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82 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
incidence is ___/___
new cases
population at risk
prevalence in terms of incidence
incidence x disease duration
(approximately)
prevalence > incidence for ___
prevalence = incidence for ___
chronic diseases
acute diseases
statistic for case-control studies
odds ratio
odds ratio definition: ___/___
odds of disease in exposed group
odds of disease in unexposed group
odds ratio formula
OR = (ad/bc)
where (a,b) are exposed with + without disease
(c,d) are unexposed with + without disease
statistic for cohort studies
relative risk
relative risk definition: ___/___
probability of disease in exposed group
probability of disease in unexposed group
relative risk formula
RR = [a/(a + b)] / [c/(c + d)]
where (a,b) are exposed with + without disease
(c,d) are unexposed with + without disease
number needed to treat
NNT=1/ARR
number needed to harm
NNH = 1/attributable risk
type I error is aka ___
it means ___
alpha
false positive
type II error is aka ___
it means ___
beta
false negative
phase 1 studies have ___ n who are sick/healthy
it checks ___ (2)
small
healthy
safety
pharmacokinetics
phase 2 studies have ___ n who are sick/healthy
it checks ___ (3)
small
sick
efficacy
dosing
SEs
phase 3 studies have ___ n who are sick/healthy
it checks ___
large
sick
how new drug compares to standard tx
statistical power definition
probability of true positive (correct rejection of H_0)
formula for statistical power
1-beta
3 determinants of statistical power
# of endpoints experienced by population
difference in compliance between groups
size of expected effect
% of population within 1 SD of mean
68
% of population within 2 SD of mean
95
% of population within 3 SD of mean
99.7
formula for SEM
SD/sqrt(n)
use chi-square to compare ___ or more ___s
2
percentages or proportions
coefficient of correlation ranges from ___ to ___
-1
1
1' prevention does ___
prevent disease
2' prevention does ___
early detection
3' prevention does ___
reduce disability from disease
13 diseases reportable in all states
Hep A-C
Salmonella
Shigella
Syphilis
Measles
Mumps
AIDS
Rubella
TB
Chickenpox
Gonorrhea
3 parts of informed consent
discussion of pertinent information
patient's agreement
freedom from coercion
4 exceptions to informed consent
incompetence
emergency (implied consent)
when informing would harm patient (therapeutic privilege)
patient waives his/her right
5 criteria for acceptable patient choice
communicated by patient
patient is informed
decision is stable
decision is consistent with patient's values
decision is not result of delusions/hallucinations
T/F: patient's family can demand that doctor withhold information from patient
false
durable power of attorney means ___
patient appoints someone to make decisions for him/her
T/F: patient may revoke power of attorney from the appointed person
true
3 conditions for violating confidentiality
likely harm to self or others
the harm is preventable
no other way to warn those in danger
4 conditions for malpractice
physician had a duty
the duty was breached (dereliction)
patient was harmed (damage)
the breach of duty caused the harm (direct)
T/F: family members are entitled to information about patient's case
false: need patient's consent
T/F: it's ok to tell child about his illness
false: need to go through parents
T/F: it's ok to give condoms + contraception without consulting parents
true
T/F: it's ok for doctor to receive money from drug company for referrals to drug trial
false: can't ever get drug money
5 parts of APGAR score
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiration
give 2 APGAR appearance points for ___, 1 for ___ and 0 for ___
all pink
trunk pink
blue
give 2 APGAR pulse points for ___, 1 for ___ and 0 for ___
>100
<100
none
give 2 APGAR grimace points for ___, 1 for ___ and 0 for ___
grimace + cough
grimace
none
give 2 APGAR activity points for ___, 1 for ___ and 0 for ___
active
some
limp
give 2 APGAR respiration points for ___, 1 for ___ and 0 for ___
regular
irregular
none
low birth weight definition
<2500g
social smile appears at ___
3 mo
stranger anxiety appears at ___
7--9 mo
Moro reflex is sequence of ___ (3) on ___
it disappears at ___
arm abduction
arm adduction
crying
pull/release from supine position
3 mo
plantar extensor reflex disappears at ___
15 mo
for first 3 years, # of blocks stacked equals ___
years old x 3
2 years old creates sentences ___ words long
2
object permanence is achieved by age ___
2
according to Piaget, logical thinking starts at ___, during the ___ stage
but abstract thinking not till ___, during the ___ stage
7
concrete operational
12
formal operational
4 sleep changes in elderly
increased latency
reduced REM sleep
reduced slow-wave sleep
increased awakenings
normal BMI is ___
obese is ___
morbidly obese is ___
18.5--24.9
>30
>40
EEG rhythm during normal awake state
this has ___ frequency and ___ amplitude
beta
high
low
EEG rhythm during light sleep (stage 1)
you spend ___% of sleep in this stage
theta
5
EEG rhythm during intermediate sleep (stage 2)
you spend ___% of sleep in this stage
sleep spindles + K complexes
45
EEG rhythm during deep sleep (stage 3--4)
this has ___ frequency and ___ amplitude
you spend ___% of sleep in this stage
delta
low
high
25
EEG rhythm during REM sleep
you spend ___% of sleep in this stage
beta
25
___ happens in stage 2 sleep
bruxism
___ (3) happens in stage 3--4 sleep
sleepwalking
night terrors
bedwetting
___ (3) happens during REM sleep
dreaming
paralysis
erection
brain O2 use is highest during ___ sleep
REM
neurotransmitter important in sleep initiation
5-HT
neurotransmitter which promotes REM sleep
neurotransmitter which reduces REM sleep
ACh
NE
2 drugs which shortens stage 4 sleep
BDZ (useful for night terrors, sleepwalking)
imipramine (useful for enuresis)
pulse during REM sleep is ___ (2)
fast
variable
BP during REM sleep is ___ (2)
high
variable
REM occurs every ___ hours during the night
duration of REM ___s as night goes on
1.5
increases
narcolepsy is associated with ___ (3)
hypnagogic hallucination
hypnapompic hallucination
cataplexy
cataplexy is ___ in response to ___
loss of muscle tone
emotional stimulus
narcoleptic sleep starts with ___ stage
REM
2 tx for narcolepsy
amphetamine
modafinil
melatonin release from ___ is triggered by ___ release from ___
pineal
NE
HTh SCN
2 main CNS functions of NE
stimulant
pain control
elevated synaptic NE causes ___ pain
reduced
most important CNS function of ACh
memory
HAergic cells in CNS are found mainly in ___
3 CNS functions of HA
HTh
sedation
weight control
cardiovascular