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218 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
lab changes seen in a patient with hyperaldosteronemia
metabolic alkalosis

hypokalemia

mild hypernatremia

incr'd 24-hr urine aldosterone
lab findings a/w hashimotos thyroiditis
high TSH

Low T4

anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) AB's

anti-thyroglobulin AB's

anti-microsomal AB's
5 criteria for metabolic syndrome
ABDOMINAL OBESITY:
waist circumference > 40" (M) & > 35" (F)

"PRE-HTN":
BP > 130/85

"PRE-DM":
FSBG 100+ mg/dl (2-hr post-oral 140+)

DYSLIPIDEMIA:
TG's 150+
HDL < 40 (M) & < 50 (F)
complications a/w electrical burns
cardiac disarrhythmia

various neurological disturbances

rhabdomyolysis --> myoglobinuria --> renal failure

bony injuries --> compartment syndrome

acidosis
what are some life threatening complications of a px with substantial burns
inhalation injury

cardiac dysrhythmias

renal failure

sepsis (pneumonia & pseudomonas wound infection)

hypovolemia/shock
what is the parkland burn formula
Lactated Ringer:
4ml x body wt in kg x % BSA

1/2 in first 8 hours + maintenance fluids
1/2 in following 16 hours + maintenance fluids
how can you prevent renal failure from electrical burns
aggressive IVF's

urine output goal: > 1.5 - 2 cc / min
pulmonary pathology seen in a px with salt water near-drowning experience
pulmonary edema
where would an aspirated object most likely end up
right mainstem bronchus
next step in a px who aspirated an object that cannot be dislodged and is having difficulty breathing
emergent tracheotomy
degree of burn:
epidermis only
1st degree
degree of burn:
epidermis & partial dermis
2nd degree
degree of burn:
epidermis & full dermis without muscle/bone involvement
3rd degree
degree of burn:
epidermis & full dermis with muscle/bone involvement
4th degree
degree of burn:
no blisters
1st degree
what differentiates the two 2nd degree classifications
SUPERFICIAL PARTIAL-THICKNESS:
capillary refill intact
(i.e. does blanch with pressure)

DEEP PARTIAL-THICKNESS:
capillary refill NOT intact
(i.e. does not blanch with pressure)
degree of burn:
painless
3rd or 4th degree
degree & depth of burn:
epidermis only;
painful, erythema, no blisters
1st degree - superficial
degree of burn:
epidermis & partial dermis;
painful, erythema, blisters
capillary refill intact
2nd degree - superficial partial-thickness
degree of burn:
epidermis & partial dermis;
painful, erythema, blisters
capillary refill not intact
2nd degree - deep partial-thickness
degree of burn:
epidermis & full dermis + no muscle/bone
white &/or charred, painless
capillary refill not intact
3rd degree - full thickness
degree of burn:
epidermis & full dermis + muscle/bone
white &/or charred, painless
capillary refill not intact
4th degree
degree of burn:
burns 2nd/2 electrical shock
4th degree
(b/c they may involve muscles, bones, & other structures)
Extent of burns: Rule of 9's
9% head
9% chest; 9% upper back
9% stomach; 9% lower back (down to gluteal folds)
9% left arm; 9% right arm
9% left anterior leg; 9% left posterior leg
9% right anterior leg; 9% right posterior leg
1% genitalia
Dx & initial w/u
obese patient with dirty, velvety patch on back of neck
dx: DM (pathology = acanthosis nigricans)

w/u: glucose & H&P (r/o malignancy)
what is the appropriate tx fo HTN in cases of pheochromacytoma
FIRST: a-Blocker (e.g. pheoxybenzamine, phentolamine)

THEN: B-Blocker
What is the classic presentation of a pt with hyperprolactinemia
galactorrhea/gynecomastia

amenorrhea/decr'd libido

infertility (low sperm count)/decr'd libido/impotence
Tx of heat stroke
ABC's

O2 (4L/min)

COOLING:
ice packs to neck, axilla, & groin
continuous fanning & spraying with lukewarm water
+/- cold gastric lavage, cooling blankets, cold IVF's

IVF's

Benzo's (if seizures)
why are acetomenophen and NSAIDs ineffective against heat stroke
hypothalamus is not underlying problem
after an animal bite when should rabies prophylaxis be used
if animal cannot be observed for 10 days

or if highly suspected of having rabies
EKG finding in hypothermia
j wave
What is the tx for black widow spider bite
antivenin within 30 minutes

benzo's to prevent lactodectism (i.e. muscle spasm)

observe pt for 24 hrs

consider oral antibiotics if secondary infection
underlying problem for hyperthermia that must be corrected
dehydration
after appropriate wash out should a dog bite wound be closed
no

except facial bites (due to low rate of infection b/c well perfused), which should be sutured close
Mgmt of skin laceration from human bite
copious irrigation

leave wound open

prophylactic antibiotics
which antibiotics are given after human bites
amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
or
clindamycin + levofloxacin
or
clindamycin + TMP/SMX
what rx should be given to a pt with muscle spasms, abdominal stiffness, AMS, & tachycardia due to spider bite
dx aka "lactodectism"

tx: antivenin (within 30 minutes) & benzo's
Rx for hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasia
remove 3.5 glands

mark remaining 1/2 gland with surgical clip
what is the LDL goal in a px with diabetes
LDL < 100
how is fluid repletion calculated after a burn
PARKLAND FORMULA:
Lactated ringer: 4mL x weight in kg x % BSA

1/2 in first 8 hrs
1/2 in following 16 hrs
tx for bradycardia due to B-blocker overdose
IVF's (bolus)

atropine

GI decontamination (activated charcoal, gastric lavage, or whole bowel irrigation)
symptoms of anticholinergic toxicity
hyperpyrexia (hot as a hare)
decr'd secretions (dry as a bone)
cutaneous flushing (red as a beet)
cycloplegia & mydriasis (blind as a bat)
disorientation (mad as a hatter)
constipation & urinary retention (bloated as a toad)
+
tachycardia
QRS widening
+
decreased or absent bowel sounds
antidote for anticholinergics
physostigmine
a/w almond-scented breathe
cyanide poisoning
early & late findings of cyanide poisoning
EARLY (everything is incr'd):
tachycardia, HTN, tachypnea, flushing
--> obtundation --> coma --> death

LATE (everything is decr'd):
bradycardia, hypotension, bradypnea, cyanosis, hepatic necrosis, renal failure
what is a long term neurological effect in survivors of severe cyanide poisoning
delayed-onset parkinsonism
Rx for cyanide poisoning
ABC's

high-flow O2 (regardless of pulse-ox readings)

sodium thiosulfate

hydroxocobalamin

nitrates (e.g. amyl nitrate and sodium nitrate)
cradiac meds that are safe to treat tachycardia and HTN in cocaine overdose
CCB's

a-Blockers

Benzos

AVOID B-BLOCKERS (unopposed alpha --> incr'd BP)
what is given to tx acetaminophen overdose; what other uses does this medication have
TX: N-Acetylcysteine

OTHER USES:
CF pt's (for mucous plugs)
pre-IV contrast
what lab abnormality is classically seen in digoxin toxicity
hyperkalemia

elevated digoxin levels
what are some non-specific sx's of digoxin toxicity
fatigue
blurred vision, change in color (e.g. "yellow vision")
anorexia, n/v/d, abd'l pain
HA, dizziness, confusion, delirium
what characteristic cardiac changes may be seen with digoxin toxicity
DYSRHYTHMIAS:
bradycardia
atrial tachycardia
bidirectionl V-tach (digioxin toxicity until proven o/w)

EKG CHANGES:
prolonged PR interval
ST segment "scooping" (seen at therapeutic levels)
what should be avoided in digoxin overdose because it could worsen intracellular hyperkalemia
Ca2+ (can worsen intracellular hyperkalemia)
what is the MC sign of digoxin toxicity
bradycardia
what indicates the severity of digoxin toxicity
hyperkalemia (inhibits the Na-K-ATPase)
what is rx for digioxin toxicity
activated charcoal (in repeated doses)

digoxin antibody fragments, if necessary

Atropine, if bradycardia

ACLS medications as needed (except calcium)
when is digoxin antibody fragments necessary in digoxin toxicity
hemodynamic instability

life-threatening arrhythmias/severe bradycardia

"digoxin-toxic" rhythm (e.g. bidirectional V-tach) in setting of elevated [digoxin]

[K+] > 5 mEq/L

[digoxin] > 10 ng/mL

ingestion of > 10 mg (adults) or > 4 mg (children)
Rx for methanol or ethylene glycol (antifreeze) poisoning
Na bicarb
(to correct acidosis & limit penetration of toxic metabolites into tissues such as retina)

dialysis if severe or evidence of organ damage
(e.g. vision changes or renal failure)

fomepizole/ethanol
(to inhibit the alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme)

thiamine (B1), pyridoxine (B6), & folic acid (B9) supplementation (to optimize elimination pathways)
diagnostic features of salicylate overdose
n/v, dehydration

AMS

tinnitus

hyperthermia
(ASA uncouples mt'l oxidative phosphorylation)

resp alk --> mixed resp alk + met acid with incr'd AG
what is the electrolyte abnormalities seen in ASA overdose & what is the pathophysiology of these abnormalities
resp alk --> mixed resp alk + met acid with incr'd AG

RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS is due to hyperventilation 2nd/2 ASA stimulation of medullary respiratory center

METABOLIC ACIDOSIS is 2nd/2 accumulation of lactic acid & ketoacids
antidote for:
aspirin
charcoal

Na+ bicarb

dialysis
what is rx used to tx warfarin overdose & at what point would you consider tx'ing the warfarin overdose
Administer Vitamin K

Consider if INR b/w 5 - 9

Administer if INR > 9 or any serious bleed
what can be used in place of FFP in warfarin overdose
prothrombin complex concentrate

recombinant human CF VIIa
antidote for:
acetaminophen
N-acetylcysteine
antidote for:
opioids
naloxone
antidote for:
benzos
flumazenil
antidote for:
TCA
Na+ bicarb (if QRS > 100 msec's)

Benzo's (for seizures)
antidote for:
atropine
physostigmine
antidote for:
propanolol
glucogon

Ca2+ gluconate

insulin

dextrose
antidote for:
digoxin
Digoxin AB's

atropine (if bradycardic)
antidote for:
cyanide
Na+ thiosulfate

nitrates (e.g. amyl nitrate & Na+ nitrate)

hydroxocobalamine
antidote for:
methemoglobin
methylene blue
antidote for:
methanol
fomepizole

ethanol
antidote for:
isoniazid
Vit B6
antidote for:
heparin
protamine sulfate
most sensitive test for multiple sclerosis
MRI brain & orbits
(asymmetric white matter lesions of different ages)
what type of bite/sting can cause acute pancreatitis
scorpion sting
in which endocrine disorder might weight loss completely eliminate the need for medication
DM2

PCOS
what is the next step in mgmt of a sx'c pt who has ingested alkali plumbing liquid
ABC's:
resp distress --> laryngoscopy +/- tracheostomy

emergent surgery if perforation, mediastinitis, or peritonitis

AVOID: emetics (e.g. ipecac), neutralizing agent, & NG tube
What classic toxic ingestion mgmt. options should NOT be chosen in pt's with alkaline fluid ingestion
emetic agent (ipecac)

neutralizing agent

NG tube
what are the determining factors for out-pt vs in-pt care in a pt who has ingested alkali plumbing liquid
OUTPATIENT TX if: reliable h/o low-vol, accidental ingestion

INPATIENT TX if : unreliable hx, high-vol ingestion, or intentional ingestion
what is the proper in-pt care of an asx'c pt who has ingested alkali plumbing liquid
EGD ASAP

ICU care to manage life-threatening complications (mediastinitis, peritonitis, respiratory distress, shock)

esophageal dilations
(3-6 weeks after injury if necessary for strictures)

SURVEILLANCE EGD's:
starting 15-20 yrs after ingestion
q1-3 yr intervals
for what is a px who ingests alkali plumbing liquid at long-term risk
esophageal squamous carcinoma
what happens within 6 hours of iron ingestion
abdominal pain

vomiting/hematemesis

diarrhea/hematochezia/melena

lethargy

shock
what happens within 6-72 hours of iron ingestion
wide-spread cellular dysfunction

multisystem organ failure
what happens within 12-96 hours of iron ingestion
heptotoxicity
what happens withig 2-8 weeks of iron ingestion
bowel obstruction (2nd/2 GI scarring, classically at the gastric outlet)
antidotes for:
iron toxicity
deferoxamine
Rx for lead poisoning in adults
EDTA or succimer
Rx for lead poisoning in children
EDTA or succimer

SEVERE toxicity: succimer + dimercaprol
symptoms of theophylline overdose
seizures

hypotension

tachyarrhythmias
antidote for:
arsenic
dimercaprol

succimer

penicillamine
Tx for theophylline overdose
supportive care (IVF's + maintain nl [K+])

ACLS protocols for arrhythmias (SVT or V-Tach)

benzo's for seizures (avoid phenytoin)

GI decontamination (activated charcoal)

hemodialysis in severe cases
signs/sx's of cholinergic toxicity (e.g. organophosphates)
"DUMBBELSS"
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm
Bradycardia
Emesis & Excitation of skeletal muscle
Lacrimation
Sweating
Salivation
antidote for:
anticholinesterases, organophosphates
atropine + pralidoxime
antidotes for:
carbon monoxide
100% O2 (hyperbaric O2 therapy)
antidote for:
copper
penicillamine
antidotes for:
mercury
dimercaprol
antidote for:
tPA, streptokinase
aminocaproic acid
if you suspect an MI and are waiting for an EKG, what treatments should be initiated immediately
"MONA"

morphine
O2
Nitrates
Aspirin
antidote for:
opioids
naloxone or Naltrexone
antidote for:
heparin
protamine sulfate
antidote for:
benzo
flumazenil
antidote for:
barb
bicarb (to alkalinize the urine)

dialysis

activated charcoal
antidote for:
carbon monoxide
100% O2 (hyperbaric O2)
Dx & Rx
patient presents with new skin pigementation, hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
Dx: Addison's

Tx: glucocorticoids & mineralcorticoids (e.g. fludracortisone)
what drugs are used in treating stable, asymptomatic ventricular tachycardia
amiodarone (1st line)

procainamide

sotalol

synchronized cardioversion if pt fails to respond to pharmacological measures
Rx for supraventricular tachycardia
vagal maneuvers/carotid massage

adenosine (IV push: 6mg --> 12mg --> 6mg)

ventricular rate control (CCB or B-blocker)
what adverse SE's should you be expecting with adenosine IV push
intense, transient flushing
chest pain
hypotension
"flat line" on monitor (turn volume down)

NOTE:
SE's are UNCOMFORTABLE
but only last a few seconds
initial Rx for new atrial fib with RVR of unknown duration
RATE CONTROL:
B-blocker
Non-DHP CCB (e.g. diltiazem or verapamil)
Digoxin
Amiodarone

ANTICOAGULATE:
Heparin (initially)
Warfarin (later)
ACLS protocol for PEA or asystole
CPR (30:2)**

epinephrine 1mg q 3-5 mins
(OR vasopressin 40 U's in place of 1st or 2nd epi)

Evaluate & Tx causes ("H's" & "T's")

**NOTE: PEA & asystole are NOT shockable rhythms
causes of PEA
hypothermia
hypovolemia
hypoxia
hypoglycemia
hyper acidosis
hyper/hypokalemia

tamponade
thrombosis (MI)
thrombosis (PE)
tension pneumothorax
trauma
toxins
ACLS protocol for V-Fib & pulseless V-tach
Shock 360 J + CPR (30:2)

Check rhythm
Shock 360 J + CPR (30:2)

Check rhythm
Epi 1 mg
OR vasopressin 40 units (in place of 1st or 2nd epi)

Check rhythm
Shock + CPR (30:2)

Check rhythm
Consider Antiarrhythmics
(i.e. amiodarone 300 mg or lidocaine 150 mg or lidocaine 1 - 1.5 mg/kg (max 3 mg/kg)

CONTINUE:
q2 minutes: check rhythm --> shock 360 J + cpr (30:2)
q3 - 5 mins: check rhythm --> epinephrine 1mg IV
What is max number of epinephrine doses that can be given when treating cardiac arrest
There is no max:

Epinephrine 1 mg IV q3-5 minutes
antidote for:
antimuscarinics, anticholinergic agents
physostigmine
antidote for:
benzo's
flumazenil
antidote for:
TCA
Na+ bicarb
antidote for:
warfarin
Vit K

FFP
antidote for:
ethylene glycol
fomepizole

EtOH
antidote for:
arsenic
dimercaprol

succimer

penicillimine
Dx
systolic murmur at apex and LLSB increases in intensity while standing after squatting
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
clinical definition of HTN
>140/90

on 3 separate occasions

at least 2 wks apart
blood product most appropriate for:
severe anemia due to autoimmune hemolytic anemia
PRBC's
blood product most appropriate for:
hemophilia
Hemophilia A: CF VIII

Hemophilia B: CF IX
blood product most appropriate for:
DIC
FFP +/- plt's
blood product most appropriate for:
shock due to trauma or postpartum hemorrhage
PRBC's

whole blood (rarely)
blood product most appropriate for:
to maintain blood pressure during large volume paracentesis
colloid (e.g. albumin)
blood product most appropriate for:
hemorrhage due to warfarin overdose
Vitamin K

FFP
blood product most appropriate for:
need for vWF-rich blood product
cryoprecipitate
blood product most appropriate for:
thrombocytopenia
platelets
which blood product replaces clotting factors
FFP

cryoprecipitate

whole blood
vasopressor a/w:
theoretically causes renal vasodilation
dopamine
vasopressor a/w:
high doses optimize the a1 vasoconstriction
epinephrine
vasopressor a/w:
ADH analogue
vasopressin
vasopressor a/w:
best choice for anaphylactic shock
epinephrine
vasopressor a/w:
septic shock
NE
vasopressor a/w:
best choice for cardiogenic shock
dobutamine
vasopressor a/w:
causes vasoconstriction but with bradycardia
phenylephrine
a swanz catheter is a good estimate of what pressure
LA of heart
what are the preferred vessels in the placement of swan ganz catheter
R jugular

L subclavian
what is seen on ECG of atrial flutter
sawtooth pattern of p wave
side effects of theophylline
seizures with hyperthermia

hypotension

tachyarrhythmias
Rx for kawasaki disease in acute phase
IVIG + high-dose ASA
what are common findings of basilar skull fracture
racoon eyes (i.e. bruising around the eyes)

battle sign (i.e. bruising over mastoid)

hemotympanum (i.e. blood behind the TM's)

CSF rhinorrhea or otorrhea
when is cushings triad seen and what are the components
Triad seen with elevated ICP

HTN

Bradycardia

bradypnea
how is elevated intracranial pressure managed
elevate head of bed to 30 degrees

IV mannitol

intubate (pre-tx with lidocaine) & hyperventilate

decompressive craniectomy

other: ventriculostomy, barbiturate coma, paralysis
what are the 3 categories of the Glasgow Coma Scale & the components/points for each
EYE OPENING:
spontaneous (4)
to voice (3)
to pain (2)
none (1)

VERBAL RESPONSE
oriented (5)
confused (4)
inappropriate words (3)
incomprehensible (2)
none (1)

MOTOR RESPONSE
obeys command (6)
localizes pain (5)
withdraws from pain (4)
flexion with pain (3)
extension with pain (2)
none (1)
heart disease a/w:
ST segment elevation in leads corresponding to the perfusion of multiple arteries (i.e. "diffuse")
acute pericarditis
heart disease a/w:
hypotension, distant heart sounds, distended neck veins
cardicac tamponade
heart disease a/w:
cardiac cath shows equal pressures in all heart chambers
constrictive pericarditis
heart disease a/w:
chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward
acute pericarditis
what is the next step in evaluating a pulsitile abdominal mass and bruit
abdominal US
what is the treatment for ventricular fibrillation
immediate cardioversion --> ACLS protocol
what are the different zones of the neck & structures contained in each zone
ZONE I: clavicle --> cricoid cartilage
great vessels, aortic arch
cervical spine, spinal cord, cervical nerve roots
lung apices, trachea, esophagus

ZONE 2: cricoid cartilage --> angle of mandible
carotid & vertebral arteries, jugular veins
cervical spine, spinal cord
pharynx, larynx, trachea, esophagus

ZONE 3: angle of mandible --> base of skull
carotid arteries, jugular veins
cervical spine, major cranial nerves
salivary & parotid glands, trachea, esophagus
what is initial w/u to penetrating injury to the neck when platysma has been violated
IMMEDIATE:
ABC's, O2, 2 large bore IV's, type & cross blood

IF UNSTABLE:
OR STAT if unstable, obvious bleeding, or rapidly expanding hematoma

IF STABLE:
prophylactic AB's (incr'd risk of contamination from oropharyngeal flora)

follow protocol for each zone
protocol tx:
stable pt with Zone I neck injury where platysma has been breached
prophylactic AB's

ASSESS:
4-vessel arteriogram (CTA)
triple endoscopy
protocol tx:
stable pt with Zone II neck injury where platysma has been breached
prophylactic AB's

surgical exploration
protocol tx:
stable pt with Zone III neck injury where platysma has been breached
prophylactic AB's

Assess w/ 4-vessel arteriogram (CTA)
what is included in a triple endoscopy
broncoscopy

laryngoscopy

esophagoscopy
what CXR findings might indicate a ruptured thoracic aorta
widened mediastinum

loss of aortic knob

pleural cap

deviation of trachea & esophagus to the right

depression of the left main stem bronchus
what is the next step in a patient with chest trauma, hypotension, JVD, and distant heart sounds
dx = cardiac tamponade

pericardiocentesis

pericardial window
what are the signs of tension pneumothorax (PTX)
absent breathe sounds

hyperresonance on side of PTX

distended neck veins

hypotension

deviation of trachea away from side with PTX
how is a tension pneumothorax Rx
immediate chest tube placement

if delay in chest tube, needle decompression
what is proper location to place needle for tension pneumothorax
2nd or 3rd midclavicular IC space

5th midaxillary IC space
what is a flail chest
area of chest wall that moves paradoxically (i.e. inward motion with inspiration) to the rest of the chest wall

results from 3 or more sequential rib fractures
what is tx for flail chest
O2 supplementation

close monitoring for early signs of respiratory compromise

BiPAP by mask
(or by endotracheal intubation w/mech vent)

analgesia
initial w/u:
abdominal stab wound
ABC's

ABDOMINAL EXAM
next step:
abdominal stab wound
ABC'S --> hypotensive
emergent laparotomy/surgical exploration
next step:
abdominal stab wound
ABDOMINAL EXAM --> signs of peritonitis
emergent laparotomy/surgical expoloration
next step:
abdominal stab wound
normotensive
no signs of peritonitis
EXPLORE STAB WOUND UNDER LOCAL ANESTHESIA:
if anterior fascia is penetrated -->
dx'c laparoscopy

if anterior fascia is not penetrated or unable to assess --> admit for serial 24 hr exams
initial w/u:
blunt abdominal trauma
stable vitals
ABC's, 2 large bore IV's

CT of abdomen/pelvis
initial w/u:
blunt abdominal trauma
unstable vitals
ABC's, 2 large bore IV's

assess for & manage pelvic fracture

FAST Ultrasound
(Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma)
next step:
blunt abdominal trauma
unstable vitals
FAST shows no fluid/blood in pelvis
angiography with possible embolization
(possible retroperitoneal hemorrhage)
next step:
blunt abdominal trauma
unstable vitals
FAST shows no fluid/blood in pelvis
angiography normal
CT abd/pelvis

observation

+/- admission
next step:
blunt abdominal trauma
unstable vitals
FAST shows fluid/blood in pelvis
emergent laparotomy
next step:
blunt abdominal trauma
unstable vitals
FAST is inconclusive
Dx'c peritoneal lavage (DPL)
next step:
blunt abdominal trauma
unstable vitals
FAST shows fluid/blood in pelvis
emergent laporotomy
initial w/u:
pelvic fracture
ABC's, primary/secondary survey, with thorough neurovascular exam

IVF's +/- blood

FAST

pelvic binder (until external fixator is placed)
next step:
pelvic fracture
FAST inconclusive or shows no fluid in pelvis
Dx'c peritoneal lavage (DPL)
next step:
pelvic fracture
FAST inconclusive or shows no fluid in pelvis
dx'c peritoneal lavage (DPL) shows nothing hemodynamic instability
angiography with possible embolization
next step:
pelvic fracture
FAST inconclusive or shows no fluid in pelvis
dx'c peritoneal lavage (DPL) shows urine in pelvis
urgent laporotomy
next step:
pelvic fracture
FAST inconclusive or shows no fluid in pelvis
dx'c peritoneal lavage (DPL) shows blood in pelvis
emergent laporotomy
what are some common signs of urethral injury
blood in urethral meatus

high riding "ballotable" or nonpalpable prostate

scrotal or penile hematoma
what study can help diagnose injury to the urethra
retrograde cystourethrogram
how can a bladder injury be diagnosed
CT cystogram or cystography
what are the 2 classifications of bladder injury determined by CT cystogram
EXTRAPERITONEAL:
below dome of bladder
usually 2nd/2 pelvic fxr or penetrating trauma
CT: variable path of extavasated contrast material
(i.e. urine in the pelvis only)

INTRAPERITONEAL:
involving dome of bladder
CT: intraperitoneal contrast material around bowel loops, b/w mesenteric folds, & in the paracolic gutters (i.e. urine in the pelvis AND peritoneum)
what is tx for bladder rupture
EXTRAPERITONEAL:
foley catheter x 10 - 14 days
(will resolve on its own)

INTRAPERITONEAL:
urgent (not emergent) laparotomy for definitive bladder repair
what type of immunodifeiciency increases the risk of anaphylactic transfusion reaction
IgA deficiency
what would you find on physical exam of a pt with pericardial effusion
diminished heart sounds

apical impulse is difficult to palpate
A pt comes to the ER with chronic A-fib with RVR. What study must be performed prior to cardioversion
TEE
what antibiotic prophylaxis should be provided for rape victims; what other prophylactic measures should also be given
ANTIBIOTIC COVERAGE:
Gonorrhea
Chlamydia
Trichomonas
Hep B vaccine (#1 of 3 if not given) +/- Hep B Ig
HIV prophylaxis

OTHER:
emergency contraception (plan B)
antiemetic (for nausea 2nd/2 HIV meds)
Rx for gonorrhea
ceftriaxone
Rx for chlamydia
azithromycin

doxycycline
Rx for trichomonas
metronidazole
what should be done to evaluate an extremity trauma
full sensory, motor, & vascular exam
Since bleeding b/w the fetus & mother is a concern in trauma, what actions should be taken once the pt & fetus are stabilized
administer Rhogam to Rh- mothers
what antidepressant causes hypertensive crisis
MAOI
what substance shouldn't be eaten while taking MAOIs
tyramine
what is seen on a EKG of hypothermia
j wave (small upward deflection after the QRS)
physical findings of endocarditis
fever
new heart murmur
janeway lesions
osler's nodes
roth spots
splinter hemorrhages
conjunctival hemorrhages
when is the greatest risk for post-op MI
first 48 hours
what is recommended perioperatively to a px with known CAD
telemetry monitoring
what lab findings suggest hepatic disease during pre-operative work up
increase PT/PTT
decreased platelets
increased bilirubin
decreased albumin
what interventions help optimize lung function in the post-op period
ALL PT'S:
incentive spirometry
pain control
deep breathing
PT

PRE-EXISTING LUNG DS:
+ bronchodilators
+ inhaled steroids
what studies are ordered to evaluate the cause of a fever in a post-op pt
CXR & sputum culture

UA & culture

blood culture

examine surgical wound +/- wound culture
Dx
px with blood in urethral meatus of a high riding prostate
bladder rupture
OR
urethral injury
what can help measure how severe hypotension is in shock
urine output & mental status
MCC's of abd'l obstruction
"ABC"

adhesion
"bulge" = hernia
cancer
what is the typical ER lab w/u for pt with acute abd'l pain
"SHOT-GUN" APPROACH:
CBC w/ diff, BMP
UA (UTI's/pyelo), urine B-HCG (if childbearing age)
FOBT
LFT's, amylase, lipase
EKG & cardiac enzymes (if > 45 y/o)
signs/sx's of ACUTE mesenteric ischemia
sudden severe abdominal pain (periumbilical) that is out-of-proportion to the physical exam

vomiting & diarrhea (usually bloody)

EARLY PE: abd'l distension, +/- occult blood in stool

LATE PE: abd'l distension, absent BS's, peritoneal signs, feculent odor to the breath
tx for acute mesenteric ischemia
broad spectrum AB's

NG tube decompression

angiogram (dx'c & tx)

heparin anticoag

papaverine infusion

if embolism -->
embolectomy + resection of necrotic bowel

if thrombus -->
thrombectomy + resection of necrotic bowel
what does papaverine do when given to a px with mesenteric ischemia
decreases arterial vasospasm
classic signs/sx's of CHRONIC mesenteric ischemia
dull, crampy postprandial epigastric pain within the 1st hour after eating then subsides over 2 hours

"food fear" --> wt loss

possibly n/v & early satiety

abd'l bruit (50%)
Rx for chronic mesenteric ischemia
SAME AS TX FOR ATHEROSLEROSIS ANYWHERE:
bypass
endarterectomy
angioplasty & stenting
what is seen on an xray or CT that indicates a ruptured viscus
"viscus" = internal organ

Xray/CT: pneumoperitoneum
(i.e. free air under the diaphragm)
which rejection is treatable with immunosuppressives
acute rejection
what is the mechanism of acute rejection
proliferation of antidonor T-cells by recepient
what time period does acute rejection occur
6 days to 1 year, post-transplant