408:

What are sups/commanders required to regularly inspect? Is documentation reqquired?
supervisors/commanders are required to inspect vehicles to ensure complaint booklets maintained in each vehicle and document the inspection on a Field Vehicle Inspection checklist (TF-594).
Special Order 8408:

Supervisors shall inspect vehicles a)regularly as scheduled by commanders b)daily with the member/employee c) monthly or d)scheduled by commanders at least bi-weekly
regularly as scheduled by commander
IB, Traffic Fines (42011 VC)

What 2 signs must be posted in order for R/os to cite a driver for double fine zone?
“School” warning sign and an accompanying sign stating “Double Fine Zone.”
M-3/IB:

Confidential reports may be made a) in person, b) in writing c)by phone d)all of the above
all of the above
IB/M-3:

personel receiving a confidential complaint shall do what?
shall instruct the complainant to contact the IAD Commander directly and shall not inquire as to the nature of the complaint.
TB V-G,GO K-9:

Unless exigency exists, what are sups supposed to do prior to K-9 deployment? (2 things)
1)authorize and respond to the scene prior to employment.

2)ensure warning announced
TB V-G,GO K-9:

What is the 1st responsibility of supervisor in a K-9 situation?
Determine whether to approve K-9 deployment.
TB V-G,GO K-9:

When would a sup elect not to ensure the K-9 warning is deliverd?
officer safety concerns and/or exigency.
TB V-G,GO K-9:

Can a supervisor modify the K-9 announcement? Requirements:
Yes. He or she must be able to articulate the reasons for the decision and document it on the appropriate form.
TB V-G,GO K-9:

What force level is a bite to clothing or skin?
Level 2
TB V-G,GO K-9:

What is the K-9 primary deployement method? A) Find and wait B)Run and Point C)Find and Bark D)Find and Bite
Find and Bark
TB V-G,GO K-9:

Can handlers/Supervisors authorize Find and Bite rather than Find and Bark deployment?
Yes. When force option objectively reasonable.
TB V-G,GO K-9:

What factors should be evaluated prior to patrol K-9 deployment? (5 factors)
a. The seriousness of crime.
b. The age of the subject.
c. The threat posed by a subject
d. Whether the subject is evading arrest by active resistance, flight, or concealment.
e. If an attempt to use another force option would jeopardize the safety of officers or citizens.
TB III-X, K-3: The use of lethal force against the occupant of a motor vehicle is only authorized when it is
reasonably necessary to:
Defend against the imminent threat of death/GBI by means other than the vehicle; OR

Defend against the operator’s use of the vehicle to cause
death or serious bodily injury and the member or other person has no reasonable avenue of protection or escape.
TB III-X, K-3:

When shall you not discharge firearm at vehicle occupants?
when the vehicle has passed and is attempting to escape.
TB III-X, K-3:

T or F: Members can shoot from a moving vehicle when preventing death or Great Bodily Injury to self or others and no other reasonable force option exists?
False. Members PROHIBITED from shooting from moving vehicle.
Special Order 8287:

What procedure does a sergeant follow when Disapproving an arrest?

A) Provide SDA and notify watch commander
B) Notify that you have responded to the scene and Provide SAA disposition.
C)Provide dispo of SDA and complete a supplemental report.
D) Provide On scene status and SDA disposition.
D
1) Advise of on-scene status (997 or MDT OS)
2) Provide dispo of SDA
BFO 03-02 NSA:

A primary Sergeant supervises 7 squad officers, two of which are FTOs with trainess, making a total of 9 officers. Is the Dept. within Span of Control compliance?
Yes. Members in field training status and assigned to a certified FTO, within a squad, shall not be counted towards the designated limit for span of control purposes.
NSA - BFO 03-02:

On what documents should the SOC ratio be documented?
Risk Assessment Overviews (TF-3115) and Operation Plans (TF-3116).
BFO 03-03: Community meeting:

Who are required to attend?
Supervisors and ofcs assigned to BFO, PSO, CRT and FTU. (Sworn techs and K-9 encouraged to attend)
BFO 03-03: Comm. Meeting:

How often is attendance required?
one meeting in their regularly assigned area each quarter.
A-18, MLL:

MLL reports that do not allege MOR violation may be forwarded to supervsor for follow-up. What may occur?
a. Counseling;
b. Training; and/or
c. PDN
B-6, PAS:

Supervisors are tasked with monitoring patterns of misconduct/improper behavior such as:
arrests for very small amounts of drugs, arrests pursuant to searches with no underlying offense leading to the search, and Penal Code Sections 69, 148, and 243(b)(c) arrests with no underlying offense.
B-6, PAS:

A Supervisor may be disciplined for failure to identify, report, or take corrective action regading misconduct, improper behavior.
True
B-6, PAS:

PAS is acronym for_________
Performance Appraisal System
B-16, PAS:

how long is Police Communications dispatcher probation?
12 months
M-3:
Bias or harassment, actions of a retaliatory nature, or failure to take reasonable steps to prevent retaliation is class 1 or 2?
1
M-3: Use of position for personal gain is class 1 or 2?
1
M-3: Failure to detect a pattern of misconduct is class 1 or 2
1
M-3: Failure to properly identify self, including refusing to provide name, deliberate concealment of a badge or name plate is class 1 or 2?
1
M-3: Misconduct based on race, religion, ancestery, origin, marital status, age, sex, sexual orientation, or physical/mental disability or medical condition is class 1 or 2? What is the discipline?
1 - Termination
M-3: Officer Jones posted a KKK poster in his locker. What is the violation, C 1 or 2, and what is matrix discipine?
1 - term
M-3: Quid Pro Quo sexual relationships between sup and sub is class 1 or 2? What is matrix dicipline?
1 - Term
M-3: Disclosing confidential reporting of misconduct it a 1st time termination offense: T or F
T
M-3: Officer Lois called in sick and was seen at his son's wrestling match that morning. What is the matrix discipline for this offense?
class 1, termination.
M-3:
Officer Lois went to the Fountain Cafe, ordered a breakfast burrito, and displayed his badge. He asked for the cop discount. What is matrix discipline for this offense
Class 1, termination.
M-3:

OPfficer Lois was untruthful in a police report. The matrix provides a low recommendation of suspension for the 1st offense, and termination for the 2nd: T or F?
False. Class 1, termination first offense for any untruthfulness violation.
M-3:
Who may impose Emergency Administrative Leave?
A command officer, manager, or sergeant of police may impose emergency administrative leave
M-3: Under what circumstances may Emergency Administrative Leave be imposed?
when it appears such leave is in the best interests of the Department (e.g., intoxication, fighting, or any Class 1 Offense).
Ranger MOU:

What is the limit for accrued comp time hours?
60
Special Order 8508:

Who is notified within 1 hr of juvenile arrests? Who is responsible for notification?
officers notify radio room supervisor within 1 hour of juvenile arrest.
Special Order 8508:

Juvenile "Arrest" includes 4 dispositions. What are they?
1. transport to Juvenile hall
2. Notice to appear
3. Council and release
4 arrest and release for further investigation.
S.O. 8438:
Members Sued, Arrested, CDL suspension or revocation;
Cited in lieu of arrest,
Served with a civil or administrative process related to their employment or which
contains allegations which rise to the level of a Manual of Rules violation; and
Comes under investigation for any misdemeanor or felony in this or another
jurisdiction shall do what within what time line
Prepare and forward a memo to IAD Commander within 72 hours.
Members prepare and forward a memo to IAD Commander within 72 hours when what 5 things occur?
Sued, Arrested, CDL suspension or revocation;
Cited in lieu of arrest,
Served with a civil or administrative process related to their employment or which
contains allegations which rise to the level of a Manual of Rules violation; and
Comes under investigation for any misdemeanor or felony in this or another
jurisdiction
S.O. 8438:

What shall memo forwarded to IAD contain?
of the incident.
Day, Date, Time, Location of incident;
Involved parties; and
Summarize the circumstances
Special Order 8434:

Personnel conducting an internal investigation shall notify the IAD,
via email (opdiad@oaklandnet.com)within 24 hours whenever one of the following circumstances occurs:
1. A member or employee is added or removed as a subject from aninternal investigation.
2. A Manual of Rules allegation is added or removed from an
internal investigation.
When investigating IAD case, and a member or MOR has been added or removed, when must IAD be notified?
within 24 hours.
MOR 370.18, 370.27:

Any member who observes an improper arrest or excessive force shall report the incident to IAD within
A)Immediately
B)24hrs
C)5 working days
D)48 hrs
E) 72 hrs
24 hrs
MOR 398.76, Accept/Refer complaint:

When accepting a complaint, officer shall deliver________?
comp to supervisor or IAD, or bring sup. to the scene.
M-3;

What is a "serious misdemeanor"?
Any misdemeanor crime that, if convicted, could preclude active law
enforcement personnel, or a member or employee from continuing to
successfully complete their responsibilities.
M-3:

True or false: Members are required to report all misconduct observed;failure to do so is a class 1 offense. Explain.
False: Members are required to report class 1 offenses or class 2 offenses which are patterns of misconduct + class 2 that infringes rights of citizens. May address other class 2 violation themselves.
M-3:

Insubordination is class 1 or 2 offense?
1
M-3: T or False

Supervisors are required in all cases to take a recorded statement from the complainant and visit the scene of the incident to conduct a canvas for evidence and/or witnesses;
False...take a recorded statement "if appropriate" and visit the scene "if necessary."
M-3:

Supervisors, when acepting a complaint, shall confer with the watch commander regarding the prelim inv:
A: as necessary
B: if appropriate
C: in all cases
D: when directed by Communications
in all cases confer with watch commander.
M-3:

What happens in the event a complainant refuses to travel to or wait for a supervisor?
the member or employee shall make all reasonable attempts to obtain complainant and complaint info and forward to supervisor.
M-3:

At their request, what 2 things are comps provided with after filing their complaint?
copy of statement and copy of completed complaint form.
M-3:

IAD investigations shall be completed, reviewed, and ready for a discipline recommendation by the Discipline Officer within ____ days of the IAD Intake Date
90 days
M-3:

Investigators shall endeavor to complete investigations within ____ calendar days from the date of assignment but shall not exceed _____ calendar days unless an extension has been approved by the COP or designee;
endeavor to complete within 30 days, no more than 60 days without COP extension.
M-3:

Investigations - Personnel shall be prohibited from conducting the internal investigation if he/she was directly involved in the incident or if conditions exist between any of the involved parties which _____.
What must investigator do?
lead to a perception of bias.

Investigator completes memo through chain to commander who approves or dissaproves investigator due to perception of bias.
B-6, Performance Appraisal:

Purpose of performance appraisals:
1) To set ____ and _____.
2) Acknowledge _________.
3) Identify and _____ _____.
4) Address individual ______.
1- To set goals and objectives
2- Acknowledge superior work performance
3- Identify and document deficiencies
4- address individual training needs.
B-6, Performance Appraisal:

Sworn and communications dispatcher probationary period is________ months

All other civilian probation is _______ months.
-12 months

- 9 months
B-6:
First-line supervisors shall meet with immediate subordinates how often for a review of their performance. How is meeting documented?
twice per month

documented on performance review form and forwarded to bureau's admin unit.
B-6:
Supervisors required to review "key quantitative work activity measures" such as:
stops, arrests (m and F) and citations.
B-6:

Field Supervisors required to "Assess qualitative aspects" such as: (4 examples)
hot spots, criminal elements, wanted persons, and community interaction to include meeting requirement.
B-6:

When are 12 month probationary reviews due?
5th, 8th, and 11th month
B-6:

how often are sworn in FTO reviewed?
every 3 weeks
B-6:

How often are permanent member, ranger, and employee reviews done following probation>?
Conclusion of each 12-month period ending on date on B-6 chart.
B-6:

Officer Weisenheimer worked for Sgt. Xylose for 10 months of the appraisal year and then was assigned to Sgt. Yippy Skippy. Who completes the review?
His new Sergeant. The supervisor assigned on the last day of the appraisal period completes the review.
B-6:

If member supervised within one year by more than one supervisor, what must be done at review time>?
If other supervision occurred for less than 120 days, consult with other sup and document on appraisal.

If supervision more than 120 days, other sup must complete supplemental in addition to consultation.
B-6:

Officer B is on loan for 90 days or less to Sgt. C's squad on the last day of the appraisal period. Who does his review? What if the loan was for more than 90 days?
loan 90 days or less, regular supervisor does review. More than 90 then current "on loan to" supervisor completes.
B-6:

Officer Jimboy is transferred to Sgt. HeeHaw's squad shortly before his yearly review period ends. Does Heehaw do the review?
Yes...unless review is late, the curent regularly assigned supervisor completes.
B-6:

Who is responsible for completing a trainee officer's review?

A) Sgt.
B) FTO
FTO
B-6:

What shall an appraiser do prior to a member/employee receiving their final probationary appraisal?
prepare an initial performance appraisal outlining the performance goals and objectives for the member/employee that will be evaluated at the time of their first scheduled performance appraisal as a permanent member/employee.
B-6:

Only which section of the Performance Appraisal Form is completed when conducting final probationary appraisal?
"Communicating Expectations"
B-6:

Annual Performance Appraisals are date specific. A supervisor:

(A) Considers past years performance evals
(B) Referances complaints having occurred within the last 3 years
C) Confine the scope of the appraisal to the specified dates.
C) Confine the scope of the appraisal to the specified dates.
B-6:

T or F: narrative comments on the PAF are optional.
False: SHALL include narrative comments, citing specific supporting observations for each entry in the “Organizational Values and Work Habits” and “Performance Objectives” sections.
B-6:

Supervisors are required to consult with unit coordinators or technical experts (K-9, patrol rifle) only when possible performance issues in those areas exist.
FALSE: Supervisers SHALL consult
B-6:

Regarding misconduct complaints, how should supervisors include such complaints, if at all, in a PAF?
Appraisers shall document that they are aware of the nature of the progress of complaints and investigations involving members/employees, but base rating on performance factors and/or behavior and not disciplinary findings.
B-6:

Appraisers shall retain a copy of the PAF and all supporting documentation for a minimum of _______ .
1 year
B-6:

An appraiser reviews a PAF with their immediate superior prior to administering to a subordinate. The superior disagrees. Can the Superior compell change or directly change the PAF?
No. Disagreements should be resolved through discussion. If superior not satisfied then may attach memo to the PAF for inclusion prior to administering to sub.
B-6:

Discussing professionalism and ethics is optional during PAF administering.
False. Supervisors shall minimally discuss the topic.
B-6:

Officer Lois disagrees with his Sgt's assesment on the PAF that he his a "douche bag." Lois has what amount of time to request an official review? What else, besides an official review, can Lois do?
5 business days to advise appraiser that official review is desired.

optionally has 5 business days to attach a memo/comment.
B-6:

What is an "Official Review" regarding PAF?
request within 5 days to review PAF with the appraiser's supervisor.
B-6:

When "official review" requested, which is most accurate?

A) Appraiser has 30 days to meet with superior in order to schedule conference with the subordinate.
B) Superior has 5 days to respond to the subordinate and schedule a meting
C) Superior must meet with subordinate within 30 days of review conference.
C) Appraiser notifies superior as soon as possible and meting takes place within 30 days of original PAF conference.
B-6:

What if a subordinate refuses to sign a PAF?
that fact shall be noted on the PAF by the appraiser.
B-6:
T or F
PAF and original supporting docs are forwarded through chain of command and filed at Personnel Division.
False. Supporting Docs are shredded after DC review. PAF is forwarded to personnel.
B-6:

When personnel are transferred to a new organizational unit, it shall be the responsibility of the new supervisor to: (3 things)
1- Obtain member's PAF from past supervisor for current year.
2- review expectations and objectives with new member
3- devlop any new expectations and objectives
B-6:

The new supervisor of a newly transferred member has _____ days to obtain PAF and "Communicating Expectations" from past supervisor.
15 days.
B-6:
Can a member appeal directly to COP rather than go through official review process.
No. Must first go through process.
B-6:

If "official review process" with appraiser's superior is done, and member still not satisfied, how many days does member have to request COP review? Verbal or written notification?
10 days. In writing.
B-6:
Who attends the COP review hearing for PAF grievances? Who conducts the hearing?
member/employee, appraiser, appraiser's superior, any pertinent others, 3rd party should member or employee request. DC conducts hearing.
B-6:

How many days does DC habve to submit written reccomendation to COP following PAF hearing?
5 days.
B-6:

PAFs shall be retained in the individual’s personnel file for a minimum of:

A) 3 years
B) 2 years
C) 5 years
D) 10 years
Reviews are kept on BOS record for a minimum of 5 years.
OPD MOU:

A member on OTA is eligible for OT compensation on that same day....
False. Cannot work OT while OTA
OPD MOU:

A member on Vacation may work OT on that day.
True. Member may work OT while on vacation paid leave.
B-6, Performance Reviews:

What is the difference between a Performance Review Form (PRF) and a Performance Appraisal Form (PAF)?
PRF completed twice a month by supervisor. PAF completed yearly and serves as formal review.
B-6: How often do commanders complete PRFs for supervisors?
twice a year.
B-6:

When member on loan, which supervisor completes PRF?
Loan Supervisor completes PRF and forwards to subordinates regular Bureau.
B-6:

T or F. All supervisors, when completing PRFs, are required to discuss qualitative and quantitative subjects with subordinates.
False. Only required for officers engaged in the performance of field duties.
G.O. F-7:

How many hours does a member have to report a suspended or revoked license. to whom is notification made and how?
72 hours. IAD by memo.
M-3:

Who attends a discipline conference?
Discipline Officer, the affected Deputy Chief or designee, and other participants within the organizational chain-of-command,
M-3:

Define "Approved Internal Investigation"
processed, completed (investigated with a recommended finding), reviewed, and has been reviewed and signed by the COP or the IAD Commander when designated by the COP.
M-3:

A "Closed" Investigation is synomonous with...
An "Approved Internal Investigation"
M-3:

Define "Completed Internal Investigation"
concluded with a recommended finding, reviewed by the IAD Commander, and is ready for a discipline recommendation
M-3:

Discipline Recommendation
The final discipline recommendation prepared by the Discipline Officer that is to be forwarded to ______ for review and approval.
COP
M3.1: ICR ineligibility
sustained class1 last 12 months or pattern of class 2 misconduct offenses.
M3.1: Service complaints can be Admin Closed without forwarding to COP for review when ICR has failed to resolve.
False. unresolved service complaints shall be forwarded to COP who forwards to affected DC.
M3.1: ICR Distobution - completed ICRs forwarded to:____________
member, comp, DC, COP
M3.1: What is required when CPRB complaint is resolved by OPD via ICR?
Notification to CPRB
M-4:
In the absence of field supervisor or command, who is in command of a crime scene?
Assigned preliminary investigator- primary R/O.
m-4: T or F: Follow-up investigators respnding to a scene must complete supps?
True - all except the primary investigator.
M-4: How is scene commander status determined?

Who makes tactical decisions?
Ranking supervisor or commander is in charge.

Tactical responsibilities rest with ranking BFO member.
Deleted
Deleted
Problem Solving:

Define "Problem: (4 things)
2 or more incidents

Commonalities (location/etc.)

harm or harm potential

concern to community and police
Problem Solving:

What are 3 components of "crime triangle'?
Location, victim, offender
Problem Solving:

SARA is....
Scan

Analysis

Response

Assesment
B-8:
FTO minimum qualifications:
3 years on with min of 2 patrol experience, last 2 year's evals are at least fully effective.
B-8:

FTO selection presumptive disqual: (IAD)
Class 1 sustained = ineligible for 2 years from finding date.
B-8:

FTo program minimum length in weeks?
15
B-8:

If trainee is not ready by end of normal FTO program, and problems can be resolved in a 3 week extension, the SGT does what>>>>
PDN,consult with FTPC, document on weekly progress report...FTPC approves/Denies with sole discretion.
B-8;

2nd 3 week extension procedure:
Sgt. ensures PDN, consults with FTPC, FTPC consults BFO Commander. Commander has discretion. Sgt. documents approval/denial.
B-8: Maximum FTO Program length in weeks?
21
B-8:

Trainee Removal Procedure:
Sgt consults w/ FTPC and BFO Commander. BFO commander approves, trainee placed on paid leave, Chain of command and COP approve, Sgt collects gear and escorts.
B-8:

What gear does SGT retrieve from trainee prior to termination? (7 things)
Star, hat shield, safety equipment, FTO training material, call box key, proximity card, ID card
B-8:

Can a trainee be removed prior to completion/failure of FTO program? Why?
Yes - Removal due to safety concerns (egregious act). same removal procedure.
B-8:

How often does Sgt. meet with FTO trainee?
Weekly meeting with FTO and trainee. If deficienceies then FTPC consult/PDN.
B-8:

What is FTPC required to do prior to trainee rotation to another FTO?
Trainee meeting, opportunity for trainee to raise questions.
B-8;

how often are FTPC/FTo staff meetings conducted?
every 3 weeks when trainees in the field.
B-8;

What advisement must FTPC give trainee at pre-rotation conference?
Misconduct can be reported Conf or Anon
b-8:

Who is required to attend staff meetings?
Ftos currently assigned trainee, FTOs and Sgts receiving trainee during next watch change.
B-8:

Is overtime allowed for FTO staff meetings? Any exceptions?
OT authorized, but not on day off.
B-8:

FTO required reports are?
daily observati0n reports, even when not observed.
B-8:

When are DORs required to be signed by trainee?
Prior to start of next shift.
B-8:

When are DORs required to be signed by Sgt?
prior to start of next work week
B-8; Who completes the weekly progress report?

when are WPRs due?
Patrol Sgt.

At end of week, signed by trainee and forwarded to FTPC no later than start of next week.
B-8:

Trainees are given Personal Interview Questionares prior to end of FTO rotation with what advisement?
IAD confidential or Anon complaint options.
B-8:

Who completes Trainee
Final Evaluation Report (TF-3242)?
Trainee's last assigned FTO at program completion.
Special order 8270:

Patrol wagons enter which side of North County?
6th St.
S.O. 8270:

Females enter which side of North County?
6th St.
What 2 docs are given to OPD upon prisoner acceptance at north County?
Pink CAR and property receipt.

(No direction on what to do with prop receipt)
S.O. 8270:

What does arresting OPD R/O do with pink CAR after North County drop off?
Drop in I/C box.
S.O. 8283:

What shall Police Comm. Supervisors wear?
Blue chevrons
S.O. 8287;

What is printrac code for arrest dissaproval?
SDA
S.O. 8287:

What procedure does field Sgt follow when approving/disapproving arrests?
Advise 997, provide SDA or SAA
S.O. 8287:

may Sgt use MDC for 997 or SAA/SDA dispo?
Sgt "MAY" use MDC for 997, and should use MDC for dispo "whenever feasible"
S.O. 8257:

What is printrak code for arrest approval?
SAA
S.O. 8262:

What CAD code given for transport of civilians?
PT
S.O. 8262: What does "PT" stand for?
"Person Transport'
S.O. 8262:

What are codes for gender and age?
X - male
Y - female
J - juvenile
S.O. 8262:

What if no age code is given by transporting member/employee? "One Lincoln one four, Paul tom Yellow..."
PT assumed to be adult.
S.O. 8262:

How is mileage given?
5 digits including 10th mile (E.G> "5432 point 1")
S.O. 8262:

What info is provided to Comm prior to PT?
“Disposition PT”, gender of the
individual, indicate if the person is a juvenile, purpose of transport,starting location, vehicle’s odometer reading
S.O. 8262:

What info provided to Comm at end of transport/PT?
unit’s call sign, terminal location and vehicle’s odometer reading
S.O. 8282:

Snipers, tactical team, HNR members receive what award after 3years?
TOT (Tactical Operations team) Award
S.O 8295:

what color is RTO pin?
Silver
S.O 8344:

MOR 314.48 - Reporting violations -

What is required to report? Within what time?
Class 1 violations, pattern of class 2, or class 2 which affects rights of citizens/reputation of Dept.

24 hrs or sooner if practical.
S.O 8344:

MOR 314.48 - Reporting violations -

Who does member/employee notify?
Supervisor, unless so grave that chain of command can be skipped and report to COP.
S.O. 8344:

What is discipline for failing to report 314.48 violation?
Severe, up to termination.
S.O. 8346:
T or F
ICR, per M-3.1, includes formal discipline asa result of informal resolution.
False.
S.O. 8360:

MOR 314.28 - Self Notification

What is required to report?
Sued, arrested, cited (in place of arrest), served with process relating to employment or containing allegations, or comes under investigation of misdemeanor or felony
MOR 314.28 - Self Notification

how long to notify?
72 hours
MOR 314.28 - Self Notification

Process of reporting?
Memo through chain to IAD commander and then forward to COP.
S.O. 8346:

Any officer witness to an improper arrest has how long to report? to who?
24 hours, to IAD.
314.48 - reporting violations:

Process for reporting observations/knowledge within 24 hours or sooner when practical?
orally or in writing to supervisor.
S.O. 8360:

Any member witness or encountering excessive force shall do what?
Report to IAD within 24 hours.
MOR 398.73: Retaliation Against Witnesses.

Discipline Matrix?
Termination
MOR 398.74: Retaliation, Accountability:

Supervisors may be held accountable for failure to act or report?
Yes
MOR 398.76 - Failure to accept or refer complaint

What must you do "upon request?"
transport to supervisor or IAD, or summon supervisor to the scene.
S.O. 8369

What 2 changes to ICR form were made?
- incident time box

- Recontact comp to ensure no undue influence
S.O. 8408 Supervisors inspect subordinates vehicles how often?
Regularly, as scheduled by unit commanders.
S.O.S.O. 8408 - Vehicle Inspections
Members inspect vehicles how often? Procedure for inspecting vehicles?
What if no complaint forms in vehicle?
Before departing transpo area.
utilize Vehicle Inspection Checklist. Mark lack of IAD forms in "other" box on checklist and remark on corrective action.
S.O. 8434:
When adding or removing subject officer or MOR during DLI, what shall be done within what time?
Notify IAD within 24 hours?
B-8: FTO Selection criteria

FTO candidates should not have an excessive amount of use of force incidents or complaints within the past

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 18 months
2 years
S.O. 8435: Acting Sgt. Selection -
Same as B-8 (FTO Selection) but IAD complaint history within last 2 years states :sustained or "not sustained" instead of "allegations" and "sustained."
S.O. 8435:

Before member may be Acting Sgt, he/she must attend:
OPD 40 hour supervisor transition course.
S.O. 8435:

Who may appoint an Acting Sgt?
Watch Commander or Division/Unit Commander
S>O. 8438:

Members/Employees are required to notify IAD Commander when license is suspended or revoked?
True?
MOR 314.28:

Within what time are employees/members required to notify IAD Commander in cases of Self Reporting/Notification?
72 hours
S>O. 8438-MOR 314.28:

how is Self Reporting made?
memo - verbal or other means unacceptable.
What is procedure for reporting violations? Oral or memo?
Either.
S.O. 8508:

officers must advise Communications (YSD Intake?) within ______ of taking juvenile into custody.

A. immediately
B. 2 hours
C. 1 hour
D. 30 minutes before 908A.
1 hour
S.O. 8508:

"Juvenile Custody is defined as : (4 circumstances)
Sent to Juvie, NTA issued, Counseled and released, Arrested and released for further investigation.
S.O. 8515:

When is the black T-shirt required?
1 Aug 07
B-8:

Is shadowing authorized?
No - FTOS must supervise trainees at all times.
K-5:
In all cases, the _____commander shall be subordinate to the
_____commander in terms of when and if tactical options will be initiated, not how they will be performed.
TOT commander is sub to Inc. Commander.
K-5:
TOT may be deployed to nearby jurisdictions for service of OPD warrants with the approval of _______
COP or DC.
K-5:
When TOT is deployed, they shall be under the command and control of the _______ Commander
TOT Commander
K-5:
The Tactical Operations Team may be activated at the discretion of the _______ or _______ commander who is on the scene and assumes Incident
Command.
Watch or Area Commander
K-5:
Who may authorize TOT for outside agency service of waarant in Oakland assist when that agency lacks own TOT resources or other good reason?
DC
K-5:

Define Red lIght and green light:
Red: No firing except in immediate defense of life

Green Light: Fire upon a designated target if an
opportunity presents itself.
K-5:

TOT will only be deployed outside City for unplanned incidents upon approval of ___, ___, or if unavaiilable, the _____ Commander.
COP, DC, or if unavaiilable, the watch Commander.
K-6:
Modifications to the Patrol Rifle are not authorized unless specifically approved in writing by the _________

A. Patrol Rifle Coordinator
B. SOD Commander
C. COP
D. Gary Busey
COP
k-6:

T or F: Rifles shall not be used to dispatch animals
True.
K-6:

When can patrol rifles be used as entry weapons?
Supervisor Approval and extreme conditions present.
TB III-W:

Officers will not arrest/cite cannibis owners when what 3 conditions met?
1. Status as Caregiver or Patient

2. Amount of Cannabis lawful (3lbs dried per patient)(72 indoor plants or 20 outdoor)

3. The person signs a written statement admitting ownership, possession, and amount.
TB III-W:

No medical–cannabis–related arrests will be effected without the consultation and approval of a __________.
Command officer.
TB III-T:

Truants may not be transpoted:

A. In caged vehicle
B. More than 1 at a time
C. Against their will
D. in patrol wagon.
D
T OR f

a TRUANT MUST CONSENT TO PATDOWN?
tRUE
Officers who detain a youth who is believed to be truant shall complete a(n):

A. Ass. Card
B. 300 W&I 950
C. Truant Card
D. none, but parent notification required
Truancy Contact Card.
Truancy: Officer believes j is truant. Attempt to contact is made and j flees S/B into yards.
no pursuit or chase unless crime involved.
TB III-J.1:

Only landlord can be charged with misdemeanor for overcrowding. t or F
F. the landlord must not permit overcrowding and the tenant must not overcrowd - both are punishable.
TB III-J.1:
The City holds the landlord responsible for all repairs by law:
A. unless verbal agreement
B. unless written agreement
C. Court determines fault.
D. In all cases regardless of agreement.
D
TB III-J.1:

When a problem needs to be repaired and no emergency exists, landlord is allowed ___ days to fix.
30 days for non emergency repairs.
Officers who detain a youth who is believed to be truant shall complete a(n):

A. Ass. Card
B. 300 W&I 950
C. Truant Card
D. none, but parent notification required
Truancy Contact Card.
Truancy: Officer believes j is truant. Attempt to contact is made and j flees S/B into yards.

SHOULD YOU CHASE?
no pursuit or chase unless crime involved.
TB III-J.1:

Only landlord can be charged with misdemeanor for overcrowding. t or F
F. the landlord must not permit overcrowding and the tenant must not overcrowd - both are punishable.
TB III-J.1:
The City holds the landlord responsible for all repairs by law:
A. unless verbal agreement
B. unless written agreement
C. Court determines fault.
D. In all cases regardless of agreement.
D
TB III-J.1:

When a problem needs to be repaired and no emergency exists, landlord is allowed ___ days to fix.
30 days for non emergency repairs.
TB III-O:

Personal Inviolability means:
Diplomat may not be handcuffed, detained, arrested, searched, seized in any capacity (affects, etc.)
TB II-B.2


High risk Vehicle Stop defined:
A high risk vehicle stop is a vehicle stop of a person or personssuspected of having committed a serious crime.
TB II-B.2

High Risk Vehicle Stop 4 steps are:
1. Following the Suspect Vehicle
2. Choosing a Location to Stop the Suspect Vehicle
3. Stopping the Suspect Vehicle
4. Removing One or More Suspects from the Suspect Vehicle
TB II-B.2

Following high risk vehicle stop and no cover present yet - If vehicle pulls over before you initiate:
order the driver to turn the vehicle off and order all occupants to raise their hands and not move.
Stop and wait for cover to arrive before continuing with the high–risk stop.
TB II-B.2

If the choice for location of stop is reduced between a lighted, populated area and an unlighted, unpopulated area, the R/O should choose:
the officer should
choose the unlighted, unpopulated area in most instances.
III B.2:

Optimum vehicle position for high risk stop is:
15-45 feet behind and 3 feet to the left...slight angle inward.
III B.2:

Optimum vehicle position for cover car in high risk stop is:
the cover officer parks
next to and six–to–eight feet to the left
of the primary officer’s patrol car.
TB VIII-J:

Which of the following regarding News media Relations is incorrect?

A.Local media representatives carry OPD press cards but press credentials issued by other law enforcement agencies or by a newspaper, magazine, television, or
radio station should also be recognized.

B. During emergency conditions, a press parking pass allows press vehicles to park in a green zone or in a
metered parking space or posted parking zone in excess of the time allowed by ordinance.

C. If an officer doubts the validity of a media representative’s credentials, the officer may investigate and issue a citation if warranted.

D.At a disaster scene, an officer has the authority to restrict the access of reporters only when their
presence would impede rescue efforts.
C. - If in doubt, refer to on scene commander.
TB VIII-J:

Jail interviews;

Which of the following are not reasons why an interview would not be granted at the jail?

• The prisoner exercises his/her right to refuse to talk to the press.
• An investigator instructs the Jail Division not to allow an interview in order to preserve the
confidentiality of an ongoing investigation.
• An insufficient number of staff members are available to satisfy security and safety con-cerns.
In such cases, an interview may be postponed or cancelled.
• The prisoner is dangerous but does not pose a threat to the security of the jail.
• The prisoner is dangerous but does not pose a threat to the security of the jail
OPOA MOU:
Leave without pay - maximum days:
180
OPOA MOU: External complaints shall be removed from personell file if not pattern of subsequent complaints, after ____ years.
5
Standby pay is ____ hour for each hour on standby
$1.00
K9 handlers shall be deemed to have spent ____ hours OT per month.
15
TB IV-E.1:

Who is the victim in child abduction statutes?
Custodial Parent or entity - not the child
TB IV-E.1:

If multiple jurisdictions present, who has primary reporting responsibility in child abduction cases?
city or jurisdiction where the victim lives.
O-2;
What age child may be transported via wagon?
12 and up
O-2:
Prisoners in wheelchairs are transported directly to Santa rita? T or F.
True
O-2;

Males and Females shall never be transported together. T or F.
False; In non-compartmentalized wagons, adults may be transported together regardless of sex.
Juveniles of opposite sex may never be transported together. T or F.
False; Juveniles in custody for 300 may be transported together regardless of sex.
O-2:

During transport, what, if any, restrictions are there for prisoner commuication?
Right to communicate (attorney, family, etc.)shall not be excercised during transport.
TB II:

Define Nonfeasance
Failure to perform official or legal required act
TB II:

Define: malfeasance
evil doing, An illegal act by officer under color of law
TB II:


Misfeasance:
Lawful act in an unlawful manner
TB IV-E:

4 types of child abuse are:
physical , sexual , child neglect, and emotional maltreatment.
TB IV-E:

What is the leading cause of death of physical child–abuse victims.
Shaken–Infant Syndrome
TB IV-E:
273D PC:
any cruel or inhuman corporal punishment or injury visited
upon a child which results in a traumatic condition. Wobbler
TB IV-E:
288(a) PC:
an overt act to be committed with a child under fourteen years of age with the specific intent to arouse, appeal to, or gratify the lust, passions, or sexual desires of the perpetrator or the child. Felony
TB IV-E:

647.6 PC - victim is what age or under?
Annoyance or Molestation of a Child Under Age 18. No touching required. Misdemeanor, but Felony if certain prior sex convictions.
TB IV-E:

________ caused by blunt force or compression are the most common fractures found as
a result of child abuse.
Rib fractures
TB IV-E:

Welfare and Institutions Code Sections
300:
601:
602:
300: child is victim of
some form of abuse or neglect

601: child who demonstrates incorrigible behavior.

602: child who demonstrates criminal behavior.
TB IV-E:

T or F. In most cases, an officer responding to the scene of child abuse should obtain a complete and detailed statement from the victim.
False: In the majority of cases, an officer conducting a preliminary investigation needs to obtain only a
probable cause statement from the victim.
TB IV-E: Penal Code Sections 11166 and 11172 make it a crime for a peace officer not to report suspected
child abuse. How many hours are given for report completion by law?
24
TB III-S:

What are the 1st and 2nd most commonly police presence suspect ingested drugs in oakland?
1 - crack
2- heroin
TB III-S:

When using force to recover narcotics, officers should evaluate ________
whether the effort required to
obtain the narcotics is proportionate to the amount of narcotics to be recovered.
TB III-S:

Any technique which involves the ______ of a suspect is likely to result in suppression of the evidence obtained and is against Department policy.
“choking”
TB III-S:

If a suspect appears to have ingested only a small amount of narcotic: (2 minimum requirements)
1: Monitor condition and advise jail staff

2: Document presence or absence of symptoms w/ suspect statement if possible.
TB III-S:

If an officer is unable to determine the amount of narcotics the suspect ingested
and/or the suspect is clearly not being truthful about his or her narcotics ingestion,
the officer should call an ambulance or transport to take the suspect to a medical
facility for evaluation and treatment.
TB III-S:

Whenever an officer is in doubt about a suspect’s medical condition due to the
ingestion of narcotics,
the officer shall call an ambulance.
Tb V-A:

What are 4 steps after being pricked by needle?
1. milk blood from wound
2. wash
3. complete contagious disease report
4. Seek med attention.
GC 3303

Punitive action is defined as:
A. Dismissal, Suspension
B. Dismissal, Fines, Suspension
C. Reduction in salary, dismissal, and suspension
D.demotion, written reprimand, or transfer
E. all of the above excluding fines
E.
GC 3303

Interogations should be done when (time):
reasonable hours, preferably on-duty hours, normal waking hours of employee.
GC 3303
Interrogation can last no longer than

A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours with necessary breaks allowed
C. length of time member is willing to endure
D. Reasonable amount of time, taking into account the complexity and gravity of investigation
D
K-4:

Personnel shall notify his/her supervisor immediately as soon as practical: (Which situation is incorrect?
1. of any use of force
2. allegation of a use of force, when use of force occurred
3. an allegation of unreasonable force.
4. when level 1 through 4 use of force occurred
2. (You shall Notify when there is allegation of force whether occurred or not.)
K-4:

Supervisors are not required to respond to the scene for which level of use of force
1
2
3
4
level 4
K-4:

When notified of an allegation of a use of force and the member/employee denies using force,what does supervisor do?
Respond to scene and investigate
K-4:
When no corroborating evidence of use of force, and member denies using force alleged, what must supervisor do?
Prepare and submit RMM
K-4:
When corroborating evidence of use of force exists, and member denies using force alleged, what must supervisor do?

Level 1, 2, or 3 investigation?
Level 2 + initiate IAD investigation per M-3
K-4:
If any force investigation indicates misconduct, the supervisor or commander
shall conduct, at a minimum,
conduct which level investigation?
2
K-4:

If any force investigation indicates criminal misconduct, the supervisor or
commander shall conduct, at a minimum,level 1,2,or 3 investigation?
2
K-4:

What shall members do when a subject has visible injuries or the subject has a complaint of injury.

A. Notify supervisor
B. Assess injury for seriousness and request or transport to medical if required.
C. Request medical services after subject has been interviewed by supervisor when injuries are not life threaetening
D. Rerquest medical services without delay.
D
K-4:

Personnel may delay compliance with the provisions of this order if the scene is unstable, there is community unrest, or other conditions make immediate
compliance impracticable. What, however, must supervisor do then?
Document reason in Use of Force Report
K-4:
"Serious bodily injuries" are defined as:
Any use of force resulting in the loss of consciousness; and
Protracted loss, impairment, serious disfigurement, or function
of any bodily member or organ (includes paralysis).
K-4:

Any unintentional firearms discharge, except at a range, is what level investigation
1
K-4:

Officer Steaksauce strikes a one legged old lady in the head with hammerfist. What level force investigation occurs? (old lady was not injured - no complaint of pain)
2
K-4:

Carotid restraint is applied that does not result in the loss of consciousness; What level force investigation occurs?
2
K-4:
Carotid restraint is applied that does result in the loss of consciousness. What level force investigation occurs?
1
K-4:
Any intentional impact weapon strike to the head. What level force investigation occurs?
1
K-4: Taser push stun or darts penetrate. What level force investigation?
2
K-4
Flashlight strike to arm. What level force investigation?
2
K-4
K-9 bite to clothing...no contact with skin is made. What level force
investigation?
2
K-4:

Any use of force which results in injuries to the subject requiring emergency medical treatment (beyond first-aid) or hospital
admittance.What level force
investigation?
2
K-4:

hand/palm/elbow strikes, kicks, leg sweeps, takedowns to the head is what level force investigation?
2
K-4:

hand/palm/elbow strikes, kicks, leg sweeps, takedowns to the body is what level force investigation?
3
K-4:

OC is what level force investigation?
3
K-4:

A taser misses the subject - is what level force investigation? What if it hits clothing but misses the skin?
3. If penetrated clothing but misses the skin then level 2
K-4:

The baton is used for a non-striking purpose is what level force investigation?
3
K-4:

impact weapon misses is what level?
3
K-4:

firearm discharge at animal is what level (excluded dispatch of injured animal)>
3
K-4:

An on-duty firearm discharge to dispatch an injured animal is what level force investigation?
4
K-4:

A twist lock for the purpose of handcuffing which does not
result in injury is what level force investigation?
None
K-4:

Handcuffed/Non-Handcuffed Escorts which do not result in
injury or complaint of injury require which level use of force inv?
none
K-4:

A Weaponless Defense Technique is applied to a Vulnerable Area,
excluding strikes (e.g., hair grab, pressure to mastoid or jaw line,
shoulder muscle grab);is what level force investigation?
4
K-4:

Level 1 Supervisor responsibilities are:
1. Respnd to scene
2. Crime Scene Security Log
3. Watch Commander has been notified
4.Public Safety Statement
5. Coordinate the preliminary investigation with the IAD and Homicide
6. Separate and prohibit communication between involved personnel and
witnesses.
K-4:

Supervisors ensure crime security logs are delivered to IAD, Watch Commander or Homicide?
Homicide
K-4:

Involved or witness personell shall complete crime or supp reports by the end of tour of duty except when time extended by:
A. Supervisor
B. Watch Commander
C. Incident Commander
D. Supervisor assigned to complete U of F Report
B. Watch Commander
K-4:

Members shall_________to the scene in the event a
witness refuses to give a statement or provide identification
information.
summon supervisor
K-4:

Level 2 investigation require written or recorded statements from involved and witness personell. T or F.
False. "if necessary" for witness and involved personell
K-4:

Level 2 investigation require written or recorded statements from suspect. T or F.
True
K-4:

Which statement regarding Level 2 investigations is not accurate?

A. Photographs of the scene are required
B. Written or recorded statement from suspect/subject is required
C. Photos of subject only when injuries are visible required
D. Conduct a reasonable canvas
C. Photos of subject required to document absence or presence of injuries.
K-4:

The minimum information required for Offense or supplemental reports is all but one of the following:
a. The original reason for police presence on the scene;
b. The circumstances that resulted in the use of force;
c. The precipitating act(s) leading to the use of force; and
d. A detailed description of the force used.
e. whether lesser level of force could have been used by member
E. This is required in the analysis of UOF report - not crime or supp.
K-4:

By what time is emailed face sheet required to be sent for level 2 investigations?
A. 24 hrs
B by end of duty
C next business day
D. 48 hrs or two calendar days
prior to the end of tour of duty:
K-4:

Where is face sheet emailed by the end of the tour of duty? (3 locations)
IAD, BFO Admin, COP
K-4:Forward the approved Use of Force Report packet through the chain-of-
review within:
A. 72 hours
B. 2 calendar days
C. 3 calendar days
D. 4 calendar days
within four (4) calendar days of the incident.
K-4:


Use of Force reports should contain the a)originals or b)copies of crime reports and ancillary documents?
Copies
K-4:

Copies of the Use of Force Report packet are retained for supervisory
files until:
documented in the member/employee’s annual performance
appraisal.
K-4:

If Watch Lt. is not on duty, and Use of force report submitted through chain, what should Sgt. do?
forward directly to Watch Commander.
K-4:

Level 3 recorded or written statements of suspect/subject are required. t or F
False. "when
possible."
K-4:

Level 3 investigation requires photographs just as in level 2> t or F
T
K-4:

Level 2 and 3 investrigations require Crime or Sup reports from involved, witness, and assisting personell. t or F.
True
K-4:
packet.
K-4:

When are level 2 and 3 Use of force reports required to be submitted for review?
Within 4 calander days
K-4:

Name 4 requirements contained in Use of force or supplemntal:
a. The original reason for police presence on the scene;
b. The circumstances that resulted in the use of force;
c. The precipitating act(s) leading to the use of force; and
d. A detailed description of the force used.
K-4:

Which level force investigation does not require witness identification?
4
D-17

Can personell access their own PAS data?
Yes, OPD personnel shall be afforded access to their own PAS file through
their immediate supervisor/commander/manager or the PAS Coordinator.
D-17

PAS info exists for what length of time?
(5) years unless law or policy mandates a different time
period.
D-17

Supervisors shall review PAS when?
prior to conducting
the Twice-Monthly Performance Review.
D-17

The 3 components of PAS are:

A. Identification,
Disposition, and Follow-up.
B. identification, Assessment, and Disposition
C. Analysis, Identification, and follow-up
D. Identification, Plan, and Action
A. Identification,
Disposition, and Follow-up.
D-17

PAS thresholds are measured in a ________ period.

A. 30 Day
B. 30 month
c. 2 year
d. 18 month
30 month
D-17

Given a single event threshold occurence, who does the supervisor notify?
Dicuss with member and notify DC through chain
D-17

When is PAS report due from supervisor?
within 15 days of notification. (review is completed within 15 days)
D-17

What approach is reccomended for PAS supervisor handling?
SARA model
I-14:

Supervisors shall check the FBR grid _________ to ensure reports are properly processed.

A. Weekly
B. Daily
C. When notified by subordinate of completed report
D. B and C
D. Check server daily and approve/fibnalize subordinate reports when notified.
M-5

A case evaluation report shall be completed when:

1. requesting a complaint from the District Attorney’s Office, whether or not a suspect is in custody.

2. requesting a complaint from the District
Attorney’s Office, whjen a suspect is in custody.

3. Whenever releasing a person per 849b.

4. both 3 and 1
4. When requesting a complaint or 849b
M-5

CERs are routed and filed how (4 locations)
COP, Pers and train Div, reporting officer through chain, and cas file