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498 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
where on bacterial structure is endotoxin found?
outer membrane of gram negatives
where on bacterial structure is major surface antigen found?
cell wall/cell membrane of gram positives
where are beta-lactamases found in gram-negative bacteria?
periplasm (space between cytoplasmic membrane and peptidoglycan wall)
what is special about anthrax capsule?
contains D-glutamate (all others are just polysaccharide)
bacterial structure that mediates adherence to indwelling catheters?
glycocalyx
gram + cocci?
staph
strep
gram - cocci?
neisseria
gram + rods?
Listeria
Mycobacterium
Bacillus
Cornebacterium
Clostridium
what is special about mycoplasma cell membrane/wall?
contains sterols; has no cell wall
what is special about mycobacteria cell membrane/wall?
contains mycolic acid; high lipid content
microbes that do not gram stain well?
Treponema
Rickettsia
Mycobacteria
Mycoplasma
Legionella
Chlamydia
use of Giemsa stain?
Borrelia, Plasmodium, trypanosomes, Chlamydia
use of PAS stain?
stains glycogen and mucopolysaccharides;
used to diagnose Whipple's disease
use of Ziehl-Neelsen stain?
acid fast organisms
use of India ink?
cryptococcus neoformans
use of silver stain?
fungi, legionella
Special media used to isolate H. influenza?
chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin)
Special media used to isolate N. gonorrhoeae?
Thayer-Martin (VPN) media (contains Vancomycin, Polymyxin, Nystatin)
Special media used to isolateB. Pertussis?
Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
Special media used to isolate C. diphtheriae?
Tellurite plate, Loffler's media
Special media used to isolate M. tuberculosis?
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
Special media used to isolate M. pneumoniae?
Eaton's agar
Special media used to isolate lactose-fermenting enterics?
pink colonies on MacConkey's agar
Special media used to isolate Legionella?
charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine
Special media used to isolate fungi?
Sabouraud's agar
reactivation tuberculosis has prediliction for what parts of lungs?
apices (highest PO2, requirement for obligate aerobe)
obligate anaerobes?
Clostridium
Bacteroides
Actinomyces
obligate intracellular?
rickettsia
chlamydia
facultative intracellular?
Salmonella
Neisseria
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Listeria
Francisella
Legionella
positive quellung reaction?
encapsulated bacteria
encapsulated bacteria?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenza type B
---
GBS
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Salmonella
vaccines that use polysaccharide capsule antigens conjugated to protein?
Pneumovax
H influenza type B
Meningococcal vaccine
urease positive?
Proteus
H. pylori
Ureaplasma
Klebsiella
(PHUK... these cause staghorn calculi)
bacteria that produces yellow "sulfur" granules?
Actinomyces israelii
bacteria that produces yellow pigment?
S. aureus
bacteria that produces blue-green pigment?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
bacteria that produces red pigment?
Serratia marcescens
role of virulence factor Protein A?
S. aureus
binds Fc region of Ig; prevents opsonization and phagocytosis
role of virulence factor IgA protease?
enzyme that cleaves IgA; secreted by:
S. pneumonia, H. influenzae, Neisseria (to colonize respiratory mucosa)
role of virulence factor M protein?
Group A streptococcus; helps prevent phagocytosis
what type of molecule makes up exotoxin?
polypeptide
examples of exotoxin?
tetanus, botulism, diphtheria
examples of endotoxin?
meningococcemia, GNR sepsis
clinical effects of endotoxin?
fever, shock; mediated by TNF and IL-1
examples of ADP ribosylating A-B toxins?
Diptheria
Cholerae
E. coli
Bordetella pertussis
mechanism of cholera?
ADP ribosylation of G protein stimulates adenylyl cyclase (activates Gs), causing increased pumping of Cl- into gut and decreased Na+ absorption; causes voluminous rice-water diarrhea
mechanism of E. coli toxins?
heat-labile toxin stimulates Adenylate cyclase
heat-stable toxin stimulates Guanylate cyclase
double zone of hemolysis on blood agar?
result of alpha toxin from clostridium perfringens
mechanism of C. tetani toxin?
blocks release of GABA and glycine; causes "lockjaw"
mechanism of C. botulinum toxin?
blocks release of acetylcholine, causing anticholinergic symptoms
(ingestion in honey causes floppy baby)
mechanism of shiga toxin?
(produced by shigella and E. coli O157:H7)
cleaves host cell rRNA; also enhances cytokine release, causing HUS
mechanism of pertussis toxin?
permanently inactivates Gi, inducing cAMP
mechanism of bacillus anthracis toxin?
includes edema factor which is bacterial adenylate cyclase (increasing cAMP)
bacterial "competence"?
ability to take up DNA from environment
GPC, +/- catalase?
catalase +: staph
catalase -: strep
how to determine type of staph?
coagulase +: s. aureus
coagulase -: S. epidermidis (novobiocin sensitive) or S. saprophyticus (novobiocin resistent)
how to determine type of strep?
Hemolysis:
partial hemolysis (green) - alpha
complete hemolysis (clear) - beta
no hemolysis - gamma
species in alpha-hemolytic strep?
S. pneumoniae (capsule, optochin sensitive, bile soluble)
S. mutans/viridans (no capsule, optochin resistant, not bile soluble)
species in beta-hemolytic strep?
GAS: S. pyogenes (bacitracin sensitive)
GBS: S. agalactiae (bacitracin resistant)
non-strep beta-hemolytic bacteria?
s. aureus
listeria monocytogenes
cause of toxic shock syndrome?
TSST-1 toxin from s. aureus; binds to MHC II and TCR, resulting in polyclonal T cell activation
causes:
Meningitis
Otitis media (in children)
Pneumonia
Sinusitis
S. pneumoniae
alpha-hemolytic bacteria that are normal flora in oropharynx?
viridans strep
causes scarlet fever?
Strep pyogenes (group A strep)
subcutaneous plaques, polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, chorea, cardidits?
symptoms of rheumatic fever (caused by strep pyogenes)
caused by GBS?
pneumonia, meningits, sepsis (mostly in babies)
group D strep?
enterococci
streptococcus bovis (colonizes gut)
pseudomembranous pharyngitis with lymphadenopathy?
corynebacterium diphtheria (symptoms caused by exotoxin)
Elongation Factor 2 is involved in what bacterium/disease?
Cornybacterium diphtheria
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
spore-forming gram positive bacteria found in soil?
Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium tetani
mechanism of C. perfringens toxin?
alpha-toxin (lecithinase) is a phospholipase; causes myonecrosis and hemolysis
mechanism of C. difficile toxin?
toxin A: enterotoxin, binds to brush border of gut
toxin B: cytotoxin, destroys cytoskeletal structure of enterocytes, causing pseudomembranous colitis
only bacterium with polypeptide capsule?
Anthrax
black skin lesions (necrosis) surrounded by edematous ring?
anthrax
flulike symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, mediastinitis, shock
anthrax
Woolsorter's disease?
inhallation of anthrax spores from contaminated wool
characteristic tumbling motility?
listeria monocytogenes
amnionitis, septicemia, spontaneous abortion in pregnant women?
listeria monocytogenes
gram positive rod that causes pulmonary infection in immunocompromised patients; long branching filaments that resemble fungi?
Nocardia asteroides
Ghon complex?
lower lobe granuloma with enlarged perihilar lymph nodes; primary tuberculosis in nonimmune host
Pott's disease?
extrapulmonary tuberculosis in vertebral body
PPX against MAI?
azithromycin
United States reservoir for Mycobacterium leprae?
armadillos
Tx for mycobacterium leprae?
long-term dapsone
2 forms of Hansen's disease?
1. lepromatous (diffusely over skin, communicable, patients with weak T-cell-mediated immunity)
2. tuberculoid (scattered hypoesthetic skin nodules; patients with intact T-cell response)
gram negative rods, lactose non-fermenters?
Oxidase +: pseudomonas
Oxidase -: Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus
gram negative rods, fast fermenters?
Klebsiella
E coli
Enterobacter
gram negatie cocci?
maltose fermenter: N. meningitidis
maltose nonfermenter: N. gonorrhoeae
use of MacConkee's agar?
to determine lactose-fermenting gram negative bacteria
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?
PID associated infection of liver capsule and adhesions to peritoneum; caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
what type of neisseria has polysaccharide capsule?
meningococci
cause of waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?
Neisseria meningitidis
what does Haemophilus influenzae cause?
Epiglottitis
Meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia
treatment for H. influenza meningitis?
ceftriaxone
rifampin prophylaxis for?
cose contacts of N. meningitidis and H. influenza meningitis
Pontiac fever?
mild flulike syndrome caused by Legionella pneumophila
how to clinically test for legionella pneumophila?
antigen in urine
treatment for Legionella?
erythromycin
classic microbe for superinfection of burns?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
virulence factors associated with E. coli?
fimbriae: cystitis and pyelonephritis
K capsule: pneumonia, neonatal meningitis
LPS endotoxin: septic shock
E. coli strain that produces Shiga-like toxin?
EIEC: microbe invates intestinal mucosa, toxin causes necrosis and inflammation
EHEC: (O157:H7)
E. coli strain that does not produce toxin?
EPEC (usually diarrhea in children. Think "P"ediatric)
E. coli strain that usually causes traveler's diarrhea?
ETEC
E. coli strain that causes HUS?
EHEC (O157:H7)
anemia, thrombocytopenia, acute renal failure?
hemolytic uremic syndrome caused by E. coli O157:H7
lobar pneumonia with red currant jelly sputum?
Klebsiella (usually seen in alcoholic and diabetics)
where in body can Salmonella typhi hide out?
gallbladder
common antecedent to Guillain-Barre?
Campylobacter jejuni
comma shaped, oxidase positive, grows at 42 degrees C, causes bloody diarrhea
Campylobacter jejuni
causes mesenteric adenitis that can mimic Crohn's or appendicitis?
Yersinia enterocolitica
spirochete visible with Geimsa stain in light field microscopy?
Borrelia
question-mark shaped bacteria found in water contaminated with animal urine?
Leptospira interrogans
tropical surfer with liver and kidney dysfunction, fever, hemorrhage, anemia?
Weil's disease caused by leptospirosis
tick that transmits Lyme diseae?
Ixodes
treatment for lyme disease?
doxycycline, ceftriaxone
cardiac manifestations of Lyme disease?
AV nodal block
treatment for syphilis?
penicillin G
in what stage of syphilis do you see painless chancre?
primary
in what stage of syphilis do you see maculopapular rash on palms and soles and condyloma lata?
secondary
in what stage of syphilis do you see gummas and aortitis?
tertiary
in what stage of syphilis do you see neurosyphilis and Argyll Robertson pupil?
tertiary
testing for syphilis?
screen with VDRL
confirm with FTA-ABS
broad-based ataxia, positive Romberg, Charcot joint, stroke without hypertension?
tertiary syphilis
signs of congenital syphilis?
Saber shins, saddle nose, CN VIII deafness, Hutchinson's teeth, mulberry molars
pupil that constricts with accommodation but not reactive to light?
Argyll Robertson pupil; associated with tertiary syphilis
VDRL false positives?
Viruses (mono, hepatitis)
Drugs
Rheumatic fever
Lupus and leprosy
bacterial disease that presents similar to Kaposi's sarcoma?
Bartonella in immunocompromised host
Borrelia species carried by lice?
Borrelia recurrentis; causes recurrent fever
cellulitis or osteomyelitis following cat/dog bite?
Pasteurella multocida
treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
metronidazole
treatment for rickettsia?
doxycycline
headache, fever, rash?
classic triad for rickettsiae (treat with doxycycline)
rash involving palms and soles?
Coxsackievirus A (hand, foot, mouth disease)
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Syphilis
Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii; no rash, no vector; tick feces and cattle placenta release spores that are inhaled as aerosols
Weil-Felix reaction?
serum from patients with anti-rickettsial antibodies cross-reacts to Proteus O antigens and causes clumping
why is chlamydiae obligate intracellular?
cannot make own ATP
treatment for chlamydia?
azithromycin or doxycycline
type of chlamydia that can cause blindness?
Chlamydia trachomatis type A, B, C
(cause blindness due to follicular conjunctivitis, seen in Africa)
lymphogranuloma venereum?
caused by chlamydia trachomatis type L1-L3
granuloma inguinale (donovanosis)
caused by Klebsiella granulomatis
treatment for chlamydia?
azithromycin
"walking" pneumonia with headache, nonproductive cough, diffuse insterstitial infiltrate, high titer of IgM?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
treatment for M. pneumoniae?
tetracycline or erythromycin
only bacterial membrane containing cholesterol?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
treatment for systemic mycosis?
Amphotericin B
Mississippi and Ohio river valleys; causes pneumonia; bird and bat droppings
Histoplasmosis
Eastern US and central America; causes inflammatory lung disease and can disseminate to skin and bone; forms granulomatous nodules
Blastomycosis
Southwestern US, California (San Juaquin Valley); causes pneumonia and meningitis; can disseminate to bone and skin;
Coccidioidomycosis
systemic mycosis with macrophage findings?
Histoplasmosis
systemic mycosis with budding?
Blastomycosis
systemic mycosis with large spherule filled with endospores?
Coccidioidomycosis
systemic mycosis with budding yeast in "captain's wheel" formation?
Paracoccidioidomycosis
infectious disease associated with rural Latin America?
Paracoccidioidomycosis
cause of tinea versicolor?
Malassezia furfur
spaghetti and meatball appearance on KOH prep?
tinea versicolor (caused by malassezia furfur)
treatment for candida?
superficial infection: nystatin
systemic: amphotericin B
mold with septate hyphae that branch at acute angles?
Aspergillus fumigatus
lung cavity fungus?
Aspergillus fumigatus
soap bubble lesions in brain?
cryptococcus neoformans
mold with irregular nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles?
mucor and rhizopus
headache, facial pain, black necrotic eschar?
mucor infection with cranial nerve involvement
when to start ppx for PCP in HIV patients?
when CD4 drops < 200
treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci?
TMP-SMX, pentamidine, dapsone
cigar-shaped yeast forms with unequal budding?
sporothrix schenckii
rose gardener's disease? Treatment?
sporotrichosis (dimorphic fungi)
tx: itraconazole or potassium iodide
treatment for giardia?
metronidazole
liver histology showing flask-shaped ulcer?
entamoeba histolytica
treatment for entamoeba histolytica?
metronidazole and iodoquinol
bloody diarrhea, liver abscess, RUQ pain?
entamoeba histolytica
severe diarrhea in AIDS?
cryptosporidium; no treatment!
brain abscess in HIV?
toxoplasma gondii
congenital toxoplasmosis?
classic triad: chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications
tx for toxoplasmosis?
sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
amoeba found in freshwater lakes that enters brain and causes rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis?
naegleria fowleri
African sleeping sickness?
caused by Trypanosoma spp. carried by Tsetse fly (painful bite)
Tx for trypanosoma brucei, gambiense, rhodesiense?
(African sleeping sickness)
Suramin or Melarsoprol
Trypanosoma cruzi?
Chagas disease; carried by Reduviid bug (painless bite)
dilated cardiomopathy, megacolon, megaesophagus
Chagas disease; carried by Reduviid bug (painless bite)
Tx for Chagas disease?
Nifurtimox
Spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia
Leishmania donovani; carried by sandfly
treatment for Leishmaniasis?
Sodium stibogluconate
fever cycle for malaria?
P. vivax/ovale: every other day
P. falciparum: daily
cyclic fever, headache, anemia, splenomegaly
malaria
tx for malaria?
start with chloroquine; if resistant use mefloquine;
add primaquine for vivax/ovale dormant forms in liver
fever and hemolytic anemia in northeastern US?
babesiosis (carried by Ixodes tick)
Maltese cross inside RBC?
babesiosis (carried by Ixodes tick)
tx for babesiosis?
Quinine, clindamycin
tx for trichomonas vaginalis?
metronidazole
treatment for intestinal roundworm infections?
-bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate
river blindness?
Onchocerca volvulus; roundworm infection transmitted by female blackflies; causes hyperpigmented skin; treated with ivermectin
worm crawling in conjunctiva?
Loa loa (roundworm); carried by deer fly, horse fly, mango fly; treat with Diethylcarbamazine
Elephantiasis?
Wuchereria bancrofti; carried by female mosquito; Tx diethylcarbamazine
Taenia solium?
intestinal tapeworm carried by larvae found in undercooked pork; associated with cystercercosis and neurocystercercosis
treatment for taenia solium?
Praziquantel
add -bendazoles for neurocysticercosis
tapeworm transmitted in raw freshwater fish?
Diphyllobothrium latum; causes vitamin B12 deficency; tx Praziquantel
tapeworm transmitted in dog feces?
Echinococcus granulosus; liver cysts, can cause anaphylaxis; Tx -bendazoles
parasite that can cause squamous cell carcinoma of bladder?
chronic schistosoma haematobium infection
Schistosoma
fluke carried by snails; causes granulomas, fibrosis, inflammation of spleen and liver
Tx of all flukes?
Praziquantel
fluke transmitted in undercooked fish?
Clonorchis sinensis; can cause pigmented gallstones and cholangiocarcinoma
parasite associated with pigmented gallstones?
Clonorchis sinensis (fluke carried in undercooked fish)
fluke transmitted in undercooked crab meat?
Paragonimus westermani; causes inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of lung -> hemoptysis
parasite associated with hemoptysis?
Paragonimus westermani (fluke carried in undercooked crab meat)
nematodes transmitted via ingestion?
Enterobius, Ascaris, Trichinella
nematodes transmitted cutaneously?
Strongyloides, Ancylostoma, Necator
parasite associated with brain cysts, seizures?
Taenia solium (cysticercosis)
parasite associated with liver cysts?
Echinococcus granulosus
parasite associated with B12 deficiency?
Diphyllobothrium latum
parasite associated with cholangiocarcinoma?
Clonorchis sinensis
parasite associated with portal hypertension?
Schistosoma mansoni
parasite associated with hematuria, bladder cancer?
Schistosoma haematobium
parasites associated with microcytic anemia?
Ancylostoma; Necator
parasite associated with perianal pruritus?
enterobius
typhoid fever vs. typhus?
Typhoid fever: Salmonella typhi
Typhus: Rickettsia spp.
exchange of genome segments between viruses?
Reassortment
exchange of genes between two chromosomes by crossing over?
Recombination
Live attenuated vaccines?
smallpox, yellow fever, chickenpox, Sabin's polio virus, MMR
Killed vaccines?
Rabies
Influenza
salk Polio
hep A
recombinant vaccines?
HBV, HPV
ssDNA virus?
Parvo virus
circular DNA viruses?
papilloma
polyoma
hepadnavirus
dsRNA virus?
Reoviridae
Rotavirus
(+) strand RNA viruses?
RETRO
TOGA
FLAV
CORONA
HEPE
CALIfornia
PICOles
which viruses are not infectious when purified?
(-) strand ssRNA
dsRNA
diploid viruses?
retroviruses (2 identical ssRNA strands)
non-enveloped viruses?
Calicivirus
Picornavirus
Reovirus
Parvovirus
Adenovirus
Papilloma
Polyoma
virus that acquires envelope from nuclear membrane?
herpesviruses
viral cause of conjunctivitis?
adenovirus
virus that causes febrile pharyngitis, acute hemorrhagic cystitis, pneumonia?
adenovirus
viral cause of aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease?
parvovirus (B19 virus)
slapped cheek rash in children?
fifth disease (parvovirus/B19 virus)
viral cause of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in HIV
JC virus (polyomavirus)
HPV types that cause warts? Cervical cancer?
Warts: 1, 2, 6, 11
Cancer: 16, 18
flesh-colored dome lesions with central dimple?
poxvirus (molluscum contagiosum)
lymphoma associated with EBV infection?
Burkitt's lymphoma (endemic form)
Hodgkin's disease
high fevers for several days with seizures followed by diffuse macular rash?
HHV-6 causing roseola
virus associated with Kaposi's sarcoma?
HHV-8; sexually transmitted
Tzanck test?
used to determine type of HSV vs. VZV (uses smear of opened skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells)
atypical lymphocytes seen in EBV infection?
normal T cells responding to EBV infected B cells
most common cause of fatal diarrhea in children?
Rotavirus
oral polio virus? (name and type)
Sabin (live attenuated)
hep A caused by what type of virus?
HAV is picornavirus (ssRNA)
Flaviviruses?
HCV
Yellow fever
Dengue
St. Louis encephalitis
West Nile virus
high fever, black vomitus, jaundice?
yellow fever, caused by flavivirus, transmitted Aedes mosquitoes
H and N proteins in influenza viruses?
Hemagglutinin: promotes viral entry
Neuraminidase: promotes progeny virion release
fever, postauricular tenderness, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias, fine truncal rash?
German (3-day) measles
Rubella virus
Koplik spots?
diagnostic for rubeola virus (measles)
cough, coryza, conjunctivitis?
measles (rubeola virus)
measles vs. German measles?
Measles: rubeola
German measles: rubella
parotitis, orchitis, aseptic meningitis?
mumps (paramyxovirus)
Negri bodies?
cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons infected by rabies virus
fever, malaise leading to agitation, photophobia, hydrophobia?
rabies
most common causes of rabies in US?
bat, racoon, and skunk bites
most common location for Negri bodies?
(cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons infected by rabies virus)
most commonly found in Purkinje cells of cerebellum
incubation period for Hep A?
3 weeks
incubation period for Hep B?
3 months
four C's of hep C?
Chronic
Cirrhosis
Carcinoma
Carriers
hep D is found only with what other infection?
Hep B
three E's of hep E?
Enteric
Expectant mother (high mortality)
Epidemics
types of hepatidites that predispose to chronic infection, cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma?
HBV, HCV
hepatitis viruses carried fecal-oral?
Hep A
Hep E
HIV has what type of genome?
diploid (2 molecules of ssRNA)
HIV capsid protein?
p24
HIV envelope proteins?
gp41 and gp120
three structural genes in HIV?
env (gp 120 and gp 41)
gag (p24)
pol (reverse transcriptase)
what does HIV bind to on T cells?
CXCR4 and CD4
what does HIV bind to on macrophages?
CCR5 and CD4
mutation that conveys immunity to HIV?
CCR5 (homozygous yields immunity, herozygous yields slower course)
normal CD4 count?
500 to 1500
why is ELISA/Western blot often falsely positive in babies born to HIV+ mothers?
anti-gp120 crosses placenta, present right after birth
where is HIV virus found during latent phase of infection?
replicating in lymph nodes
timing of acute HIV symptoms?
first 1-2 months after infection
HIV-associated infections seen at CD4 <400?
oral thrush, tinea pedis, reactivation VZV, reactivation TB
HIV-associated infections seen at CD4 <200?
reactivations HSV, cryptosporidiosis, Isospora, disseminated coccidioidomycosis, PCP pneumonia
HIV-associated infections seen at CD4 <100?
candidal esophatitis, toxoplasmosis, histoplasmosis
HIV-associated infections seen at CD4 <50?
CMV retinitis and esophagitis, disseminated MAI, cryptococcal meningoencephalitis
neoplasms associated with HIV?
Kaposi's sarcoma (HHV-8)
invasive cervical carcinoma (HPV)
primary CNS lymphoma
non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
mechanism of prion disease?
conversion of PrPc to beta-pleated form PrPsc
inherited prion disease?
Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
normal dominant flora on skin?
Staph epidermidis
normal dominant flora in nose?
Staph epidermidis, colonized by Staph aureus
normal dominant flora in oropharynx?
viridans strep
normal dominant flora in dental plaque?
Streptococcus mutans
normal dominant flora in colin
bacteroides fragilis > E. coli
normal dominant flora in vagina?
Lactobacillus; colonized by E. coli and GBS
food poisoning from reheated rice?
Bacillus cereus
food poisoning from contaminated seafood?
Vibrio spp.
food poisoning from preformed toxin in meats, mayonaise, custard?
S. aureus
food poisoning from reheated meat dishes?
Clostridium perfringens
food poisoning from improperly canned foods?
Clostridium botulinum
food poisoning from undercooked meat?
E. coli O157:H7
food poisoning from poultry, meat, eggs?
Salmonella
common causes of pneumonia in neonates (<4 weeks)?
GBS
E. coli
common causes of pneumonia in children?
Viruses
Mycoplasma
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
common causes of pneumonia in adults (18-40)?
Mycoplasma
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Strep pneumoniae
common causes of pneumonia in adults (40-65)?
Strep pneumoniae
H. influenzae
Anaerobes
Viruses
Mycoplasma
common causes of pneumonia in elderly?
Strep pneumoniae
Influenza virus
Anaerobes
H. influenzae
GNRs
hospital acquired pneumonia?
Staph
enterics (GNRs)
aspiration pneumonia?
anaerobes
pneumonia in alcoholic/IV drug user?
S. pneumoniae
Klebsiella
Staphylococcus
pneumonia in cystic fibrosis?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
postviral pneumonia?
staph
H. influenza
atypical pneumonia?
mycoplasma
legionella
chlamydia
common causes of meningitis in newborns (<6 mos)?
GBS
E. coli
Listeria
common causes of meningitis in children (6mos-6yrs)?
Strep pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
HiB
enteroviruses
common causes of meningitis in 6-60 yrs?
N. meningitidis
Enteroviruses
Strep pneumoniae
HSV
common causes of meningitis in >60yrs?
Strep pneumoniae
GNRs
Listeria
primary cell type seen in CSF in bacterial meningitis?
increased PMNs
primary cell type seen in CSF in fungal/TB meningitis?
increased lymphocytes
primary cell type seen in CSF in viral meningitis?
increased lymphocytes
most common cause of osteomyelitis?
S. aureus
osteomyelitis in sexually active person?
Neissera gonorrhoeae
osteomyelitis in diabetics and drug addicts?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?
salmonella
osteomyelitis in patients with prostheses?
S. aureus and S. epidermidis
osteomyelitis in the vertebra?
mycobacterium tuberculosis (Pott's disease)
osteomyelitis following cat/dog bite or scratch?
Pasteurella multocida
most common cause of UTI?
E. coli
UTI with struvite stones?
Proteus mirabilis
blueberry muffin rash?
congenital rubella
chorioretinitis and hydrocephalus?
congenital toxoplasmosis
patent ductus arteriosis, cataracts, deafness
classic triad for congenital rubella
hearing loss, seizures, petechial rash?
congenital CMV
neonatal manifestations of congenital HIV?
recurrent infections, chronic diarrhea
temporal encephalitis in neonate?
congenital HSV
stillbirth, hydrops fetalis?
congenital syphilis
saber shins?
congenital syphilis
notched teeth, saddle nose, short maxilla?
congenital syphilis
painful genital ulcer with inguinal adenopathy?
chancroid caused by Haemophilus ducreyi
systemic symptoms of genital herpes?
fever, headache, myalgias
Reiter's syndrome caused by?
chlamydia trachomatis (STD)
genital ulcers, lymphadenopathy, rectal strictures
lymphogranuloma venereum caused by C. trachomatis (L1-L3)
strawberry cervix?
trich
genital warts?
condylomata acuminata, caused by HPV 6 and 11
STD causing jaundice?
Hep B
nosocomial infection associated with newborn nursery?
CMV, RSV
nosocomial infection associated with respiratory therapy equipment?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
nosocomial infection associated with working in renal dialysis unit?
HBV
nosocomial infection associated with hyperalimentation?
candida
nosocomial infection associated with aerosolized water?
legionella
HIV patient with low-grade fevers, cough, hepatosplenomegaly?
Histoplasma capsulatum
HIV patient with oral thrush?
candida
HIV patient with superficial vascular proliferation, neutrophilic inflammation on biopsy?
bartonella henselae
HIV patient withHIV patient with superficial vascular proliferation, lymphocytic inflammation on biopsy?
HHV-8 (causes Kaposi's sarcoma)
HIV patient with meningitis?
cryptococcus neoformans
HIV patient with encephalopathy?
JC virus (polyomavirus)
HIV patient with abscesses and many ring-enhancing lesions on imaging?
toxoplasma gondii
HIV patient with retinitis and cotton-wool spots on fundoscopic exam?
CMV
HIV patient with hairy leukoplakia on lateral tongue?
EBV
HIV patient with interstitial pneumonia?
CMV
HIV patient withpleuritic pain, hemoptysis, pulmonary infiltrates?
Aspergillus fumigatus
child with fever, dysphagia, drooling ,difficulty breathing?
epiglottitis due to HiB
health care provider?
think HBV from needle stick
asplenic patient at risk for?
Strep pneumonia
H. influenza
Neisseria meningitidis
patient with bilateral bell's palsy?
Lyme disease
patient with chronic granulomatous disease at risk for?
catalase-positive:
S. aureus
Nocardia spp.
Aspergillus spp.
MOA of pyrimethamine?
(antiprotozoal)
selectively inhibits plasmodial dihydrofolate reductase
MOA of nifurtimox?
(antiprotozoal)
forms intracellular oxygen radicals, toxic to organism
MOA of sodium stibogluconate?
(antiprotozoal)
inhibits glycolysis at PFK reaction
MOA of chloroquine?
(antiprotozoal)
blocks plasmodium heme polymerase, leading to accumulation of toxic hemeglobin breakdown products that destroy organism
MOA of mebendazole?
(antihelminthic)
inhibits glucose uptake and microtubule synthesis
MOA of pyrantel pamoate?
(antihelminthic)
stimulates nicotinic receptors causing paralysis
MOA of ivermectin?
(antihelminthic)
intensifies GABA effects and causes immobilization
MOA of praziquantel?
(antihelminthic)
increases membrane permeability to calcium, causin gcontraction and paralysis of tapeworms and flukes
MOA of amantadine?
blocks viral penetration/uncoating (M2 protein) and causes release of dopamine from intact nerve terminals
clinical use of oseltamivir, zanamivir?
influenza A and B
clinical use of ribavirin?
RSV, chronic hep C
MOA of acyclovir?
guanosine analog that is monophosphorylated by HSV/VZV thymidine kinase; preferentially inhibits viral DNA polymerase by chain termination
treatment for herpes zoster?
famciclovir
treatment for CMV?
ganciclovir
toxicity of acyclovir? Ganciclovir?
acyclovir - generally well tolerated
ganciclovir - leukopenia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, renal toxicity
foscarnet?
viral DNA polymerase inhibitor; used for CMV retinitis when ganciclovir fails
composition of HAART regimen?
two NRTIs and 1 protease inhibitor OR
2 NRTIs and 1 NNRTI
NRTIs used in HAART?
Zidovudine
Didanosine
Zalcitabine
Stavudine
MOA of NRTIs in HAART?
nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors; competitively inhibit nucleotide binding to reverse transcriptase and terminate the DNA chain
NNRTIs used in HAART?
Nevirapine
Efavirenz
Declaviridine
use of enfuvirtide in HIV?
fusion inhibitor (binds viral gp41 subunit); used in patients with persistent viral replication despite antiretroviral therapy
length of triple therapy for H. pylori?
14 days
microscopic characteristics of Strep viridans?
gram-positive cocci, catalase-negative, beta hemolytic, bacitracin-sensitive
how to differentiate viral atypical pneumonia from Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
cold agglutinin titer in serum (positive in approx 50% of M. pneumoniae and 20% of adenovirus)
malaria type that causes cerebral involvement?
P. falciparum
causes of reactivation of HSV?
stress, menstruation, immunosuppression, exposure to ultraviolet light
what viral component can be detected in neurons infected with latent HSV?
dsDNA and latency-associated mRNAs (no proteins)
Split S2 heart sound with accentuated P2 component, bounding pulses and wide pulse pressure?
PDA
remnant of fetal ductus arteriosis?
ligamentum arteriosum
TORCHES infection that causes PDA?
rubella
most common viral cause of myocarditis?
Coxsackie B
general MOA of acyclovir, etc?
inhibits DNA polymerase
specific treatment for shingles?
famciclovir
"can't pee, can't see, can't climb a tree"
Reiter's syndrome; reactive arthritis following Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrohoeae, Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, Campylobacter, Ureaplasma
genotype associated with reactive arthritis?
HLA B27
hepatic abscess with bloody mucoid diarrhea and recent travel to developing country?
amebiasis (due to Entamoeba histolytica); treat with metronidazole
cause of dysdiadochokinesia, impaired saccadic eye movements, frontal release signs in late stage HIV patient? Finding in CSF?
HIV-associated dementia; see elevated levels of protein and IgG in CSF in many patients
air-crescent sign on CXR in immunocompromised patient with pulmonary symptoms?
Aspergillus infection
cardiovascular sequella of syphilis?
aortic arch or ascending aortic aneurysm leading to aortic insufficiency
thick, gray, tissue-like material covering tonsils in unimmunized person?
Diptheria
trismus?
lockjaw caused by clostridium tetani toxin
tenesmus?
sensation of need to empty bowel along with pain and cramping; associated with inflammatory diseases of bowel
primary ppx against tuberculosis?
Isoniazid
Isoniazid toxicity?
neurotoxicity, hepatotoxicity
CSF lymphocytosis vs. leukocytosis?
leukocytosis: seen in bacterial meningitis
lymphocytosis: seen in fungal/tubercular meningitis
permanent inhibition of Gi?
pertussus toxin (causes whooping cough)
ADP ribosylation of elongation factor 2?
diptheria exotoxin (also pseudomonas)
permanent activation of Gs?
vibrio cholerae toxin
HbeAg?
cleavage product of viral core polypetide in hep B; indicates high levels of viral replication and high infectivity
late finding in CMV retinitis?
retinal detachment
most common infectious cause of congenital abnormalities in USA?
CMV
proliferation of blood and lympathic vessels with "mulberry" lesionin skin caused by Bartonella (seen in AIDS patients)
bacillary angiomatosis
tick-associated infection with berry-like cytoplasmic inclusions in macrophages or neutrophils?
Ehrlichiosis
long term serious sequella of measles (rubeola)?
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
1. dementia and personality changes (1 yr)
2. severe myoclonus (3-12 months)
3-4. worsening dementia and deterioration of autonomic nervous system with decorticate rigidity or flaccidity
first line treatment for C. diff?
oral metronidazole
classic CXR finding in P. jiroveci pneumonia?
diffuse bilateral infiltrates resembling ground glass
treatment for P. jiroveci pneumonia?
TMP-SMZ
target of S. aureus exotoxins responsible for scalded skin syndrome?
desmosomes (desmoglein 1)
bacteria commonly responsible for cholangitis?
enteric GNRs
filamentous gram-positive organism that is weakly acid fast, often misdiagnosed as tuberculosis?
Nocardia asteroides
treatment for Nocardia?
sulfonamides
MOA of nystatin?
binds ergosterol to form pores in membranes
infectious cause of aplastic anemia in patients with sickle cell anemia and hereditary spherocytosis?
Parvovirus B19
structure of rabies virus?
(rhabdovirus)
ssRNA, enveloped, helical
Councilman bodies?
condensed nuclar chromatin seen in hepatocellular damage due to yellow fever (flavivirus)
viral hepatitis with AST>ALT?
yellow fever (flavivirus)
gram positive organisms with branching filaments?
actinomyces (anaerobe, not acid fast)
nocardia (aerobe, weakly acid fast)
gram positive rods?
Listeria
Mybacterium
-
Bacillus
Clostridium
Corynebacterium (diphtheria)
GPC, catalase +, coagulase +
S. aureus
GPC, catalase +, coagulase -, novobiocin resistant?
S. saprophyticus
GPC, catalase +, coagulase -, novobiocin sensitive?
S. epidermidis
alpha-hemolytic strep, optochin sensitive?
S. pneumoniae
alpha-hemolytic strep, optochin resistant?
Strep viridans
beta-hemolytic strep, bacitracin sensitive?
GAS, S. pyogenes
beta-hemolytic strep, bacitracin resistant?
GBS, S. agalactiae
gamma-hemolytic strep?
Enterococcus and Peptostreptococcus
GNR, oxidase +, grows in 42C?
Campylobacter jejuni
GNR, oxidase +, grows in alkaline media?
Vibrio cholera
gram negative, coccoid rods?
Haemophilus influenzae
Pasteurella
Brucella
Bordetella
GNR, lactose nonfermenter, oxidase (-)
Shigella
Salmonella
Proteus
GNR, lactose nonfermenter, oxidase (+)
Pseudomonas
GNR, lactose fast fermenter
Klebsiella
E. coli
Enterobacter
gram negative cocci, maltose fermenter?
Neisseria meningitidis
gram negative cocci, maltose non-fermenter?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Structure of herpes viruses?
dsDNA enveloped
Structure of HBV?
dsDNA enveloped
Structure of smallpox virus?
dsDNA enveloped
Structure of adenovirus?
dsDNA nucleocapsid
Structure papillomaviruses?
dsDNA nucleocapsid
Structure of parvovirus?
ssDNA nucleocapsid
Structure of influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, RSV?
ssRNA enveloped
Structure of measles, mumps, rubella viruses?
ssRNA enveloped
structure of rabies virus?
ssRNA enveloped
structure of HIV?
ssRNA enveloped
structure of poliovirus?
ssRNA nucleocapsid
structure of coxsackievirus?
ssRNA, non-enveloped, nucleocapsid
structure of HAV?
ssRNA nucleocapsid
structure of rhinovirus?
ssRNA nucleocapsid
structure of rotavirus (reovirus family)
dsRNA nucleocapsid
which toxins permanently activate adenylate cyclase to increase sAMP?
cholera, pertussis, E. coli
toxin that permanently activates Gs?
cholera
toxin that permanently disables Gi?
pertussis
heat-labile toxin that increases cAMP?
E. coli (ETEC) (also has heat-stable toxin that stimulates guanylate cyclase)
toxin that increases cAMP by including a bacterial adenylate cyclase?
anthrax
toxin that cleaves host cell rRNA?
shiga toxin (shigella and E. coli O157:H7)
toxin that is hemolysis and antigen for ASO antibody?
Streptolysis O from strep pyogenes (used to diagnose rheumatic fever)
gene transfer resulting from uptake of DNA from culture medium?
transformation
gene transfer via bacteriophage?
transduction
when are serology tests useful in diagnosing lyme disease?
later in disease (delay in developing antibodies)
most likely cause of acute bacterial endocarditis?
S. aureus
organisms associated with tricuspid valve endocarditis (2/2 IV drug use)
S. aureus
Pseudomonas
Candida
culture yields "viscous colonies"
Klebsiella
Thayer-Martin agar?
VCN agar used for Neisseria gonorrhoeae
culture medium used to differentiate between Salmonella and Shigella?
Hektoen enteric agar; only Salmonella produces hydrogen sulfide, which makes colonies appear light green with black centers
Gram positive cocci that causes nosocomial UTIs?
enterococcus
toxin responsible for crepitus in soft tissue infection?
alpha toxin (lecithinase) from Clostridium perfringens
treatment for lyme disease?
oral doxycycline
toxin that blocks release of acetylcholine at spinal synapses?
Clostridium botulinum (causes flaccid paralysis)
Ataxia, urinary incontinence, seizures in HIV+ patient?
AIDS complex dementia
Gram-positive cocci, coagulase-negative?
Staph epidermidis
cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?
Salmonella (susceptible to encapsulated organisms because of autosplenectomy)
macrophages containing amastigotes?
leishmaniasis, carried by sand fly; symptoms include hepatsplenomegaly, malaise, anemia, leukopenia, weight loss
HPV types associated with warts?
6 and 11
treatment for all rickettsial illnesses?
doxycycline
vaginal pH range associated with candidiasis?
normal (<4.5)
normal CVP?
2-8 mm Hg
normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?
2-15 mm Hg
normal cardiac output?
4-8 L/min
normal SVR?
700-1600 dyn*sec/cm-5
what viral illness predisposes to subsequent bacterial pneumonia in an otherwise healthy individual?
influenza
appearance of E. coli on MacConkey agar?
pink (lactose fermenting)
microscopic characteristics of Bartonella henselae?
gram negative bacilli
treatment for bartonella?
often self-limiting, but short course of azithromycin generally prescribed
rapidly progressing meningoencephalitis associated with freshwater lakes? Microscopic finding?
Naegleria fowleri
amebas seen in CSF
treatment for pinworms?
-bendazoles
clinical use of ivermectin?
Strongyloides stercoralis, Onchocerca volvulus (river blindness)
clinical use of niridazole?
Dracunculus medinensis (roundworm)
serum marker elevated in acute phase of HIV infection?
viral RNA (can only diagnose by measuring viral load)
where is acetylcholine synthesized?
basal nucleus of meynert
transient hypothyroidism following viral illness
De Quervain's thyroiditis (etiology unknown, numerous viral agents implicated)
jaundice and elevated liver enzymes in a pregnant woman?
Hep E (ssRNA virus)
cause of croup?
parainfluenza virus (paramyxo virus; ssRNA, negative sense)