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883 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path B. to avoid congestion on the ISL C. to separate out FSPF updates D. to provide a management path |
A
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An application administrator seeks to improve the I/O performance of the server's SAN-attached storage. Which HBA parameter setting change can affect the performance
A. Queue Depth B. PCI Connection Type C. NL-Port Mode D. SCSI ID Mapping |
A
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There are two datacenters separated by twelve (12) km with IP connections linking the two sites. Site A is the primary production site, Site B is for test/development & disaster recovery. Site A synchronously replicates data to Site B for disaster recovery purposes via a merged SAN fabric between the two sites. The communication between the two sites is lost. What storage event will occur as a result of this?
A. SAN Fabric will do a build fabric following segmentation B. SAN Fabric applications will stop executing I/O C. SAN Fabric will do a reconfigure fabric following segmentation D. SAN and non-SAN disk I/O will be halted |
A
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What is a shared communication infrastructure device to which nodes on a multi-points bus or loop are physically connected?
A. Hub B. Switch C. Gateway D. Managed switch |
A
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Which storage management component typically contains proprietary interfaces and is vendor supplied?
A. Device manager B. Logical data manager C. Storage network manager D. Network management system |
A
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Which utility typically enables abstraction of storage within a server?
A. LVM B. Switch zoning C. SAN appliance D. SMI-S monitoring tool |
A
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Which Fibre Channel topology was initially introduced as a replacement for physical SCSI?
A. FC_AL B. FDDI C. Point-to-point D. Switched Fabric |
A
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Company.com's application and database will be rehosted and the underlying SCSI storage with an FC array. The new system's O/S, volume manager, application and database are incompatible, requiring many upgrades. Which action would you recommend?
A. Upgrade existing storage using host level migration. B. Create a snapshot replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test. C. Create a split mirror replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test. D. Upgrade exist host to current volume manager, application and database levels and then migrate to new host using NDMP. |
A
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Company.com needs to implement a high availability model for its mission critical datA. Cost is important, but the solution must meet the following criteria:
1) Data can never be offline for more than 10 minutes, even after a failure 2) Databases must be on line during backups. 3) The company is using RAID 5 and must guard against double disk failure Which option is the most cost effective strategy and fulfils the constraints? A. Create a split mirror snapshot and use as a hot backup B. Create a copy on write snapshot and use as a hot backup C. Create a split mirror snapshot and backup the snapshot to tape D. Create a copy on write snapshot and backup the snapshot to tape |
A
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Company.com is creating a backup and recovery plan using split mirror technology. Which order of steps must be taken to ensure a consistent and restartable backup of data?
A. Quiesce application, flush buffers, split mirrors, backup data B. Split mirrors, quiesce application, flush buffers, backup data C. Split mirrors, flush buffers, quiesce application, backup data D. Flush buffers, quiesce application, split mirrors, backup data |
A
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Which standard defines a programming framework for implementing storage applications, including storage pooling, data replication and virtualization between heterogeneous storage systems?
A. FAIS B. FIPS C. FC-VI D. FC-GS |
A
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Which type of storage management product supports some standards such as SNMP agents and telnet interfaces, as well as provides front and rear device views with status?
A. Device manager B. Logical data manager C. Storage network manager D. Network management system |
A
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What is the maximum distance of 9 micrometer singlemode fiber a 1300nm longware laser at 4
A. > 50k meters B. 10k meters C. 5 k meters D. 2k meters |
A
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How many zone sets can be active in a fabric at a single time?
A. one B. two C. three D. unlimited |
A
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You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path B. to avoid congestion on the ISL C. to separate out FSPF updates D. to provide a management path |
A
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An application administrator seeks to improve the I/O performance of the server's SAN-attached storage. Which HBA parameter setting change can affect the performance
A. Queue Depth B. PCI Connection Type C. NL-Port Mode D. SCSI ID Mapping |
A
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There are two datacenters separated by twelve (12) km with IP connections linking the two sites. Site A is the primary production site, Site B is for test/development & disaster recovery. Site A synchronously replicates data to Site B for disaster recovery purposes via a merged SAN fabric between the two sites. The communication between the two sites is lost. What storage event will occur as a result of this?
A. SAN Fabric will do a build fabric following segmentation B. SAN Fabric applications will stop executing I/O C. SAN Fabric will do a reconfigure fabric following segmentation D. SAN and non-SAN disk I/O will be halted |
A
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What is a shared communication infrastructure device to which nodes on a multi-points bus or loop are physically connected?
A. Hub B. Switch C. Gateway D. Managed switch |
A
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Which storage management component typically contains proprietary interfaces and is vendor supplied?
A. Device manager B. Logical data manager C. Storage network manager D. Network management system |
A
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Which utility typically enables abstraction of storage within a server?
A. LVM B. Switch zoning C. SAN appliance D. SMI-S monitoring tool |
A
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Which Fibre Channel topology was initially introduced as a replacement for physical SCSI?
A. FC_AL B. FDDI C. Point-to-point D. Switched Fabric |
A
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Company.com's application and database will be rehosted and the underlying SCSI storage with an FC array. The new system's O/S, volume manager, application and database are incompatible, requiring many upgrades. Which action would you recommend?
A. Upgrade existing storage using host level migration. B. Create a snapshot replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test. C. Create a split mirror replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test. D. Upgrade exist host to current volume manager, application and database levels and then migrate to new host using NDMP. |
A
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Company.com needs to implement a high availability model for its mission critical datA. Cost is important, but the solution must meet the following criteria:
1) Data can never be offline for more than 10 minutes, even after a failure 2) Databases must be on line during backups. 3) The company is using RAID 5 and must guard against double disk failure Which option is the most cost effective strategy and fulfils the constraints? A. Create a split mirror snapshot and use as a hot backup B. Create a copy on write snapshot and use as a hot backup C. Create a split mirror snapshot and backup the snapshot to tape D. Create a copy on write snapshot and backup the snapshot to tape |
A
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Company.com is creating a backup and recovery plan using split mirror technology. Which order of steps must be taken to ensure a consistent and restartable backup of data?
A. Quiesce application, flush buffers, split mirrors, backup data B. Split mirrors, quiesce application, flush buffers, backup data C. Split mirrors, flush buffers, quiesce application, backup data D. Flush buffers, quiesce application, split mirrors, backup data |
A
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Which standard defines a programming framework for implementing storage applications, including storage pooling, data replication and virtualization between heterogeneous storage systems?
A. FAIS B. FIPS C. FC-VI D. FC-GS |
A
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Which type of storage management product supports some standards such as SNMP agents and telnet interfaces, as well as provides front and rear device views with status?
A. Device manager B. Logical data manager C. Storage network manager D. Network management system |
A
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Which storage administration policy association is appropriate in an SMI-S enabled environment if an online application will be supported by a large database?
A. An OLTP policy with the database at the policy client B. An OLAP policy with the database at the policy client C. An OLTP policy with the database at the policy provider D. An OLAP policy with the database at the policy provider |
A
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Given that devices used in the backup are accessed using fully independent paths through the fabric and ports at the array. Which backup strategy has the least impact on perform the most improved availability to a production application running in an active/standby cluster?
A. backup at the standby host from a split-mirror point-in-time copy. B. backup ata the primary host from a snapshot of a clone point-in-time copy C. backup a the standby host from a delta-snapshot of the production disks D. backup at the primary host from a multi-point snapshot of the production disks |
A
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In Fibre Channel, what does the port type NL mean?
A. Node Loop B. Node Link C. Node Long D. Node LISM |
A
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Which RAID levels combine mirroring and striping?
A. RAID 0/1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 4 D. RAID 5 |
A
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Which device enables a Fibre Channel host to connect to a parallel legacy SCSI storage device?
A. Fibre Channel bridge B. SCSI extender C. Fibre Channel Director D. Fibre Channel Switch |
A
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You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path B. to avoid congestion on the ISL C. to separate out FSPF updates D. to provide a management path |
A
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Which set of SCSI components are required to support SCSI command tag queuing?
A. adapter, adapter driver, device, device driver B. adapter, device, device driver C. adapter, device driver, controller, controller firmware D. device, device driver |
A
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A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem. The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA B. Disk HBAs C. Tape Drives D. FC to SCSI Gateway |
A
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A server administrator notices when a specific server is re-booted its SAN storage is sometimes visible and sometimes it is not. After examining the SAN switch logs, no FLOGI message has been received on that port. Which HBA parameter is a most likely cause
A. Port Link/Speed is set to Autonegotiate. B. WWPN reset timeout is set too low. C. R_A_TOV does not match. D. HBA Port Type is set to E-Port |
A
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Which portion of the 24-bit (aabbcc) fibre channel address identifies the domain ID?
A. aa B. cc C. aabb D. bbcc |
A
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You have noticed some unusual behavior in your storage environment. You need to troubleshoot the problem and review the available options there are to resolve the issues and to restore stability. What will restore stability to the environment?
A. Install system upgrades promptly after successful testing. B. Align applications to information policy management requirements. C. Limit collaboration with other organizations with similar storage networks and configurations. D. An annual security audit should be performed and system logs should be scrutinized for unusual activity. |
A
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You are looking at a Fibre Channel trace log and you notice that the class 2 communication session between one initiator and target continually stops and then restarts. You suspect that there is a flow control problem between this pair of devices. Which login communication session would you analyze in the trace log for the number of flow control credits that have been allocated?
A. port login B. loop login C. fabric login D. process login |
A
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A customer has deployed redundant switched fabrics in a HA environment which also includes non-HA, single-attached test servers. A new project requires additional connectivity for new HA servers to be placed into production, but there are not enough free ports available in one of the existing fabrics to complete the HA deployment. Which option would allow for the addition of the new hosts while maintaining the redundant infrastructure at least cost?
A. Add a new switch to the problem fabric to increase available ports on the switches. B. Add a new switch to both fabrics to increase available ports on the switches. C. Add ISL's between the existing fabrics to leverage all available ports on the switches. D. Cascade the existing switches into a new director class switch and add the hosts to the director. |
A
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What is a concern when removing media from service?
A. data on media should be erased B. data on media should be archived C. tapes should be archived D. management information should be sanitized |
A
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Which conflict would cause fabric segmentation?
A. zone content mismatch B. only one zone set activated C. E_Ports not included in zone set D. inconsistent ISL zone configuration |
A
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What is a shared communication infrastructure device to which nodes on a multi-points bus or loop are physically connected?
A. Hub B. Switch C. Gateway D. Managed switch |
A
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Which SMI-S related acronym describes an object-oriented description of the entities and relationships in a business management environment, divided into core and common models?
A. CIM B. SRM C. DRM D. DMTF |
A
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Company.com's application and database will be rehosted and the underlying SCSI storage with an FC array. The new system's O/S, volume manager, application and database are incompatible, requiring many upgrades. Which action would you recommend?
A. Upgrade existing storage using host level migration. B. Create a snapshot replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test. C. Create a split mirror replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test. D. Upgrade exist host to current volume manager, application and database levels and then migrate to new host using NDMP. |
A
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Company.com needs to implement a high availability model for its mission critical datA. Cost is important, but the solution must meet the following criteria: 1) Data can never be offline for more than 10 minutes, even after a failure 2) Databases must be on line during backups. 3) The company is using RAID 5 and must guard against double disk failure Which option is the most cost effective strategy and fulfils the constraints?
A. Create a split mirror snapshot and use as a hot backup B. Create a copy on write snapshot and use as a hot backup C. Create a split mirror snapshot and backup the snapshot to tape D. Create a copy on write snapshot and backup the snapshot to tape |
A
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Company.com's application and database will be rehosted and the underlying SCSI storage Subsystem replaced with an FC array. The new system's O/S, volume manager, application and database are incompatible, requiring many upgrades. Which action would you recommend?
A. Upgrade existing storage using host level migration B. Create a snapshot replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test C. Create a split mirror replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test D. Upgrade existing host to current volume manager, application and database levels and then migrate to new host using NDMP |
A
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You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path B. to avoid congestion on the ISL C. to separate out FSPF updates D. to provide a management path |
A
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Which storage administration policy association is appropriate in an SMI-S enabled environment if an online application will be supported by a large database?
A. An OLTP policy with the database at the policy client B. An OLAP policy with the database at the policy client C. An OLTP policy with the database at the policy provider D. An OLAP policy with the database at the policy provider |
A
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Which device enables a Fibre Channel host to connect to a parallel legacy SCSI storage device?
A. Fibre Channel bridge B. SCSI extender C. Fibre Channel Director D. Fibre Channel Switch |
A
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From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A. In the event of loss of power at the primary data center B. When an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system C. In the event of litigation D. When a user accidentally deletes an important email |
A
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What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer fiber witch a 850nm shortware laser at 1 Gbps?
A. 500 meters B. 300 meters C. 150 meters D. 70 meters |
A
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Which is considered tier 2 storage in a datacenter with Three (3) storage tier?
A. tape vault B. Fibre channel disk array with dual controllers C. Nearline Storage D. intelligent storage virtualization |
A
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Which connectivity types are associated with block level access?
A. DAS and SAN B. NAS and SAN C. LAN and SAN D. NAS and DAS |
A
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You must implement a backup infrastructure for a remote office. This office has enough data to fill a single tape each night. You can remotely schedule and control your backup server backups throughout the night. The staff at this site is not technical and will not touch the equipment. You only need to store the last five days worth of data these tapes. What solution purchase and administrative costs?
A. Deploy a tape autoloader with enough tape slots to support a new tape for each night B. Deploy a set of five individual tape drives to the backup server each with a tape preloaded then rotate the tape drive you use each night. C. Deploy a tape library with multiple tape drives to ensure quick backup and enough tape slots to support a new tape each night. D. Deploy a single direct attached tape drive to the backup server and instruct onsite personnel how to swap tapes to ensure a new blank tape is available each night. |
A
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Which activity is performed by a storage device manager?
A. logical unit number (LUN) masking B. Volume group configuration C. File system configuration D. name server management |
A
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What is the function of zoning?
A. Allows certain N ports to be visible to each other B. Allows certain logical units to be visible to a HBA C. Defines Which path data will take through the network D. Allows certain logical units mounted to the host |
A
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How many zone sets can be active in a fabric at a single time?
A. one B. two C. three D. unlimited |
A
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Which can be included in a zone?
A. WWPN B. E ports C. Name Server D. Logical Units |
A
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In Fibre Channel, what does the port type NL mean?
A. Node Loop B. Node Link C. Node Long D. Node LISM |
A
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Which RAID levels combine mirroring and striping?
A. RAID 0/1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 4 D. RAID 5 |
A
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What two (2) benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)
A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel E. determines queue depth position |
A,B
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In an FC SAN environment, what are two ways to protect data on an array connected by a switch
to multiple hosts? (Choose two) A. LUN masking B. zoning C. drive encryption D. SSL and TLS E. partition keys |
A,B
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Members of a zone may be addressed by which two attributes? (Choose two)
A. Physical location on the switch B. worldwide port name C. serial number D. MAC address E. SCSI ID |
A,B
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What two (2) benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)
A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel E. determines queue depth position |
A,B
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What are two disadvantages of using a parallel interface? (Choose two.)
A. As the bus length increases, the chance of skew increases B. As the bus speed increases, the chance of skew increases C. As the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus length decreases D. As the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus queue depth increases |
A,B
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n an FC SAN environment, what are two ways to protect data on an array connected by a switch to multiple hosts? (Choose two)
A. LUN masking B. zoning C. drive encryption D. SSL and TLS E. partition keys |
A,B
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Members of a zone may be addressed by which two attributes? (Choose two)
A. Physical location on the switch B. worldwide port name C. serial number D. MAC address E. SCSI ID |
A,B
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Which three upper layer protocols are supported by Fiber Channel? (choose three)
A. VI B. IP C. SCSI D. ATAPI |
A,B,C
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Company.com is implementing a disaster recovery plan. When planning the performance impact of the solution which three concerns should be taken into consideration? (choose three)
A. Distance between sites B. Technology linking the remote sites C. Write intensive nature of applications D. RAID type used by data on local array |
A,B,C
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Which three (3) backup methods support application recovery of a database? (Choose three.)
A. Use software snapshot technology that takes a point in time snapshot. B. Cold backup method where the database services have been stopped before the backup. C. Copy-on-Write technology built into the database that can be used by backup software. D. File system backup method including transaction log needed to run the backup and restore. E. Copy the database folder to another location and back up the files in the normal fashion. |
A,B,C
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Which three interface points test the interoperability of SMI-S? (Choose three.)
A. CIMOM to provider B. Client to CIM/WBEM C. CIM/WBEM to CIMOM D. CIM/WBEM to provider |
A,B,C
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Which three are advantages of using a SAN in a campus environment? (Choose three.)
A. Consolidate storage in a data center B. Increase storage resource utilization C. Decrease network traffic due to backups D. Decrease network traffic due to storage decentralization |
A,B,C
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Which three upper layer protocols are supported by Fiber Channel? (choose three)
A. VI B. IP C. SCSI D. ATAPI |
A,B,C
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Company.com is implementing a disaster recovery plan. When planning the performance impact of the solution which three concerns should be taken into consideration? (choose three)
A. Distance between sites B. Technology linking the remote sites C. Write intensive nature of applications D. RAID type used by data on local array |
A,B,C
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What are three advantages of a SAN? (Choose three.)
A. Heterogeneous servers can access a shared storage array. B. Heterogeneous servers can be backed up to a shared tape array. C. Storage arrays can appear as self contained, autonomous file servers. D. Clustered servers located in different buildings can access the same storage. |
A,B,D
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A company has been expanding its SAN physically throughout its campus headquarters. Distributed servers throughout the campus access storage nodes that are also distributed. What are two (2) results of this expansion? (Choose two.)
A. increase in data accessibility B. decrease in resource utilzation C. increase in SAN I/O latency D. increase in application availability E. decrease in application availability |
A,C
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Which two are choices of physical transports for storage over IP? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. FCIP B. ICUP C. IFCP D. ISNS |
A,C
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Which two are choices of physical transports for storage over IP? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. FCIP B. ICUP C. IFCP D. ISNS |
A,C
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The storage administrator has a request to add more storage to support added features on an application. Which two (2) steps must be taken for the application to recognize the added storage? (Choose two.)
A. re-scan the SCSI bus B. enable array re-scanning C. configure LUN masking D. zone the host to the subsystem port E. increase the HBA time out value |
A,C
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When replacing an HBA, which two steps should be performed prior to connecting the HBA to the fabric? (Choose two.)
A. activate the zone set B. disable zoning for the old HBA C. update the alias map with the new WWN D. create a new zone for the old HBA to ensure isolation of the defective component E. rename the active zone(s) to match the new HBA's WWN |
A,C
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What are two (2) valid steps when adding a new host to an existing fabric? (Choose two.)
A. create new zone B. remove zone members C. add new zone member D. deactivate the zone set E. merge new zone |
A,C
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A company has been expanding its SAN physically throughout its campus headquarters. Distributed servers throughout the campus access storage nodes that are also distributed. What are two (2) results of this expansion? (Choose two.)
A. increase in data accessibility B. decrease in resource utilzation C. increase in SAN I/O latency D. increase in application availability E. decrease in application availability |
A,C
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Click the Exhibit button. After developing a business continuity solution for your company, you implement a backup solution in your IT infrastructure with focus on backup and restore technologies. Which statements are correct when implementing this backup solution as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. backup impacts the LAN traffic B. multiplexing to tape reduces data traffic C. metadata is sent to the backup server D. servers can share the library for faster tape access E. backup server can directly backup snapshots of the primary storage |
A,C
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A company with departmental Fibre Channel SANs has decided that they now want to merge them into a large enterprise SAN to assist with resource allocation and improve resource utilization. What two (2) configuration parameters should the administrator check before connecting the SANs to minimize service disruption? (Choose two.)
A. verify time out values match B. verify principle switch priorities match C. verify domain ID assignments are unique D. verify auto negotiation is enabled |
A,C
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You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing replication strategies. What two (2) dependencies need to be considered in time-to-create and incremental re-establishment of a split mirror? (Choose two.)
A. LUN size B. file system C. changed data D. LDM E. sector size |
A,C
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Which two are strengths of high end storage arrays in a SAN? (Choose two)
A. Provides higher availability B. No retraining is required to manage C. Servers and storage can scale independently D. Costs are comparable to DAS or NAS solution |
A,C
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Which two are common characteristics of DAS? (Choose two)
A. direct access to data is available from single server B. only available through SCSI/SAS interfaces C. storage capacity is captive to a single server D. storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network E. attached to the host computer by a switch |
A,C
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What are three disadvantages of NAS when compared to Fiber Channel for database applications? (choose three)
A. Multi-path failover B. Distance from server C. Ethernet bandwidth limitations D. Scalability beyond single appliance |
A,C,D
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Which three types of disk would be used to run your company OLTP application? (Choose three)
A. SCSI B. SATA C. SAS D. ATA E. Fibre Channel |
A,C,E
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The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three (3) benefits result from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. less inter-switch links B. simplifies manageability C. protection from human error D. reduction in maintenance activity E. decreased maintenance disruption |
A,C,E
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Which three types of disk drive uses the SCSI command Language? (Choose Three)
A. SCSI B. SATA C. SAS D. ATA E. Fibre Channel |
A,C,E
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Which disk drive interfaces are considered to be parallel interfaces? (Choose two)
A. SCSI B. SATA C. SAS D. ATA E. Fibre Channel |
A,D
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A HBA has failed in an application server that connects to a Fabric that uses WWPN zoning. Which two (2) steps should be completed after replacing the HBA to bring the application server back online? (Choose two.)
A. Change the zone configuration. B. Change the application metadata server. C. Change the WWPN login of the HBA. D. Change the LUN masking configuration. |
A,D
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which disk drive interfaces are considered to be parallel interfaces? (Choose two)
A. SCSI B. SATA C. SAS D. ATA E. Fibre Channel |
A,D
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Which three components of the SNIA Shared Storage Model are members of the Block Aggregation layer? (choose three)
A. Host B. Device C. Network D. Database E. File system |
A,D,E
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Which three components of the SNIA Shared Storage Model are members of the Block Aggregation layer? (choose three)
A. Host B. Device C. Network D. Database E. File system |
A,D,E
|
|
|
Which three components of the SNIA Shared Storage Model are members of the Block Aggregation layer? (choose three)
A. Host B. Device C. Network D. Database E. File system |
A,D,E
|
|
|
Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization B. lowers cost-per-port per installation C. higher performance per ISL D. enables zoning simplicity E. more available F_Ports |
A,E
|
|
|
After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point Object (RPO) of one hour. What two (2) processes must be implemented to support this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage C. data snapshots from the previous day D. operating system and application reinstallation media E. hot or warm site |
A,E
|
|
|
After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point Object (RPO) of one hour. What two (2) processes must be implemented to support this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage C. data snapshots from the previous day D. operating system and application reinstallation media E. hot or warm site |
A,E
|
|
|
Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization B. lowers cost-per-port per installation C. higher performance per ISL D. enables zoning simplicity E. more available F_Ports |
A,E
|
|
|
Which two have World wide Names? (Choose two)
A. Switches B. Disk arrays C. Zone sets D. Servers E. HBAs |
A,E
|
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|
A company has implemented a stretch cluster, active/passive configuration, between two sites that are 100km apart in conjunction with synchronous data replication. They want to perform an upgrade to the primary server and need to run the application at the secondary site with minimal disruption, while still maintaining data integrity. What is the safest procedure to failover the application to the remote site without any data loss?
A. stop services on local host, failover cluster alias, failover storage B. stop services on local host, failover application, failover cluster alias C. stop services on local host, failover storage, failover cluster alias D. stop services on local host, failover cluster alias, failover application |
B
|
|
|
During the preparation of a server for the SAN connection, you configure the Fibre Channel host bus adapter. Where does the Fibre Channel HBA send error and debug information to?
A. connected SAN switch B. server's operating system C. console output of the server D. central management station |
B
|
|
|
What concept can reduce the number of ports required for ISLs?
A. zoning B. locality C. trunking D. routing |
B
|
|
|
Which portion of the 24-bit (aabbcc) fiber channel address identifies the area?
A. cc B. bb C. aabb D. bbcc |
B
|
|
|
What occurs when iSCSI has been implemented in software?
A. FCIP is automatically enabled. B. Host CPU overhead increases. C. Network bandwidth increases to 10Gb/s. D. Performance is equal to Fibre Channel host bus adapters. |
B
|
|
|
Which disk drive type relies on the host processor to perform all storage tasks?
A. SCSI B. Parallel ATA C. Fibre Channel D. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) |
B
|
|
|
Which storage networking environment accesses the file system through a local area network?
A. SAN B. NAS C. CAD D. DAS |
B
|
|
|
Which SMI-S interface role server management information from multiple devices or underlying subsystem providers and enables proxy access to devices/subsystems?
A. Agent B. CIM server C. Lock manager D. Directory server |
B
|
|
|
Which drive type is considered a dumb drive in which the controller carries all the intelligence?
A. ATA B. SCSI C. SATA D. Parallel ATA |
B
|
|
|
What are the SCSI addressing components handled by the SCSI protocol?
A. SCSI bus, logical unit B. SCSI bus, target ID, logical unit C. SCSI bus, target ID, adaptor number D. SCSI bus, adaptor number, logical unit |
B
|
|
|
What is a virtual replication of a data volume typically used for short term backup and recovery purposes?
A. Split mirror snapshot B. Copy-on-write snapshot C. Storage based data replication D. Network based data replication |
B
|
|
|
Which RAID type is the best choice when performance is more important than protection?
A. RAID 4 B. RAID 0+1 C. RAID 1 D. RAID 5 |
B
|
|
|
A large credit reporting agency has deployed a SAN infrastructure, and is now trying to design a Backup solution. Cost is not a concern. Data availability and minimal production impact, however, are critical to the desired result. Backup should be after hours, and require as few host resources as possible allowing the applications to continue running unhindered. Which backup and recovery solution satisfies the customer requirements and provides the highest level of availability?
A. NDMP backup B. LAN-free backup C. SAN without LAN-free backup D. Over-the-network based backup |
B
|
|
|
Your current backup solution includes a backup server and six tape drives within a tape library. The routers are connected to the SAN and the servers are zoned on the SAN to see the array.
A. D2D (disc-to-disk) B. 3PC (3rd party copy) C. SSO (shared storage option) D. D2R2T (disk to route to tape) |
B
|
|
|
Which HBA configuration parameter represents the global value of outstanding commands?
A. task-depth B. queue-depth C. target-queue-throuttle D. ipfc-lun-throttle |
B
|
|
|
What is the maximum distance of a 50- micrometer multimode fibre with a 850nm shortwave laser at 2 Gbps?
A. 500 meters B. 300 meters C. 150 meters D. 70 meters |
B
|
|
|
Which Fibre Channel protocol layer handles 8/10 bit encoding?
A. FC-0 B. FC-1 C. FC-2 D. FC-3 |
B
|
|
|
What is the definition of asinchronous replication?
A. Does not require acknowledged copy of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host. B. requires acknowledged write of data on primary storage only and data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit C. Requires acknowledged write of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host. D. Does not require acknowledged write of data on primary storage before data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit |
B
|
|
|
A Complete backup was done on Sunday. Monday's process backed up all changes since
Tuesday's process backed up all changes since Sunday's backup including changed on Monday. What type of backup is this? A. Full B. Differential C. Incremental D. Clone |
B
|
|
|
A company has implemented a stretch cluster, active/passive configuration, between two sites that are 100km apart in conjunction with synchronous data replication. They want to perform an upgrade to the primary server and need to run the application at the secondary site with minimal disruption, while still maintaining data integrity. What is the safest procedure to failover the application to the remote site without any data loss?
A. stop services on local host, failover cluster alias, failover storage B. stop services on local host, failover application, failover cluster alias C. stop services on local host, failover storage, failover cluster alias D. stop services on local host, failover cluster alias, failover application |
B
|
|
|
During the preparation of a server for the SAN connection, you configure the Fibre Channel host bus adapter. Where does the Fibre Channel HBA send error and debug information to?
A. connected SAN switch B. server's operating system C. console output of the server D. central management station |
B
|
|
|
What concept can reduce the number of ports required for ISLs?
A. zoning B. locality C. trunking D. routing |
B
|
|
|
Which portion of the 24-bit (aabbcc) fiber channel address identifies the area?
A. cc B. bb C. aabb D. bbcc |
B
|
|
|
What occurs when iSCSI has been implemented in software?
A. FCIP is automatically enabled. B. Host CPU overhead increases. C. Network bandwidth increases to 10Gb/s. D. Performance is equal to Fibre Channel host bus adapters. |
B
|
|
|
Which disk drive type relies on the host processor to perform all storage tasks?
A. SCSI B. Parallel ATA C. Fibre Channel D. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) |
B
|
|
|
Which storage networking environment accesses the file system through a local area network?
A. SAN B. NAS C. CAD D. DAS |
B
|
|
|
Which SMI-S interface role server management information from multiple devices or underlying subsystem providers and enables proxy access to devices/subsystems?
A. Agent B. CIM server C. Lock manager D. Directory server |
B
|
|
|
Which drive type is considered a dumb drive in which the controller carries all the intelligence?
A. ATA B. SCSI C. SATA D. Parallel ATA |
B
|
|
|
What are the SCSI addressing components handled by the SCSI protocol?
A. SCSI bus, logical unit B. SCSI bus, target ID, logical unit C. SCSI bus, target ID, adaptor number D. SCSI bus, adaptor number, logical unit |
B
|
|
|
What is a virtual replication of a data volume typically used for short term backup and recovery purposes?
A. Split mirror snapshot B. Copy-on-write snapshot C. Storage based data replication D. Network based data replication |
B
|
|
|
Which RAID type is the best choice when performance is more important than protection?
A. RAID 4 B. RAID 0+1 C. RAID 1 D. RAID 5 |
B
|
|
|
A large credit reporting agency has deployed a SAN infrastructure, and is now trying to design a Backup solution. Cost is not a concern. Data availability and minimal production impact, however, are critical to the desired result. Backup should be after hours, and require as few host resources as possible allowing the applications to continue running unhindered. Which backup and recovery solution satisfies the customer requirements and provides the highest level of availability?
A. NDMP backup B. LAN-free backup C. SAN without LAN-free backup D. Over-the-network based backup |
B
|
|
|
Your current backup solution includes a backup server and six tape drives within a tape library. The routers are connected to the SAN and the servers are zoned on the SAN to see the array.
A. D2D (disc-to-disk) B. 3PC (3rd party copy) C. SSO (shared storage option) D. D2R2T (disk to route to tape) |
B
|
|
|
What is the main difference between PCI-X and PCI-E?
A. PCI-X is serial and PCI-E is parallel B. PCI-E is Serial and PCI-X is parallel C. PCI-X is 32-bit and PCI-E is 64-bit D. PCI-E is 32-bit and PCI-X is 64-bit |
B
|
|
|
Which method protects data to maintaining separate copies of the data on two or more disks?
A. backup to disk B. mirroring C. parity RAID D. NDMP |
B
|
|
|
Which RAID level is ideal for video production and live video streaming, image editing, prepress applications, and any application requiring high throughput?
A. RAID 1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 |
B
|
|
|
Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration needs to be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?
A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to avoid segmentation. B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the second fabric. C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second fabric. D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid segmentation. |
B
|
|
|
A company has implemented a stretch cluster, active/passive configuration, between two sites that are 100km apart in conjunction with synchronous data replication. They want to perform an upgrade to the primary server and need to run the application at the secondary site with minimal disruption, while still maintaining data integrity. What is the safest procedure to failover the application to the remote site without any data loss?
A. stop services on local host, failover cluster alias, failover storage B. stop services on local host, failover application, failover cluster alias C. stop services on local host, failover storage, failover cluster alias D. stop services on local host, failover cluster alias, failover application |
B
|
|
|
During the preparation of a server for the SAN connection, you configure the Fibre Channel host bus adapter. Where does the Fibre Channel HBA send error and debug information to?
A. connected SAN switch B. server's operating system C. console output of the server D. central management station |
B
|
|
|
Click the Exhibit button. Servers in your environment are connected to one physical infrastructure which consists of different logical fabrics. Which feature do you use to implement this topology?
A. NPIV B. Virtual Fabric C. Zoning D. Segmentation |
B
|
|
|
Click the Exhibit button. You are integrating a local tape backup solution in your IT environment. hat can cause the Gigabit Ethernet to become the bottleneck in this backup environment?
A. agent installation during backup sessions B. metadata if millions of files are backed up C. second file copy of backup data to the catalog database D. data traffic through the backup server to the tape library |
B
|
|
|
You have recently upgraded a tape drive on a older switch to operate at 120MB/s from 80MB/s. Prior to purchasing the tape drives, you tested server dumps to a disk array across multiple ports and saw speeds exceeding 150MB/s. With the new tape drive, you have not seen any dump speed exceed 100MB/s. What is the most likely cause?
A. The new tape drive has logged into the fabric as a storage initiator. B. The switch only has 1Gb/s ports. C. You have not yet reset the switch port buffer credits. D. The tape drive has logged in as an iSCSI device. |
B
|
|
|
You have an existing disk subsystem with 16 drives that provides volumes for six Windows hosts on 2Gb/s links. You decide to add another 16 drive tray to double the number of raw hard drives in order to support five (5) new UNIX servers. The average server throughput is 20 MB/s. The disk subsystem is dual ported and configured active-passive. What is likely to occur?
A. The zone configuration on the fabric will control the traffic flow to the disk subsystem. B. The added server demand on the disk subsystem will saturate the ports. C. The disk subsystem will notice the extra servers and go active-active to support the load. D. The Windows systems will receive precedence as they were registered first on the disk subsystem. |
B
|
|
|
What concept can reduce the number of ports required for ISLs?
A. zoning B. locality C. trunking D. routing |
B
|
|
|
University IT has its storage subsystems and fabric switches distributed throughout the campus. Each college and department provides their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security mechanism is most important to protect fabric services?
A. node authentication B. switch authentication C. port authentication D. link encryption |
B
|
|
|
A customer has a SAS-based storage environment with a SAS domain and some standalone servers, each with multiple built-in SAS disks. The implementation includes direct routing, table routing and subtractive routing. Which role does a fanout expander play in subtractive routing?
A. It routes between edge expanders connected to it. B. It forwards routing requests to all other connected edge expanders. C. It disables currently unused branches to increase throughput. D. It is the sole source of subtractive routing requests in the SAS domain. |
B
|
|
|
What should the administrator verify before connecting a stand-alone populated switch to an existing fabric?
A. Verify port type assignment B. Verify domain ID assignment C. Verify FC_ID port assignment D. Verify principle switch assignment |
B
|
|
|
Which architecture allows system-to-system communication and user level DMA with as little CPU interaction as possible, most particularly for clustering?
A. FAIS B. FC-VI C. FC-CT D. FC-SW |
B
|
|
|
Which Storage solution supports remote mirroring of FC switch attached storage arrays in geographically dispersed data centers?
A. iFCP B. FCIP C. iSNS D. iSCSI |
B
|
|
|
A clothing manufacturer is replicating its data asynchronously to a remote site. On the remote site, it creates a snapshot of the mirrored volume to use as a disaster tolerant backup Which choice contains the steps to create a consistent copy of the data?
A. Simply create the snapshot B. Quiesce the application at the production site, create the snapshot C. Split the link between the production and mirrored volumes, create the snapshots D. Split the production and mirrored volumes, quiesce the application at the production site, create the snapshot |
B
|
|
|
Which disk drive type relies on the host processor to perform all storage tasks?
A. SCSI B. Parallel ATA C. Fibre Channel D. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) |
B
|
|
|
Which protocol is used for backups on an Ethernet based network?
A. FCIP B. NDMP C. iDMP D. iSNS |
B
|
|
|
What are the SCSI addressing components handled by the SCSI protocol?
A. SCSI bus, logical unit B. SCSI bus, target ID, logical unit C. SCSI bus, target ID, adaptor number D. SCSI bus, adaptor number, logical unit |
B
|
|
|
What is a benefit of host-based data replication?
A. Full utilization of host CPU resources B. Storage device independent and application transparent C. Uses existing storage area network connections to complete replication D. Enables applications to virtualize host connectivity and parallel data processing |
B
|
|
|
Which SMI-S interface role server management information from multiple devices or underlying subsystem providers and enables proxy access to devices/subsystems?
A. Agent B. CIM server C. Lock manager D. Directory server |
B
|
|
|
What is a virtual replication of a data volume typically used for short term backup and recovery purposes?
A. Split mirror snapshot B. Copy-on-write snapshot C. Storage based data replication D. Network based data replication |
B
|
|
|
Which RAID type is the best choice when performance is more important than protection?
A. RAID 4 B. RAID 0+1 C. RAID 1 D. RAID 5 |
B
|
|
|
A large credit reporting agency has deployed a SAN infrastructure, and is now trying to design a Backup solution. Cost is not a concern. Data availability and minimal production impact, however, are critical to the desired result. Backup should be after hours, and require as few host resources as possible allowing the applications to continue running unhindered. Which backup and recovery solution satisfies the customer requirements and provides the highest level of availability?
A. NDMP backup B. LAN-free backup C. SAN without LAN-free backup D. Over-the-network based backup |
B
|
|
|
Which SMI-S term provides information about physical and logical SAN entities found, often dynamically, within the management domain?
A. Extension B. Discovery C. Enumeration D. Intrinsic-method |
B
|
|
|
Which TCP/IP based protocol is used for connections between servers and IP-based storage devices?
A. FCIP B. ISCSI C. IFCP D. ISNS |
B
|
|
|
What is a common type simmetric key ciphering when securing stored information?
A. DEC B. AES C. Turing D. SSL |
B
|
|
|
What requeres the user to correctly install electrical terminators on both ends of the bus?
A. Sbus B. SCSI bus C. PCI bus D. Fibre Channel |
B
|
|
|
Your current backup solution includes a backup server and six tape drives within a tape library. The routers are connected to the SAN and the servers are zoned on the SAN to see the array. The server sends a set of commands to the tape routes causing the routers to talk directly to the volumes and copy them to the tape drives. Which backup infrastructure type would describe this process?
A. D2D (disc-to-disk) B. 3PC (3rd party copy) C. SSO (shared storage option) D. D2R2T (disk to route to tape) |
B
|
|
|
A unix server has recently been unable to mount its file systems after the HBA driver has been replaced and driver has been upgraded. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The switch zoning was based on port assignments B. the Switch using worldwide naming has not been updated C. the disk array firmware was not updated D. The file system table was not updated to reflect the changes in device IDs. |
B
|
|
|
Which HBA configuration parameter represents the global value of outstanding commands?
A. task-depth B. queue-depth C. target-queue-throuttle D. ipfc-lun-throttle |
B
|
|
|
What is the maximum distance of a 50- micrometer multimode fibre with a 850nm shortwave laser at 2 Gbps?
A. 500 meters B. 300 meters C. 150 meters D. 70 meters |
B
|
|
|
Which storage networking environment uses file access through a standard Ethernet network?
A. SAN B. NAS C. CAS D. DAS |
B
|
|
|
A Complete backup was done on Sunday. Monday's process backed up all changes since Sunday's backup. Tuesday's process backed up all changes since Sunday's backup including changed on Monday. What type of backup is this?
A. Full B. Differential C. Incremental D. Clone |
B
|
|
|
What is the main difference between PCI-X and PCI-E?
A. PCI-X is serial and PCI-E is parallel B. PCI-E is Serial and PCI-X is parallel C. PCI-X is 32-bit and PCI-E is 64-bit D. PCI-E is 32-bit and PCI-X is 64-bit |
B
|
|
|
Which method protects data to maintaining separate copies of the data on two or more disks?
A. backup to disk B. mirroring C. parity RAID D. NDMP |
B
|
|
|
Which RAID level is ideal for video production and live video streaming, image editing, prepress applications, and any application requiring high throughput?
A. RAID 1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 |
B
|
|
|
What do typical Fibre Channel host adapter settings include?
A. LUN mask, zoning, and world wide name B. host adapter BIOS, spin up delay, and enable selectable boot C. host adapter BIOS, World wide node name and world wide port name D. spin up delay, host adapter ID and Fibre Channel address |
B
|
|
|
Where is LUN masking is performed?
A. Fibre Channel Switch B. Disk Controller C. Network Interface Card D. Fibre Channel Director |
B
|
|
|
What requires the user to correctly install electrical terminators on both ends of the bus?
A. Sbus B. SCSI bus C. PCI bus D. Fibre Channel |
B
|
|
|
What are the steps to restore a complete backup that is using differential method?
A. latest full and lasted differential backup must be restored B. latest full and all subsequent differential backups must be restored C. latest full must be restored D. latest incremental must be restored |
B
|
|
|
What two (2) technologies are commonly used in a business continuity plan? (Choose two.)
A. tape backup with restore to a remote site B. subsytem-based synchronous replication to a remote site C. subsystem-based asynchronous replication to a remote site D. subsystem-based replication in the same datacenter E. virtual tape library with restore to a remote site |
B,C
|
|
|
Which typical data characteristics would define archival data? (Choose two.)
A. short-term B. long-term C. offline D. online E. dynamic |
B,C
|
|
|
You have been asked to add 2 new PCI-X cards into an existing server architecture and notice that they run at different clock speeds. The system has both shared and dedicated PCI bus slots available. In order to maximize performance, which PCI cards should be installed in which slots? (Choose two.)
A. PCI-X bus slots are speed independent B. PCI-X 133 installed in a dedicated bus slot C. PCI-X 100 installed in a dedicated bus slot D. PCI-X 100 installed in a shared bus slot E. PCI-X 133 installed in a shared bus slot |
B,D
|
|
|
Which two concepts provide block-based backup and recovery? (choose two)
A. Disk-free B. LAN-free C. SAN-free D. Server-free |
B,D
|
|
|
What are two advantages of virtualization? (choose two)
A. Improves data integrity B. Provides higher storage asset utilization C. Allows file sharing between dissimilar applications D. Increase the number of storage devices an operator can manage |
B,D
|
|
|
You have been asked to add 2 new PCI-X cards into an existing server architecture and notice that they run at different clock speeds. The system has both shared and dedicated PCI bus slots available. In order to maximize performance, which PCI cards should be installed in which slots? (Choose two.)
A. PCI-X bus slots are speed independent B. PCI-X 133 installed in a dedicated bus slot C. PCI-X 100 installed in a dedicated bus slot D. PCI-X 100 installed in a shared bus slot E. PCI-X 133 installed in a shared bus slot |
B,D
|
|
|
Which two concepts provide block-based backup and recovery? (choose two)
A. Disk-free B. LAN-free C. SAN-free D. Server-free |
B,D
|
|
|
What are two advantages of virtualization? (choose two)
A. Improves data integrity B. Provides higher storage asset utilization C. Allows file sharing between dissimilar applications D. Increase the number of storage devices an operator can manage |
B,D
|
|
|
What two types of disk drives would NOT be used to store your company's database application and source files when reliability is the most important factor? (Choose two)
A. SCSI B. SATA C. SAS D. ATA E. Fibre Channel |
B,D
|
|
|
A customer has a database server that processes a great deal of data very quickly. They have identified a bottleneck in the storage subsystem and requested a change to the RAID configuration. How would you configure the new RAID group? (Choose two.)
A. Stripe across 7200 rpm drives B. Stripe across 15K rpm drives C. RAID 6 D. RAID 1+0 E. RAID 5 |
B,D
|
|
|
Which two (2) processes occur during a fabric merge? (Choose two.)
A. TOV negotiation B. zone set passing C. FSPF trunk negotiation D. name server communication E. subordinate switch negotiation |
B,D
|
|
|
Which two recovery risks exist, given backup of a multi-protocol NAS device taken from a client System through an active share? (Choose two.)
A. Loss of SMB files B. Loss of NFS meta data C. Loss of CIFS meta data D. Loss of ACL information |
B,D
|
|
|
Which two concepts provide block-based backup and recovery? (choose two)
A. Disk-free B. LAN-free C. SAN-free D. Server-free |
B,D
|
|
|
Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) supports which two link speeds? (Choose two)
A. 1.0625 Gbps B. 1.5 Gbps C. 2.125 Gbps D. 3.0 Gbps E. 4.25 Gbps |
B,D
|
|
|
Serial-Attached SCSI(SAS) supports which two link speed? ( Choose two)
A. 1.0625 Gbps B. 1.5 Gbps C. 2.125 Gbps D. 3.0 Gbps E. 4.25 Gbps |
B,D
|
|
|
Which three (3) processes occur during a fabric merge? (Choose three.)
A. TOV distribution B. zone set passing C. FSPF trunk distribution D. principle switch negotiation E. name server communication |
B,D,E
|
|
|
When preparing to merge two fabrics, which two items should be checked before connecting the fabrics? (Choose Two.)
A. zones sets are activated B. timeout values are set properly C. new configurations are enabled to allow the merge D. fabrics are co-located to prevent segmentation E. interoperability modes are configured per vendor instructions |
B,E
|
|
|
Your manager has attended an industry event and calls a meeting to discuss some ideas upon his return. One concept that caught his attention was the use of virtual fabrics. What are two (2) advantages of implementing virtual fabric technology? (Choose two.)
A. ease of design B. isolation of Fault Domains C. independent SAN fabric management D. universally adopted technology E. separate fabric services |
B,E
|
|
|
Which two disk interfaces have high-availability connections (dual-ports) on the disk? (Choose two)
A. SATA B. SAS C. SCSI D. ATA E. Fibre Channel |
B,E
|
|
|
What determines the principle switch in a Fibre Channel Fabric?
A. highest Domain ID B. highest world wide name C. assigned priority D. lowest Domain ID |
C
|
|
|
What is a recommended guideline for merging two Fibre Channel fabrics?
A. Change domain ID to consecutive values. B. Disable zoning on all switches prior to merging fabrics. C. Connect the fabrics using one ISL at a time. D. Log out from the principal switch prior to merging fabrics. |
C
|
|
|
In a multiple switch fabric, how should the error detection (E_D_TOV) and resource allocation (R_A_TOV) time out values be set?
A. according to the number of switches in the fabric B. as a multiple of the number of ports on the switch C. the same on all N_Ports and switches in the fabric D. double the values set on the core switch |
C
|
|
|
What metric is used when determining how many storage subsystem ports can be attached to a single host port?
A. fan-in B. buffer credits C. fan-out D. ISL oversubscription |
C
|
|
|
Which IP Storage protocol requires iSNS for discovery and management?
A. FCIP B. SATA C. iFCP D. iSCSI |
C
|
|
|
Which SMI-S interface role provides a common service for use by clients in locating services in The management environment?
A. Agent B. Provider C. Directory server D. Management server |
C
|
|
|
Which subset of target devices allow for scalability in the SCSI protocol?
A. Target ports B. I-T-L Nexus C. Logical units D. Command Descriptor Blocks |
C
|
|
|
Which unit physically stores data and protects against errors on a fixed block architecture disk?
A. Head B. Cache C. Sector D. Cylinder |
C
|
|
|
Which SMB security entity provides locking?
A. Share ACL B. NFS export C. Deny modes D. CIFS authorization |
C
|
|
|
Which subset of target devices allow for scalability in the SCSI protocol?
A. Target ports B. I-T-L Nexus C. Logical units D. Command Descriptor Blocks |
C
|
|
|
What determines the principle switch in a Fibre Channel Fabric?
A. highest Domain ID B. highest world wide name C. assigned priority D. lowest Domain ID |
C
|
|
|
What is a recommended guideline for merging two Fibre Channel fabrics?
A. Change domain ID to consecutive values. B. Disable zoning on all switches prior to merging fabrics. C. Connect the fabrics using one ISL at a time. D. Log out from the principal switch prior to merging fabrics. |
C
|
|
|
In a multiple switch fabric, how should the error detection (E_D_TOV) and resource allocation (R_A_TOV) time out values be set?
A. according to the number of switches in the fabric B. as a multiple of the number of ports on the switch C. the same on all N_Ports and switches in the fabric D. double the values set on the core switch |
C
|
|
|
What metric is used when determining how many storage subsystem ports can be attached to a single host port?
A. fan-in B. buffer credits C. fan-out D. ISL oversubscription |
C
|
|
|
Which IP Storage protocol requires iSNS for discovery and management?
A. FCIP B. SATA C. iFCP D. iSCSI |
C
|
|
|
Which SMI-S interface role provides a common service for use by clients in locating services in The management environment?
A. Agent B. Provider C. Directory server D. Management server |
C
|
|
|
Which subset of target devices allow for scalability in the SCSI protocol?
A. Target ports B. I-T-L Nexus C. Logical units D. Command Descriptor Blocks |
C
|
|
|
Which unit physically stores data and protects against errors on a fixed block architecture disk?
A. Head B. Cache C. Sector D. Cylinder |
C
|
|
|
Which SMB security entity provides locking?
A. Share ACL B. NFS export C. Deny modes D. CIFS authorization |
C
|
|
|
Which subset of target devices allow for scalability in the SCSI protocol?
A. Target ports B. I-T-L Nexus C. Logical units D. Command Descriptor Blocks |
C
|
|
|
Which statement best describes an advantage of virtual tape libraries (VTL) in comparison to disk
to disk (D2D) backup solutions? A. Disk array does not respond to backup software command just as if it were a tape drive or tape library. B. Virtual type is automatically sent to off-site vault after backup finishes C. Existing backup applications and processes can be used with VTL D. Disk array works as a temporary cache for the backup software |
C
|
|
|
What the steps to restore a complete backup that is using incremental method and has run three
A. latest full must be restored B. latest incremental and all subsequent must be restored C. latest full and subsequent incremental backups must be restored D. latest full and latest incremental backup must be restored |
C
|
|
|
A customer complains that they experience server performance issues with their OLTP database using an iSCSI storage device. What is the cause of the problem?
A. the database files are mounted and running on a file access protocol via iSCSI B. the network connection is on a dedicated network C. they are using a software initiator D. they are using a TCP offload engine rather than an HBA |
C
|
|
|
What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber a 850nm shortwave laser at 4 Gbps?
A. 500 meters B. 300 meters C. 150 meters D. 70 meters |
C
|
|
|
Which approach is commonly used for disaster recovery applications?
A. snapshots B. RAID 5 C. replication D. mirroring |
C
|
|
|
You are designing a storage solution for an application where performance is not critical, but availability is essential. You have decided to use high capacity SATA disk. Which RAID offer the greatest protection against disk failure?
A. RAID 4 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 0 |
C
|
|
|
What describes RAID 0?
A. mirroring B. parallel access with parity C. striping D. independent access with interleaved parity |
C
|
|
|
Which Fibre Channel protocol layer handles Flow Control and Classes of Service?
A. FC-0 B. FC-1 C. FC-2 D. FC-3 |
C
|
|
|
Which term describes a security measure designed to establish the validity of a transmission, message, or originator, or a means of verifying an individual's authorization to receive information?
A. encoding B. encryption C. authentication D. crypto-shred |
C
|
|
|
What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol B. Virtual Machine Address Translation C. N_Port ID Virtualization D. extended WWID Architecture |
C
|
|
|
Your customer has upgraded to faster tape technology and the backup is now taking longer. No other changes have been made. What is a possible cause of the performance degradation?
A. tape buffer overload B. hardware compression C. backup server cannot sustain required throughput D. serpentine recording changed to helical scan technology |
C
|
|
|
A storage configuration was created which stores large amounts of infrequently used documents. The storage implementation is based on serial attached SCSI (SAS) and an edge expander. Almost all ports are utilized, and a second edge expander will be installed. What is required to connect SATA devices to the SAS domain?
A. SAS-SATA adapter B. SAS-SATA protocol converter C. cable with two SATA connectors D. cable with a SAS and a SATA connector |
C
|
|
|
A company has merged its two existing SANs that were in adjacent buildings. The data center in each location had been utilizing at least half of its total SAN bandwidth. Now they now plan to migrate all production data to one data center and replicate that data across the new ISLs to the other data center which will now only be used for for disaster recovery purposes. What is the potential impact to performance after completing this reconfiguration?
A. no change to SAN performance B. increased performance for production traffic C. decreased performance for production traffic D. ISL over-subscription will determine performance |
C
|
|
|
Click the Exhibit button. Calculate the fan-in ratio for ZONE_A.
A. 9:1 B. 9:2 C. 5:1 D. 3:1 |
C
|
|
|
You are installing a x16 PCI-E HBA into a server and notice that you only have a x8 slot available. What is the impact of this action?
A. The HBA will negotiate and only use x8 lanes. B. The slot must be reconfigured for x16 support. C. The HBA cannot be installed into a x8 slot. D. The slot will negotiate to support the x16 HBA. |
C
|
|
|
What determines the principle switch in a Fibre Channel Fabric?
A. highest Domain ID B. highest world wide name C. assigned priority D. lowest Domain ID |
C
|
|
|
CIFS is a stateful service. What maintains a history of connection activities?
A. server only B. application C. client and server D. domain controller |
C
|
|
|
What is a recommended guideline for merging two Fibre Channel fabrics?
A. Change domain ID to consecutive values. B. Disable zoning on all switches prior to merging fabrics. C. Connect the fabrics using one ISL at a time. D. Log out from the principal switch prior to merging fabrics. |
C
|
|
|
A customer has a SAS-based storage environment with a SAS domain and some standalone servers, each with multiple built-in SAS disks. The implementation includes direct routing, table routing and subtractive routing. What is table routing?
A. routing along multiple parallel connections B. routing along a physical point-to-point connection C. routing between devices connected to an edge expander D. routing between devices connected to different edge expanders |
C
|
|
|
In a multiple switch fabric, how should the error detection (E_D_TOV) and resource allocation (R_A_TOV) time out values be set?
A. according to the number of switches in the fabric B. as a multiple of the number of ports on the switch C. the same on all N_Ports and switches in the fabric D. double the values set on the core switch |
C
|
|
|
What metric is used when determining how many storage subsystem ports can be attached to a single host port?
A. fan-in B. buffer credits C. fan-out D. ISL oversubscription |
C
|
|
|
A customer's switch command line indicates that the status of port 4 is isolated. You know that port 4 is connected to a target device. What is the problem?
A. port speed inconsistency B. Domain ID inconsistency C. E_D_TOV mismatch D. Fibre type mismatch |
C
|
|
|
Which SMB security entity provides locking?
A. Share ACL B. NFS export C. Deny modes D. CIFS authorization |
C
|
|
|
A small Internet startup company needs to implement a backup solution in their environment. Cost is a large concern, and performance is not as critical since their environment mainly sits idle during off hours. If a backup is not completed successfully, the customer has little concern and is able to run new backups at any time. Which solution meets the customer's requirements for providing a low-cost solution and satisfies their current demand?
A. LAN-free backup B. Server-free backup C. Over-the-network backup D. SAN without LAN-free backup |
C
|
|
|
Which subset of target devices allow for scalability in the SCSI protocol?
A. Target ports B. I-T-L Nexus C. Logical units D. Command Descriptor Blocks |
C
|
|
|
What is the basic order of a snapshot creation process?
A. Flush, snapshot, backup, release B. Flush, quiesce, snapshot, backup C. Quiesce, flush, snapshot, backup D. Flush, quiesce, snapshot, backup |
C
|
|
|
Which virtualization technique is best suited for low-cost, short term replication of data where Storage utilization and replication creation must be minimized?
A. Full copy snapshot B. Multi-site block storage C. Copy-on-write snapshot D. Storage virtualized tape drives |
C
|
|
|
What is the service provided by a disk array?
A. SAN management services B. zoning services C. virtualizing phycal storage devices D. name services |
C
|
|
|
Which storage management component has the ability to display SAN fabric topology and perform zoning operations, but provides only minimal event information?
A. Logical data manager B. Fabric directory server C. Storage network manager D. Enterprise management system |
C
|
|
|
You no longer have any port availability in the company?s switch fabric. There is a decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the cause problem?
A. The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches. B. The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch. C. A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding. D. The domain priority is inconsistent |
C
|
|
|
Which classification of storage virtualization is implemented in the storage array?
A. file/record virtualization B. file system virtualization C. disk virtualization D. sector virtualization |
C
|
|
|
Which statement best describes an advantage of virtual tape libraries (VTL) in comparison to disk to disk (D2D) backup solutions?
A. Disk array does not respond to backup software command just as if it were a tape drive or tape library. B. Virtual type is automatically sent to off-site vault after backup finishes C. Existing backup applications and processes can be used with VTL D. Disk array works as a temporary cache for the backup software |
C
|
|
|
A customer complains that they experience server performance issues with their OLTP database using an iSCSI storage device. What is the cause of the problem?
A. the database files are mounted and running on a file access protocol via iSCSI B. the network connection is on a dedicated network C. they are using a software initiator D. they are using a TCP offload engine rather than an HBA |
C
|
|
|
What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber a 850nm shortwave laser at 4 Gbps?
A. 500 meters B. 300 meters C. 150 meters D. 70 meters |
C
|
|
|
A company has implemented a high availability tape backup process that uses snapshots. The snapshots are backed up to tape. When checking the backup, the data is found to be option would fix this problem in future backups?
A. Quiesce the application before backing up the data. B. Unmount the file system before backing up the data C. Quiesce the application before creating the snapshot D. Store tapes offsite instead of within library |
C
|
|
|
What dows STP stand for in the SAS architecture?
A. Serial Tunneled Protocol B. SAS Tunneled Protocol C. SATA Tunneled Protocol D. SCSI Tunneled Protocol |
C
|
|
|
You are designing a storage solution for an application where performance is not critical, but availability is essential. You have decided to use high capacity SATA disk. Which RAID offer the greatest protection against disk failure?
A. RAID 4 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 0 |
C
|
|
|
What describes RAID 0?
A. mirroring B. parallel access with parity C. striping D. independent access with interleaved parity |
C
|
|
|
Which Fibre Channel protocol layer handles Flow Control and Classes of Service?
A. FC-0 B. FC-1 C. FC-2 D. FC-3 |
C
|
|
|
A Fibre Channel switch failed in your fabric and a replacement switch has been delivered. Which two (2) actions should be taken before plugging the replacement switch into the fabric? (Choose two.)
A. Delete the fabric records of the old switch from the Fabric. B. Configure the new switch in to the current zone configuration. C. Delete the zone configuration information on the replacement switch. D. Set the Domain ID of the replacement switch to the Domain ID of the failed switch. |
C,D
|
|
|
Which two performance criteria are used to determine the selection of a device for a tiered storage level? (Choose two.)
A. User profile B. Age of data C. Speed (IOPs) D. Raid and availability |
C,D
|
|
|
What are two advantage of NAS? (Choose two)
A. is not limited to the throughput of the LAN B. is appropriate for block level access C. uses existing network infrastructure D. more scalable and flexible than DAS E. is not impacted by traffic on the LAN |
C,D
|
|
|
Which three RAID levels will experience significant write-performance penalties (Choose three)
A. RAID 1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 4 D. RAID 5 E. RAID 6 |
C,D,E
|
|
|
University IT provides shared Fibre Channel storage services. All storage subsystems and fibre channel switches are located in the secure campus datacenter. Each college and department provides their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security mechanism is most important in this Fibre Channel infrastructure?
A. FCPAP B. link encryption C. switch authentication D. port authentication |
D
|
|
|
A customer with sixteen non-clustered SAN attached hosts has a storage subsystem with thirtytwo disk drives. The customer wishes to protect their data using RAID 1. Each server has a need to see three separate volumes for their final configuration. What must be configured on the storage subsystem to meet their storage allocation needs?
A. multiple scsi targets to each mirror volume B. single logical unit and use host-based LVM C. separate virtual paths for each mirror volume D. separate logical units for each server volume |
D
|
|
|
You are diagnosing a performance problem with a Fibre Channel attached server that is configured to run multipathing with dynamic I/O load balancing. You are not seeing the expected performance. You have determined that the server configuration is correct and that the fabric paths are not congested. What could be a possible cause for the lower than expected performance?
A. storage ports are configured to run half duplex B. storage architecture is cache centric C. storage ports are configured to run full duplex D. storage architecture is controller centric |
D
|
|
|
When installing two PCI-X HBAs into a server to create the fastest access to the SAN, which configuration would be used?
A. serial system architecture B. cascaded system buses C. single dual-port HBA D. separate system buses |
D
|
|
|
You are trying to upgrade an existing 1Gb/s FC SAN that is using 62.5 micron multi-mode cable from a tape library to a server that is 175 meters away to 2Gb/s Fibre Channel. After switching to the 2Gb/s Fibre Channel equipment, a connection to the server cannot be maintained. When a connection is made, numerous errors are reported. What is the cause of the errors?
A. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel must convert to LC from SC connectors B. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel must use 50 micron multi-mode cable C. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel cable length requires an optical splitter D. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel cable length has been exceeded |
D
|
|
|
Users are complaining the response times are out of range on a retail application. Performance monitoring of the storage subsystem indicates that there are no problems. A check of the host error logs shows that there are excessive SCSI re-transmit errors. The 2Gb/s HBA on the host was recently replaced with a 4Gb/s HBA. What is the most probable cause of the timeout errors?
A. the link is utilizing 9 micron fiber B. SCSI timeout value is set too small C. the switch port to the storage subsystem is set at 2Gb/s D. the distance from the host to the storage subsystem is greater than 175 meters |
D
|
|
|
In what mode is NFS running when a link failure is transparent to both the server and client?
A. session oriented B. stateful C. seamless D. stateless |
D
|
|
|
You have diagnosed that a FC HBA has failed. You need to replace it quickly to complete the overnight data transfer. The only card you have available is a PCI-X 2.0 version running at 533MHz. The failed HBA was inserted into a PCI-X shared bus slot. What will be the result if you insert this new HBA into the same slot?
A. HBA will run at 533MHz. B. HBA will run at 266MHz. C. HBA will run at 133MHz. D. HBA will run at 100MHz. |
D
|
|
|
Which characteristic differentiates an IP Storage adapter from a traditional Network Interface card (NIC)?
A. link aggregation B. 2 Gb/s data rate C. larger frame size D. TCP/IP segmentation offload |
D
|
|
|
Which standard management agent resides in the file/record layer if the SNIA storage object model?
A. Host B. Device C. Network D. Database |
D
|
|
|
Which transport method requires correct electrical termination on both ends?
A. Sbus B. ATAPI C. PCI bus D. SCSI bus |
D
|
|
|
What component is a configuration management element of an IP storage solution?
A. HBA B. VSAN C. ISL D. VLAN |
D
|
|
|
Which default network file sharing protocol is used by Microsoft Windows clients in a NAS environment?
A. IPX B. NFS C. DNS D. CIFS |
D
|
|
|
Which protocol is the responsibility of the Network Data Management Task Forc?
A. DMP B. NDMT C. DNMP D. NDMP |
D
|
|
|
What is the maximum potential bandwidth of a Fiber Channel connection in a 2 Gb SAN?
A. 100 MB/s B. 200 MB/s C. 300 MB/s D. 400 MB/s |
D
|
|
|
Which protocol allows booting from the network?
A. IFCP B. ICUP C. FCIP D. ISCSI |
D
|
|
|
Which is a full duplex disk interface?
A. Iscsi B. Parallel ATA C. SATA (Serial ATA) D. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) |
D
|
|
|
In Fibre Channel, what does the port type FL mean?
A. Fabric Link B. Fabric Lane C. Fabric Long D. Fabric Loop |
D
|
|
|
Which of the following is a benefit of WWN Zoning versus Port Zoning?
a) Improved throughput b) The zone can be created without using an alias c) More flexibility with RAID types d) The administrator can reconnect to another FC port on the switch without rezoning |
D
|
|
|
A customer with sixteen non-clustered SAN attached hosts has a storage subsystem with thirtytwo disk drives. The customer wishes to protect their data using RAID 1. Each server has a need to see three separate volumes for their final configuration. What must be configured on the storage subsystem to meet their storage allocation needs?
A. multiple scsi targets to each mirror volume B. single logical unit and use host-based LVM C. separate virtual paths for each mirror volume D. separate logical units for each server volume |
D
|
|
|
You are diagnosing a performance problem with a Fibre Channel attached server that is configured to run multipathing with dynamic I/O load balancing. You are not seeing the expected performance. You have determined that the server configuration is correct and that the fabric paths are not congested. What could be a possible cause for the lower than expected performance?
A. storage ports are configured to run half duplex B. storage architecture is cache centric C. storage ports are configured to run full duplex D. storage architecture is controller centric |
D
|
|
|
When installing two PCI-X HBAs into a server to create the fastest access to the SAN, which configuration would be used?
A. serial system architecture B. cascaded system buses C. single dual-port HBA D. separate system buses |
D
|
|
|
You are trying to upgrade an existing 1Gb/s FC SAN that is using 62.5 micron multi-mode cable from a tape library to a server that is 175 meters away to 2Gb/s Fibre Channel. After switching to the 2Gb/s Fibre Channel equipment, a connection to the server cannot be maintained. When a connection is made, numerous errors are reported. What is the cause of the errors?
A. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel must convert to LC from SC connectors B. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel must use 50 micron multi-mode cable C. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel cable length requires an optical splitter D. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel cable length has been exceeded |
D
|
|
|
Users are complaining the response times are out of range on a retail application. Performance monitoring of the storage subsystem indicates that there are no problems. A check of the host error logs shows that there are excessive SCSI re-transmit errors. The 2Gb/s HBA on the host was recently replaced with a 4Gb/s HBA. What is the most probable cause of the timeout errors?
A. the link is utilizing 9 micron fiber B. SCSI timeout value is set too small C. the switch port to the storage subsystem is set at 2Gb/s D. the distance from the host to the storage subsystem is greater than 175 meters |
D
|
|
|
In what mode is NFS running when a link failure is transparent to both the server and client?
A. session oriented B. stateful C. seamless D. stateless |
D
|
|
|
You have diagnosed that a FC HBA has failed. You need to replace it quickly to complete the overnight data transfer. The only card you have available is a PCI-X 2.0 version running at 533MHz. The failed HBA was inserted into a PCI-X shared bus slot. What will be the result if you insert this new HBA into the same slot?
A. HBA will run at 533MHz. B. HBA will run at 266MHz. C. HBA will run at 133MHz. D. HBA will run at 100MHz. |
D
|
|
|
Which characteristic differentiates an IP Storage adapter from a traditional Network Interface card (NIC)?
A. link aggregation B. 2 Gb/s data rate C. larger frame size D. TCP/IP segmentation offload |
D
|
|
|
Which standard management agent resides in the file/record layer if the SNIA storage object model?
A. Host B. Device C. Network D. Database |
D
|
|
|
Which transport method requires correct electrical termination on both ends?
A. Sbus B. ATAPI C. PCI bus D. SCSI bus |
D
|
|
|
Which default network file sharing protocol is used by Microsoft Windows clients in a NAS environment?
A. IPX B. NFS C. DNS D. CIFS |
D
|
|
|
Which protocol is the responsibility of the Network Data Management Task Forc?
A. DMP B. NDMT C. DNMP D. NDMP |
D
|
|
|
What is the maximum potential bandwidth of a Fiber Channel connection in a 2 Gb SAN?
A. 100 MB/s B. 200 MB/s C. 300 MB/s D. 400 MB/s |
D
|
|
|
Which protocol allows booting from the network?
A. IFCP B. ICUP C. FCIP D. ISCSI |
D
|
|
|
Which is a full duplex disk interface?
A. Iscsi B. Parallel ATA C. SATA (Serial ATA) D. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) |
D
|
|
|
Which statement describes the cylinder in the disk drive?
A. where the data is stored or retrieved B. Used to read or write data on to the disk media C. Used to seek to the area where the requested data is located' D. A group of concentric slices through the physical disks. |
D
|
|
|
What is the maximum distance of a 9-micrometer singlemode fiber with a 1300nm longwave laser at 2 Gbps?
A. >50k meters B. 10k meters C. 5k meters D. 2k meters |
D
|
|
|
Which concept provides block-based backup and recovery?
A. disk-free backup B. DAS enabled backup C. SAN-free backup D. server-free backup |
D
|
|
|
Last month, you successfully merged two (2) local SAN islands into a single core/edge fabric topology and connected storage devices to the core switches. Performance benchmarks were met or exceeded. In recent days, server administrators have documented a slow down in performance as I/O demands have increased. Storage administrators report that all storage ports are underutilized. What is the most likely explanation?
A. conflicts between SAN routing protocols B. storage port buffer credit limits have restricted I/O capabilities C. multiple process login failures D. over utilization of one or more ISLs |
D
|
|
|
University IT provides shared Fibre Channel storage services. All storage subsystems and fibre channel switches are located in the secure campus datacenter. Each college and department provides their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security mechanism is most important in this Fibre Channel infrastructure?
A. FCPAP B. link encryption C. switch authentication D. port authentication |
D
|
|
|
The customer has an existing fabric switches installed from one manufacturer. They have decided to add a redundant fabric using switches from a different manufacturer. Interoperability is their main concern. What is important when considering interoperability in the SAN
A. switch interoperability mode B. HBA firmware/driver code C. zone naming convention D. virtualization engine |
D
|
|
|
You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing online backup strategies. What affects time-to-create and incremental update of a copy-on-write snapshot?
A. number of files B. number of LUNs C. size of snap volume D. size of LUN |
D
|
|
|
A customer has a SAN consisting of two FC switches with a single 4Gb/s ISL between them. There are six hosts attached to one switch, with an average throughput of 30MB/s each, and a single storage subsystem port connected to the second switch at 2Gb/s. The deployment is performing poorly and you have been tasked with identifying the possible cause. What is the cause of the degraded performance?
A. ISL oversubscription B. HBA oversubscription C. Switch oversubscription D. Target oversubscription |
D
|
|
|
A two fabric merge has failed, leaving you with segmented fabrics. Investigation of the switch domain IDs shows that there is an ID conflict between two of the switches. What is the corrective action?
A. no action is necessary, the ID conflict will be resolved by negotiation B. utilize the name server editor to change the domain ID within the fabric C. change the domain ID on the switch that needs to be changed and allow negotiation to resolve the issue D. take one of the switches offline (disabled), change the domain ID, and bring the switch back online (enabled) |
D
|
|
|
A customer with sixteen non-clustered SAN attached hosts has a storage subsystem with thirtytwo disk drives. The customer wishes to protect their data using RAID 1. Each server has a need to see three separate volumes for their final configuration. What must be configured on the storage subsystem to meet their storage allocation needs?
A. multiple scsi targets to each mirror volume B. single logical unit and use host-based LVM C. separate virtual paths for each mirror volume D. separate logical units for each server volume |
D
|
|
|
You are diagnosing a performance problem with a Fibre Channel attached server that is configured to run multipathing with dynamic I/O load balancing. You are not seeing the expected performance. You have determined that the server configuration is correct and that the fabric paths are not congested. What could be a possible cause for the lower than expected performance?
A. storage ports are configured to run half duplex B. storage architecture is cache centric C. storage ports are configured to run full duplex D. storage architecture is controller centric |
D
|
|
|
You are trying to upgrade an existing 1Gb/s FC SAN that is using 62.5 micron multi-mode cable from a tape library to a server that is 175 meters away to 2Gb/s Fibre Channel. After switching to the 2Gb/s Fibre Channel equipment, a connection to the server cannot be maintained. When a connection is made, numerous errors are reported. What is the cause of the errors?
A. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel must convert to LC from SC connectors B. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel must use 50 micron multi-mode cable C. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel cable length requires an optical splitter D. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel cable length has been exceeded |
D
|
|
|
You have just completed installing, cabling, zoning, and device masking for a new server. HBA configuration was successful, yet the host cannot see the storage after executing a device find command. Investigation at the switch reveals that the host is not seen at the switch port. Light is visible at either end of the fiber but no link light is seen on the switch. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. the switch ports are enabled B. the HBA on the subsystem is not online C. the zone has not been activated D. transmit and receive fibers are reversed |
D
|
|
|
You have been asked to conduct a high-level inventory of a remote fibre channel SAN fabric. Your manager is worried that the remote site may include HBAs manufactured from a now bankrupt vendor. What information will be most useful to you to determine the HBA vendor?
A. HBA Port Mode B. AL_PA setting for HBA port C. FC_ID of the HBA port D. World Wide Port Name |
D
|
|
|
Users are complaining the response times are out of range on a retail application. Performance monitoring of the storage subsystem indicates that there are no problems. A check of the host error logs shows that there are excessive SCSI re-transmit errors. The 2Gb/s HBA on the host was recently replaced with a 4Gb/s HBA. What is the most probable cause of the timeout errors?
A. the link is utilizing 9 micron fiber B. SCSI timeout value is set too small C. the switch port to the storage subsystem is set at 2Gb/s D. the distance from the host to the storage subsystem is greater than 175 meters |
D
|
|
|
Identify the zoning object that is hardware enforced.
A. alias B. E_Port C. zone set D. F_Port |
D
|
|
|
What function of SATA is the equivalent of SCSI command tag queuing?
A. SATA command tag queuing B. SATA command queuing C. native command tag queuing D. native command queuing |
D
|
|
|
In what mode is NFS running when a link failure is transparent to both the server and client?
A. session oriented B. stateful C. seamless D. stateless |
D
|
|
|
You have diagnosed that a FC HBA has failed. You need to replace it quickly to complete the overnight data transfer. The only card you have available is a PCI-X 2.0 version running at 533MHz. The failed HBA was inserted into a PCI-X shared bus slot. What will be the result if you insert this new HBA into the same slot?
A. HBA will run at 533MHz. B. HBA will run at 266MHz. C. HBA will run at 133MHz. D. HBA will run at 100MHz. |
D
|
|
|
Which concept includes considerations such as data placement, deletion, repurposing, and regulatory archiving.
A. Tiers of management B. Backup and recovery C. Common data usage model D. Information lifecycle management |
D
|
|
|
Which transport method requires correct electrical termination on both ends?
A. SBus B. ATAPI C. PCI bus D. SCSI bus |
D
|
|
|
What component is a configuration management element of an IP storage solution?
A. HBA B. VSAN C. ISL D. VLAN |
D
|
|
|
What is the maximum potential bandwidth of a Fibre Channel connection in a 2 Gb SAN?
A. 100 MB/s B. 200 MB/s C. 300 MB/s D. 400 MB/s |
D
|
|
|
Which standard management agent resides in the file/record layer if the SNIA storage object model?
A. Host B. Device C. Network D. Database |
D
|
|
|
Which transport method requires correct electrical termination on both ends?
A. Sbus B. ATAPI C. PCI bus D. SCSI bus |
D
|
|
|
What component is a configuration management element of an IP storage solution?
A. HBA B. VSAN C. ISL D. VLAN |
D
|
|
|
Which default network file sharing protocol is used by Microsoft Windows clients in a NAS environment?
A. IPX B. NFS C. DNS D. CIFS |
D
|
|
|
What is the maximum potential bandwidth of a Fiber Channel connection in a 2 Gb SAN?
A. 100 MB/s B. 200 MB/s C. 300 MB/s D. 400 MB/s |
D
|
|
|
Which protocol allows booting from the network?
A. IFCP B. ICUP C. FCIP D. ISCSI |
D
|
|
|
Company.com needs to backup its data while keeping the data online. Cost and application performance are both important. The data can be backed up to tape between 12.00 AM and 6.00AM when the applications are not write intensive. Which solution is the most appropriate?
A. Create a split mirror snapshot, mount the snapshot to the same host, back the snapshot up to tape. B. Create a split mirror snapshot, mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to tape. C. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to the same host, back the snapshot up to tape. D. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to tape. |
D
|
|
|
Which IP Storage solution supports presentation of storage to an array of blade servers that Require remote boot, high storage availability, and minimal peak I/D requirements?
A. IFCP B. FCIP C. ISNS D. ISCSI |
D
|
|
|
What is the transfer communication method used in SCSI interfaces?
A. Duplex B. Simples C. Full duplex D. Half duplex |
D
|
|
|
Which tier provides highest availability and highest performance?
A. tier 4 B. tier 3 C. tier 2 D. tier 1 |
D
|
|
|
Which RAID level is the most commonly used for file servers, application server, web server, databases, and other transaction-oriented applications?
A. RAID 1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 4 D. RAID 5 |
D
|
|
|
Which Security method is used to insure that a particular host only has access to a particular
LUN? A. port binding B. hard zoning C. soft zoning D. LUN masking |
D
|
|
|
Which statement describes archiving?
A. Archiving is implemented for UNIX-based mail systems. B. Archiving provides copies of current data to be used in the event of a disaster C. Archiving selectively stores frequently used files and data on high performance media D. Archiving stores infrequently used files and data on lower performance media |
D
|
|
|
Which statement describes the cylinder in the disk drive?
A. where the data is stored or retrieved B. Used to read or write data on to the disk media C. Used to seek to the area where the requested data is located' D. A group of concentric slices through the physical disks. |
D
|
|
|
Which bus requires proper termination for stable operation?
A. SAS B. Fibre Channel C. SATA D. SCSI |
D
|
|
|
Which protocol is used to allow as NAS device to backup to a LAN attached backup device?
A. iSCSI B. NFS C. CIFS D. NDMP |
D
|
|
|
You are configuring a host to attach to a SAN-based storage device for the first time. The Storage is not visible. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The storage device does not have a license for SAN attached devices B. The reconfiguration command has not yet been executed C. One of the two Fibre Channel cables is disconnected from the host D. The HBA driver has not been configured or installed correctly |
D
|
|
|
What is the maximum distance of a 9-micrometer singlemode fiber with a 1300nm longwave laser at 2 Gbps?
A. >50k meters B. 10k meters C. 5k meters D. 2k meters |
D
|
|
|
What describes the basic rpm and storage capacity of an enterprise class disk drive when compared to entry level disk drives?
A. lower rpm and higher storage capacity B. higher rpm and higher storage capacity C. lower rpm and lower storage capacity D. higher rpm and lower storage capacity |
D
|
|
|
Which statement describes a Fibre Channel HBA?
A. A device that interfaces Fibre Channel with a Gigabit Ethernet B. A device that interfaces Fibre Channel to a SCSI bus C. A device that interfaces Fibre Channel With Ethernet storage arrays D. A device that interfaces Fibre Channel with a computer system |
D
|
|
|
Click the Exhibit button. You are troubleshooting an issue with Host 1 that should see newly installed storage devices A and B, however can only see Storage A and not Storage B. Which two (2) items should you check? (Choose two.)
A. connectivity of the ISL between the two switches B. if Host 1 is logged into the switch C. if Storage A is logged into the switch D. if Host 1 is zoned to Storage B E. if Storage B is logged into the switch |
D,E
|
|
|
Which of the following protocols allows FCoE devices to discover and initialize over an Ethernet network?
a) FIP b) ARP881514032 c) iSCSI |
A
|
|
|
Which of the following tools is recommended when performing hardware maintenance on the storage array?
a) Antistatic wrist strap b) Ear plugs c) Goggles d) Gloves |
A
|
|
|
How can duplicate views to a single volume on a server be eliminated without losing redundancy?
a) By installing the multipathing driver b) By using LUN masking c) By setting up zoning d) By installing the HBA driver |
A
|
|
|
Which set of SCSI components are required to support SCSI command tag queuing?
A. adapter, adapter driver, device, device driver B. adapter, device, device driver C. adapter, device driver, controller, controller firmware D. device, device driver |
A
|
|
|
A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem. The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA B. Disk HBAs C. Tape Drives D. FC to SCSI Gateway |
A
|
|
|
A server administrator notices when a specific server is re-booted its SAN storage is sometimes visible and sometimes it is not. After examining the SAN switch logs, no FLOGI message has been received on that port. Which HBA parameter is a most likely cause?
A. Port Link/Speed is set to Autonegotiate. B. WWPN reset timeout is set too low. C. R_A_TOV does not match. D. HBA Port Type is set to E-Port |
A
|
|
|
which portion of the 24-bit (aabbcc) fibre channel address identifies the domain ID?
A. aa B. cc C. aabb D. bbcc |
A
|
|
|
You have noticed some unusual behavior in your storage environment. You need to troubleshoot the problem and review the available options there are to resolve the issues and to restore stability. What will restore stability to the environment?
A. Install system upgrades promptly after successful testing. B. Align applications to information policy management requirements. C. Limit collaboration with other organizations with similar storage networks and configurations. D. An annual security audit should be performed and system logs should be scrutinized for unusual activity. |
A
|
|
|
You are looking at a Fibre Channel trace log and you notice that the class 2 communication session between one initiator and target continually stops and then restarts. You suspect that there is a flow control problem between this pair of devices. Which login communication session would you analyze in the trace log for the number of flow control credits that have been allocated?
A. port login B. loop login C. fabric login D. process login |
A
|
|
|
You have been asked to review your fabric management plan for effectiveness and efficiency, and to ensure that you are meeting its stated requirement. What should you check to see if you are meeting the defined SLAs?
A. viability of 1Gb/s FC technology to minimize problems with support B. backup and recovery test results and their impact on fabric infrastructure C. actual expenditure on fabric services against the predicted expenditure D. frequency of fabric failures and the number of services impacted |
A
|
|
|
A customer has deployed redundant switched fabrics in a HA environment which also includes non-HA, single-attached test servers. A new project requires additional connectivity for new HA servers to be placed into production, but there are not enough free ports available in one of the existing fabrics to complete the HA deployment. Which option would allow for the addition of the new hosts while maintaining the redundant infrastructure at least cost?
A. Add a new switch to the problem fabric to increase available ports on the switches. B. Add a new switch to both fabrics to increase available ports on the switches. C. Add ISL's between the existing fabrics to leverage all available ports on the switches. D. Cascade the existing switches into a new director class switch and add the hosts to the director. |
A
|
|
|
What is the primary reason for making an adjustment to the queue depth?
A. number of LUNs presented to the HBA changes B. average size of I/O blocks going through the HBA changes C. read/write ratio of I/O going through the HBA changesread/write ratio of I/O? going through the HBA changes D. size of cache on the storage system changes |
A
|
|
|
What is a concern when removing media from service?
A. data on media should be erased B. data on media should be archived C. tapes should be archived D. management information should be sanitized |
A
|
|
|
A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each fabric is contained within a single switch. Each cluster member has access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica accessed through eight (8) HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen (16) storage ports on one storage subsystem. The tape fabric includes one (1) connection to each server and direct connections to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. tape HBA B. disk HBAs C. tape drives D. subsystem contention |
A
|
|
|
Which conflict would cause fabric segmentation?
A. zone content mismatch B. only one zone set activated C. E_Ports not included in zone set D. inconsistent ISL zone configuration |
A
|
|
|
Which SMI-S related acronym describes an object-oriented description of the entities and relationships in a business management environment, divided into core and common models?
A. CIM B. SRM C. DRM D. DMTF |
A
|
|
|
Which type of storage management product would be used to perform LUN creation, mapping, And configuration without advanced integration of heterogeneous storage platforms?
A. Device manager B. Logical data manager C. Storage network manager D. Network management system |
A
|
|
|
Which component is a configuration management element of a host?
A. HBA B. Zone C. LUN D. VLAN |
A
|
|
|
Company.com is creating a backup and recovery plan using split mirror technology. Which order of steps must be taken to ensure a consistent and restorable backup of data?
A. Quiesce application, flush buffers, split mirrors, backup data B. Split mirrors , flush buffers, split mirrors, backup data C. Split mirrors , flush buffers ,quiesce application, backup data D. Flush buffers quiesce application, split mirrors, backup data |
A
|
|
|
Company.com's application and database will be rehosted and the underlying SCSI storage Subsystem replaced with an FC array. The new system's O/S, volume manager, application and database are incompatible, requiring many upgrades. Which action would you recommend?
A. Upgrade existing storage using host level migration B. Create a snapshot replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test C. Create a split mirror replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test D. Upgrade existing host to current volume manager, application and database levels and then migrate to new host using NDMP |
A
|
|
|
Which device enables a Fiber Channel transport/connection from a source host, and SCSI transport/connection from a target device to communicate by mapping the Fiber Channel ID to a SCSI address?
A. BRIDGE B. Switch C. Director D. SCSI extender |
A
|
|
|
Which classification of storage virtualization is implemented through firmware in the storage array?
A. Disk virtualization B. Block virtualization C. Filter/record virtualization D. File system virtualization |
A
|
|
|
From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A. In the event of loss of power at the primary data center B. When an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system C. In the event of litigation D. When a user accidentally deletes an important email |
A
|
|
|
In the exhibit, which type of connector is shown?
A. HSSDB9 B. HSSDC C. SATA D. VHDCI E. SCSI |
A
|
|
|
What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation for a financial services customer?
A. Data integrity B. Data redundancy C. Disk latency of less than 15 ms D. High availability |
A
|
|
|
What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer fiber witch a 850nm shortware laser at 1 Gbps?
A. 500 meters B. 300 meters C. 150 meters D. 70 meters |
A
|
|
|
Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door B. leader pin, read/write head assemble, supply reel, access door C. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel D. leader pin, read/write head assemble, supply reel, pickup reel |
A
|
|
|
Which is considered tier 2 storage in a datacenter with Three (3) storage tier?
A. tape vault B. Fibre channel disk array with dual controllers C. Nearline Storage D. intelligent storage virtualization |
A
|
|
|
Which connectivity types are associated with block level access?
A. DAS and SAN B. NAS and SAN C. LAN and SAN D. NAS and DAS |
A
|
|
|
You must implement a backup infrastructure for a remote office. This office has enough data to fill a single tape each night. You can remotely schedule and control your backup server backups throughout the night. The staff at this site is not technical and will not touch the equipment. You only need to store the last five days worth of data these tapes. What solution purchase and
A. Deploy a tape autoloader with enough tape slots to support a new tape for each night B. Deploy a set of five individual tape drives to the backup server each with a tape preloaded then C. Deploy a tape library with multiple tape drives to ensure quick backup and enough tape slots to D. Deploy a single direct attached tape drive to the backup server and instruct onsite personnel how to swap tapes to ensure a new blank tape is available each night. |
A
|
|
|
Which activity is performed by a storage device manager?
A. logical unit number (LUN) masking B. Volume group configuration C. File system configuration D. name server management |
A
|
|
|
What is the function of zoning?
A. Allows certain N ports to be visible to each other B. Allows certain logical units to be visible to a HBA C. Defines Which path data will take through the network D. Allows certain logical units mounted to the host |
A
|
|
|
Which can be included in a zone?
A. WWPN B. E ports C. Name Server D. Logical Units |
A
|
|
|
Which of the following protocols allows FCoE devices to discover and initialize over an Ethernet network?
a) FIP b) ARP881514032 c) iSCSI |
A
|
|
|
Which of the following tools is recommended when performing hardware maintenance on the storage array?
a) Antistatic wrist strap b) Ear plugs c) Goggles d) Gloves |
A
|
|
|
How can duplicate views to a single volume on a server be eliminated without losing redundancy?
a) By installing the multipathing driver b) By using LUN masking c) By setting up zoning d) By installing the HBA driver |
A
|
|
|
Which set of SCSI components are required to support SCSI command tag queuing?
A. adapter, adapter driver, device, device driver B. adapter, device, device driver C. adapter, device driver, controller, controller firmware D. device, device driver |
A
|
|
|
A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem. The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA B. Disk HBAs C. Tape Drives D. FC to SCSI Gateway |
A
|
|
|
A server administrator notices when a specific server is re-booted its SAN storage is sometimes visible and sometimes it is not. After examining the SAN switch logs, no FLOGI message has been received on that port. Which HBA parameter is a most likely cause?
A. Port Link/Speed is set to Autonegotiate. B. WWPN reset timeout is set too low. C. R_A_TOV does not match. D. HBA Port Type is set to E-Port |
A
|
|
|
which portion of the 24-bit (aabbcc) fibre channel address identifies the domain ID?
A. aa B. cc C. aabb D. bbcc |
A
|
|
|
You have noticed some unusual behavior in your storage environment. You need to troubleshoot the problem and review the available options there are to resolve the issues and to restore stability. What will restore stability to the environment?
A. Install system upgrades promptly after successful testing. B. Align applications to information policy management requirements. C. Limit collaboration with other organizations with similar storage networks and configurations. D. An annual security audit should be performed and system logs should be scrutinized for unusual activity. |
A
|
|
|
You are looking at a Fibre Channel trace log and you notice that the class 2 communication session between one initiator and target continually stops and then restarts. You suspect that there is a flow control problem between this pair of devices. Which login communication session would you analyze in the trace log for the number of flow control credits that have been allocated?
A. port login B. loop login C. fabric login D. process login |
A
|
|
|
You have been asked to review your fabric management plan for effectiveness and efficiency, and to ensure that you are meeting its stated requirement. What should you check to see if you are meeting the defined SLAs?
A. viability of 1Gb/s FC technology to minimize problems with support B. backup and recovery test results and their impact on fabric infrastructure C. actual expenditure on fabric services against the predicted expenditure D. frequency of fabric failures and the number of services impacted |
A
|
|
|
A customer has deployed redundant switched fabrics in a HA environment which also includes non-HA, single-attached test servers. A new project requires additional connectivity for new HA servers to be placed into production, but there are not enough free ports available in one of the existing fabrics to complete the HA deployment. Which option would allow for the addition of the new hosts while maintaining the redundant infrastructure at least cost?
A. Add a new switch to the problem fabric to increase available ports on the switches. B. Add a new switch to both fabrics to increase available ports on the switches. C. Add ISL's between the existing fabrics to leverage all available ports on the switches. D. Cascade the existing switches into a new director class switch and add the hosts to the director. |
A
|
|
|
What is the primary reason for making an adjustment to the queue depth?
A. number of LUNs presented to the HBA changes B. average size of I/O blocks going through the HBA changes C. read/write ratio of I/O going through the HBA changesread/write ratio of I/O? going through the HBA changes D. size of cache on the storage system changes |
A
|
|
|
What is a concern when removing media from service?
A. data on media should be erased B. data on media should be archived C. tapes should be archived D. management information should be sanitized |
A
|
|
|
A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each fabric is contained within a single switch. Each cluster member has access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica accessed through eight (8) HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen (16) storage ports on one storage subsystem. The tape fabric includes one (1) connection to each server and direct connections to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. tape HBA B. disk HBAs C. tape drives D. subsystem contention |
A
|
|
|
Which conflict would cause fabric segmentation?
A. zone content mismatch B. only one zone set activated C. E_Ports not included in zone set D. inconsistent ISL zone configuration |
A
|
|
|
Which type of storage management product would be used to perform LUN creation, mapping, And configuration without advanced integration of heterogeneous storage platforms?
A. Device manager B. Logical data manager C. Storage network manager D. Network management system |
A
|
|
|
Which component is a configuration management element of a host?
A. HBA B. Zone C. LUN D. VLAN |
A
|
|
|
Company.com is creating a backup and recovery plan using split mirror technology. Which order of steps must be taken to ensure a consistent and restorable backup of data?
A. Quiesce application, flush buffers, split mirrors, backup data B. Split mirrors , flush buffers, split mirrors, backup data C. Split mirrors , flush buffers ,quiesce application, backup data D. Flush buffers quiesce application, split mirrors, backup data |
A
|
|
|
Company.com's application and database will be rehosted and the underlying SCSI storage Subsystem replaced with an FC array. The new system's O/S, volume manager, application and database are incompatible, requiring many upgrades. Which action would you recommend?
A. Upgrade existing storage using host level migration B. Create a snapshot replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test C. Create a split mirror replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test D. Upgrade existing host to current volume manager, application and database levels and then migrate to new host using NDMP |
A
|
|
|
Which device enables a Fiber Channel transport/connection from a source host, and SCSI transport/connection from a target device to communicate by mapping the Fiber Channel ID to a SCSI address?
A. BRIDGE B. Switch C. Director D. SCSI extender |
A
|
|
|
Which classification of storage virtualization is implemented through firmware in the storage array?
A. Disk virtualization B. Block virtualization C. Filter/record virtualization D. File system virtualization |
A
|
|
|
From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A. In the event of loss of power at the primary data center B. When an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system C. In the event of litigation D. When a user accidentally deletes an important email |
A
|
|
|
In the exhibit, which type of connector is shown?
A. HSSDB9 B. HSSDC C. SATA D. VHDCI E. SCSI |
A
|
|
|
What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation for a financial services customer?
A. Data integrity B. Data redundancy C. Disk latency of less than 15 ms D. High availability |
A
|
|
|
What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer fiber witch a 850nm shortware laser at 1 Gbps?
A. 500 meters B. 300 meters C. 150 meters D. 70 meters |
A
|
|
|
Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door B. leader pin, read/write head assemble, supply reel, access door C. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel D. leader pin, read/write head assemble, supply reel, pickup reel |
A
|
|
|
Which is considered tier 2 storage in a datacenter with Three (3) storage tier?
A. tape vault B. Fibre channel disk array with dual controllers C. Nearline Storage D. intelligent storage virtualization |
A
|
|
|
Which connectivity types are associated with block level access?
A. DAS and SAN B. NAS and SAN C. LAN and SAN D. NAS and DAS |
A
|
|
|
You must implement a backup infrastructure for a remote office. This office has enough data to fill a single tape each night. You can remotely schedule and control your backup server backups throughout the night. The staff at this site is not technical and will not touch the equipment. You only need to store the last five days worth of data these tapes. What solution purchase and
A. Deploy a tape autoloader with enough tape slots to support a new tape for each night B. Deploy a set of five individual tape drives to the backup server each with a tape preloaded then C. Deploy a tape library with multiple tape drives to ensure quick backup and enough tape slots to D. Deploy a single direct attached tape drive to the backup server and instruct onsite personnel how to swap tapes to ensure a new blank tape is available each night. |
A
|
|
|
What does the acronym SATA mean?
A. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment B. SCSI attached Tunneled architecture C. Serial attached Tunneled architecture D. Serial Attached Technology Architecture |
A
|
|
|
What is the function of the head on the disk drive?
A. It is used to read or write data onto the disk media B. It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located C. It is where the data is stored or retrieved D. It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media |
A
|
|
|
An application administrator seeks to improve the I/O performance of the server's SAN-attached storage. Which HBA parameter setting change can affect the performance?
A. Queue Depth B. PCI Connection Type C. NL-Port Mode D. SCSI ID Mapping |
A
|
|
|
There are two datacenters separated by twelve (12) km with IP connections linking the two sites. Site A is the primary production site, Site B is for test/development & disaster recovery. Site A synchronously replicates data to Site B for disaster recovery purposes via a merged SAN fabric between the two sites. The communication between the two sites is lost. What storage event will occur as a result of this?
A. SAN Fabric will do a build fabric following segmentation B. SAN Fabric applications will stop executing I/O C. SAN Fabric will do a reconfigure fabric following segmentation D. SAN and non-SAN disk I/O will be halted |
A
|
|
|
You have been asked to review your fabric management plan for effectiveness and efficiency, and to ensure that you are meeting its stated requirement. What should you check to see if you are meeting the defined SLAs?
A. viability of 1Gb/s FC technology to minimize problems with support B. backup and recovery test results and their impact on fabric infrastructure C. actual expenditure on fabric services against the predicted expenditure D. frequency of fabric failures and the number of services impacted |
A
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What is the primary reason for making an adjustment to the queue depth?
A. number of LUNs presented to the HBA changes B. average size of I/O blocks going through the HBA changes C. read/write ratio of I/O going through the HBA changesread/write ratio of I/O? going through the HBA changes D. size of cache on the storage system changes |
A
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Which set of SCSI components are required to support SCSI command tag queuing?
A. adapter, adapter driver, device, device driver B. adapter, device, device driver C. adapter, device driver, controller, controller firmware D. device, device driver |
A
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An application administrator seeks to improve the I/O performance of the server's SAN-attached storage. Which HBA parameter setting change can affect the performance
A. Queue Depth B. PCI Connection Type C. NL-Port Mode D. SCSI ID Mapping |
A
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A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem. The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA B. Disk HBAs C. Tape Drives D. FC to SCSI Gateway |
A
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You must implement a backup infrastructure for a remote office. This office has enough data to fill a single tape each night. You can remotely schedule and control your backup server backups throughout the night. The staff at this site is not technical and will not touch the equipment. You only need to store the last five days worth of data these tapes. What solution purchase and administrative costs?
A. Deploy a tape autoloader with enough tape slots to support a new tape for each night B. Deploy a set of five individual tape drives to the backup server each with a tape preloaded then rotate the tape drive you use each night. C. Deploy a tape library with multiple tape drives to ensure quick backup and enough tape slots to support a new tape each night. D. Deploy a single direct attached tape drive to the backup server and instruct onsite personnel how to swap tapes to ensure a new blank tape is available each night. |
A
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A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each fabric is contained within a single switch. Each cluster member has access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica accessed through eight (8) HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen (16) storage ports on one storage subsystem. The tape fabric includes one (1) connection to each server and direct connections to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. tape HBA B. disk HBAs C. tape drives D. subsystem contention |
A
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Which type of storage management product would be used to perform LUN creation, mapping, And configuration without advanced integration of heterogeneous storage platforms?
A. Device manager B. Logical data manager C. Storage network manager D. Network management system |
A
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Which storage management component typically contains proprietary interfaces and is vendor supplied?
A. Device manager B. Logical data manager C. Storage network manager D. Network management system |
A
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Which utility typically enables abstraction of storage within a server?
A. LVM B. Switch zoning C. SAN appliance D. SMI-S monitoring tool |
A
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Which Fibre Channel topology was initially introduced as a replacement for physical SCSI?
A. FC_AL B. FDDI C. Point-to-point D. Switched Fabric |
A
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Company.com is creating a backup and recovery plan using split mirror technology. Which order of steps must be taken to ensure a consistent and restartable backup of data?
A. Quiesce application, flush buffers, split mirrors, backup data B. Split mirrors, quiesce application, flush buffers, backup data C. Split mirrors, flush buffers, quiesce application, backup data D. Flush buffers, quiesce application, split mirrors, backup data |
A
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Which component is a configuration management element of a host?
A. HBA B. Zone C. LUN D. VLAN |
A
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Company.com is creating a backup and recovery plan using split mirror technology. Which order of steps must be taken to ensure a consistent and restorable backup of data?
A. Quiesce application, flush buffers, split mirrors, backup data B. Split mirrors , flush buffers, split mirrors, backup data C. Split mirrors , flush buffers ,quiesce application, backup data D. Flush buffers quiesce application, split mirrors, backup data |
A
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Which standard defines a programming framework for implementing storage applications, including storage pooling, data replication and virtualization between heterogeneous storage systems?
A. FAIS B. FIPS C. FC-VI D. FC-GS |
A
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Which type of storage management product supports some standards such as SNMP agents and telnet interfaces, as well as provides front and rear device views with status?
A. Device manager B. Logical data manager C. Storage network manager D. Network management system |
A
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Which device enables a Fiber Channel transport/connection from a source host, and SCSI transport/connection from a target device to communicate by mapping the Fiber Channel ID to a SCSI address?
A. BRIDGE B. Switch C. Director D. SCSI extender |
A
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Which classification of storage virtualization is implemented through firmware in the storage array?
A. Disk virtualization B. Block virtualization C. Filter/record virtualization D. File system virtualization |
A
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In the exhibit, which type of connector is shown?
A. HSSDB9 B. HSSDC C. SATA D. VHDCI E. SCSI |
A
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What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation for a financial services customer?
A. Data integrity B. Data redundancy C. Disk latency of less than 15 ms D. High availability |
A
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Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door B. leader pin, read/write head assemble, supply reel, access door C. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel D. leader pin, read/write head assemble, supply reel, pickup reel |
A
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What is the maximum distance of 9 micrometer singlemode fiber a 1300nm longware laser at 4 Gbps?
A. > 50k meters B. 10k meters C. 5 k meters D. 2k meters |
A
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Given that devices used in the backup are accessed using fully independent paths through the fabric and ports at the array. Which backup strategy has the least impact on perform the most improved availability to a production application running in an active/standby cluster?
A. backup at the standby host from a split-mirror point-in-time copy. B. backup ata the primary host from a snapshot of a clone point-in-time copy C. backup a the standby host from a delta-snapshot of the production disks D. backup at the primary host from a multi-point snapshot of the production disks |
A
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What does the acronym SATA mean?
A. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment B. SCSI attached Tunneled architecture C. Serial attached Tunneled architecture D. Serial Attached Technology Architecture |
A
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What is the function of the head on the disk drive?
A. It is used to read or write data onto the disk media B. It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located C. It is where the data is stored or retrieved D. It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media |
A
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A stock trading application requires disaster tolerant storage for both transactional and analytical processing. The implementation resulted in both a database and a data warehouse.
A. As initial storage is extended to match capacity changes, remote storage is added dynamically. B. The storage administrator creates a series of policies that specify remote and local replication at the policy client. C. The storage administrator creates a series of policies that specify remote and local replication at the policy provider. D. As local storage is extended to match capacity changes, remote storage is reconfigurated within the capabilities of the storage pool. |
A,B
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What are two disadvantages of using a parallel interface? (Choose two.)
A. As the bus length increases, the chance of skew increases B. As the bus speed increases, the chance of skew increases C. As the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus length decreases D. As the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus queue depth increases |
A,B
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Which two Storage Virtualization classifications are host based? (choose two)
A. File/Record B. File System C. File Allocation D. File Redundancy |
A,B
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What two (2) benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)
A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel E. determines queue depth position |
A,B
|
|
|
A stock trading application requires disaster tolerant storage for both transactional and analytical processing. The implementation resulted in both a database and a data warehouse.
A. As initial storage is extended to match capacity changes, remote storage is added dynamically. B. The storage administrator creates a series of policies that specify remote and local replication at the policy client. C. The storage administrator creates a series of policies that specify remote and local replication at the policy provider. D. As local storage is extended to match capacity changes, remote storage is reconfigurated within the capabilities of the storage pool. |
A,B
|
|
|
What are two disadvantages of using a parallel interface? (Choose two.)
A. As the bus length increases, the chance of skew increases B. As the bus speed increases, the chance of skew increases C. As the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus length decreases D. As the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus queue depth increases |
A,B
|
|
|
Which two Storage Virtualization classifications are host based? (choose two)
A. File/Record B. File System C. File Allocation D. File Redundancy |
A,B
|
|
|
A stock trading application requires disaster tolerant storage for both transactional and analytical processing. The implementation resulted in both a database and a data warehouse.
A. As initial storage is extended to match capacity changes, remote storage is added dynamically. B. The storage administrator creates a series of policies that specify remote and local replication at the policy client. C. The storage administrator creates a series of policies that specify remote and local replication at the policy provider. D. As local storage is extended to match capacity changes, remote storage is reconfigurated within the capabilities of the storage pool. |
A,B
|
|
|
Which two Storage Virtualization classifications are host based? (choose two)
A. File/Record B. File System C. File Allocation D. File Redundancy |
A,B
|
|
|
What two (2) benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)
A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel E. determines queue depth position |
A,B
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Which three (3) backup methods support application recovery of a database? (Choose three.)
A. Use software snapshot technology that takes a point in time snapshot. B. Cold backup method where the database services have been stopped before the backup. C. Copy-on-Write technology built into the database that can be used by backup software. D. File system backup method including transaction log needed to run the backup and restore. E. Copy the database folder to another location and back up the files in the normal fashion. |
A,B,C
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Which three interface points test the interoperability of SMI-S? (Choose three.)
A. CIMOM to provider B. Client to CIM/WBEM C. CIM/WBEM to CIMOM D. CIM/WBEM to provider |
A,B,C
|
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|
Which three are advantages of using a SAN in a campus environment? (Choose three.)
A. Consolidate storage in a data center B. Increase storage resource utilization C. Decrease network traffic due to backups D. Decrease network traffic due to storage decentralization |
A,B,C
|
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Company.com is implementing a disaster recovery plan. When planning the performance impact of the solution which three concerns should be taken into consideration? (choose three)
A. Distance between sites B. Technology linking the remote sites C. Write intensive nature of applications D. RAID type used by data on local array |
A,B,C
|
|
|
Which three are advantages of using a SAN in a campus environment? (choose three)
A. Consolidate storage in a data center B. Increase storage resource utilization C. Decrease network traffic due to backup D. Decrease network traffic due to storage decentralization |
A,B,C
|
|
|
Which three (3) backup methods support application recovery of a database? (Choose three.)
A. Use software snapshot technology that takes a point in time snapshot. B. Cold backup method where the database services have been stopped before the backup. C. Copy-on-Write technology built into the database that can be used by backup software. D. File system backup method including transaction log needed to run the backup and restore. E. Copy the database folder to another location and back up the files in the normal fashion. |
A,B,C
|
|
|
Which three interface points test the interoperability of SMI-S? (Choose three.)
A. CIMOM to provider B. Client to CIM/WBEM C. CIM/WBEM to CIMOM D. CIM/WBEM to provider |
A,B,C
|
|
|
Which three are advantages of using a SAN in a campus environment? (Choose three.)
A. Consolidate storage in a data center B. Increase storage resource utilization C. Decrease network traffic due to backups D. Decrease network traffic due to storage decentralization |
A,B,C
|
|
|
Which three are advantages of using a SAN in a campus environment? (choose three)
A. Consolidate storage in a data center B. Increase storage resource utilization C. Decrease network traffic due to backup D. Decrease network traffic due to storage decentralization |
A,B,C
|
|
|
Which three are advantages of using a SAN in a campus environment? (choose three)
A. Consolidate storage in a data center B. Increase storage resource utilization C. Decrease network traffic due to backup D. Decrease network traffic due to storage decentralization |
A,B,C
|
|
|
What are three advantages of NAS? (Choose three.)
A. File services can be extended to hundreds of devices B. Easy to implement using the same protocols as file servers C. Provides a high-speed data path between servers and storage D. Clients running different operating systems can share the same files |
A,B,D
|
|
|
What are three advantages of NAS? (Choose three.)
A. File services can be extended to hundreds of devices B. Easy to implement using the same protocols as file servers C. Provides a high-speed data path between servers and storage D. Clients running different operating systems can share the same files |
A,B,D
|
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|
Which three Fiber Channel components have World Wide Names? (Choose three)
A. HBA B. Storage device port C. Physical port in a hub D. Physical port in a switch |
A,B,D
|
|
|
What are three advantages of NAS? (Choose three.)
A. File services can be extended to hundreds of devices B. Easy to implement using the same protocols as file servers C. Provides a high-speed data path between servers and storage D. Clients running different operating systems can share the same files |
A,B,D
|
|
|
The storage administrator has a request to add more storage to support added features on an application. Which two (2) steps must be taken for the application to recognize the added storage? (Choose two.)
A. re-scan the SCSI bus B. enable array re-scanning C. configure LUN masking D. zone the host to the subsystem port E. increase the HBA time out value |
A,C
|
|
|
When replacing an HBA, which two steps should be performed prior to connecting the HBA to the fabric? (Choose two.)
A. activate the zone set B. disable zoning for the old HBA C. update the alias map with the new WWN D. create a new zone for the old HBA to ensure isolation of the defective component E. rename the active zone(s) to match the new HBA's WWN |
A,C
|
|
|
What are two (2) valid steps when adding a new host to an existing fabric? (Choose two.)
A. create new zone B. remove zone members C. add new zone member D. deactivate the zone set E. merge new zone |
A,C
|
|
|
After developing a business continuity solution for your company, you implement a backup solution in your IT infrastructure with focus on backup and restore technologies. Which statements are correct when implementing this backup solution as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. backup impacts the LAN traffic B. multiplexing to tape reduces data traffic C. metadata is sent to the backup server D. servers can share the library for faster tape access E. backup server can directly backup snapshots of the primary storage |
A,C
|
|
|
A company with departmental Fibre Channel SANs has decided that they now want to merge them into a large enterprise SAN to assist with resource allocation and improve resource utilization. What two (2) configuration parameters should the administrator check before connecting the SANs to minimize service disruption? (Choose two.)
A. verify time out values match B. verify principle switch priorities match C. verify domain ID assignments are unique D. verify auto negotiation is enabled |
A,C
|
|
|
You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing replication strategies. What two (2) dependencies need to be considered in time-to-create and incremental re-establishment of a split mirror? (Choose two.)
A. LUN size B. file system C. changed data D. LDM E. sector size |
A,C
|
|
|
Which two are recognized by SNIA as elements of the storage virtualization taxonomy? (Choose two.)
A. Disk Virtualization B. Host Virtualization C. Block Virtualization D. Cache Virtualization |
A,C
|
|
|
which two are strengths of high end storage arrays in a SAN? (Choose two)
A. Provides higher availability B. No retraining is required to manage C. Servers and storage can scale independently D. Costs are comparable to DAS or NAS solution |
A,C
|
|
|
The storage administrator has a request to add more storage to support added features on an application. Which two (2) steps must be taken for the application to recognize the added storage? (Choose two.)
A. re-scan the SCSI bus B. enable array re-scanning C. configure LUN masking D. zone the host to the subsystem port E. increase the HBA time out value |
A,C
|
|
|
When replacing an HBA, which two steps should be performed prior to connecting the HBA to the fabric? (Choose two.)
A. activate the zone set B. disable zoning for the old HBA C. update the alias map with the new WWN D. create a new zone for the old HBA to ensure isolation of the defective component E. rename the active zone(s) to match the new HBA's WWN |
A,C
|
|
|
What are two (2) valid steps when adding a new host to an existing fabric? (Choose two.)
A. create new zone B. remove zone members C. add new zone member D. deactivate the zone set E. merge new zone |
A,C
|
|
|
After developing a business continuity solution for your company, you implement a backup solution in your IT infrastructure with focus on backup and restore technologies. Which statements are correct when implementing this backup solution as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. backup impacts the LAN traffic B. multiplexing to tape reduces data traffic C. metadata is sent to the backup server D. servers can share the library for faster tape access E. backup server can directly backup snapshots of the primary storage |
A,C
|
|
|
A company with departmental Fibre Channel SANs has decided that they now want to merge them into a large enterprise SAN to assist with resource allocation and improve resource utilization. What two (2) configuration parameters should the administrator check before connecting the SANs to minimize service disruption? (Choose two.)
A. verify time out values match B. verify principle switch priorities match C. verify domain ID assignments are unique D. verify auto negotiation is enabled |
A,C
|
|
|
You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing replication strategies. What two (2) dependencies need to be considered in time-to-create and incremental re-establishment of a split mirror? (Choose two.)
A. LUN size B. file system C. changed data D. LDM E. sector size |
A,C
|
|
|
Which two are recognized by SNIA as elements of the storage virtualization taxonomy? (Choose two.)
A. Disk Virtualization B. Host Virtualization C. Block Virtualization D. Cache Virtualization |
A,C
|
|
|
which two are strengths of high end storage arrays in a SAN? (Choose two)
A. Provides higher availability B. No retraining is required to manage C. Servers and storage can scale independently D. Costs are comparable to DAS or NAS solution |
A,C
|
|
|
Which two are common characteristics of DAS? (Choose two)
A. direct access to data is available from single server B. only available through SCSI/SAS interfaces C. storage capacity is captive to a single server D. storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network E. attached to the host computer by a switch |
A,C
|
|
|
Which two are recognized by SNIA as elements of the storage virtualization taxonomy? (Choose two.)
A. Disk Virtualization B. Host Virtualization C. Block Virtualization D. Cache Virtualization |
A,C
|
|
|
Which two are choices of physical transports for storage over IP? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. FCIP B. ICUP C. IFCP D. ISNS |
A,C
|
|
|
The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three benefits result from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. requires fewer inter-switch links B. simplifies management C. minimizes disruption due to configuration error D. minimizes disruption due to maintenance E. reduces maintenance activity |
A,C,D
|
|
|
What are three disadvantages of NAS when compared to Fiber Channel for database applications? (choose three)
A. Multi-path failover B. Distance from server C. Ethernet bandwidth limitations D. Scalability beyond single appliance |
A,C,D
|
|
|
The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three benefits result from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. requires fewer inter-switch links B. simplifies management C. minimizes disruption due to configuration error D. minimizes disruption due to maintenance E. reduces maintenance activity |
A,C,D
|
|
|
What are three disadvantages of NAS when compared to Fiber Channel for database applications? (choose three)
A. Multi-path failover B. Distance from server C. Ethernet bandwidth limitations D. Scalability beyond single appliance |
A,C,D
|
|
|
The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three benefits result from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. requires fewer inter-switch links B. simplifies management C. minimizes disruption due to configuration error D. minimizes disruption due to maintenance E. reduces maintenance activity |
A,C,D
|
|
|
The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three (3) benefits result from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. less inter-switch links B. simplifies manageability C. protection from human error D. reduction in maintenance activity E. decreased maintenance disruption |
A,C,E
|
|
|
The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three (3) benefits result from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. less inter-switch links B. simplifies manageability C. protection from human error D. reduction in maintenance activity E. decreased maintenance disruption |
A,C,E
|
|
|
Which three types of disk drive uses the SCSI command Language? (Choose Three)
A. SCSI B. SATA C. SAS D. ATA E. Fibre Channel |
A,C,E
|
|
|
The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three (3) benefits result from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. less inter-switch links B. simplifies manageability C. protection from human error D. reduction in maintenance activity E. decreased maintenance disruption |
A,C,E
|
|
|
Which three types of disk would be used to run your company OLTP application? (Choose three)
A. SCSI B. SATA C. SAS D. ATA E. Fibre Channel |
A,C,E
|
|
|
A company has implemented a stretch cluster between two sites that are 100km apart in conjunction with synchronous data replication. What are two (2) operational benefits of this implementation? (Choose two.)
A. decreased possibility of data inaccessibility B. protection against fabric service failure C. easier to manage SAN configuration D. increased application availability E. protection against ISL failure |
A,D
|
|
|
A HBA has failed in an application server that connects to a Fabric that uses WWPN zoning. Which two (2) steps should be completed after replacing the HBA to bring the application server back online? (Choose two.)
A. Change the zone configuration. B. Change the application metadata server. C. Change the WWPN login of the HBA. D. Change the LUN masking configuration. |
A,D
|
|
|
Which two sub-components are required in a specialized NAS operating system? (Choose two.)
A. File system B. User interface C. Process scheduler D. Communication protocols |
A,D
|
|
|
When migrating from 1 Gb FC SAN to 2 Gb FC SAN which two statements are true? (choose two)
A. 1 Gb and 2 Gb SAN devices are compatible. B. 1 Gb and 2 Gb SAN devices are not compatible. C. Maximum distance between server and switch is increased. D. Maximum distance between server and switch is decreased. |
A,D
|
|
|
A company has implemented a stretch cluster between two sites that are 100km apart in conjunction with synchronous data replication. What are two (2) operational benefits of this implementation? (Choose two.)
A. decreased possibility of data inaccessibility B. protection against fabric service failure C. easier to manage SAN configuration D. increased application availability E. protection against ISL failure |
A,D
|
|
|
A HBA has failed in an application server that connects to a Fabric that uses WWPN zoning. Which two (2) steps should be completed after replacing the HBA to bring the application server back online? (Choose two.)
A. Change the zone configuration. B. Change the application metadata server. C. Change the WWPN login of the HBA. D. Change the LUN masking configuration. |
A,D
|
|
|
Which two sub-components are required in a specialized NAS operating system? (Choose two.)
A. File system B. User interface C. Process scheduler D. Communication protocols |
A,D
|
|
|
When migrating from 1 Gb FC SAN to 2 Gb FC SAN which two statements are true? (choose two)
A. 1 Gb and 2 Gb SAN devices are compatible. B. 1 Gb and 2 Gb SAN devices are not compatible. C. Maximum distance between server and switch is increased. D. Maximum distance between server and switch is decreased. |
A,D
|
|
|
Which two performance criteria are used to determine the selection of a device for a tiered storage level? (Choose two)
A. performance (IOPs) B. age of data C. user profile D. availability/reliability E. power consumption ( watts/GB) |
A,D
|
|
|
A company has implemented a stretch cluster between two sites that are 100km apart in conjunction with synchronous data replication. What are two (2) operational benefits of this implementation? (Choose two.)
A. decreased possibility of data inaccessibility B. protection against fabric service failure C. easier to manage SAN configuration D. increased application availability E. protection against ISL failure |
A,D
|
|
|
Which two sub-components are required in a specialized NAS operating system? (Choose two.)
A. File system B. User interface C. Process scheduler D. Communication protocols |
A,D
|
|
|
When migrating from 1 Gb FC SAN to 2 Gb FC SAN which two statements are true? (choose two)
A. 1 Gb and 2 Gb SAN devices are compatible. B. 1 Gb and 2 Gb SAN devices are not compatible. C. Maximum distance between server and switch is increased. D. Maximum distance between server and switch is decreased. |
A,D
|
|
|
Which two performance criteria are used to determine the selection of a device for a tiered storage level? (Choose two)
A. performance (IOPs) B. age of data C. user profile D. availability/reliability E. power consumption ( watts/GB) |
A,D
|
|
|
Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization B. lowers cost-per-port per installation C. higher performance per ISL D. enables zoning simplicity E. more available F_Ports |
A,E
|
|
|
After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point Object (RPO) of one hour. What two (2) processes must be implemented to support this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage C. data snapshots from the previous day D. operating system and application reinstallation media E. hot or warm site |
A,E
|
|
|
Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization B. lowers cost-per-port per installation C. higher performance per ISL D. enables zoning simplicity E. more available F_Ports |
A,E
|
|
|
After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point Object (RPO) of one hour. What two (2) processes must be implemented to support this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage C. data snapshots from the previous day D. operating system and application reinstallation media E. hot or warm site |
A,E
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|
Which two have World wide Names? (Choose two)
A. Switches B. Disk arrays C. Zone sets D. Servers E. HBAs |
A,E
|
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|
What are two protocol options for transporting Fibre Channel over an IP network? (choose two)
A. FCIP B. FCAL C. SES D. iSNS E. iFCP |
A,E
|
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|
In the blade server environment, high network utilization of one of the hosts can impact performance of the other hosts in the same chassis because:
a) blade network switches do not support jumbo frames. b) blade network switches are shared. c) blades do not have NIC teaming configured. d) blades do not have TOE enabled. |
B
|
|
|
Which of the following terms describes the connection between nodes?
a) Array b) Link c) Switch d) Port |
B
|
|
|
which of the following is directly associated with the measurement of a storage system?s performance?
a) Port stats b) IOPS calculations c) Impact of replication d) Average I/O size |
B
|
|
|
Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration needs to be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?
A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to avoid segmentation. B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the second fabric. C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second fabric. D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid segmentation. |
B
|
|
|
A two fabric merge has failed leaving you with segmented fabrics. Which could be the the cause ofthe segmented fabrics?
A. unique domain Ids B. identical zone names C. timeouts set to equal values D. non-compatible interoperability modes |
B
|
|
|
Servers in your environment are connected to one physical infrastructure which consists of different logical fabrics. Which feature do you use to implement this topology?
A. NPIV B. Virtual Fabric C. Zoning D. Segmentation |
B
|
|
|
You are integrating a local tape backup solution in your IT environment. What can cause the Gigabit Ethernet to become the bottleneck in this backup environment?
A. agent installation during backup sessions B. metadata if millions of files are backed up C. second file copy of backup data to the catalog database D. data traffic through the backup server to the tape library |
B
|
|
|
You have recently upgraded a tape drive on a older switch to operate at 120MB/s from 80MB/s. Prior to purchasing the tape drives, you tested server dumps to a disk array across multiple ports and saw speeds exceeding 150MB/s. With the new tape drive, you have not seen any dump speed exceed 100MB/s. What is the most likely cause?
A. The new tape drive has logged into the fabric as a storage initiator. B. The switch only has 1Gb/s ports. C. You have not yet reset the switch port buffer credits. D. The tape drive has logged in as an iSCSI device. |
B
|
|
|
You have an existing disk subsystem with 16 drives that provides volumes for six Windows hosts on 2Gb/s links. You decide to add another 16 drive tray to double the number of raw hard drives in order to support five (5) new UNIX servers. The average server throughput is 20 MB/s. The disk subsystem is dual ported and configured active-passive. What is likely to occur
A. The zone configuration on the fabric will control the traffic flow to the disk subsystem. B. The added server demand on the disk subsystem will saturate the ports. C. The disk subsystem will notice the extra servers and go active-active to support the load. D. The Windows systems will receive precedence as they were registered first on the disk subsystem. |
B
|
|
|
University IT has its storage subsystems and fabric switches distributed throughout the campus. Each college and department provides their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security mechanism is most important to protect fabric services?
A. node authentication B. switch authentication C. port authentication D. link encryption |
B
|
|
|
A minor power outage (brownout) has caused you to reboot all of the equipment in your infrastructure. After successful reboots, some of the storage devices are missing from the fabric configuration. Which action could fix the problems?
A. replace the effected HBAs with new ones B. restore the active zone set from a backup C. restore the HBA configurations from backups D. replace the missing storage devices with new ones |
B
|
|
|
A customer has a SAS-based storage environment with a SAS domain and some standalone servers, each with multiple built-in SAS disks. The implementation includes direct routing, table routing and subtractive routing. Which role does a fanout expander play in subtractive routing?
A. It routes between edge expanders connected to it. B. It forwards routing requests to all other connected edge expanders. C. It disables currently unused branches to increase throughput. D. It is the sole source of subtractive routing requests in the SAS domain. |
B
|
|
|
What should the administrator verify before connecting a stand-alone populated switch to an existing fabric?
A. Verify port type assignment B. Verify domain ID assignment C. Verify FC_ID port assignment D. Verify principle switch assignment |
B
|
|
|
Which architecture allows system-to-system communication and user level DMA with as little CPU interaction as possible, most particularly for clustering?
A. FAIS B. FC-VI C. FC-CT D. FC-SW |
B
|
|
|
A customer is implementing a disaster recovery plan to backup data to a remote location 200 kilometersfrom their production facility. Which proposal should they use?
A. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM. B. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM. C. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution. D. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution. |
B
|
|
|
What is the SNIA Shared Storage Model?
A. Description of storage components and their differences B. Framework that captures the functional layers and properties of a storage system C. Specification, a design, a product, a recommendation of a storage infrastructure D. Systems architecture that describes partitioning of physical elements and their complex interactions |
B
|
|
|
Which Storage solution supports remote mirroring of FC switch attached storage arrays in geographically dispersed data centers?
A. iFCP B. FCIP C. iSNS D. iSCSI |
B
|
|
|
Which term refers to the information that can be accessed on a disk drive by all the heads without Having to seek?
A. Sector B. Cylinder C. Read cache D. Parity partition |
B
|
|
|
A clothing manufacturer is replicating its data asynchronously to a remote site. On the remote site, it creates a snapshot of the mirrored volume to use as a disaster tolerant backup Which choice contains the steps to create a consistent copy of the data?
A. Simply create the snapshot B. Quiesce the application at the production site, create the snapshot C. Split the link between the production and mirrored volumes, create the snapshots D. Split the production and mirrored volumes, quiesce the application at the production site, create the snapshot |
B
|
|
|
Which protocol is used for backups on an Ethernet based network?
A. FCIP B. NDMP C. iDMP D. iSNS |
B
|
|
|
What are the SCSI addressing components handled by the SCSI protocol?
A. SCSI bus, logical unit B. SCSI bus, target ID, logical unit C. SCSI bus, target ID, adaptor number D. SCSI bus, adaptor number, logical unit |
B
|
|
|
Which component is a configuration management element of fabric?
A. HBA B. Zone C. LUN D. VLAN |
B
|
|
|
What is a benefit of host-based data replication?
A. Full utilization of host CPU resources B. Storage device independent and application transparent C. Uses existing storage area network connections to complete replication D. Enables applications to virtualize host connectivity and parallel data processing |
B
|
|
|
Which SMI-S term provides information about physical and logical SAN entities found, often dynamically, within the management domain?
A. Extension B. Discovery C. Enumeration D. Intrinsic-method |
B
|
|
|
Which TCP/IP based protocol is used for connections between servers and IP-based storage devices?
A. FCIP B. ISCSI C. IFCP D. ISNS |
B
|
|
|
Which storage virtualization management technique uses the same path for both data and control?
A. Isas APPLICATION B. IN-BAND APPLIANCE C. STORAGE APPLIANCE D. OUT-OF-BAND APPLIANCE |
B
|
|
|
What is a common type simmetric key ciphering when securing stored information?
A. DEC B. AES C. Turing D. SSL |
B
|
|
|
What requeres the user to correctly install electrical terminators on both ends of the bus?
A. Sbus B. SCSI bus C. PCI bus D. Fibre Channel |
B
|
|
|
A unix server has recently been unable to mount its file systems after the HBA driver has been
A. The switch zoning was based on port assignments B. the Switch using worldwide naming has not been updated C. the disk array firmware was not updated D. The file system table was not updated to reflect the changes in device IDs. |
B
|
|
|
Which statement describes a RAID array?
A. Collection of disks in a single enclosure B. Collection of disks with a controller that provides mirroring functionality C. a pair of controllers that provides cache, striping, and virtualization services D. collection of Fiber Channel disks in a single enclosure |
B
|
|
|
Which storage networking environment uses file access through a standard Ethernet network?
A. SAN B. NAS C. CAS D. DAS |
B
|
|
|
In the blade server environment, high network utilization of one of the hosts can impact performance of the other hosts in the same chassis because:
a) blade network switches do not support jumbo frames. b) blade network switches are shared. c) blades do not have NIC teaming configured. d) blades do not have TOE enabled. |
B
|
|
|
Which of the following terms describes the connection between nodes?
a) Array b) Link c) Switch d) Port |
B
|
|
|
which of the following is directly associated with the measurement of a storage system?s performance?
a) Port stats b) IOPS calculations c) Impact of replication d) Average I/O size |
B
|
|
|
Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration needs to be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?
A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to avoid segmentation. B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the second fabric. C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second fabric. D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid segmentation. |
B
|
|
|
A two fabric merge has failed leaving you with segmented fabrics. Which could be the the cause ofthe segmented fabrics?
A. unique domain Ids B. identical zone names C. timeouts set to equal values D. non-compatible interoperability modes |
B
|
|
|
Servers in your environment are connected to one physical infrastructure which consists of different logical fabrics. Which feature do you use to implement this topology?
A. NPIV B. Virtual Fabric C. Zoning D. Segmentation |
B
|
|
|
You are integrating a local tape backup solution in your IT environment. What can cause the Gigabit Ethernet to become the bottleneck in this backup environment?
A. agent installation during backup sessions B. metadata if millions of files are backed up C. second file copy of backup data to the catalog database D. data traffic through the backup server to the tape library |
B
|
|
|
You have recently upgraded a tape drive on a older switch to operate at 120MB/s from 80MB/s. Prior to purchasing the tape drives, you tested server dumps to a disk array across multiple ports and saw speeds exceeding 150MB/s. With the new tape drive, you have not seen any dump speed exceed 100MB/s. What is the most likely cause?
A. The new tape drive has logged into the fabric as a storage initiator. B. The switch only has 1Gb/s ports. C. You have not yet reset the switch port buffer credits. D. The tape drive has logged in as an iSCSI device. |
B
|
|
|
You have an existing disk subsystem with 16 drives that provides volumes for six Windows hosts on 2Gb/s links. You decide to add another 16 drive tray to double the number of raw hard drives in order to support five (5) new UNIX servers. The average server throughput is 20 MB/s. The disk subsystem is dual ported and configured active-passive. What is likely to occur
A. The zone configuration on the fabric will control the traffic flow to the disk subsystem. B. The added server demand on the disk subsystem will saturate the ports. C. The disk subsystem will notice the extra servers and go active-active to support the load. D. The Windows systems will receive precedence as they were registered first on the disk subsystem. |
B
|
|
|
University IT has its storage subsystems and fabric switches distributed throughout the campus. Each college and department provides their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security mechanism is most important to protect fabric services?
A. node authentication B. switch authentication C. port authentication D. link encryption |
B
|
|
|
A minor power outage (brownout) has caused you to reboot all of the equipment in your infrastructure. After successful reboots, some of the storage devices are missing from the fabric configuration. Which action could fix the problems?
A. replace the effected HBAs with new ones B. restore the active zone set from a backup C. restore the HBA configurations from backups D. replace the missing storage devices with new ones |
B
|
|
|
A customer has a SAS-based storage environment with a SAS domain and some standalone servers, each with multiple built-in SAS disks. The implementation includes direct routing, table routing and subtractive routing. Which role does a fanout expander play in subtractive routing?
A. It routes between edge expanders connected to it. B. It forwards routing requests to all other connected edge expanders. C. It disables currently unused branches to increase throughput. D. It is the sole source of subtractive routing requests in the SAS domain. |
B
|
|
|
What should the administrator verify before connecting a stand-alone populated switch to an existing fabric?
A. Verify port type assignment B. Verify domain ID assignment C. Verify FC_ID port assignment D. Verify principle switch assignment |
B
|
|
|
Which architecture allows system-to-system communication and user level DMA with as little CPU interaction as possible, most particularly for clustering?
A. FAIS B. FC-VI C. FC-CT D. FC-SW |
B
|
|
|
A customer is implementing a disaster recovery plan to backup data to a remote location 200 kilometersfrom their production facility. Which proposal should they use?
A. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM. B. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM. C. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution. D. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution. |
B
|
|
|
What is the SNIA Shared Storage Model?
A. Description of storage components and their differences B. Framework that captures the functional layers and properties of a storage system C. Specification, a design, a product, a recommendation of a storage infrastructure D. Systems architecture that describes partitioning of physical elements and their complex interactions |
B
|
|
|
Which Storage solution supports remote mirroring of FC switch attached storage arrays in geographically dispersed data centers?
A. iFCP B. FCIP C. iSNS D. iSCSI |
B
|
|
|
Which term refers to the information that can be accessed on a disk drive by all the heads without Having to seek?
A. Sector B. Cylinder C. Read cache D. Parity partition |
B
|
|
|
A clothing manufacturer is replicating its data asynchronously to a remote site. On the remote site, it creates a snapshot of the mirrored volume to use as a disaster tolerant backup Which choice contains the steps to create a consistent copy of the data?
A. Simply create the snapshot B. Quiesce the application at the production site, create the snapshot C. Split the link between the production and mirrored volumes, create the snapshots D. Split the production and mirrored volumes, quiesce the application at the production site, create the snapshot |
B
|
|
|
Which protocol is used for backups on an Ethernet based network?
A. FCIP B. NDMP C. iDMP D. iSNS |
B
|
|
|
What are the SCSI addressing components handled by the SCSI protocol?
A. SCSI bus, logical unit B. SCSI bus, target ID, logical unit C. SCSI bus, target ID, adaptor number D. SCSI bus, adaptor number, logical unit |
B
|
|
|
Which component is a configuration management element of fabric?
A. HBA B. Zone C. LUN D. VLAN |
B
|
|
|
What is a benefit of host-based data replication?
A. Full utilization of host CPU resources B. Storage device independent and application transparent C. Uses existing storage area network connections to complete replication D. Enables applications to virtualize host connectivity and parallel data processing |
B
|
|
|
Which SMI-S term provides information about physical and logical SAN entities found, often dynamically, within the management domain?
A. Extension B. Discovery C. Enumeration D. Intrinsic-method |
B
|
|
|
Which TCP/IP based protocol is used for connections between servers and IP-based storage devices?
A. FCIP B. ISCSI C. IFCP D. ISNS |
B
|
|
|
Which storage virtualization management technique uses the same path for both data and control?
A. Isas APPLICATION B. IN-BAND APPLIANCE C. STORAGE APPLIANCE D. OUT-OF-BAND APPLIANCE |
B
|
|
|
What is a common type simmetric key ciphering when securing stored information?
A. DEC B. AES C. Turing D. SSL |
B
|
|
|
What requeres the user to correctly install electrical terminators on both ends of the bus?
A. Sbus B. SCSI bus C. PCI bus D. Fibre Channel |
B
|
|
|
A unix server has recently been unable to mount its file systems after the HBA driver has been
A. The switch zoning was based on port assignments B. the Switch using worldwide naming has not been updated C. the disk array firmware was not updated D. The file system table was not updated to reflect the changes in device IDs. ` |
B
|
|
|
Which statement describes a RAID array?
A. Collection of disks in a single enclosure B. Collection of disks with a controller that provides mirroring functionality C. a pair of controllers that provides cache, striping, and virtualization services D. collection of Fiber Channel disks in a single enclosure |
B
|
|
|
Which component in an IP storage application requires configuration management?
A. HBA B. VLAN C. ISL D. VSAN |
B
|
|
|
Which statement describes the relationship between SAS and SATA devices regarding storage capacity?
A. SATA devices have less storage capacity than SAS devices B. SAS devices have less storage capacity than SATA devices C. STA and SAS devices have the same storage capacity D. SAS devices have less performance than SATA drives |
B
|
|
|
What do typical Fibre Channel host adapter settings include?
A. LUN mask, zoning, and world wide name B. host adapter BIOS, spin up delay, and enable selectable boot C. host adapter BIOS, World wide node name and world wide port name D. spin up delay, host adapter ID and Fibre Channel address |
B
|
|
|
Which tier of storage and associated cost would store a company's mission critical online data?
A. tier one, lower cost per gigabyte B. tier one, higher cost per gigabyte C. tier two, higher cost per gigabyte D. tier two, lower cost per gigabyte |
B
|
|
|
What does the acronym PCI mean?
A. PC interface B. Peripheral component interconnect C. peripheral common interconnect D. PC interconnect |
B
|
|
|
Where is LUN masking is performed?
A. Fibre Channel Switch B. Disk Controller C. Network Interface Card D. Fibre Channel Director |
B
|
|
|
What describes RAID 3?
A. Independent access with dedicated parity B. parallel access with parity C. independent access with interleaved parity D. striping |
B
|
|
|
What requires the user to correctly install electrical terminators on both ends of the bus?
A. Sbus B. SCSI bus C. PCI bus D. Fibre Channel |
B
|
|
|
Which protocol can be used for backups on as IP based network?
A. FCIP B. NDMP C. iFCP D. SES |
B
|
|
|
What are the steps to restore a complete backup that is using differential method?
A. latest full and lasted differential backup must be restored B. latest full and all subsequent differential backups must be restored C. latest full must be restored D. latest incremental must be restored |
B
|
|
|
A two fabric merge has failed leaving you with segmented fabrics. Which could be the the cause of the segmented fabrics?
A. unique domain Ids B. identical zone names C. timeouts set to equal values D. non-compatible interoperability modes |
B
|
|
|
Which portion of the 24-bit (aabbcc) fiber channel address identifies the area?
A. cc B. bb C. aabb D. bbcc |
B
|
|
|
A two fabric merge has failed leaving you with segmented fabrics. Which could be the the cause ofthe segmented fabrics?
A. unique domain Ids B. identical zone names C. timeouts set to equal values D. non-compatible interoperability modes |
B
|
|
|
University IT provides shared Fibre Channel storage services. All storage subsystems and fibre channel switches are located in the secure campus datacenter. Each college and department provides their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security mechanism is most important in this Fibre Channel infrastructure?
A. FCPAP B. link encryption C. switch authentication D. port authentication |
B
|
|
|
Your current backup solution includes a backup server and six tape drives within a tape library. The routers are connected to the SAN and the servers are zoned on the SAN to see the array. The server sends a set of commands to the tape routes causing the routers to talk directly to the volumes and copy them to the tape drives. Which backup infrastructure type would describe this process?
A. D2D (disc-to-disk) B. 3PC (3rd party copy) C. SSO (shared storage option) D. D2R2T (disk to route to tape) |
B
|
|
|
A unix server has recently been unable to mount its file systems after the HBA driver has been replaced and driver has been upgraded. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The switch zoning was based on port assignments B. the Switch using worldwide naming has not been updated C. the disk array firmware was not updated D. The file system table was not updated to reflect the changes in device IDs. |
B
|
|
|
A minor power outage (brownout) has caused you to reboot all of the equipment in your infrastructure. After successful reboots, some of the storage devices are missing from the fabric configuration. Which action could fix the problems?
A. replace the effected HBAs with new ones B. restore the active zone set from a backup C. restore the HBA configurations from backups D. replace the missing storage devices with new ones |
B
|
|
|
A customer is implementing a disaster recovery plan to backup data to a remote location 200 kilometersfrom their production facility. Which proposal should they use?
A. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM. B. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM. C. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution. D. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution. |
B
|
|
|
What is the SNIA Shared Storage Model?
A. Description of storage components and their differences B. Framework that captures the functional layers and properties of a storage system C. Specification, a design, a product, a recommendation of a storage infrastructure D. Systems architecture that describes partitioning of physical elements and their complex interactions |
B
|
|
|
What occurs when iSCSI has been implemented in software?
A. FCIP is automatically enabled. B. Host CPU overhead increases. C. Network bandwidth increases to 10Gb/s. D. Performance is equal to Fibre Channel host bus adapters. |
B
|
|
|
Which term refers to the information that can be accessed on a disk drive by all the heads without Having to seek?
A. Sector B. Cylinder C. Read cache D. Parity partition |
B
|
|
|
Which storage networking environment accesses the file system through a local area network?
A. SAN B. NAS C. CAD D. DAS |
B
|
|
|
Which component is a configuration management element of fabric?
A. HBA B. Zone C. LUN D. VLAN |
B
|
|
|
Which drive type is considered a dumb drive in which the controller carries all the intelligence?
A. ATA B. SCSI C. SATA D. Parallel ATA |
B
|
|
|
What are the SCSI addressing components handled by the SCSI protocol?
A. SCSI bus, logical unit B. SCSI bus, target ID, logical unit C. SCSI bus, target ID, adaptor number D. SCSI bus, adaptor number, logical unit |
B
|
|
|
Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration needs to be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?
A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to avoid segmentation. B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the second fabric. C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second fabric. D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid segmentation. |
B
|
|
|
Which storage virtualization management technique uses the same path for both data and
control? A. Isas APPLICATION B. IN-BAND APPLIANCE C. STORAGE APPLIANCE D. OUT-OF-BAND APPLIANCE |
B
|
|
|
Which statement describes a RAID array?
A. Collection of disks in a single enclosure B. Collection of disks with a controller that provides mirroring functionality C. a pair of controllers that provides cache, striping, and virtualization services D. collection of Fiber Channel disks in a single enclosure |
B
|
|
|
Which Fibre Channel protocol layer handles 8/10 bit encoding?
A. FC-0 B. FC-1 C. FC-2 D. FC-3 |
B
|
|
|
What is the definition of asinchronous replication?
A. Does not require acknowledged copy of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host. B. requires acknowledged write of data on primary storage only and data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit C. Requires acknowledged write of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host. D. Does not require acknowledged write of data on primary storage before data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit |
B
|
|
|
Which component in an IP storage application requires configuration management?
A. HBA B. VLAN C. ISL D. VSAN |
B
|
|
|
Which statement describes the relationship between SAS and SATA devices regarding storage capacity?
A. SATA devices have less storage capacity than SAS devices B. SAS devices have less storage capacity than SATA devices C. STA and SAS devices have the same storage capacity D. SAS devices have less performance than SATA drives |
B
|
|
|
Which tier of storage and associated cost would store a company's mission critical online data?
A. tier one, lower cost per gigabyte B. tier one, higher cost per gigabyte C. tier two, higher cost per gigabyte D. tier two, lower cost per gigabyte |
B
|
|
|
What does the acronym PCI mean?
A. PC interface B. Peripheral component interconnect C. peripheral common interconnect D. PC interconnect |
B
|
|
|
What describes RAID 3?
A. Independent access with dedicated parity B. parallel access with parity C. independent access with interleaved parity D. striping |
B
|
|
|
Which protocol can be used for backups on as IP based network?
A. FCIP B. NDMP C. iFCP D. SES |
B
|
|
|
What two (2) technologies are commonly used in a business continuity plan? (Choose two.)
A. tape backup with restore to a remote site B. subsytem-based synchronous replication to a remote site C. subsystem-based asynchronous replication to a remote site D. subsystem-based replication in the same datacenter E. virtual tape library with restore to a remote site |
B,C
|
|
|
Which typical data characteristics would define archival data? (Choose two.)
A. short-term B. long-term C. offline D. online E. dynamic |
B,C
|
|
|
Which two are characteristic of mid-tier DAS? (Choose two.)
A. Requires specialized training to manage B. Storage must be located near the server C. Data is not readily shared over many servers D. Storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network |
B,C
|
|
|
Which two are advantages of hardware RAID controllers? (Choose two.)
A. Volume management is performed by the server. B. Volume management is performed by controller card. C. Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance. D. Parity calculation by the server and cache memory in the RAID controller increases read and Write performance. |
B,C
|
|
|
What are two examples of active, malicious attacks possible in IP Storage transport evironments? (Choose two)
A. Eavesdropping B. Identity spoofing C. Man-in-the-middle D. Data origin authentication |
B,C
|
|
|
You have been asked to restore a database for an audit from the backup dated 31 December 2001 to a spare machine. Which two storage issues cause the most risk to a successful restore, given that you have enough storage assigned to the system? (choose two)
A. Storage assignment B. File system structure C. Host LVM/LDM structure D. Zoning and LUN masking |
B,C
|
|
|
Which two components are required in a specialized NAS operating system? (choose two)
A. User processes B. Network interface C. Storage management D. Application scheduling |
B,C
|
|
|
What two (2) technologies are commonly used in a business continuity plan? (Choose two.)
A. tape backup with restore to a remote site B. subsytem-based synchronous replication to a remote site C. subsystem-based asynchronous replication to a remote site D. subsystem-based replication in the same datacenter E. virtual tape library with restore to a remote site |
B,C
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Which typical data characteristics would define archival data? (Choose two.)
A. short-term B. long-term C. offline D. online E. dynamic |
B,C
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Which two are characteristic of mid-tier DAS? (Choose two.)
A. Requires specialized training to manage B. Storage must be located near the server C. Data is not readily shared over many servers D. Storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network |
B,C
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Which two are advantages of hardware RAID controllers? (Choose two.)
A. Volume management is performed by the server. B. Volume management is performed by controller card. C. Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance. D. Parity calculation by the server and cache memory in the RAID controller increases read and Write performance. |
B,C
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What are two examples of active, malicious attacks possible in IP Storage transport evironments? (Choose two)
A. Eavesdropping B. Identity spoofing C. Man-in-the-middle D. Data origin authentication |
B,C
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You have been asked to restore a database for an audit from the backup dated 31 December 2001 to a spare machine. Which two storage issues cause the most risk to a successful restore, given that you have enough storage assigned to the system? (choose two)
A. Storage assignment B. File system structure C. Host LVM/LDM structure D. Zoning and LUN masking |
B,C
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Which two components are required in a specialized NAS operating system? (choose two)
A. User processes B. Network interface C. Storage management D. Application scheduling |
B,C
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Which two are characteristic of mid-tier DAS? (Choose two.)
A. Requires specialized training to manage B. Storage must be located near the server C. Data is not readily shared over many servers D. Storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network |
B,C
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Which two are advantages of hardware RAID controllers? (Choose two.)
A. Volume management is performed by the server. B. Volume management is performed by controller card. C. Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance. D. Parity calculation by the server and cache memory in the RAID controller increases read and Write performance. |
B,C
|
|
|
What are two examples of active, malicious attacks possible in IP Storage transport environments? (Choose two)
A. Eavesdropping B. Identity spoofing C. Man-in-the-middle D. Data origin authentication |
B,C
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|
You have been asked to restore a database for an audit from the backup dated 31 December 2001 to a spare machine. Which two storage issues cause the most risk to a successful restore, given that you have enough storage assigned to the system? (choose two)
A. Storage assignment B. File system structure C. Host LVM/LDM structure D. Zoning and LUN masking |
B,C
|
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Which two components are required in a specialized NAS operating system? (choose two)
A. User processes B. Network interface C. Storage management D. Application scheduling |
B,C
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Which three options are benefits of using storage based replication? (Choose three.)
A. Minimal or no host load B. Host platform independent C. Minimal client network load D. Storage platform independent E. Minimal storage network load |
B,C,D
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Which three may describe a NAS head or gateway? (Choose three.)
A. Integrated disk storage B. Connection to an IP network C. Clustering and failover features D. file serving to clients and servers |
B,C,D
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Which three options are benefits of using storage based replication? (Choose three.)
A. Minimal or no host load B. Host platform independent C. Minimal client network load D. Storage platform independent E. Minimal storage network load |
B,C,D
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Which three may describe a NAS head or gateway? (Choose three.)
A. Integrated disk storage B. Connection to an IP network C. Clustering and failover features D. file serving to clients and servers |
B,C,D
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Which three options are benefits of using storage based replication? (Choose three.)
A. Minimal or no host load B. Host platform independent C. Minimal client network load D. Storage platform independent E. Minimal storage network load |
B,C,D
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Which three may describe a NAS head or gateway? (Choose three.)
A. Integrated disk storage B. Connection to an IP network C. Clustering and failover features D. file serving to clients and servers |
B,C,D
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Which of the following are commonly used for accessing storage on a storage array? (Select TWO).
a) USB b) Ethernet c) DB-9 d) Fibre Channel e) RJ-11 |
B,D
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A customer has a database server that processes a great deal of data very quickly. They have identified a bottleneck in the storage subsystem and requested a change to the RAID configuration. How would you configure the new RAID group? (Choose two.)
A. Stripe across 7200 rpm drives B. Stripe across 15K rpm drives C. RAID 6 D. RAID 1+0 E. RAID 5 |
B,D
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Which two (2) processes occur during a fabric merge? (Choose two.)
A. TOV negotiation B. zone set passing C. FSPF trunk negotiation D. name server communication E. subordinate switch negotiation |
B,D
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You are implementing a remote synchronous replication strategy over the FC SAN for disaster recovery. Which two must you consider? (Choose two.)
A. ISL aggregation B. throughput requirement C. location of principal switch D. acceptable latency to the application E. disk subsystem RAID level compatibility |
B,D
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Which two recovery risks exist, given backup of a multi-protocol NAS device taken from a client System through an active share? (Choose two.)
A. Loss of SMB files B. Loss of NFS meta data C. Loss of CIFS meta data D. Loss of ACL information |
B,D
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Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1 B. RAID 4 C. RAID 1+0 D. RAID 5 |
B,D
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Which two recovery risks exist, given backup of a multi-protocol NAS device taken from a client System through an active share? (choose two)
A. Loss of SMB files B. Loss of NFS meta data C. Loss of CIFS meta data D. Loss of ACL information |
B,D
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What are two advantages of a switched fabric over arbitrated loop topology? (choose two)
A. A single Fabric can scale to 2048 switches. B. Failure of a single device in a switched topology affects only that device. C. Each device arbitrated to gain access to the switch thus avoids contention. D. Number of devices that can be attached increases as the size of the switching structure expands. |
B,D
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What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (choose two)
A. Lower CPU overhead B. Lower cost infrastructure C. Greater security exposure D. Can use existing network management tools |
B,D
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Which two describe the SNIA SMI-S interoperability Conformance Test Program (ICTP)? (Choose two)
A. Audits vendor test suit results to achieve ICTP logo B. Tests any device for compliance to one or more SMI profiles C. Delivers plug fest to validate compliance and achieve ICTP logo D. Provides validation of storage vendor implementation of an SMI-S release |
B,D
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Company.com has implemented a high availability tape backup process that uses snapshots. The snapshots are backed up to tape. When checking the backup, the data is found to be corrupt. Which two options will fix this problem? (choose two)
A. Quiesce the application before backing up the data B. Unmount the file system before backing up the data C. Quiesce the application before creating the snapshot D. Unmount the file system before creating the snapshot |
B,D
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Which of the following are commonly used for accessing storage on a storage array? (Select TWO).
a) USB b) Ethernet c) DB-9 d) Fibre Channel e) RJ-11 |
B,D
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|
|
A customer has a database server that processes a great deal of data very quickly. They have identified a bottleneck in the storage subsystem and requested a change to the RAID configuration. How would you configure the new RAID group? (Choose two.)
A. Stripe across 7200 rpm drives B. Stripe across 15K rpm drives C. RAID 6 D. RAID 1+0 E. RAID 5 |
B,D
|
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Which two (2) processes occur during a fabric merge? (Choose two.)
A. TOV negotiation B. zone set passing C. FSPF trunk negotiation D. name server communication E. subordinate switch negotiation |
B,D
|
|
|
You are implementing a remote synchronous replication strategy over the FC SAN for disaster recovery. Which two must you consider? (Choose two.)
A. ISL aggregation B. throughput requirement C. location of principal switch D. acceptable latency to the application E. disk subsystem RAID level compatibility |
B,D
|
|
|
Which two recovery risks exist, given backup of a multi-protocol NAS device taken from a client System through an active share? (Choose two.)
A. Loss of SMB files B. Loss of NFS meta data C. Loss of CIFS meta data D. Loss of ACL information |
B,D
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|
|
Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1 B. RAID 4 C. RAID 1+0 D. RAID 5 |
B,D
|
|
|
Which two recovery risks exist, given backup of a multi-protocol NAS device taken from a client System through an active share? (choose two)
A. Loss of SMB files B. Loss of NFS meta data C. Loss of CIFS meta data D. Loss of ACL information |
B,D
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|
|
What are two advantages of a switched fabric over arbitrated loop topology? (choose two)
A. A single Fabric can scale to 2048 switches. B. Failure of a single device in a switched topology affects only that device. C. Each device arbitrated to gain access to the switch thus avoids contention. D. Number of devices that can be attached increases as the size of the switching structure expands. |
B,D
|
|
|
What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (choose two)
A. Lower CPU overhead B. Lower cost infrastructure C. Greater security exposure D. Can use existing network management tools |
B,D
|
|
|
Which two describe the SNIA SMI-S interoperability Conformance Test Program (ICTP)? (Choose two)
A. Audits vendor test suit results to achieve ICTP logo B. Tests any device for compliance to one or more SMI profiles C. Delivers plug fest to validate compliance and achieve ICTP logo D. Provides validation of storage vendor implementation of an SMI-S release |
B,D
|
|
|
Company.com has implemented a high availability tape backup process that uses snapshots. The snapshots are backed up to tape. When checking the backup, the data is found to be corrupt. Which two options will fix this problem? (choose two)
A. Quiesce the application before backing up the data B. Unmount the file system before backing up the data C. Quiesce the application before creating the snapshot D. Unmount the file system before creating the snapshot |
B,D
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|
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Serial-Attached SCSI(SAS) supports which two link speed? ( Choose two)
A. 1.0625 Gbps B. 1.5 Gbps C. 2.125 Gbps D. 3.0 Gbps E. 4.25 Gbps |
B,D
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|
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Which two link speeds are supported by SATA devices? (Choose two)
A. 1.0625 Gbps B. 1.5Gbps C. 2.125 Gbps D. 3.0 Gbps E. 4.25 Gbps |
B,D
|
|
|
Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) supports which two link speeds? (Choose two)
A. 1.0625 Gbps B. 1.5 Gbps C. 2.125 Gbps D. 3.0 Gbps E. 4.25 Gbps |
B,D
|
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You have been asked to add 2 new PCI-X cards into an existing server architecture and notice that they run at different clock speeds. The system has both shared and dedicated PCI bus slots available. In order to maximize performance, which PCI cards should be installed in which slots? (Choose two.)
A. PCI-X bus slots are speed independent B. PCI-X 133 installed in a dedicated bus slot C. PCI-X 100 installed in a dedicated bus slot D. PCI-X 100 installed in a shared bus slot E. PCI-X 133 installed in a shared bus slot |
B,D
|
|
|
A customer has a database server that processes a great deal of data very quickly. They have identified a bottleneck in the storage subsystem and requested a change to the RAID configuration. How would you configure the new RAID group? (Choose two.)
A. Stripe across 7200 rpm drives B. Stripe across 15K rpm drives C. RAID 6 D. RAID 1+0 E. RAID 5 |
B,D
|
|
|
You are implementing a remote synchronous replication strategy over the FC SAN for disaster recovery. Which two must you consider? (Choose two.)
A. ISL aggregation B. throughput requirement C. location of principal switch D. acceptable latency to the application E. disk subsystem RAID level compatibility |
B,D
|
|
|
Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1 B. RAID 4 C. RAID 1+0 D. RAID 5 |
B,D
|
|
|
Which two recovery risks exist, given backup of a multi-protocol NAS device taken from a client System through an active share? (choose two)
A. Loss of SMB files B. Loss of NFS meta data C. Loss of CIFS meta data D. Loss of ACL information |
B,D
|
|
|
What are two advantages of a switched fabric over arbitrated loop topology? (choose two)
A. A single Fabric can scale to 2048 switches. B. Failure of a single device in a switched topology affects only that device. C. Each device arbitrated to gain access to the switch thus avoids contention. D. Number of devices that can be attached increases as the size of the switching structure expands. |
B,D
|
|
|
What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (choose two)
A. Lower CPU overhead B. Lower cost infrastructure C. Greater security exposure D. Can use existing network management tools |
B,D
|
|
|
which two link speeds are supported by SATA devices? (Choose two)
A. 1.0625 Gbps B. 1.5Gbps C. 2.125 Gbps D. 3.0 Gbps E. 4.25 Gbps |
B,D
|
|
|
Which two describe the SNIA SMI-S interoperability Conformance Test Program (ICTP)? (Choose two)
A. Audits vendor test suit results to achieve ICTP logo B. Tests any device for compliance to one or more SMI profiles C. Delivers plug fest to validate compliance and achieve ICTP logo D. Provides validation of storage vendor implementation of an SMI-S release |
B,D
|
|
|
Company.com has implemented a high availability tape backup process that uses snapshots. The snapshots are backed up to tape. When checking the backup, the data is found to be corrupt. Which two options will fix this problem? (choose two)
A. Quiesce the application before backing up the data B. Unmount the file system before backing up the data C. Quiesce the application before creating the snapshot D. Unmount the file system before creating the snapshot |
B,D
|
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What two types of disk drives would NOT be used to store your company's database application and source files when reliability is the most important factor? (Choose two)
A. SCSI B. SATA C. SAS D. ATA E. Fibre Channel |
B,D
|
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|
Which three (3) processes occur during a fabric merge? (Choose three.)
A. TOV distribution B. zone set passing C. FSPF trunk distribution D. principle switch negotiation E. name server communication |
B,D,E
|
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|
Which three standards are the responsibility of the Internet Engineering Task Force? (Choose three.)
A. IEEE B. SNMP C. NDMP D. Policy for QoS E. IP over Fibre Channel |
B,D,E
|
|
|
Which three (3) processes occur during a fabric merge? (Choose three.)
A. TOV distribution B. zone set passing C. FSPF trunk distribution D. principle switch negotiation E. name server communication |
B,D,E
|
|
|
Which three standards are the responsibility of the Internet Engineering Task Force? (Choose three.)
A. IEEE B. SNMP C. NDMP D. Policy for QoS E. IP over Fibre Channel |
B,D,E
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|
|
Which three standards are the responsibility of the Internet Engineering Task Force? (Choose three.)
A. IEEE B. SNMP C. NDMP D. Policy for QoS E. IP over Fibre Channel |
B,D,E
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When preparing to merge two fabrics, which two items should be checked before connecting the fabrics? (Choose Two.)
A. zones sets are activated B. timeout values are set properly C. new configurations are enabled to allow the merge D. fabrics are co-located to prevent segmentation E. interoperability modes are configured per vendor instructions |
B,E
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Your manager has attended an industry event and calls a meeting to discuss some ideas upon hisreturn. One concept that caught his attention was the use of virtual fabrics. What are two (2) advantages of implementing virtual fabric technology? (Choose two.)
A. ease of design B. isolation of Fault Domains C. independent SAN fabric management D. universally adopted technology E. separate fabric services |
B,E
|
|
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You are adding a new Fibre Channel switch to an existing fabric. Which two (2) steps should you take before connection, to maintain security? (Choose two.)
A. clear zone configuration B. change default password C. disable E_PORT functionality D. upgrade firmware using an isolated fabric E. disable unused ports |
B,E
|
|
|
When preparing to merge two fabrics, which two items should be checked before connecting the fabrics? (Choose Two.)
A. zones sets are activated B. timeout values are set properly C. new configurations are enabled to allow the merge D. fabrics are co-located to prevent segmentation E. interoperability modes are configured per vendor instructions |
B,E
|
|
|
Your manager has attended an industry event and calls a meeting to discuss some ideas upon hisreturn. One concept that caught his attention was the use of virtual fabrics. What are two (2) advantages of implementing virtual fabric technology? (Choose two.)
A. ease of design B. isolation of Fault Domains C. independent SAN fabric management D. universally adopted technology E. separate fabric services |
B,E
|
|
|
You are adding a new Fibre Channel switch to an existing fabric. Which two (2) steps should you take before connection, to maintain security? (Choose two.)
A. clear zone configuration B. change default password C. disable E_PORT functionality D. upgrade firmware using an isolated fabric E. disable unused ports |
B,E
|
|
|
Which two disk interfaces have high-availability connections (dual-ports) on the disk? (Choose
A. SATA B. SAS C. SCSI D. ATA E. Fibre Channel |
B,E
|
|
|
You are adding a new Fibre Channel switch to an existing fabric. Which two (2) steps should you take before connection, to maintain security? (Choose two.)
A. clear zone configuration B. change default password C. disable E_PORT functionality D. upgrade firmware using an isolated fabric E. disable unused ports |
B,E
|
|
|
What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol B. Virtual Machine Address Translation C. N_Port ID Virtualization D. extended WWID Architecture |
C
|
|
|
Your customer has upgraded to faster tape technology and the backup is now taking longer. No other changes have been made. What is a possible cause of the performance degradation?
A. tape buffer overload B. hardware compression C. backup server cannot sustain required throughput D. serpentine recording changed to helical scan technology |
C
|
|
|
A storage configuration was created which stores large amounts of infrequently used documents. The storage implementation is based on serial attached SCSI (SAS) and an edge expander. Almost all ports are utilized, and a second edge expander will be installed. What is required to connect SATA devices to the SAS domain?
A. SAS-SATA adapter B. SAS-SATA protocol converter C. cable with two SATA connectors D. cable with a SAS and a SATA connector |
C
|
|
|
A company has merged its two existing SANs that were in adjacent buildings. The data center in each location had been utilizing at least half of its total SAN bandwidth. Now they now plan to migrate all production data to one data center and replicate that data across the new ISLs to the other data center which will now only be used for for disaster recovery purposes. What is the potential impact to performance after completing this reconfiguration?
A. no change to SAN performance B. increased performance for production traffic C. decreased performance for production traffic D. ISL over-subscription will determine performance |
C
|
|
|
Calculate the fan-in ratio for ZONE_A.
A. 9:1 B. 9:2 C. 5:1 D. 3:1 |
C
|
|
|
You are installing a x16 PCI-E HBA into a server and notice that you only have a x8 slot available. What is the impact of this action?
A. The HBA will negotiate and only use x8 lanes. B. The slot must be reconfigured for x16 support. C. The HBA cannot be installed into a x8 slot. D. The slot will negotiate to support the x16 HBA. |
C
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|
|
CIFS is a stateful service. What maintains a history of connection activities?
A. server only B. application C. client and server D. domain controller |
C
|
|
|
A four-way cluster is attached to two fabrics. Each member has two HBAs connected to each fabric. Each fabric has two subsystem connections. Each cluster member is a primary for one application. All LUNs appear on all storage ports with workload equally distributed across all. Each host has two dedicated HBAs for tape that can each see four independent LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. All files are large and involve sequential I/O. Performance reporting shows a large read pending at the host during multi-threaded backup. What is the most probably cause for the large read pending at the host?
A. native command queuing B. SCSI Queue Depth too high C. SCSI Queue Depth too low D. throttling threshold is too high |
C
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A customer has a SAS-based storage environment with a SAS domain and some standalone servers, each with multiple built-in SAS disks. The implementation includes direct routing, table routing and subtractive routing. What is table routing?
A. routing along multiple parallel connections B. routing along a physical point-to-point connection C. routing between devices connected to an edge expander D. routing between devices connected to different edge expanders |
C
|
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|
A customer's switch command line indicates that the status of port 4 is isolated. You know that port 4 is connected to a target device. What is the problem?
A. port speed inconsistency B. Domain ID inconsistency C. E_D_TOV mismatch D. Fibre type mismatch |
C
|
|
|
What must you do to implement boot from a Fibre Channel SAN in your server infrastructure?
A. Configure the SAN Boot setting on the Fibre Channel HBA. B. Enable direct disk access on the SAN switch. C. Enable the BIOS on the Fibre Channel HBA. D. Perform a loopback data test on the Fibre Channel HBA. |
C
|
|
|
Which SMB security entity provides locking?
A. Share ACL B. NFS export C. Deny modes D. CIFS authorization |
C
|
|
|
Which virtualization technique requires the addition of an agent to each host for the purpose of managing storage allocation?
A. Host-based LVM B. In-band appliance C. Out-of-band appliance D. Array-based LUN masking |
C
|
|
|
A customer with a split mirror backup infrastructure requires an emergency restore of a database. The data files and archive logs are co-located in the same file system. What is your first step after stopping the database?
A. Restore B. Bring up the database in recovery mode C. Copy archive logs to an alternate location D. Change the database state to no archive logs |
C
|
|
|
Which architectural model in the SCSI Architectural Model defines the objects, function and Behavior independent of the physical interface used to transport those objects or perform the functions?
A. FC-4 B. iSCSI C. SCSI-3 D. SCSI-FCP |
C
|
|
|
What type of Fabric switch ports are joined to form an ISL?
A. F_Port to F_Port B. N_port to F_Port C. E_Port to E_Port D. NL_Port to E_Port |
C
|
|
|
Which Fibre Channel class of service offers a quality of service with guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Class 2 B. Class 3 C. Class 4 d. Class 5 |
C
|
|
|
What is the family of Small Computer System Interface /SCSI) standards that define characteristics of the multi-signal I/O bus versions of the SCSI Interface?
A. Serial SCSI B. SCSI address C. SCSI parallel Interface D. SCSI Enclosure Services |
C
|
|
|
What is the basic order of a snapshot creation process?
A. Flush, snapshot, backup, release B. Flush, quiesce, snapshot, backup C. Quiesce, flush, snapshot, backup D. Flush, quiesce, snapshot, backup |
C
|
|
|
Which virtualization technique is best suited for low-cost, short term replication of data where Storage utilization and replication creation must be minimized?
A. Full copy snapshot B. Multi-site block storage C. Copy-on-write snapshot D. Storage virtualized tape drives |
C
|
|
|
What is a Fiber Channel HBA?
A. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel to a SCSI bus. B. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel with Gigabit Ethernet. C. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel with a computer system. D. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel with Ethernet storage arrays. |
C
|
|
|
What are the distance limitations of parallel SCSI?
A. 3 meters to 1.5 KM B. 25 meters to 1.5 KM C. 1.5 meters to 25 meters D. 1.5 meters to 12.5 meters |
C
|
|
|
Which storage management component has the ability to display SAN fabric topology and perform zoning operations, but provides only minimal event information?
a. Logical data manager B. Fabric directory server C. Storage network manager D. Enterprise management system |
C
|
|
|
What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A. Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication. B. Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time. C. Source and remote replication always have identical data. D. Synchronous replication only used for extended distances. |
C
|
|
|
Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A. SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes. B. SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes. C. SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices. D. SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices. |
C
|
|
|
You no longer have any port availability in the company?s switch fabric. There is a decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the cause problem?
A. The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches. B. The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch. C. A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding. D. The domain priority is inconsistent |
C
|
|
|
What describes RAID 5?
A. mirroring B. parallel access with parity C. Striping D. Independent access with interleaved parity |
C
|
|
|
Which host adapter configuration parameters is set to create redundant logical paths between the server and the storage device?
A. LUN-pathing B. Zone-pathing C. Multiplathing D. Cluster failover paths |
C
|
|
|
Which subset of target devices allows for scalability beyond the 15 device limit in parallel SCSI?
A. target ports B. I-T-L Nexus C. logical units D. command Descriptor blocks |
C
|
|
|
Which classification of storage virtualization is implemented in the storage array?
A. file/record virtualization B. file system virtualization C. disk virtualization D. sector virtualization |
C
|
|
|
What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol B. Virtual Machine Address Translation C. N_Port ID Virtualization D. extended WWID Architecture |
C
|
|
|
Your customer has upgraded to faster tape technology and the backup is now taking longer. No other changes have been made. What is a possible cause of the performance degradation?
A. tape buffer overload B. hardware compression C. backup server cannot sustain required throughput D. serpentine recording changed to helical scan technology |
C
|
|
|
A storage configuration was created which stores large amounts of infrequently used documents. The storage implementation is based on serial attached SCSI (SAS) and an edge expander. Almost all ports are utilized, and a second edge expander will be installed. What is required to connect SATA devices to the SAS domain?
A. SAS-SATA adapter B. SAS-SATA protocol converter C. cable with two SATA connectors D. cable with a SAS and a SATA connector |
C
|
|
|
A company has merged its two existing SANs that were in adjacent buildings. The data center in each location had been utilizing at least half of its total SAN bandwidth. Now they now plan to migrate all production data to one data center and replicate that data across the new ISLs to the other data center which will now only be used for for disaster recovery purposes. What is the potential impact to performance after completing this reconfiguration?
A. no change to SAN performance B. increased performance for production traffic C. decreased performance for production traffic D. ISL over-subscription will determine performance |
C
|
|
|
Calculate the fan-in ratio for ZONE_A.
A. 9:1 B. 9:2 C. 5:1 D. 3:1 |
C
|
|
|
You are installing a x16 PCI-E HBA into a server and notice that you only have a x8 slot available. What is the impact of this action?
A. The HBA will negotiate and only use x8 lanes. B. The slot must be reconfigured for x16 support. C. The HBA cannot be installed into a x8 slot. D. The slot will negotiate to support the x16 HBA. |
C
|
|
|
CIFS is a stateful service. What maintains a history of connection activities?
A. server only B. application C. client and server D. domain controller |
C
|
|
|
A four-way cluster is attached to two fabrics. Each member has two HBAs connected to each fabric. Each fabric has two subsystem connections. Each cluster member is a primary for one application. All LUNs appear on all storage ports with workload equally distributed across all. Each host has two dedicated HBAs for tape that can each see four independent LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. All files are large and involve sequential I/O. Performance reporting shows a large read pending at the host during multi-threaded backup. What is the most probably cause for the large read pending at the host?
A. native command queuing B. SCSI Queue Depth too high C. SCSI Queue Depth too low D. throttling threshold is too high |
C
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A customer has a SAS-based storage environment with a SAS domain and some standalone servers, each with multiple built-in SAS disks. The implementation includes direct routing, table routing and subtractive routing. What is table routing?
A. routing along multiple parallel connections B. routing along a physical point-to-point connection C. routing between devices connected to an edge expander D. routing between devices connected to different edge expanders |
C
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|
What must you do to implement boot from a Fibre Channel SAN in your server infrastructure?
A. Configure the SAN Boot setting on the Fibre Channel HBA. B. Enable direct disk access on the SAN switch. C. Enable the BIOS on the Fibre Channel HBA. D. Perform a loopback data test on the Fibre Channel HBA. |
C
|
|
|
Which SMB security entity provides locking?
A. Share ACL B. NFS export C. Deny modes D. CIFS authorization |
C
|
|
|
Which virtualization technique requires the addition of an agent to each host for the purpose of managing storage allocation?
A. Host-based LVM B. In-band appliance C. Out-of-band appliance D. Array-based LUN masking |
C
|
|
|
A customer with a split mirror backup infrastructure requires an emergency restore of a database. The data files and archive logs are co-located in the same file system. What is your first step after stopping the database?
A. Restore B. Bring up the database in recovery mode C. Copy archive logs to an alternate location D. Change the database state to no archive logs |
C
|
|
|
Which architectural model in the SCSI Architectural Model defines the objects, function and Behavior independent of the physical interface used to transport those objects or perform the functions?
A. FC-4 B. iSCSI C. SCSI-3 D. SCSI-FCP |
C
|
|
|
What type of Fabric switch ports are joined to form an ISL?
A. F_Port to F_Port B. N_port to F_Port C. E_Port to E_Port D. NL_Port to E_Port |
C
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|
|
Which Fibre Channel class of service offers a quality of service with guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Class 2 B. Class 3 C. Class 4 d. Class 5 |
C
|
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|
What is the family of Small Computer System Interface /SCSI) standards that define characteristics of the multi-signal I/O bus versions of the SCSI Interface?
A. Serial SCSI B. SCSI address C. SCSI parallel Interface D. SCSI Enclosure Services |
C
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|
What is the basic order of a snapshot creation process?
A. Flush, snapshot, backup, release B. Flush, quiesce, snapshot, backup C. Quiesce, flush, snapshot, backup D. Flush, quiesce, snapshot, backup |
C
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Which virtualization technique is best suited for low-cost, short term replication of data where Storage utilization and replication creation must be minimized?
A. Full copy snapshot B. Multi-site block storage C. Copy-on-write snapshot D. Storage virtualized tape drives |
C
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|
What is a Fiber Channel HBA?
A. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel to a SCSI bus. B. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel with Gigabit Ethernet. C. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel with a computer system. D. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel with Ethernet storage arrays. |
C
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What are the distance limitations of parallel SCSI?
A. 3 meters to 1.5 KM B. 25 meters to 1.5 KM C. 1.5 meters to 25 meters D. 1.5 meters to 12.5 meters |
C
|
|
|
Which storage management component has the ability to display SAN fabric topology and perform zoning operations, but provides only minimal event information?
a. Logical data manager B. Fabric directory server C. Storage network manager D. Enterprise management system |
C
|
|
|
What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A. Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication. B. Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time. C. Source and remote replication always have identical data. D. Synchronous replication only used for extended distances. |
C
|
|
|
Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A. SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes. B. SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes. C. SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices. D. SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices. |
C
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|
You no longer have any port availability in the company?s switch fabric. There is a decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the cause problem?
A. The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches. B. The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch. C. A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding. D. The domain priority is inconsistent |
C
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|
|
What describes RAID 5?
A. mirroring B. parallel access with parity C. Striping D. Independent access with interleaved parity |
C
|
|
|
Which host adapter configuration parameters is set to create redundant logical paths between the server and the storage device?
A. LUN-pathing B. Zone-pathing C. Multiplathing D. Cluster failover paths |
C
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|
|
Which subset of target devices allows for scalability beyond the 15 device limit in parallel SCSI?
A. target ports B. I-T-L Nexus C. logical units D. command Descriptor blocks |
C
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|
A company has implemented a high availability tape backup process that uses snapshots. Thesnapshots are backed up to tape. When checking the backup, the data is found to be option would fix this problem in future backups?
A. Quiesce the application before backing up the data. B. Unmount the file system before backing up the data C. Quiesce the application before creating the snapshot D. Store tapes offsite instead of within library |
C
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|
What dows STP stand for in the SAS architecture?
A. Serial Tunneled Protocol B. SAS Tunneled Protocol C. SATA Tunneled Protocol D. SCSI Tunneled Protocol |
C
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|
|
What is the service provided by a disk array?
A. SAN management services B. zoning services C. virtualizing phycal storage devices D. name services |
C
|
|
|
A four-way cluster is attached to two fabrics. Each member has two HBAs connected to each fabric. Each fabric has two subsystem connections. Each cluster member is a primary for one application. All LUNs appear on all storage ports with workload equally distributed across all. Each host has two dedicated HBAs for tape that can each see four independent LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. All files are large and involve sequential I/O. Performance reporting shows a large read pending at the host during multi-threaded backup. What is the most probably cause for the large read pending at the host?
A. native command queuing B. SCSI Queue Depth too high C. SCSI Queue Depth too low D. throttling threshold is too high |
C
|
|
|
What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol B. Virtual Machine Address Translation C. N_Port ID Virtualization D. extended WWID Architecture |
C
|
|
|
Your customer has upgraded to faster tape technology and the backup is now taking longer. No other changes have been made. What is a possible cause of the performance degradation?
A. tape buffer overload B. hardware compression C. backup server cannot sustain required throughput D. serpentine recording changed to helical scan technology |
C
|
|
|
What must you do to implement boot from a Fibre Channel SAN in your server infrastructure?
A. Configure the SAN Boot setting on the Fibre Channel HBA. B. Enable direct disk access on the SAN switch. C. Enable the BIOS on the Fibre Channel HBA. D. Perform a loopback data test on the Fibre Channel HBA. |
C
|
|
|
Which virtualization technique requires the addition of an agent to each host for the purpose of managing storage allocation?
A. Host-based LVM B. In-band appliance C. Out-of-band appliance D. Array-based LUN masking |
C
|
|
|
A customer with a split mirror backup infrastructure requires an emergency restore of a database. The data files and archive logs are co-located in the same file system. What is your first step after stopping the database?
A. Restore B. Bring up the database in recovery mode C. Copy archive logs to an alternate location D. Change the database state to no archive logs |
C
|
|
|
Which architectural model in the SCSI Architectural Model defines the objects, function and Behavior independent of the physical interface used to transport those objects or perform the functions?
A. FC-4 B. iSCSI C. SCSI-3 D. SCSI-FCP |
C
|
|
|
What type of Fabric switch ports are joined to form an ISL?
A. F_Port to F_Port B. N_port to F_Port C. E_Port to E_Port D. NL_Port to E_Port |
C
|
|
|
Which IP Storage protocol requires iSNS for discovery and management?
A. FCIP B. SATA C. iFCP D. iSCSI |
C
|
|
|
Which Fibre Channel class of service offers a quality of service with guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Class 2 B. Class 3 C. Class 4 D. Class 5 |
C
|
|
|
What is the family of Small Computer System Interface /SCSI) standards that define characteristics of the multi-signal I/O bus versions of the SCSI Interface?
A. Serial SCSI B. SCSI address C. SCSI parallel Interface D. SCSI Enclosure Services |
C
|
|
|
Which SMI-S interface role provides a common service for use by clients in locating services in The management environment?
A. Agent B. Provider C. Directory server D. Management server |
C
|
|
|
Which unit physically stores data and protects against errors on a fixed block architecture disk?
A. Head B. Cache C. Sector D. Cylinder |
C
|
|
|
Which SMB security entity provides locking?
A. Share ACL B. NFS export C. Deny modes D. CIFS authorization |
C
|
|
|
Which subset of target devices allow for scalability in the SCSI protocol?
A. Target ports B. I-T-L Nexus C. Logical units D. Command Descriptor Blocks |
C
|
|
|
What is a Fiber Channel HBA?
A. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel to a SCSI bus. B. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel with Gigabit Ethernet. C. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel with a computer system. D. A device that interfaces Fiber Channel with Ethernet storage arrays. |
C
|
|
|
What are the distance limitations of parallel SCSI?
A. 3 meters to 1.5 KM B. 25 meters to 1.5 KM C. 1.5 meters to 25 meters D. 1.5 meters to 12.5 meters |
C
|
|
|
What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A. Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication. B. Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time. C. Source and remote replication always have identical data. D. Synchronous replication only used for extended distances. |
C
|
|
|
Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A. SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes. B. SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes. C. SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices. D. SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices. |
C
|
|
|
What describes RAID 5?
A. mirroring B. parallel access with parity C. Striping D. Independent access with interleaved parity |
C
|
|
|
Which host adapter configuration parameters is set to create redundant logical paths between the server and the storage device?
A. LUN-pathing B. Zone-pathing C. Multiplathing D. Cluster failover paths |
C
|
|
|
Which subset of target devices allows for scalability beyond the 15 device limit in parallel SCSI?
A. target ports B. I-T-L Nexus C. logical units D. command Descriptor blocks |
C
|
|
|
What the steps to restore a complete backup that is using incremental method and has run three times already?
A. latest full must be restored B. latest incremental and all subsequent must be restored C. latest full and subsequent incremental backups must be restored D. latest full and latest incremental backup must be restored |
C
|
|
|
Which approach is commonly used for disaster recovery applications?
A. snapshots B. RAID 5 C. replication D. mirroring |
C
|
|
|
Which statement correctly identifies the relationship among these tape storage components: library, an autoloader and a drive?
A. A drive is a component of an autoloader, while an autoloader is a component of a library B. A tape drive is always directly connected to a server while autoloaders and libraries are SAN attached C. A library can support multiple drives an autoloader can support multiple tapes a tape drive is a stand-alone unit D. A tape drive is always directly connected a library is always SAN connected an autoloader can be either directly or SAN connected |
C
|
|
|
Which term describes a security measure designed to establish the validity of a transmission, message, or originator, or a means of verifying an individual's authorization to receive information?
A. encoding B. encryption C. authentication D. crypto-shred |
C
|
|
|
The fabric security has been compromised and an unauthorized administrative session is established, removing zones from the active zone set. Which two (2) countermeasures should you take to reduce this risk? (Choose two.)
A. redirect logging to syslog of a protected system B. enable port authentication using DH-CHAP C. enable access control list and role based access control D. disable Telnet and enable secure shell E. enable storage access controls and link encryption |
C,D
|
|
|
A customer's database environment includes remote synchronous mirroring across a DWDM link. Which two (2) business management requirements will be met by the implementation? (Choose two.)
A. cost B. service C. continuity D. availability E. configuration |
C,D
|
|
|
A Fibre Channel switch failed in your fabric and a replacement switch has been delivered. Which two (2) actions should be taken before plugging the replacement switch into the fabric? (Choose two.)
A. Delete the fabric records of the old switch from the Fabric. B. Configure the new switch in to the current zone configuration. C. Delete the zone configuration information on the replacement switch. D. Set the Domain ID of the replacement switch to the Domain ID of the failed switch. |
C,D
|
|
|
What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A. Lower propagation delay B. Support up to 16 million devices C. Builds on SCSI and Ethernet technologies D. Takes advantage of existing knowledge base |
C,D
|
|
|
Which two performance criteria are used to determine the selection of a device for a tiered storage level? (Choose two.)
A. User profile B. Age of data C. Speed (IOPs) D. Raid and availability |
C,D
|
|
|
The fabric security has been compromised and an unauthorized administrative session is established, removing zones from the active zone set. Which two (2) countermeasures should you take to reduce this risk? (Choose two.)
A. redirect logging to syslog of a protected system B. enable port authentication using DH-CHAP C. enable access control list and role based access control D. disable Telnet and enable secure shell E. enable storage access controls and link encryption |
C,D
|
|
|
A customer's database environment includes remote synchronous mirroring across a DWDM link. Which two (2) business management requirements will be met by the implementation? (Choose two.)
A. cost B. service C. continuity D. availability E. configuration |
C,D
|
|
|
A Fibre Channel switch failed in your fabric and a replacement switch has been delivered. Which two (2) actions should be taken before plugging the replacement switch into the fabric? (Choose two.)
A. Delete the fabric records of the old switch from the Fabric. B. Configure the new switch in to the current zone configuration. C. Delete the zone configuration information on the replacement switch. D. Set the Domain ID of the replacement switch to the Domain ID of the failed switch. |
C,D
|
|
|
What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A. Lower propagation delay B. Support up to 16 million devices C. Builds on SCSI and Ethernet technologies D. Takes advantage of existing knowledge base |
C,D
|
|
|
Which two performance criteria are used to determine the selection of a device for a tiered storage level? (Choose two.)
A. User profile B. Age of data C. Speed (IOPs) D. Raid and availability |
C,D
|
|
|
What are two advantage of NAS (Choose two)
A. is not limited to the throughput of the LAN B. is appropriate for block level access C. uses existing network infrastructure D. more scalable and flexible than DAS E. is not impacted by traffic on the LAN |
C,D
|
|
|
What are two advantage of NAS? (Choose two)
A. is not limited to the throughput of the LAN B. is appropriate for block level access C. uses existing network infrastructure D. more scalable and flexible than DAS E. is not impacted by traffic on the LAN |
C,D
|
|
|
The fabric security has been compromised and an unauthorized administrative session is established, removing zones from the active zone set. Which two (2) countermeasures should you take to reduce this risk? (Choose two.)
A. redirect logging to syslog of a protected system B. enable port authentication using DH-CHAP C. enable access control list and role based access control D. disable Telnet and enable secure shell E. enable storage access controls and link encryption |
C,D
|
|
|
A customer's database environment includes remote synchronous mirroring across a DWDM link. Which two (2) business management requirements will be met by the implementation? (Choose two.)
A. cost B. service C. continuity D. availability E. configuration |
C,D
|
|
|
What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A. Lower propagation delay B. Support up to 16 million devices C. Builds on SCSI and Ethernet technologies D. Takes advantage of existing knowledge base |
C,D
|
|
|
What are two advantage of NAS (Choose two)
A. is not limited to the throughput of the LAN B. is appropriate for block level access C. uses existing network infrastructure D. more scalable and flexible than DAS E. is not impacted by traffic on the LAN |
C,D
|
|
|
Which of the following is a benefit of WWN Zoning versus Port Zoning?
a) Improved throughput b) The zone can be created without using an alias c) More flexibility with RAID types d) The administrator can reconnect to another FC port on the switch without rezoning |
D
|
|
|
Which of the following is true about a misaligned partition on a LUN?
a) Only occurs on a RAID 5 array b) Is limited to specific vendor?s target devices c) Is limited to the Windows Operating Systems d) Reduces overall performance |
D
|
|
|
Which of the following should a technician reference to determine how long backup tapes should be retained?
a) Cost of storage b) Availability of tape capacity c) Temperature/humidity of storage location d) Corporate compliance |
D
|
|
|
Last month, you successfully merged two (2) local SAN islands into a single core/edge fabric topology and connected storage devices to the core switches. Performance benchmarks were met or exceeded. In recent days, server administrators have documented a slow down in performance as I/O demands have increased. Storage administrators report that all storage ports are underutilized. What is the most likely explanation?
A. conflicts between SAN routing protocols B. storage port buffer credit limits have restricted I/O capabilities C. multiple process login failures D. over utilization of one or more ISLs |
D
|
|
|
The customer has an existing fabric switches installed from one manufacturer. They have decided to add a redundant fabric using switches from a different manufacturer. Interoperability is their main concern. What is important when considering interoperability in the SAN?
A. switch interoperability mode B. HBA firmware/driver code C. zone naming convention D. virtualization engine |
D
|
|
|
You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing online backup strategies. What affects time-to-create and incremental update of a copy-on-write snapshot?
A. number of files B. number of LUNs C. size of snap volume D. size of LUN |
D
|
|
|
A customer has a SAN consisting of two FC switches with a single 4Gb/s ISL between them. There are six hosts attached to one switch, with an average throughput of 30MB/s each, and a single storage subsystem port connected to the second switch at 2Gb/s. The deployment is performing poorly and you have been tasked with identifying the possible cause. What is the cause of the degraded performance?
A. ISL oversubscription B. HBA oversubscription C. Switch oversubscription D. Target oversubscription |
D
|
|
|
A two fabric merge has failed, leaving you with segmented fabrics. Investigation of the switch domain IDs shows that there is an ID conflict between two of the switches. What is the corrective action?
A. no action is necessary, the ID conflict will be resolved by negotiation B. utilize the name server editor to change the domain ID within the fabric C. change the domain ID on the switch that needs to be changed and allow negotiation to resolve the issue D. take one of the switches offline (disabled), change the domain ID, and bring the switch back online (enabled) |
D
|
|
|
You have just completed installing, cabling, zoning, and device masking for a new server. HBA configuration was successful, yet the host cannot see the storage after executing a device find command. Investigation at the switch reveals that the host is not seen at the switch port. Light is visible at either end of the fiber but no link light is seen on the switch. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. the switch ports are enabled B. the HBA on the subsystem is not online C. the zone has not been activated D. transmit and receive fibers are reversed |
D
|
|
|
You are installing a x8 PCI-E HBA into a server and notice that you only have a x16 slot available. What is the impact of this action?
A. The HBA will negotiate and use x16 lanes. B. The slot must be reconfigured for x8 support. C. The HBA cannot be installed into a x16 slot. D. The slot will negotiate to support the x8 HBA. |
D
|
|
|
You have been asked to conduct a high-level inventory of a remote fibre channel SAN fabric. Your manager is worried that the remote site may include HBAs manufactured from a now bankrupt vendor. What information will be most useful to you to determine the HBA vendor?
A. HBA Port Mode B. AL_PA setting for HBA port C. FC_ID of the HBA port D. World Wide Port Name |
D
|
|
|
Identify the zoning object that is hardware enforced.
A. alias B. E_Port C. zone set D. F_Port |
D
|
|
|
What function of SATA is the equivalent of SCSI command tag queuing?
A. SATA command tag queuing B. SATA command queuing C. native command tag queuing D. native command queuing |
D
|
|
|
IETF (www.ietf.org) -- Internet Engineering Task Force. The standards body responsible for a wide variety of TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) standards, including: SNMP, Simple Network Management Protocol - A protocol for monitoring and managing systems and devices in a network. The data being accessed is defined by a MIB (Management Information Base, also defined in the IETF). The functions supported by the protocol are the request and retrieval of MIB data, the setting or writing of data, and traps to signal the occurrence of events. IP over Fibre Channel Policy for QoS (quality of service) What is the minimal iSCI security level needed to protect against man-in-the-middle insertion, modification or deletion?
A. None B. Encryption (IPsec) C. Initiator and Target Authentication D. Digest for header and data integrity |
D
|
|
|
Which concept includes considerations such as data placement, deletion, repurposing, and regulatory archiving.
A. Tiers of management B. Backup and recovery C. Common data usage model D. Information lifecycle management |
D
|
|
|
Which transport method requires correct electrical termination on both ends?
A. SBus B. ATAPI C. PCI bus D. SCSI bus |
D
|
|
|
Where is the virtualization performed that masks physical data layout?
A. Network B. FC switch C. Host/server D. Storage device |
D
|
|
|
What component is a configuration management element of an IP storage solution?
A. HBA B. VSAN C. ISL D. VLAN |
D
|
|
|
What is the maximum potential bandwidth of a Fibre Channel connection in a 2 Gb SAN?
A. 100 MB/s B. 200 MB/s C. 300 MB/s D. 400 MB/s |
D
|
|
|
Company.com needs to backup its data while keeping the data online. Cost and application performance are both important. The data can be backed up to tape between 12.00 AM and 6.00AM when the applications are not write intensive. Which solution is the most appropriate?
A. Create a split mirror snapshot, mount the snapshot to the same host, back the snapshot up to tape. B. Create a split mirror snapshot, mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to tape. C. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to the same host, back the snapshot up to tape. D. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to tape. |
D
|
|
|
Where is the virtualization performed that masks physical data layout?
A. Network B. FC switch C. Host/server D. Storage device |
D
|
|
|
Which IP Storage solution supports presentation of storage to an array of blade servers that Require remote boot, high storage availability, and minimal peak I/D requirements?
A. IFCP B. FCIP C. ISNS D. ISCSI |
D
|
|
|
Which standard management agent resides in the file/record layer of the SNIA storage object model?
A. Host B. Device C. Network D. Database |
D
|
|
|
What is the transfer communication method used in SCSI interfaces?
A. Duplex B. Simples C. Full duplex D. Half duplex |
D
|
|
|
Which tier of storage device and associated cost would store Company.com's mission critical Online data?
A. Tier two, lower cost per terabyte B. Tier one, lower cost per terabyte C. Tier two, higher cost per terabyte D. Tier one, higher cost per terabyte |
D
|
|
|
Which tier provides highest availability and highest performance?
A. tier 4 B. tier 3 C. tier 2 D. tier 1 |
D
|
|
|
What is the maximum throughput of a 4 phy SAS wide port that has 3 Gbps links?
A. 300 MBps B. 1200 MBps C. 1800 MBps D. 2400 MBps |
D
|
|
|
Which hardware component provides the interface between the storage network and the server backuplane?
A. gigabit link module b. interposer card C. inter-switch link D. host bus adapter |
D
|
|
|
What happens when a Data Disk drive which has the ability to operate at 1.5 amd 3.0 Gbps is
A. The SATA device will not operate B. The SATA drive will power down C. The SAS expander port shuts down and reports an error to the management application layerusing the SMP protocol D. The SAS expander port and SATA device will automatically perform speed negotiation and run at 3.0 Gbps |
D
|
|
|
Your existing tape infrastructure uses block level technology. You need to restore a set of files but not the entire volume. How ca this accomplished without compromising the existing data on the server?
A. Backup the server, restore the original volume, then restore the recent backup B. Restore the tape over the existing volume. Only extra files that do not exist will be added C. Build out a new server that mimics the existing server and restore the file to that newly created server D. Restore to an alternate location such as a newly allocated drive. Copy the files you need on to the volume. |
D
|
|
|
Which RAID level is the most commonly used for file servers, application server, web server, databases, and other transaction-oriented applications?
A. RAID 1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 4 D. RAID 5 |
D
|
|
|
Which Security method is used to insure that a particular host only has access to a particular
A. port binding B. hard zoning C. soft zoning D. LUN masking |
D
|
|
|
What is one advantage of hardware RAID controllers?
A. Volume management is performed by the host B. Volume management is performed by the switch C. Parity calculation by the server and cache memory on the RAID controller increases read and write performance. D. Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance. |
D
|
|
|
What does a NAS head do?
A. It prevents volume virtualization B. it connects other NAS devices to the LAN C. It connects to a LAN attached tape device D. It connects to block storage devices |
D
|
|
|
What could be the possible problem if the expected disk drives do not appear to the Fible Channel host adapter?
A. adapter BIOS was not enabled B. device driver revision is incorrect C. drive spin up was not enabled D. LUN was not masked by array software |
D
|
|
|
Which statement describes archiving?
A. Archiving is implemented for UNIX-based mail systems. B. Archiving provides copies of current data to be used in the event of a disaster C. Archiving selectively stores frequently used files and data on high performance media D. Archiving stores infrequently used files and data on lower performance media |
D
|
|
|
After installing a new switch in the fabric, what will have to be performed by the system administrator?
A. decomission the Name Server B. rename the Zone Server C. update and install device drivers in all HBA attached to the switch D. create and activate required zone set on the switch |
D
|
|
|
Which of the following is true about a misaligned partition on a LUN?
a) Only occurs on a RAID 5 array b) Is limited to specific vendor?s target devices c) Is limited to the Windows Operating Systems d) Reduces overall performance |
D
|
|
|
Which of the following should a technician reference to determine how long backup tapes should be retained?
a) Cost of storage b) Availability of tape capacity c) Temperature/humidity of storage location d) Corporate compliance |
D
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Last month, you successfully merged two (2) local SAN islands into a single core/edge fabric topology and connected storage devices to the core switches. Performance benchmarks were met or exceeded. In recent days, server administrators have documented a slow down in performance as I/O demands have increased. Storage administrators report that all storage ports are underutilized. What is the most likely explanation?
A. conflicts between SAN routing protocols B. storage port buffer credit limits have restricted I/O capabilities C. multiple process login failures D. over utilization of one or more ISLs |
D
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University IT provides shared Fibre Channel storage services. All storage subsystems and fibre channel switches are located in the secure campus datacenter. Each college and department provides their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security mechanism is most important in this Fibre Channel infrastructure?
A. FCPAP B. link encryption C. switch authentication D. port authentication |
D
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The customer has an existing fabric switches installed from one manufacturer. They have decided to add a redundant fabric using switches from a different manufacturer. Interoperability is their main concern. What is important when considering interoperability in the SAN?
A. switch interoperability mode B. HBA firmware/driver code C. zone naming convention D. virtualization engine |
D
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You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing online backup strategies. What affects time-to-create and incremental update of a copy-on-write snapshot?
A. number of files B. number of LUNs C. size of snap volume D. size of LUN |
D
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A customer has a SAN consisting of two FC switches with a single 4Gb/s ISL between them. There are six hosts attached to one switch, with an average throughput of 30MB/s each, and a single storage subsystem port connected to the second switch at 2Gb/s. The deployment is performing poorly and you have been tasked with identifying the possible cause. What is the cause of the degraded performance?
A. ISL oversubscription B. HBA oversubscription C. Switch oversubscription D. Target oversubscription |
D
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A two fabric merge has failed, leaving you with segmented fabrics. Investigation of the switch domain IDs shows that there is an ID conflict between two of the switches. What is the corrective action?
A. no action is necessary, the ID conflict will be resolved by negotiation B. utilize the name server editor to change the domain ID within the fabric C. change the domain ID on the switch that needs to be changed and allow negotiation to resolve the issue D. take one of the switches offline (disabled), change the domain ID, and bring the switch back online (enabled) |
D
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You have just completed installing, cabling, zoning, and device masking for a new server. HBA configuration was successful, yet the host cannot see the storage after executing a device find command. Investigation at the switch reveals that the host is not seen at the switch port. Light is visible at either end of the fiber but no link light is seen on the switch. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. the switch ports are enabled B. the HBA on the subsystem is not online C. the zone has not been activated D. transmit and receive fibers are reversed |
D
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You are installing a x8 PCI-E HBA into a server and notice that you only have a x16 slot available. What is the impact of this action?
A. The HBA will negotiate and use x16 lanes. B. The slot must be reconfigured for x8 support. C. The HBA cannot be installed into a x16 slot. D. The slot will negotiate to support the x8 HBA. |
D
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You have been asked to conduct a high-level inventory of a remote fibre channel SAN fabric. Your manager is worried that the remote site may include HBAs manufactured from a now bankrupt vendor. What information will be most useful to you to determine the HBA vendor?
A. HBA Port Mode B. AL_PA setting for HBA port C. FC_ID of the HBA port D. World Wide Port Name |
D
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Identify the zoning object that is hardware enforced.
A. alias B. E_Port C. zone set D. F_Port |
D
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What function of SATA is the equivalent of SCSI command tag queuing?
A. SATA command tag queuing B. SATA command queuing C. native command tag queuing D. native command queuing |
D
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IETF (www.ietf.org) -- Internet Engineering Task Force. The standards body responsible for a wide variety of TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) standards, including: SNMP, Simple Network Management Protocol - A protocol for monitoring and managing systems and devices in a network. The data being accessed is defined by a MIB (Management Information Base, also defined in the IETF). The functions supported by the protocol are the request and retrieval of MIB data, the setting or writing of data, and traps to signal the occurrence of events. IP over Fibre Channel Policy for QoS (quality of service) What is the minimal iSCI security level needed to protect against man-in-the-middle insertion, modification or deletion?
A. None B. Encryption (IPsec) C. Initiator and Target Authentication D. Digest for header and data integrity |
D
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Which concept includes considerations such as data placement, deletion, repurposing, and regulatory archiving.
A. Tiers of management B. Backup and recovery C. Common data usage model D. Information lifecycle management |
D
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Which transport method requires correct electrical termination on both ends?
A. SBus B. ATAPI C. PCI bus D. SCSI bus |
D
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Where is the virtualization performed that masks physical data layout?
A. Network B. FC switch C. Host/server D. Storage device |
D
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What component is a configuration management element of an IP storage solution?
A. HBA B. VSAN C. ISL D. VLAN |
D
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What is the maximum potential bandwidth of a Fibre Channel connection in a 2 Gb SAN?
A. 100 MB/s B. 200 MB/s C. 300 MB/s D. 400 MB/s |
D
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What component is a configuration management element of an IP storage solution?
A. HBA B. VSAN C. ISL D. VLAN |
D
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Company.com needs to backup its data while keeping the data online. Cost and application performance are both important. The data can be backed up to tape between 12.00 AM and 6.00AM when the applications are not write intensive. Which solution is the most appropriate?
A. Create a split mirror snapshot, mount the snapshot to the same host, back the snapshot up to tape. B. Create a split mirror snapshot, mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to tape. C. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to the same host, back the snapshot up to tape. D. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to tape. |
D
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Where is the virtualization performed that masks physical data layout?
A. Network B. FC switch C. Host/server D. Storage device |
D
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Which IP Storage solution supports presentation of storage to an array of blade servers that Require remote boot, high storage availability, and minimal peak I/D requirements?
A. IFCP B. FCIP C. ISNS D. ISCSI |
d
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Which standard management agent resides in the file/record layer of the SNIA storage object model?
A. Host B. Device C. Network D. Database |
D
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What is the transfer communication method used in SCSI interfaces?
A. Duplex B. Simples C. Full duplex D. Half duplex |
D
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Which tier of storage device and associated cost would store Company.com's mission critical Online data?
A. Tier two, lower cost per terabyte B. Tier one, lower cost per terabyte C. Tier two, higher cost per terabyte D. Tier one, higher cost per terabyte |
D
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Which tier provides highest availability and highest performance?
A. tier 4 B. tier 3 C. tier 2 D. tier 1 |
D
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What is the maximum throughput of a 4 phy SAS wide port that has 3 Gbps links?
A. 300 MBps B. 1200 MBps C. 1800 MBps D. 2400 MBps |
D
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Which hardware component provides the interface between the storage network and the server backuplane?
A. gigabit link module b. interposer card C. inter-switch link D. host bus adapter |
D
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What happens when a Data Disk drive which has the ability to operate at 1.5 amd 3.0 Gbps is
A. The SATA device will not operate B. The SATA drive will power down C. The SAS expander port shuts down and reports an error to the management application layerusing the SMP protocol D. The SAS expander port and SATA device will automatically perform speed negotiation and run at 3.0 Gbps |
D
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Your existing tape infrastructure uses block level technology. You need to restore a set of files but not the entire volume. How ca this accomplished without compromising the existing data on the server?
A. Backup the server, restore the original volume, then restore the recent backup B. Restore the tape over the existing volume. Only extra files that do not exist will be added C. Build out a new server that mimics the existing server and restore the file to that newly created server D. Restore to an alternate location such as a newly allocated drive. Copy the files you need on to the volume. |
D
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Which RAID level is the most commonly used for file servers, application server, web server, databases, and other transaction-oriented applications?
A. RAID 1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 4 D. RAID 5 |
D
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Which Security method is used to insure that a particular host only has access to a particular
A. port binding B. hard zoning C. soft zoning D. LUN masking |
D
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What is one advantage of hardware RAID controllers?
A. Volume management is performed by the host B. Volume management is performed by the switch C. Parity calculation by the server and cache memory on the RAID controller increases read and write performance. D. Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance. |
D
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Which bus requires proper termination for stable operation?
A. SAS B. Fibre Channel C. SATA D. SCSI |
D
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What is the port type of all ports in a Fibre Channel Arbitrated loop?
A. F port B. FL port C. N port D. NL port |
D
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Which protocol is used to allow as NAS device to backup to a LAN attached backup device?
A. iSCSI B. NFS C. CIFS D. NDMP |
D
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You are configuring a host to attach to a SAN-based storage device for the first time. The Storage
A. The storage device does not have a license for SAN attached devices B. The reconfiguration command has not yet been executed C. One of the two Fibre Channel cables is disconnected from the host D. The HBA driver has not been configured or installed correctly |
D
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What describes the basic rpm and storage capacity of an enterprise class disk drive when compared to entry level disk drives?
A. lower rpm and higher storage capacity B. higher rpm and higher storage capacity C. lower rpm and lower storage capacity D. higher rpm and lower storage capacity |
D
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Which statement describes a Fibre Channel HBA?
A. A device that interfaces Fibre Channel with a Gigabit Ethernet B. A device that interfaces Fibre Channel to a SCSI bus C. A device that interfaces Fibre Channel With Ethernet storage arrays D. A device that interfaces Fibre Channel with a computer system |
D
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When installing two PCI-X HBAs into a server to create the fastest access to the SAN, which configuration would be used?
A. serial system architecture B. cascaded system buses C. single dual-port HBA D. separate system buses |
D
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You are installing a x8 PCI-E HBA into a server and notice that you only have a x16 slot available. What is the impact of this action?
A. The HBA will negotiate and use x16 lanes. B. The slot must be reconfigured for x8 support. C. The HBA cannot be installed into a x16 slot. D. The slot will negotiate to support the x8 HBA. |
D
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Last month, you successfully merged two (2) local SAN islands into a single core/edge fabric topology and connected storage devices to the core switches. Performance benchmarks were met or exceeded. In recent days, server administrators have documented a slow down in performance as I/O demands have increased. Storage administrators report that all storage ports are underutilized. What is the most likely?
A. conflicts between SAN routing protocols B. storage port buffer credit limits have restricted I/O capabilities C. multiple process login failures D. over utilization of one or more ISLs |
D
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What happens when a Data Disk drive which has the ability to operate at 1.5 amd 3.0 Gbps is plugged into a SAS exppander port with the ability to operate at 3.0 at 6.0 Gbps?
A. The SATA device will not operate B. The SATA drive will power down C. The SAS expander port shuts down and reports an error to the management application layerusing the SMP protocol D. The SAS expander port and SATA device will automatically perform speed negotiation and run at 3.0 Gbps |
D
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Which characteristic differentiates an IP Storage adapter from a traditional Network Interface card (NIC)?
A. link aggregation B. 2 Gb/s data rate C. larger frame size D. TCP/IP segmentation offload |
D
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What is the minimal iSCI security level needed to protect against man-in-the-middle insertion, modification or deletion?
A. None B. Encryption (IPsec) C. Initiator and Target Authentication D. Digest for header and data integrity |
D
|
|
|
Where is the virtualization performed that masks physical data layout?
A. Network B. FC switch C. Host/server D. Storage device |
D
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Which protocol is the responsibility of the Network Data Management Task Forc?
A. DMP B. NDMT C. DNMP D. NDMP |
D
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Which is a full duplex disk interface?
A. Iscsi B. Parallel ATA C. SATA (Serial ATA) D. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) |
D
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Where is the virtualization performed that masks physical data layout?
A. Network B. FC switch C. Host/server D. Storage device |
D
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|
Which standard management agent resides in the file/record layer of the SNIA storage object model?
A. Host B. Device C. Network D. Database |
D
|
|
|
Which tier of storage device and associated cost would store Company.com's mission critical Online data?
A. Tier two, lower cost per terabyte B. Tier one, lower cost per terabyte C. Tier two, higher cost per terabyte D. Tier one, higher cost per terabyte |
D
|
|
|
What is the maximum throughput of a 4 phy SAS wide port that has 3 Gbps links?
A. 300 MBps B. 1200 MBps C. 1800 MBps D. 2400 MBps |
D
|
|
|
What happens when a Data Disk drive which has the ability to operate at 1.5 amd 3.0 Gbps is plugged into a SAS exppander port with the ability to operate at 3.0 at 6.0 Gbps?
A. The SATA device will not operate B. The SATA drive will power down C. The SAS expander port shuts down and reports an error to the management application layer using the SMP protocol D. The SAS expander port and SATA device will automatically perform speed negotiation and run at 3.0 Gbps |
D
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|
|
Your existing tape infrastructure uses block level technology. You need to restore a set of files but not the entire volume. How ca this accomplished without compromising the existing data on the server?
A. Backup the server, restore the original volume, then restore the recent backup B. Restore the tape over the existing volume. Only extra files that do not exist will be added C. Build out a new server that mimics the existing server and restore the file to that newly created server D. Restore to an alternate location such as a newly allocated drive. Copy the files you need on to the volume. |
D
|
|
|
What is one advantage of hardware RAID controllers?
A. Volume management is performed by the host B. Volume management is performed by the switch C. Parity calculation by the server and cache memory on the RAID controller increases read and write performance. D. Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance. |
D
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|
What does a NAS head do?
A. It prevents volume virtualization B. it connects other NAS devices to the LAN C. It connects to a LAN attached tape device D. It connects to block storage devices |
D
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What could be the possible problem if the expected disk drives do not appear to the Fible Channel host adapter?
A. adapter BIOS was not enabled B. device driver revision is incorrect C. drive spin up was not enabled D. LUN was not masked by array software |
D
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In Fibre Channel, what does the port type FL mean?
A. Fabric Link B. Fabric Lane C. Fabric Long D. Fabric Loop |
D
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After installing a new switch in the fabric, what will have to be performed by the system administrator?
A. decomission the Name Server B. rename the Zone Server C. update and install device drivers in all HBA attached to the switch D. create and activate required zone set on the switch |
D
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What is the port type of all ports in a Fibre Channel Arbitrated loop?
A. F port B. FL port C. N port D. NL port |
D
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Which concept provides block-based backup and recovery?
A. disk-free backup B. DAS enabled backup C. SAN-free backup D. server-free backup |
D
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You are about to allocate storage to a host that includes adding new paths, devices, and zones to the configuration. What must be done prior to making any changes to the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. create new zones B. activate change tracking C. activate the new zone set D. backup the configuration E. copy the active zone set |
D,E
|
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You are troubleshooting an issue with Host 1 that should see newly installed storage devices A and B, however can only see Storage A and not Storage B. Which two (2) items should you check? (Choose two.)
A. connectivity of the ISL between the two switches B. if Host 1 is logged into the switch C. if Storage A is logged into the switch D. if Host 1 is zoned to Storage B E. if Storage B is logged into the switch |
D,E
|
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You are about to allocate storage to a host that includes adding new paths, devices, and zones to the configuration. What must be done prior to making any changes to the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. create new zones B. activate change tracking C. activate the new zone set D. backup the configuration E. copy the active zone set |
D,E
|
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You are troubleshooting an issue with Host 1 that should see newly installed storage devices A and B, however can only see Storage A and not Storage B. Which two (2) items should you check? (Choose two.)
A. connectivity of the ISL between the two switches B. if Host 1 is logged into the switch C. if Storage A is logged into the switch D. if Host 1 is zoned to Storage B E. if Storage B is logged into the switch |
D,E
|
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You are about to allocate storage to a host that includes adding new paths, devices, and zones to the configuration. What must be done prior to making any changes to the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. create new zones B. activate change tracking C. activate the new zone set D. backup the configuration E. copy the active zone set |
D,E
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Which storage administration policy association is appropriate in an SMI-S enabled environment if an online application will be supported by a large database?
A. An OLTP policy with the database at the policy client B. An OLAP policy with the database at the policy client C. An OLTP policy with the database at the policy provider D. An OLAP policy with the database at the policy provider |
A
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A customer's switch command line indicates that the status of port 4 is isolated. You know that port 4 is connected to a target device. What is the problem?
A. port speed inconsistency B. Domain ID inconsistency C. E_D_TOV mismatch D. Fibre type mismatch |
C
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Which SMI-S related acronym describes an object-oriented description of the entities and relationships in a business management environment, divided into core and common models?
A. CIM B. SRM C. DRM D. DMTF |
A
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What are two advantages of virtualization? (choose two)
A. Improves data integrity B. Provides higher storage asset utilization C. Allows file sharing between dissimilar applications D. Increase the number of storage devices an operator can manage |
B,D
|
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Which hardware component provides the interface between the storage network and the server backuplane?
A. gigabit link module B. interposer card C. inter-switch link D. host bus adapter |
D
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