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737 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
True-False Type Question
Distension is the only natural stimulus which can increase gastric emptying. |
INT-7.1.
T |
|
True-False Type Questions
Fats are not effective in slowing down gastric emptying. |
INT-7.2
F |
|
The following statements are all true for Exanthematous Typhus,
EXCEPT: A) a severe drug-resistant headache typically occurs following the 7- to l4-day incubation period B) hypotension occurs in the most seriously ill patients C) exanthema develops at the end of the second week D) splenomegaly occurs in some cases E) small pink macules appear on the 4th to 6th day F) severe diarrhea occurs at the onset of the disease |
INT-7.11.
F |
|
All of the following are true for coccidioidomycosis, EXCEPT:
A) acute bronchitis B) erythema nodosum C) leukopenia D) arthritis E) a positive complement-binding test and a negative skin-test in cases of a disseminated infection |
INT-7.12.
C |
|
All of the following can cause osteoporosis, EXCEPT:
A) a calcium deficiency B) a phosphate deficiency C) hypercortisonism D) hypogonadism |
INT-7.16.
B |
|
Which of the following can cause demineralization of the bones?
A) tumors B) bone marrow diseases C) hyperparathyroidism D) a vitamin D deficiency E) all of the above |
INT-7.17.
E |
|
All of the following are used to treat osteoporosis, EXCEPT:
A) calcium B) vitamin D C) sodium fluoride D) calcitonin when estrogen therapy is contraindicated E) potassium |
INT 7.18.
E |
|
All of the following are typical of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome EXCEPT:
A) chronic eczema B) thrombocytopenic purpura C) a sex-dependent recessive inheritance pattern D) anemia E) thymus aplasia |
INT-7.20
E |
|
Rheumatoid factor usually occurs together with the following symptoms
EXCEPT: A) subcutaneous nodules B) splenomegaly C) vasculitis D) neuropathy E) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis F) Sjorgen's syndrome |
INT-7.21.
E |
|
Impetigo is a superficial infection caused by one of the following bacteria:
A) hemolytic staphylococcus B) hemolytic streptococcus group A C) both of the above D) none of the above |
INT-7.30.
C |
|
Which site (excluding the lung) is mainly affected by childhood pulmonary
tuberculosis? A) the mediastinal lymph nodes B) the kidney C) the spine D) the pericardium E) the peritoneum |
INT-7.33.
A |
|
All of the following alterations occur in syphilis, EXCEPT:
A) condyloma latum B) mucocutaneous pustular lesions C) gumma D) meningitis E) uveitis F) condyloma acuminatum |
INT-7.34.
F |
|
If the mother has measles during the first trimester of pregnancy all
of the following can occur in the newborn, EXCEPT. A) cardiac disorders B) cataracts C) thrombocytopenic purpura D) deafness E) the measles virus cannot be identified in newborns |
INT-7.47.
E |
|
All of the following are contraindications of the viable measles vaccine,
EXCEPT: A) pregnancy B) leukemia C) active tuberculosis D) simultaneous steroid therapy E) polio vaccination performed 4 weeks before |
INT-7.48.
E |
|
All of the following are useful symptoms which help to differentiated
acute pancreatitis from a perforated peptic ulcer, EXCEPT: A) hypertension develops in acute pancreatitis B) a perforated ulcer is more pressure sensitive C) intestinal sounds are typical of acute pancreatitis D) in perforated peptic ulcer air is visible under the diaphragm, while in acute pancreatitis pleural effusion is typical E) an elevated serum amylase level |
INT-7.49.
E |
|
Which of the following can cause postoperative hypokalemic,
hypochloremic alkalosis? A) dehydration due to artificial nutrition B) acute renal insufficiency C) unrecognized diarrhea D) nasogastric catheter E) overnutrition |
INT-7.53.
D |
|
In gastric fluid loss, all of the following can occur, EXCEPT:
A) an increased urine pH B) a decreased urine potassium level C) an increased urine bicarbonate level D) a decreased urine chloride level E) increased renin secretion |
INT-7.55.
B |
|
Metabolic alkalosis occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) diabetes mellitus B) pyloric stenosis C) Bartter's syndrome D) after administration of calcium carbonate E) as a side-effect of ethacrynic acid therapy |
INT 7.56.
A |
|
Which of the following can occur if the pCO2
is 70 mmHg and the bicarbonate level is 33 mmol/L? A) chronic respiratory acidosis B) acute respiratory acidosis C) respiratory and metabolic acute acidosis D) respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis E) none of the above |
INT-7.62.
A |
|
Which of the following statements about uric acid transport is FALSE?
A) uric acid is reabsorbed and secreted by the renal tubules B) transport mainly occurs in the proximal part of the nephron C) changes in glomerular filtration do not significantly regulate the urate clearance D) urate clearance increases with the increase of urine flow E) urate is mainly transported by diffusion |
INT-7.70.
E |
|
Which of the following statements about glucose reabsorption is FALSE?
A) glucose is reabsorbed with limited active transport B) the glucose carrier is unknown C) the Tin glucose value is about 300 mg/min D) phlorhizin decreases the glucose/insulin ratio E) under normal conditions only trace amounts of glucose appear in the urine |
INT-7.86.
D |
|
In diabetic ketoacidosis, the normalization of dehydration affects
glucosuria in the following way: A) it increases glucosuria B) it decreases glucosuria C) the glucosuria remains unchanged D) the glucosuria decreases if the blood glucose level decreases E) the glucosuria disappears |
INT-7.87
A |
|
Which of the following physiological sequences indicates the effect of
a diuretic on the proximal tubule? A) a significant phosphaturia B) adecreased free water clearance C) hyperkalemia D) the fractional bicarbonate excretion is under 0.2 E) a metabolic alkalosis |
INT-7.89.
A |
|
Which of the following statements about the antihypertensive effect
of diuretics is FALSE? A) a decreased plasma renin level B) . a decreased cardiac output C) decreased extracellular fluid D) decreased peripheral resistance E) a decreased sensitivity to vasoconstrictor agents |
INT-7.93.
A |
|
All of the following are side-effects of thiazide diuretics EXCEPT:
A) transient myopia B) hearing loss C) central visual disorders D) agranulocytosis E) thrombocytopenia |
INT-7.96
B |
|
Which of the following agents is not contraindicated in severe renal
insufficiency? A) furosemide B) spironolactone C) triamterene D) amiloride E) potassium tablets (with a long-term effect) |
INT 7.103.
A |
|
Chronic thiazide therapy can cause all of the following symptoms,
EXCEPT: A) an increased excretion of bicarbonate B) a decreased excretion of calcium C) a decreased excretion of uric acid D) a decreased excretion of potassium E) an increased excretion of chloride |
INT-7.106.
D |
|
The chronic administration of furosemide can cause all of the following
symptoms, EXCEPT: A) hypokalemia B) hypochloremia C) hypomagnesiemia D) hypocalcemia E) hyperchloremia |
INT 7.110.
E |
|
Spironolactone-induced full-scale sodium excretion occurs:
A) within 10-30 min. B) within 2-4 hours C) within 12-20 hours D) within several days E) none of the above |
INT-7.114.
D |
|
Case Study:
A 25-year-old unconscious female patient was admitted to the hospital. No friends or witnesses could give any further information on what had happened Centrifugation of the urine obtained by catheter revealed fat drops in the sample. Which of the following diagnoses is possible? A) eclampsia B) bone fracture C) CO intoxication D) all of the above E) none of the above |
INT-7.117.
D |
|
Case Study:
A 26-year-old female patient is admitted due to a suspected nephrotic syndrome. The determination of the different molecular mass protein clearance indicated an albumin predominance. High molecular-mass globulins were not found in the urine. Select a possible diagnosis: A) membranous glomerulopathy B) proliferative glomerulonephritis C) a "minimal change" process D) membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis E) focal glomerulonephritis |
INT-7.121.
C |
|
Case Study:
A 47-year-old diabetic patient developed oliguria after intravenous urography. The urine osmolarity was 480 mOsm. The most probable diagnosis is: A) acute renal insufficiency B) prerenal azotemia C) papillary necrosis D) diabetic nephropathy E) obstructive uropathy |
INT-7.129.
A |
|
Case Study:
In a patient with severe hypertension a normal creatinine level and a 4 g/24h proteinuria were found. Urography revealed an enlarged (16 cm) right kidney and a smaller (7 cm) left kidney with a blurred border. Results of arteriography suggest stenosis of the right renal artery. Which of the following should be the next adequate study? A) a bilateral retrograde urography B) a right-sided percutaneous renal biopsy C) left-sided percutaneous renal biopsy D) a right-side biopsy with surgical approach E) the determination of the renin concentration in the renal veins |
INT-7.136.
E |
|
Which of the following statements about hypertension is FALSE?
A) if the diastolic pressure is over 90 mmHg, life expectancy is always reduced in all patients B) the official WHO definition of normotension is: systolic pressure 140-160 mmHg; diastolic pressure 90-95 mmHg C) the rate of pressure increase is higher in pre-existing hypertension D) females tolerate hypertension better than males E) 15-20% of the adult population in the USA is hypertensive |
INT-7.148
B |
|
Which of the following statements is true for a "borderline" hypertension?
A) the cardiac output is usually increased B) the blood volume is usually increased C) the peripheral vascular resistance is usually increased D) there is an increased role of the alpha-adrenergic nervous system E) these patients are usually resistant to beta-blockers |
INT-7.149
A |
|
Which of the following pressure ranges is considered "borderline hypertension"
in young patients? A) 140/90-160/95 mmHg B) 120/80-140/90 mmHg C) 120/80-165/90 mmHg D) 130/85-140/95 mmHg E) 130/85-139/89 mmHg |
INT 7.151.
A |
|
The blood pressure can increase:
A) in obesity B) after consumption of substantial amounts of alcohol C) due to smoking D) in gout E) all of the above |
INT-7.152.
E |
|
All of the following hormones participate in the regulation of blood
pressure in humans, EXCEPT: A) adrenaline B) noradrenaline C) renin D) vasopressin E) aldosterone |
INT-7.163
C |
|
Which of the following statements is true for angiotensin I?
A) it is the most potent vasoconstrictor known B) it is activated by the liver converting enzymes C) it consists of 10 aminoacids D) it stimulates aldosterone release E) it is formed from the "big renin" |
INT-7.168.
C |
|
Which of the following statements about angiotensinogen (renin
substrate) is FALSE? A) it is mainly produced in the liver B) its concentration is markedly increased after bilateral adrenalectomy C) its concentration remains unchanged after bilateral adrenalectomy D) its concentration decreases in liver cirrhosis E) estrogens increase its level |
INT-7.170.
B |
|
The aldosterone level is always increased in:
A) essential hypertension B) malignant hypertension C) pheochromocytoma D) Liddle's syndrome E) polycystic kidney disease |
INT-7.176.
B |
|
In which of the following diseases does the plasma renin level always
remain low? A) essential hypertension B) aortic coarctation C) pheochromocytoma D) Conn's syndrome E) Cushing's syndrome |
INT-7.185.
D |
|
What is the most common cause of cerebral hemorrhage in hypertension?
A) atheroma B) berry aneurysm C) Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm D) rupture of arteriosclerotic vessels E) a thrombosis |
INT-7.187.
C |
|
Which of the following renal biopsy findings is the least probable in
a patient with severe hypertension, papilla edema, and uremia? A) glomerular proliferation B) focal necrotizing glomerulonephritis C) marginal leukocytosis D) arteriolar hyaline formation E) fibrinoid deposits and polymorphonucleocytes in the arteriolar wall |
INT-7.188.
C |
|
Case Study:
The blood pressure of a pregnant woman (24th week of gestation) was 170/ 100 mmHg. Select a possible explanation: A) borderline or mild hypertension B) pseudohypertension of pregnancy C) hyperkinetic syndrome D) severe hypertension E) sustained hypertension |
INT-7.192.
D |
|
Which drugs or drug combinations should be avoided in the therapy
of pheochromocytoma? A) dibenzyline B) beta-blockade followed by alpha blockade C) alpha-blockade followed by beta blockade D) prazosin E) clonidine |
INT 7.193
B |
|
Which of the following studies will yield pathological values in
neurofibromatosis with hypertension? A) the determination of the concentration of metanephrine in a 24-hour urine sample B) the plasma renin activity C) the serum cortisol level D) the determination of the concentration of aldosterone in a 24- hour urine sample E) the fractional potassium excretion |
INT-7.194.
A |
|
In which of the following diseases, (which are accompanied with
orthostatic hypertension), does hyperglycemia, glucosuria, hypermetabolism, and type-II multiple endocrine neoplasm occur? A) Cushing's disease B) essential hypertension C) malignant hypertension D) pheochromocytoma E) cerebellar hemangioblastoma |
INT-7.195
D |
|
Single Choice Question Renal vein thrombosis can be a complication of all of the following
EXCEPT: A) hypernephroma B) congestive cardiac failure C) in a patient in the terminal state of papillary necrosis D) nephrosclerosis E) nephrosis syndrome |
INT-7.204
D |
|
Primary renal impairment in disseminated intravascular thrombosis
is due to: A) a hyaline thrombus B) swelling of the endothelial cells C) the formation of "half-moon" lesions D) the rupture of basal membrane E) the proliferation of mesangial cells |
INT 7.206.
B |
|
Which of the following changes is considered a late complication of
the hemolytic-uremic syndrome of infants? A) anemia B) thrombocytopenia C) hypertension D) intravascular coagulation E) none of the above |
INT-7.207
C |
|
Which of the following substances does not occur in the urine in
Hartnup disease? A) histidine B) tryptophan C) phenylalanine D) methionine E) arginine |
INT-7.215.
E |
|
Which of the following remarks about proximal tubular acidosis is FALSE?
A) a decreased proximal maximum bicarbonate reabsorption B) an intact distal acidifying system C) after administration of ammonium chloride the urine pH value becomes less than 5.4 D) an increased bicarbonate excretion in the urine E) an impaired distal acidifying system |
INT-7.216.
E |
|
Case Study:
A 55-year-old patient has a primary carcinoma of unknown origin. Which of the following is totally resistant to therapy? A) adenocarcinima of the prostate B) adenocarcinoma of the lung C) adenocarcinoma of the breast D) germinal cell carcinoma E) carcinoma of the thyroid gland |
INT-7.221
B |
|
Eosinophilia primarily occurs in:
A) enterobiasis B) diarrhea due to Giardiasis (lambliasis) C) Schistosomiasis D) measles E) corticosteroid therapy |
INT-7.222.
C |
|
All of the following can occur as a complication of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease EXCEPT: A) cor pulmonarye B) polycythemia C) respiratory insufficiency D) left ventricular insufficiency E) bronchogenic carcinoma |
INT-7.223.
D |
|
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) can be either
emphysematous or bronchitic, depending on the character of the pathological alterations in the lung. Though they rarely occur as autonomous forms, the two diseases can be differentiated on the basis of their clinical manifestation. Select the most common feature characteristic of emphysematous and bronchitic COPD: A) polycythemia B) bronchodilators can improve the airflow C) dyspnea D) a chronic cough E) hypercapnia |
INT-7.224.
C |
|
Immune deficiency is diagnosed if:
A) the functional activity of the T lymphocytes cannot be identified neither in vivo, nor in vitro B) there is a decrease of antibody production C) the T cells cannot change the yellow color of nitro-blue tetrazolium into blue D) neutrophil and macrophage migration is lower than the chemotaxis stimulus E) no hemolysis can occur if the serum of the patient is added to an RBC-anti-RBC antibody system |
INT-7.226.
A |
|
Which of the following findings permits a differentiation between
painless thyroiditis and Graves disease? A) an enlarged thyroid gland B) a low serum TSH level C) an increased serum thyroxine level D) a low uptake of radioactive iodine E) pressure tenderness and pain in the thyroid gland |
INT-7.231.
D |
|
Which of the following statements is the most typical feature of an
amebic liver abscess? A) that surgical drainage is necessary B) it can be caused by one of the six ameba types C) in the USA it commonly occurs among homosexuals and hospital patients D) it usually indicates an intestinal amebic infection E) it usually occurs in patients with normal serum alkalic phosphatase levels but elevated transaminase levels |
INT-7.232.
C |
|
All of the following participate in the pathomechanism of an immediate
type hypersensitivity reaction EXCEPT: A) serotonin B) bradykinin C) anaphylactic eosinophilic chemotactic factor D) basophilic chemotactic factor E) neutrophilic chemotactic factor |
INT-7.233.
D |
|
All of the following clinical alterations occur in patients with pulmonary
embolism EXCEPT: A) hypoxia B) insufficiency of the right heart C) cyanosis D) deep vein thrombosis E) bradycardia |
INT-7.234
E |
|
Case Study:
A patient with chronic renal insufficiency due to severe chronic hypertension is examined for chest pain. For the last 2 years the patient has been undergoing hemodialysis twice a week. Hypotensive episodes occurred several times during dialysis. The chest pain is localized above the trapezius muscle; in an orthostatic position it decreases, and during deep inspiration it increases. Select the most probable cause of this chest pain: A) pericarditis B) coronary disease C) diffuse esophageal spasm D) pulmonary embolism E) costochondritis |
INT-7.235.
A |
|
Which of the following cardiac surgical interventions causes jaundice?
A) pulmonary valve repair B) aortic valve repair C) mitral valve repair D) tricuspid valve repair |
INT-7.243.
D |
|
All of the following can cause mechanical ileus EXCEPT:
A) cholera B) hernia C) carcinoma D) volvulus E) gallstones |
INT-7.245.
A |
|
All of the following can be caused by a gallstone EXCEPT:
A) biliary cirrhosis B) acute pancreatic necrosis C) atrophic cirrhosis D) chronic cholecystitis |
INT-7.246.
C |
|
Select the correct localization of a concretion in case of hydrops
vesica felleae: A) the hepatic duct B) the cystic duct C) the common bile duct D) Vater's papilla E) Wirsungian's duct |
INT-7.251.
B |
|
Combined tumors of the salivary gland:
A) usually have a submaxillary localization B) are usually malignant C) usually develop in the parotid gland D) usually cause facial nerve paralysis E) typically cause sialolithiasis |
INT-7.252.
C |
|
Select the correct term for transplantation of tissue-friendly foreign
materials: A) replantation B) alloplasty C) homologous transplantation D) autogenous transplantation E) isologous transplantation |
INT-7.253.
B |
|
Select the single correct statement:
A) preblastomatosis is a pathological alteration preceding skin cancer B) preblastomatosis is a pathological alteration which leads to the development of a tumour C) preblastomatosis is a long-term pathological alteration which does not lead to malignancy D) preblastomatosis means pre-invasive cancer E) hematologic myeloid tumors are defined as preblastomatosis |
INT-7.254.
B |
|
Pneumothorax can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) trauma B) bullous emphysema C) damage of the thoracic duct D) intersitial emphysema E) positive pressure artificial ventilation |
INT-7.255
C |
|
Case Study:
A round-shaped shadow of 3 cm in diameterwas found on an X-ray screening of a 65-year-old, complaint-flee, smoking male patient. 15 years ago the patient had undergone a successful operation for colon carcinoma. Select the most probable diagnosis: A) tuberculosis B) carcinoma metastasis C) aspiration pneumonia D) bronchial carcinoma E) pulmonary abscess |
INT 7.256.
D |
|
All of the following are typical of Graves' disease, EXCEPT:
A) obesity B) goiter C) left ventricular hypertrophy D) exophthalmus |
INT-7.257.
A |
|
The most common cause of Addison's disease is:
A) autoimuune adrenal atrophy B) amyloid accumulation in the adrenals C) tumor metastasis in the adrenals D) bilateral adrenal apoplexia E) adrenal tuberculosis |
INT-7.258.
A |
|
Which of the following hormones is increased in Conn's syndrome?
A) cortisol B) adrenaline C) noradrenaline D) aldosterone E) cortisone |
INT-7.259.
D |
|
Case Study:
Marked hypertension and its sequels, as well as polyuria and pplydipsia were found in a middle-aged patient. serum Na: 152 mmol/L; serum K: 2,2mmo1/L. Select the correct diagnosis: A) Cushing's syndrome B) diabetes mellitus C) Addison's disease D) Conn's syndrome E) phaeochromocytoma |
INT-7.260.
D |
|
Xanthoma is common in:
A) diabetes insipidus B) acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis C) diabetes mellitus D) diffuse acute glomerulonephritis E) liver cirrhosis (Laennec's) |
INT-7.261.
C |
|
Case Study:
A patient's auricular cartillage has a brownish color, the urine sample turns brown after a while, and the patient complains of arthralgia. Select a correct diagnosis: A) erythropoietic porphyria B) gout C) ochronosis D) cystinosis E) hemoglobinuria |
INT-7.262.
C |
|
Which of the following statements is not typical of post-hepatic jaundice?
A) acholic stool B) direct positive diazo-reaction C) cholemia D) increased bilirubin in the urine E) increased urobilinogen in the urine |
INT 7.263
E |
|
In all of the following melanine is accumulated in the skin, EXCEPT:
A) Mongolian spot B) vitiligo C) nevus coeruleus (blue nevus) D) ephelis (freckle) E) chloasma (melasma) |
INT-7.264.
B |
|
Define the term vitiligo:
A) a generalized lack of melanin in the skin B) a circumscribed lack of melanin in the skin C) lipopigment D) reaction in the peritraumatic areas E) a degeneration of trophoblasts |
INT-7.265.
B |
|
Which of the following can occur in chronic systemic congestion?
A) thickening of the alveolar walls B) esophagus varicosity C) pulmonary edema D) spot-like hemorrhages of the gastric mucosa E) kidney micro-infarctions |
INT-7.270.
D |
|
In which of the following should generalized mycosis be suspected?
?r) hypertensive disease B) cardiac decompensation C) gastric ulcer D) long-term antibiotic therapy E) diabetes insipidus |
INT-7.277.
D |
|
In which of the following vascular beds does Buerger's disease commonly
occur? A) basilar artery B) arteries of the limbs C) coronary artery D) renal artery E) branches of the mesenteric artery |
INT-7.279
B |
|
Hematuria is typical of all of the following diseases, EXCEPT:
A) acute glomerulonephritis B)acute pyelonephritis C) renal tuberculosis D) renal calculus E) renal cancer |
INT-7.281.
B |
|
The most pronounced enlargement of the lymph nodes occurs in one
of the following types of leukemia: A) acute lymphoid leukemia B) chronic myeloid leukemia C) chronic lymphoid leukemia D) acute myeloid leukemia E) erythroleukemia |
INT-7.290.
B |
|
Which of the following red blood cells alterations is typical of irondeficient
anemia? A) poikilocytosis B) anisocytosis C) hypochromia D) fragility E) polychromasia |
INT-7.291.
C |
|
Which of the following is typical of Hodgkin's disease stage II?
A) the involvement of lymph nodes of a single region and the spleen B) the involvement lymph nodes of a single region on both sides of the diaphragm C) the involvement of lymph nodes of several regions on both sides of the diaphragm D) the involvement of lymph nodes of several regions on both sides of the diaphragm, and alterations in the spleen E) the involvement of lymph nodes of several regions on one side of the diaphragm |
INT-7.294.
E |
|
Pulmonary emboli originate from:
A) the femoral artery B) the femoral vein. C) one of the pulmonary veins D) the brachiocephalic trunk E) none of the above |
INT-7.297
B |
|
All of the following occur in Goodpasture's syndrome, EXCEPT:
A) focal glomerulonephritis B) septic spleen C) pulmonary fibrosis; induration D) cutaneous purpura E) positive berlin-blue staining in the lung parenchyma |
INT-7.302.
B |
|
In which of the following parts of the gastrointestinal tract does
diverticulosis primarily develop? A) in the esophagus B) in the duodenum C) in the jejunum and ileum D) in the ascending colon E) in the sigmoid colon |
INT-7.304.
E |
|
Define Crohn's disease:
A) regional enteritis B) tabes mesaraica (tuberculosis of the mesenteric glands) C) stercoral abscess D) intestinal cystoid pneumatosis E) necrotizing enteritis |
INT 7.306.
A |
|
Select the correct name for a gastroduodenal ulcer developing together
with a gastrin-secreting pancreatic tumor: A) Zollinger-Ellison's syndrome B) Mallory-Weiss's syndrome C) Waterhouse-Fridrichsen's syndrome D) Stein-Leventhal's syndrome E) Sheehan's syndrome |
INT-7.307.
A |
|
Which of the following substances causes coagulation necrosis of
the gastric mucosa? A) sodium hydroxide (NaOH) B) phosphorus C) lead D) mercury E) arsenic |
INT-7.308.
D |
|
Case Study:
A patient complains of frequent blushing fits. Asthmatic fits and profuse diarrhea are also frequent. A physical examination revealed a harsh murmur above the heart. Select the correct diagnosis: A) Basedow's disease B) Carcinoid syndrome C) Tetralogy of Fallot D) Polycythemia rubra vera E) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome |
INT-7.309.
B |
|
The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is caused by:
A) an adenoma of the pancreatic beta cells B) an adenoma of the pancreatic alpha cells C) an adenoma of the pancreatic gamma cells D) a carcinoma of the exocrine pancreas E) mucoviscidosis |
INT-7.310.
C |
|
A dilated, rigid, painless gallbladder (Courvoisier's s sign) and jaundice
is typical of one of the following: A) infectious hepatitis B) hepatocellular carcinoma C) cancer of the pancreas head D) cancer of the pancreas tail E) calculus in the Wirsungian's duct |
INT-7.311.
C |
|
Which of the following cells primarily infiltrate the portal tract in
acute viral hepatitis? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) plasma cells E) giant cells |
INT-7.312.
C |
|
Coagulopathy developing in obstructive jaundice is due to:
A) secondary thrombocytopenia B) thrombocytopenia due to decreased vitamin K absorption C) increased capillary fragility D) thrombasthenia E) a low activity of tissue thromboplastin |
INT-7.313.
B |
|
Which of the following can cause priapism?
A) syphilis B) urethritis C) induratio penis plastica (penal prosthesis) D) increased libido E) epispadiasis |
INT-7.314.
B |
|
Define the term priapism:
A) an extrapyramidal disorder B) a mental disease C) pathological erection D) penis inflammation E) penis gangrene |
INT-7.315.
C |
|
The most important etiological factor of epididymitis is:
A) syphilis B) gonorrhea C) brucellosis D) blastomycosis E) listeriosis |
INT-7.316.
B |
|
Asbestos causes cancer in which of the following organs?
A) the kidneys B) the pleura C) the brain D) the adrenals |
INT-7.319.
B |
|
All of the following comprise different histologic forms of Lupus nephritis,
EXCEPT: A) focal glomerulonephritis B) membranous glomerulonephritis C) membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis D) microscopic polyarteritis E) mesangioproliferative nephritis |
INT-7.326.
D |
|
All of the following are criteria and symptoms of Mixed Connective
Tissue Disease (MCTD), EXCEPT: A) Raynaud's symptom B) swollen hands and fingers C) myositis D) esophageal dysmotility E) xerostomia |
INT-7.327.
E |
|
All of the following polysystemic autoimmune diseases contribute to the
development of Mixed Connective Tissue Disease (MCTD), EXCEPT A) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B) rheumatoid arthritis C) progressive systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) D) Sjörgen's syndrome E) polymyositis/dermatomyositis |
INT-7.328.
D |
|
All of the following are among the glandular symptoms of Sjörgen's
syndrome, EXCEPT: A) pharyngitis - bronchitis B) vulvitis C) vaginitis D) pyelitis E) conjunctivitis |
INT-7.329.
D |
|
All of the following are atopic diseases, EXCEPT:
A) allergic rhinitis B) allergic bronchial asthma C) gastrointestinal allergy D) allergic conjunctivitis E) hypertensive pneumonitis |
INT-7.337.
E |
|
All of the following occur in progressive systemic sclerosis
(scleroderma), EXCEPT: A) pulmonary fibrosis B) the incidence of antinuclear autoantibodies in the serum is about 90% C) chronic active hepatitis D) dysmotility of the lower esophageal segment E) Raynaud's syndrome |
INT-7.344.
C |
|
All of the following diseases can occur in the neonatal period,
EXCEPT: A) thrombopenia (ITP) B) myasthenia gravis C) Basedow's disease D) pernicious anemia E) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) |
INT-7.346
D |
|
The first heart sound is loud in:
A) first degree AV block B) the Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome C) mitral stenosis due to calcification D) aortic stenosis E) hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy |
INT-7.350.
B |
|
Which of the following ECG changes are typical of Printzmetal's angina
during a fit? A) ST depression in a localized area B) ST elevation in a localized area C) diffuse ST depression D) diffuse ST elevation E) none of the above |
INT-7.352.
B |
|
Select the most important effect of a normal dose of nitroglycerin in
angina pectoris (apart from coronary dilation!): A) relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles B) dilation of the peripheral vessels C) constriction of the peripheral arterioles D) constriction of the peripheral venules E) none of the above |
INT-7.353.
B |
|
Select the drug of primary choice in supraventricular tachycardia
with narrow ventricular QRS complexes: A) digoxin B) procainamide C) dopamine D) verapamil E) propranolol |
INT-7.354.
D |
|
The typical symptom of ischemic colitis in its acute phase is:
A) steatorrhea B) a normal X-ray picture after a barium meal C) nausea and vomiting D) symptoms of generalized peritonitis E) hemorrhagic diarrhea |
INT-7.356.
E |
|
Which of the following statements is typical of chronic
granulomatosis? A) neutrophils cannot phagocyte the bacteria B) chronically enlarged lymph nodes C) recurrent candidiasis D) a dominant inheritance pattern E) hypogammaglobulinemia |
INT-7.357.
B |
|
All of the following can increase the normal insulin requirement, EXCEPT:
A) pregnancy B) infections, fever, sepsis C) idiopathic spontaneous exacerbations D) hypothyroidosis E) burns due to irradiation and ultraviolet damage of the deep tissues |
INT-7.358.
D |
|
All of the following can induce systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE),
EXCEPT: A) chlorpromazine B) phenytoin C) aspirin D) procainamide |
INT-7.359.
C |
|
Which of the following antibiotics can form unsoluble chelates with
the aluminium of antacids, which would then impair their absorption? A) penicillins B) tetracyclines C) erythromycin D) sulfonamides E) none of the above |
INT-7.361
B |
|
Case Study:
Select the drug of choice in .a 2-year-old girl with fever and polyarthritis (diagnosis: juvenile rheumathoid arthritis): A) cytozan B) prednisolone C) aspirin D) chloroquine E) penicillinamine |
INT-7.363.
C |
|
Which of the following facilitates the antiocoagulant effect of
coumarin? A) phenylbutazone B) multivitamins containing vitamin K C) high-dose salicylate D) quinine and quinidin |
INT-7.364
B |
|
All of the following increase the blood glucose level, EXCEPT:
A) corticosteroids B) clofibrate C) diazoxide D) lithium carbonate |
INT 7.365.
B |
|
Where does hypernephroma develop?
A) in the glomerular epithelial cells B) in the tubular epithelial cells C) in the epithelial cells of the calyx D) in the glomerular endothelial cells E) in the juxtaglomerular apparatus |
INT-7.370.
B |
|
Which of the following diseases does not usually lead to the development
of the nephrotic syndrome? A) glomerulonephritis B) polycystic kidney C) renal vein thrombosis D) - lupus nephritis E) Kimmensteil-Wilson syndrome |
INT-7.376.
B |
|
In which of the following diseases does pulmonary hemorrhage occur?
A) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B) Henoch-Sch6nlein purpura C) hypersensitive vasculitis D) Legionnaires' disease E) all of the above F) none of the above |
INT-7.385.
E |
|
Case history:
A 45-year-old male patient suffers for years from rheumatoid arthritis. Nephrotic edema has recently developed. Urine analysis revealed red blood cells present in the urine; a 2-hour postprandial serum glucose was 11 mmol/L. After a 6-week steroid therapy, the proteinuria remained unchanged. Which of the following diseases is the least probable? A) amyloidosis B) chronic membranous nephropathy C) normal glomeruli as evident by a light microscopic study D) renal vein thrombosis E) nodular glomerulonephritis |
INT-7.387
C |
|
Which of the following statements about urinary tract infections in
female patients is FALSE? A) the occurrence of bacteriuria increases with age B) a shorter urethra better protects against infections C) urethral discharge increases the occurrence of bacteriuria D) a sedentary life-style promotes infection E) the growing occurrence of bacteriuria with age has no relation to sexual activity |
INT-7.389.
B |
|
Which of the following statements about catheter-induced urinary
tract infections is FALSE? A) it is the most common nosocomial infection B) a bladder lavage has a beneficial effect C) in candida infections systemic amphotericin-B therapy is always recommended D) infection induced by short-term catheterization does not require therapy E) in candida infections oral therapy with 5-flucytozin is effective |
INT-7.390.
C |
|
Which of the following findings indicates analgetic-induced nephropathy?
A) red blood cells-casts B) oval adipose bodies C) sterile pyuria D) phenacetine crystals E) pigmented hyaline casts |
INT-7.391.
C |
|
Which of the following drugs does not cause renal disease?
A) penicillin B) gentamycin C) erythromycin D) sulfonamides E) cephalosporins |
INT-7.392.
C |
|
Plasma or tissue erythropoietin-like substances are accumulated in
all of the following diseases, EXCEPT: A) hypernephroma B) cerebellar hemangioma C) hepatoma D) solitary renal cyst E) gastric carcinoma |
INT-7.393.
E |
|
Case Study:
A 50-year-old agricultural worker was admitted with nausea, vomiting with a peculiar aftertaste of metal, and diarrhea. He had been working with insecticides and disinfectants. The serum urea nitrogen value was 25 mmol/L. The urine volume excreted in 24 h. was 300 ml. Proteinuria, red blood cellsand epithelial cell casts were observed. Select the correct therapy: A) monitoring of fluid and electrolyte balance with fluid and electrolyte replacement therapy if needed B) high dose steroid therapy C) a dimercaptol (BAL) injection (3 mg/kg/24 h.) D) gastric lavage E) dimercaptol (BAL) injection 3 mg/kg followed by hemodyalisis |
INT-7.394.
E |
|
Case Study:
A 30-year-old male patient suffers from recurrent renal calculi. An abdominal X-ray study revealed bilateral nephrocalcinosis. Which of the following is the least probable? A) hyperparathyroidism B) sarcoidosis C) primary hyperoxaluria (oxalosis) D) renal tubular acidosis E) cystinuria |
INT-7.401.
E |
|
Which of the following renal calculi are the most common?
A) urate B) calcium-phosphate C) mixed calcium-oxalate and calcium-phosphate D) magnesium ammonium phosphate E) calcium oxalate |
INT-7.402.
C |
|
Which of the following diseases commonly occurs in pregnant
women with renal calculi? A) pre-eclampsia B) urinary tract infections C) spontaneous abortions D) congenital anomalies E) renal insufficiency |
INT-7.403.
B |
|
Which of the following drugs causes neuropathy in uremic patients?
A) vibramycin B) chloramphenicol C) trimethoprim D) nitrofurantoin E) cephalosporins |
INT-7.405.
B |
|
Which of the following gastrointestinal symptoms of renal insufficiency
is not improved by hemodialysis? A) uremic gastritis B) uremic fetor C) peptic ulcer D) uremic colitis E) nausea and vomitus |
INT-7.407.
C |
|
Which of the following drugs should be markedly decreased in
uremia? A) gentamycin B) lincomycin C) nafcillin D) oxacillin E) novobiocin |
INT-7.409.
A |
|
All of the following occur in pregnancy, EXCEPT:
A) an increased body water content B) a decreased blood volume C) an increased cardiac output D) an increased renal blood flow E) an increased GFR |
INT-7.410.
B |
|
In pregnancy, limb edema is due to one of the following:
A) salt retention B) hypoalbuminemia C) an increased capillary permeability D) an increased venous pressure E) an increased blood pressure |
INT-7.411.
D |
|
Which of the following usually causes symptom-free bacteriuria during
pregnancy? A) anemia B) a premature delivery C) a congenital anomaly D) pyelonephritis E) toxemia |
INT-7.412.
D |
|
Which of the following causes cessation of toxemia after delivery?
A) delivery of the placenta B) delivery of the fetus C) uterus decompression D) urether decompression E) the loss of amniotic fluid |
INT-7.415.
A |
|
Which of the following intra-abdominal organs does not move with
respiration? A) the kidney B) the pancreas C) the spleen D) the transverse colon E) the stomach |
INT-7.419.
B |
|
Which of the following substances is the most potent stimulant of
gastric acid secretion? A) proteins B) fats C) carbohydrates |
INT-7.422.
A |
|
A 5-fold elevation of serum amylase level strongly suggests:
A) parotitis B) pancreatitis C) intestinal obstruction D) pancreatic carcinoma E) penetrating ulcer |
INT-7.423.
B |
|
A characteristic symptom of pyloric obstruction is:
A) bile vomiting B) abdominal murmurs C) resonance above Traube's space D) succussion (splashing sound) E) visible peristalsis |
INT-7.424.
D |
|
In which of the following diseases does a massive gastrointestinal
hemorrhage rarely occur? A) esophageal varicosity B) reflux esophagitis C) gastric ulcer D) erosive gastritis |
INT-7.426
B |
|
The diagnosis of malaria is based on:
A) a stained blood smear for the identification of the pathogenic agent B) a hemoculture C) identification of the pathogenic agent on the skin D) a fluorescent antibody study |
INT-7.432.
A |
|
Liver transplantation is a new method for the therapy of fatal liver
diseases. Which of the following markedly improves the post-transplantation survival rate? A) a better selection of patients B) the early recognition of malignant diseases C) a better understanding of the pathomechanism of liver insufficiency D) cyclosporine A |
INT-7.435.
D |
|
Which part of the colon is the largest feces reservoir?
A) the cecum B) the transverse colon C) the descending colon D) the sigmoid colon E) the rectum |
INT-7.436.
D |
|
The defecation stimulus is triggered by:
A) contraction of the external anal sphincter B) contraction of the internal anal sphincter C) distension of the sigmoid colon D) distension of the rectum E) contraction of the rectum |
INT-7.437.
D |
|
The anatomic anomaly which causes congenital megacolon
(Hirschsprung's disease) is: A) hypertrophy of the descending colon B) lack of colon peristalsis C) absence of the autonomic plexuses in the colon D) rectal atresia E) lack of the internal rectal sphincter |
INT-7.438
C |
|
How often (% incidence) does ulcerative colitis affect the
rectosigmoidal mucosa? A) 10-20% B) 25-30% C) 50-70% D) 70-85% E) 85-100% |
INT-7.440.
E |
|
The most common site of diverticulosis in the colon is:
A) the rectum B) the sigmoid colon C) the descending colon D) the transverse colon E) the cecum |
INT-7.442.
B |
|
The most common cause of chronic relapsing pancreatitis is:
A) gallstones B) alcohol consumption C) Whipple's disease D) trauma E) infection |
INT-7.445.
B |
|
Which of the following proteins is not produced by the liver?
A) albumin B) alphal-globulin C) alpha 2-globulin D) beta-globulin E) gamma-globulin |
INT-7.451.
E |
|
If a patient with classic reflux esophagitis shows no reaction to
cimetidine or a therapeutic elevation of his bed then therapy must be supplemented with metoclopramide because: A) it stimulates gastric evacuation, which is impaired in 50% of these patients B) it increases the lower esophageal sphincter tone C) it improves the acid clearance D) it improves gastritis which occurs in 75% of these patients E) all of the above |
INT-7.452.
E |
|
The enzyme metabolizing alcohol is:
A) alcohol reductase B) alcohol oxidase C) alcohol dehydrogenase D) alcohol synthetase E) glucose- 6-phosphatase |
INT-7.453.
C |
|
The most common endocrinopathy occurring in the Zollinger-
Ellison Syndrome is: A) pheochromocytoma B) hyperthyroidism C) hypopparathyroidism D) hypoparathyroidism E) Cushing's syndrome |
INT-7.454.
C |
|
How does the vagal tone affect the basal gastrin level?
A) it elevates the gastrin level B) it lowers the gastrin level C) it has no effect on the gastrin level |
INT-7.455.
A |
|
Which of the following statements supports the diagnosis of
hemolytic jaundice? A) an elevated non-conjugated bilirubin level in the plasma B) the presence of bilirubin in the urine C) an elevated reticulocyte count D) both (A) and (C) are true E) none of the above |
INT-7.461.
D |
|
Case Study:
In a patient with primary biliary cirrhosis, polyclonal gammopathy was established by protein-electrpphoresis. The immunoglobulin found is predominantly: A) IgA B) IgM C) IgG D) IgD E) IgE |
INT-7.462.
B |
|
Which of the following agents inhibits vitamin B12 absorption?
A) phenytoin B) methotrexate C) cycloserine D) trimethoprim E) all of the above., |
INT-7.464
E |
|
A manifestation of Crohn s disease can occur in:
A) the oral cavity B) the esophagus C) the stomach D) the ileum E) all of the above |
INT-7.465.
E |
|
Which of the following endocrine alterations can be accompanied by
an exudative ascites? A) hyperparathyroidism B) hyperthyroidism C) hypothyroidism D) Addison's disease E) acromegaly |
INT-7.467.
C |
|
Case Study:
2 weeks after a coronary bypass operation the patient's SGOT/SGPT was 30/350 with a normal liver function. 3 months later the patient complained of fatigue and weakness, his SGPT level increased over 300. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis? A) delta-hepatitis B) B-type hepatits C) non-A non-B hepatitis D) CMV hepatitis E) activation of a chronic hepatitis |
INT-7.471.
C |
|
Which of the following alterations is not characteristic of immunodeficient
diseases (AIDS)? A) lymphoid depletion in the cortical and paracortical areas of lymph nodes B) viral inclusions in the histiocytes of lymph nodes C) gammaglobulinemia D) an inverted ratio of T-helper/T-inductor cells E) common pneumocystis carni infections |
INT-7.477.
C |
|
Case Study:
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in a 24-year-old male patient suffering from arthritis, conjunctivitis and urethritis? A) rheumatoid arthritis B) Reiter's syndrome C) pseudo-gout D) gonorrhea E) ankylosing spondylitis |
INT-7.491.
B |
|
Which of the following is a dead vaccine?
A) pertussis immunization B) BCG immunization C) measles immunization D) rubella immunization E) yellow fever immunization |
INT-7.496.
A |
|
Case Study:
A 30-year-old patient with chronic active hepatitis (type B) converted from hepatitis E-antigen+ to hepatitis E antibody+. His transaminase values became normal and a liver biopsy showed inactive postnecrotic cirrhosis. What should be done next? A) comfort the patient; inform him that he is in complete remission B) inform the patient that no relationship exists between the E antibodies and the transaminase values C) observe the patient, since spontaneous seroconversion to Eantigen would reactivate the disease D) none of the above |
INT-7.501.
C |
|
The adequate therapy of anemia developing in the cecal loop syndrome
is: A) surgery B) folic acid supplementation C) vitamin B12 supplementation D) wide-spectrum antibiotics E) iron supplementation |
INT-7.505.
D |
|
Which of the following diseases has the same sigmoidoscopic findings
as those in shigellosis? A) amebiasis B) salmonellosis C) granulomatous colitis D) idiopathic ulcerative colitis E) diverticulitis |
INT-7.509.
D |
|
Case Study:
A 24-year-old female patient has a 2-year history of mild non-erosive arthritis. The patient also suffers from severe depression, which developed when she had started taking oral contraceptive pills. The patient is penicillin-sensitive. At examination a pericardial friction sound and proteinuria (over 3.5g) were found. Select the most probable diagnosis: A) rheumatoid arthritis B) rheumatic fever C) mixed connective tissue disease D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) E) polyarteritis nodosa |
INT-7.512.
D |
|
Which of the following mitral prolapse-induced arrhythmias (usually occurring
at night during increased vagal tone) is the most dangerous? A) ventricular extra-systole B) non-sustained ventricular tachycardia C) sustained ventricular tachycardia D) torsade de points E) atrial tachycardia |
INT-7.520.
D |
|
Which of the following statements concerning Goodpasture's syndrome
is FALSE? A) a synonym for glomerulonephritis caused by antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies B) pulmonary hemorrhage always disappears after a bilateral nephrectomy C) antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies show crossreactivity with alveolar membrane D) pulmonary hemorrhage is sometimes not recognized E) agressive plasma replacement therapy can stop the pathological process in the lung |
INT-7.527.
B |
|
Which type of renal calculi is the most common?
A) apatite concrement B) magnesium-ammonium-phosphate concrement C) urate concrement D) cystine concrement E) calcium oxalate with or without calcium phosphate |
INT-7.532.
E |
|
70-80% of a renal calculus is comprised of:
A) calcium B) phosphate C) uric acid D) oxalic acid E) ammonium |
INT-7.533.
A |
|
Cardiovascular complications comprise about 10% of the annual
mortality of dialysed patients. Which of the following is another substantial mortality factor in this group of patients? A) sepsis B) neuropathy C) cerebral complications D) metabolic disorders E) anemia |
INT-7.537.
C |
|
If a patient with ulcerative colitis develops thromboembolic complications,
which of the following statements concerning such related coagulation disorders is true? A) an increased platelet count is a causative factor B) an elevated fibrinogen level is a causative factor C) a decreased factor V is a causative factor D) an elevated factor VII is a causative factor |
INT-7.538.
C |
|
Lyme disease is caused by:
A) Streptobacillus moniformis B) Borrelia recurrentis C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Bartonelle baciliformis E) none of the above |
INT-7.539.
C |
|
Case Study:
A 22-year-old male patient has a painless swollen ankle. Swelling developed during a 2 month period. The patient also reported a 9 year history of bilateral pleural pain, and recurrent, 3-9 day-periods of a swollen painful right knee and fever. Select the cause of the edema: A) amyloidosis B) phlebitis C) cor pulmonale D) rheumatic cardiac disease E) chronic glomerulonephritis |
INT-7.541.
A |
|
Cerebral metastatic carcinomas usually originate from the:
A) prostate gland B) esophagus C) bones D) lungs E) salivatory glands |
INT-7.542.
D |
|
Case Study:
In a 23-year-old patient with idiopathic ulcerative colitis (in remission due to drug therapy) re-activation of the disease occurred. The patient had hemorrhagic diarrhea with straining. Sigmoidscopy revealed ulceration at 40 cm. Which examination should be performed next? A) cglonoscopy B) air-contrast barium enema C) feces examination for enteric pathogens D) eosinophilic feces examination |
INT-7.544.
C |
|
Hemochromatosis:
A) is more common in women than in men B) is rare before middle age C) results from an autosomal recessive trait D) hepatomas occur with increased frequency in patients with longstanding hemochromatosis E) none of the above |
INT-7.549.
BCD |
|
The fourth heart sound:
A) can be physiological if it occurs in young individuals under 30- years-old B) starts simultaneously with the "a" wave of the jugular vein pulse curve C) occurs on the sudden opening of the mitral valve D) is related to ventricular distensibility E) is a sign of systemic hypertension |
INT-7.559.
BDE |
|
A protruding pulmonary artery on the chest X-ray indicates:
A) a ventricular septal defect B) valvular pulmonary stenosis C) Tetralogy of Fallot D) severe mitral stenosis E) a massive pulmonary embolism |
INT-7.561.
ABDE |
|
Under normal conditions, the stroke volume increases:
A) during increased sympathetic activity B) during increased parasympathetic activity C) in an increased ventricular end-diastolic volume D) in changing from the recumbent position to the upright position E) in high ambient temperatures |
INT-7.562.
ACE |
|
Which of the following is characteristic of mitral stenosis?
A) an "opening snap" B) a shifted apical beat C) it is a complication of infective endocarditis D) it is more common in women E) a history of rheumatic fever is frequently found in this disorder |
INT-7.565.
ADE |
|
Typical features of severe aortic stenosis include:
A) syncope induced by physical load B) a louder second sound over the aorta C) a blood pressure of 180/120 mmHg D) left ventricular hypertrophy on the ECG/Echocardiography E) the systolic gradient between the left ventricle and the aorta exceeds 60 mmHg |
INT-7.567.
ADE |
|
Which of the following ECG changes develop in the early stage of an
acute transmural myocardial infarction? A) a dome-like ST-elevation B) a pathological Q wave C) negative T waves D) ST depression in the infarcted area E) none of the above |
INT-7.574.
AB |
|
Drugs inducing goiter include:
A) aminosalicylic acid B) digoxin C) lithium D) propylthiouracil E) streptomycin |
INT-7.577.
ACD |
|
Which of the following statements are characteristic of
pheochromocytoma? A) the intravenous administration of beta-mimetic agents is necessary in an acute hypertensive crisis B) remote metastases have already developed by the time of diagnosis C) the diagnosis is usually based on paroxysmal hypertensive fits D) an excessive renal excretion of 5-hydroxy-indolacetic acid E) the maximum incidence is between the third and fifth decades |
INT-7.585.
CE |
|
Which of the following is observed in severe pyloric stenosis?
A) hypokalemia B) an elevated urea concentration C) a low urine pH value D) hypochloremia E) tetany |
INT-7.591.
ABCDE |
|
Characteristic findings in polycythemia vera rubra include:
A) a decreased plasma volume B) a tendency to hemorrhage easily C) an increased RBC sedimentation rate D) itching and pruritis E) an increased neutrophilic activity of alkaline phosphatase |
INT-7.600.
BDE |
|
Which of the following drugs can cause skin pigmentation as a
side-effect? A) chlorpromazine B) phenylbutazone C) chlorochine D) streptomycin E) busulfan |
INT-7.606.
ACE |
|
Which of the following drugs can cause pulmonary fibrosis?
A) amiodarone B) bleomycin C) colchicine D) phenytoin E) nitrofurantoin |
INT-7.607.
ABE |
|
Which of the following drugs can decrease the efficiency of oral contraceptives?
A) rifampin B) coumarin derivatives C) phenytoin D) furosemide E) hydralazine |
INT-7.608.
AC |
|
Which of the following drugs can cause hirsutism?
A) spironolactone B) phenytoin C) minoxidil D) digoxin E) clomiphene |
INT-7.613.
BC |
|
Which pattern of regional enteritis (Crohn's disease) is most often
recognized? A)obstruction B) diffuse jejunoileitis C) abscess formation D) inflammation E) fistulas |
INT-7.623
ABCDE |
|
Mechanical intestinal obstruction is assumed if the physical examination
reveals: A) visible peristalsis B) a lack of intestinal sounds C) a "tympanitic" abdomen D) loud peristaltic sounds E) decreased liver dullness |
INT-7.624.
ACD |
|
Which of the following methods are used in the differential diagnosis
of congenital megacolon? A) sigmoidoscopy B) study of the distal rectum C) rectum biopsy D) barium enema E) stool cultivation |
INT-7.627.
CD |
|
A lesion of which of the following parts of the gastrointestinal tract
can cause tarry stool? A) the esophagus B) the stomach C) the jejunum D) the cecum E) the sigmoid colon |
INT-7.629.
ABCD |
|
An elevated SGOT value can occur in which of the following cases?
A) liver necrosis B) myocardial disease C) opiate administration D) muscle lesions E) only (A) and (B) are true |
INT-7.638.
ABCD |
|
Typical endoscopic findings in a benign gastric ulcer show:
A) sharp regular edges B) a clear, smooth base C) a nodular base D) rigid folds E) none of the above |
INT-7.642
AB |
|
In which of the following does erythema nodosum occur?
A) lymphoma B) sarcoidosis C) Streptococcal infections D) ulcerative colitis E) when oral contraceptives are taken over an extended period |
INT-7.657.
BCDE |
|
Which of the following are true for a 0 blood group patient?
A) the patient has anti-A antibodies B) the patient has anti-B antibodies C) the patient's parents have blood group A or B D) the patient has a higher risk of developing a duodenal ulcer E) the patient has a higher risk of developing a gastric carcinoma |
INT-7.663.
ABCD |
|
Which of the following indicate hemolysis due to an incompatible
blood transfusion? A) pulmonary edema B) lumbar pain C) headache D) urticaria E) hemoglobinuria |
INT-7.664.
BCE |
|
Which of the following statements about hemolytic anemia of,
newborns are true? A) it occurs if the father is Rh-positive and the mother is Rhnegative B) it is more probable if ABO incompatibility occurs C) it never occurs in the first newborn D) the most frequent pairing resulting in sensitivity is maternal blood group O and fetal blood group A E) it can be prevented by injecting a high-titer anti-Rh gammaglobulin preparation within 72 hours after delivery |
INT-7.665.
ABDE |
|
Which of the following causes Coombs-positive hemolysis?
A) dapsone B) methyldopa C) penicillin D) Clostridium perfringens sepsis E) cephalosporins |
INT-7.666.
BCE |
|
When are specific human immunoglobulins used?
A) for hepatitis A B) for hepatitis B C) for rabies D) for varicella zoster E) for diphteria |
INT-7.670.
BCD |
|
Which of the following are associated with pulmonary eosinophilia?
A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Strongyloides stercoralis C) Ancylostoma braziliense D) nickel carbonate E) chlorpropamide |
INT-7.677
ABCDE |
|
Though endoscopic study-induced infections are rare, such a possibility
must be considered if postendoscopic fever occurs. Which of the following infections can develop following gastroscopy? A) Salmonella typhi B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Hepatitis B D) Stercoralis E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
INT-7.683.
ACDE |
|
Which of the following features are characteristic of Bence-Jones
protein? A) it is found in the urine of 70% of patients with myeloma B) it precipitates at 37 0 C and is redissolved at higher temperatures C) it is comprised of both kappa and lambda chains D) the "Albustix" test is positive E) when it is present the risk of renal symptoms is increased |
INT-7.714.
AE |
|
Secondary osteoporosis can develop in:
1) steroid therapy 2) hyperthyroidism 3) acromegaly 4) postmenopause 5) Cushing's syndrome 6) starvation due to an absorption disorder A) 1, 3, and 4 are true B) 2 and 5 are true C) 4 and 5 are true D) only 3 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.715.
E |
|
Which of the following is characteristic of "shock lung"?
1) congestive lung 2) hemorrhage 3) atelectasia 4) edema 5) capillary thrombosis A) 1 and 3 are true B) 2, 4, and 5 are true C) 1 and 4 are true D) only 3 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.717.
E |
|
Schistosomiasis has the following characteristic clinical symptoms:
1) fever and allergic symptoms 2) abdominal pain and diarrhea 3) portal hypertension 4) cor pulmonale 5) myocarditis A) 1, 3, and 4 are true B) 2 and 4 are true C) 1 and 5 are true D) only 5 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.719.
E |
|
Which of the following characterizes the cerebrospinal fluid in aseptic
meningitis? 1) a turbid fluid 2) a low glucose content 3) a polymorphonuclear reaction at the onset of the disease 4) an elevated protein level A) 1 and 4 are true B) 2 and 4 are true C) 1 and 3 are true D) 3 and 4 are true E) all of the above F) none of the above |
INT-7.721.
D |
|
Hypothermia occurs in:
1) myxedema 2) high-dose sedatives 3) alcohol intoxication 4) hyperthyroidism A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.722.
A |
|
Which of the following methods is used in the therapy of opiate
intoxication? 1) gastric lavage in case of an oral opiate intake 2) naloxone iv. 3) meperidine A) 1 and 2 are true B) 1, 2, and 3 are true C) only 2 is true D) only 1 is true |
INT-7.723.
A |
|
Case Study:
An elderly patient with severe airway obstruction and chronic bronchitis is treated with digitalis for circulatory insufficiency. During therapy he suddenly develops a supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia (160/min) which was terminated with physical interventions. Which of the following medications should be used for the therapy of this arrhythmia? 1) digoxin iv. 2) pindolol iv. 3) metoprolol (Betaloc, cardioselective beta-blocker) iv. 4) quinidine p.o. 5) verapamil iv. A) 1, 3, and 4 are true B) 3 and 5 are true C) 3 and 4 are true D) 1 and 4 are true E) 2, 4, and 5 are true |
INT-7.725.
B |
|
In which of the following do pulmonary abscesses develop?
1) pneumococcus type-III pneumonia 2) mitral stenosis 3) pulmonary infarction 4) scleroderma 5) regional enteritis A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.726.
B |
|
Which of the following methods help in the diagnosis of lung cancer?
1) bronchoscopy 2) a scalene lymph node biopsy 3) a cytological smear from the sputum 4) angiography 5) ultrasound A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.729.
A |
|
Case Study:
A blood pressure value of 170/120 was found on four occasions in a 25-year-old female patient who takes no antihypertensives. A physical study showed no alterations. What should be done next? 1) nothing, because women are less susceptible to the sequels of hypertension 2) to prescribe a high potassium diet and recheck the patient after 6 weeks 3) measure the sodium content of the red blood cells 4) check for secondary hypertension A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.732.
D |
|
Case Study:
In a weak male patient with sinus bradycardia one doctor repeatedly measured blood pressure values of 170/ 100 mmHg, while an other doctor always obtained 160/ 100 mmHg. Which of the following might have caused this difference? 1) the cuff is too wide 2) digital devices have different accuracies ("silent" range) 3) the emotional liability of the patient 4) the two doctors released the air with different speeds A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 3 and 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.733
D |
|
Which of the following alterations can be found in the fundus in
both hypertension and arteriosclerosis? 1) blurred disk margins 2) narrowed vessels 3) crossing of the vessels 4) copper-wire arteries A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true , E) all of the above |
INT-7.734.
E |
|
Select the characteristic features of hypertension in end-stage renal
disease: 1) the hypertension is usually volume-dependent 2) the plasma renin level is usually low 3) the hypertension can be controlled with adequate dialysis 4) the hypertension is of a low-volume type A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.736.
A |
|
Case Study:
A 14-year-old boys blood pressure is 140/ 100 mmHg. Two weeks ago he complained of a sore throat Which ofthe following studies should be performed next? 1) a urine sediment study 2) a urine cultivation for the presence of any microbes 3) a urine study with sulfosalicylic acid 4) the determination of the urine pH value A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.737
B |
|
Case Study:
A 32-year-old male patient has paroxysmal hypertension and headaches, but the repeated values of the urine and plasma levels of vanilinmandelic acid, catacholamines and metanephrine are always normal. Which of the following can be assumed? 1) inadequate urine sampling techniques 2) aberrant adrenal tissue 3) an inactive adrenal tumor 4) a cerebral astrocytoma A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.747
D |
|
Select the differential criteria of renal and non-renal progressive hypertension:
1) proteinuria 2) red blood cells casts 3) a high serum creatinine level 4) none of the above A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.748.
D |
|
Case Study:
A 55-year-old patient on antihypertensive therapy complains of palpitation and headache. He also has accompanying signs of fluid retention. Which of the followIng antihypertensive agents can cause these symptoms? 1) hydralazine 2) phentolamine 3) minoxidil 4) bumetanide A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.752.
B |
|
Which of the following statements about calcium channel blocking
agents is true? 1) verapamil and diltiazem block the intracellular calcium influx 2) diltiazem enhances calcium outflux from the cell 3) a combination of calcium entry blockers with beta blockers can lead to cardiac insufficiency 4) the direct effect of sublingual nifedipine administration lasts for 3 hours A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.758.
E |
|
Which of the following statements about antihypertensive drugs is tunie?
1)chlorthalidone, metolazone, and triamterene are ali diuretics and have a similar effect on the potassium balance 2) captopril and saralasin are ACE inhibitors 3) propranolol, timolol, and atenolol are all lipid-soluble betablockers 4) minoxidil, hydralazine, diazoxide, and nitroprusside are all vasodilators and elevate the plasma renin activity A) 1,2, and 3 are true B) l and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.762.
D |
|
Dynamic ileus can be caused by the following:
1) chronic lead intoxication 2) acute diffuse peritonitis 3) biliary colic 4) renal colic 5) intermittant acute porphyria A) 1, 2, and 4 are true B) 2, 3, and 4 are true C) all of the above D) 2, 3, 4, and 5 are true E) 1, 2, 3, and 4 are true |
INT-7.771.
C |
|
Early metastases of gastric cancer can develop in the following organs:
1) the axillary lymph nodes 2) the supraclavicular lymph nodes 3) the inguinal lymph nodes 4) the liver 5) the testis A) 1, 3, and 5 are true B) 2, 4, and 5 are true C) 1 and 3 are true D) 2 and 4 are true E) 2 and 5 are true |
INT-7.772.
D |
|
Prostatitis can be caused by the following:
1) gonorrhea 2) syphilis 3) tularemia 4) tuberculosis 5) brucellosis A) 1, 3, and 5 are true B) 1 and 4 are true C) 2, 3, and 5 are true D) only 3 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.773.
B |
|
In which of the following does hypercalcemia occur?
1) in steatorrhea 2) in an overdose of vitamin D 3) in hypoparathyroidism 4) in hyperparathyroidism 5) in multiple myeloma A) 1, 2, 4. and 5 are true B) all of the above C) 2 and 4 are true D) 1, 3, and 4 are true E) 2, 4, and 5 are true |
INT-7.784.
E |
|
Which of the following can cause an air embolism?
1) damage of the pulmonary veins 2) damage of the systemic veins 3) inhalation of hyperbaric oxygen 4) opened veins following the abruption of the placenta 5) damage of the lymphatic vessels A) 1, 2, and 4 are true B) 3 and 5 are true C) only 3 is true D) 1 and 5 are true E) all of the above |
INT-7.787.
A |
|
Select the dangers of immunosuppressive therapy:
1) the occurrence of intercurrent infections 2) the development of a malignant tumor 3) a decreased titer of auto-antibodies 4) anemia 5) prolonged wound healing A) 1, 3, and 5 are true B) 2 and 3 are true C) 3 and 4 are true D) 1, 2, 4, and 5 are true E) only 3 is true |
INT-7.791.
D |
|
Which of the following diseases can lead to the development of
chronic cor pulmonale? 1) aortic coarctation 2) mitral insufficiency 3) patent foramen ovale 4) emphysema 5) silicosis A) 1, 3, and 5 are true B) 2, 4, and 5 are true C) 3 and 4 are true D) only 3 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.794.
B |
|
Secondary cardiomyopathy can be caused by:
1) hyperthyroidism 2) pheochromocytoma 3) beriberi 4) amyloidosis 5) glycogenosis A) 1, 3, and 5 are true B) 2 and 4 are true C) 4 and 5 are true D) only 3 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.796.
E |
|
Right-sided heart hypertrophy can be caused by:
1) emphysema 2) silicosis 3) mitral stenosis 4) carcinoid syndrome 5) Adams-Stokes syndrome A) 1 and 2 are true B) 1, 2 and 3 are true C) 1, 2 and 4 are true D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 are true E) all of the above |
INT-7.797.
D |
|
Hydronephrosis can occur in:
1) urethral stricture 2) prostatic hypertrophy 3) diabetes insipidus 4) spinal damage 5) the lodging of a concrement in the urinary tract A) 1, and 2 are true B) 1, 2, and 3 are true C) all of the above D) 1, 2, 4, and 5 are true E) 2 and 5 are true |
INT-7.801.
D |
|
Where do ulcers typically occur in the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
1) in the limbs 2) in the soft palate 3) in the stomach 4) in the duodenum 5) in the rectum A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 are true B) 2, 3, and 4 are true C) 3 and 4 are true D) 3, 4, and 5 are true E) 2 and 3 are true |
INT-7.806.
C |
|
Obstructive jaundice can be caused by:
l) carcinoma of Vater's papilla 2) a concrement in the common bile duct 3) obstruction of the Wirsungian duct 4) a carcinoma of the gallbladder 5) a carcinoma of the pancreatic tail A) 1, 2, and 5 are true B) 1 and 2 are true C) 1, 2, 3, and 5 are true D) all of the above E) 1, 2, 4, and 5 are true |
INT-7.807.
B |
|
Which of the following factors markedly contributes to the development
of head and neck cancer? 1) alcohol 2) smoking 3) the Epstein-Barr virus 4) the hepatitis B virus A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.811
A |
|
Which of the following histocompatibility antigens predisposes
to rheumatoid arthritis? 1) HLA/DRI 2) HLA/DR2 3) HLA/DR3 4) HLA/DR4 A) 1 and 2 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 1 and 4 are true D) 2 and 3 are true E) 2 and 4 are true F) 3 and 4 are true |
INT-7.823.
C |
|
Select the cytokines which play a primary role in the activation of
endothelial cells: 1) IL-3 2) IL-1 3) TNF-alpha 4) IL-10 5) interferon-gamma A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1, 2 and 4 are true C) 1, 2, and 5 are true D) 1, 3, and 4 are true E) 1, 3 and 5 are true F) 1, 4, and 5 are true G) 2, 3 and 4 are true H) 2, 4, and 5 are true I) 2, 3, and 5 are true J) 3, 4, and 5 are true |
INT-7.833.
H |
|
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)!
A) potassium excreting kidney B) difficulties in the initiation of movements; slow relaxation C) during such a fit the serum potassium level decreases D) athletes 1) Familial hypokalemic paralysis 2) Thomsen's syndrome 3) Primary hyperaldosteroneism 4) Ossifying myositis |
INT-7.839.
CBAD |
|
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)!
A) vitamin A intoxication B) it is complicated by sarcoma C) neurologic complications; fractures D) skin pigmentation E) a saddle-nose deformity F) uneven cartilage G) in the differential diagnosis - angina pectoris 1) Paget's disease 2) Hyperostosis 3) Osteoporosis 4) Fibrotic dysplasia 5) Ollier's syndrome 6) Relapsing polychondritis 7) Tietze's syndrome |
INT-7.840.
BACDFE |
|
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)!
A) hypertension B) hypotension C) both of the above D) none of the above 1) Vasopressin 2) Prostaglandins 3) Renin 4) Aldosterone 5) Glucagon 6) Bradykinin |
INT-7.846.
ACDADB |
|
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)!
A) an increased venous capacity B) sympathetic blockade C) an inhibition of the converting enzyme D) a low plasma volume E) short-term alpha blockade 1) Nitroprusside 2) Captopril 3) Methyldopa 4) Amiloride 5) Phentolamine 6) Chlorthalidone |
INT-7.847.
ACBDED |
|
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Nephrosclerosis B) Nephrosis C) Chronic pyelonephritis D) Renovascular disease E) Conn's syndrome 1) the 24 hour protein excretion is 3.8 g; normal iv. urogram 2) the 24 hour protein excretion is 400 mg; normal iv. urogram 3) the 24 hour protein excretion is 400 mg; iv. urogram reveals the symmetrically shortened, deformed calyx 4) the 24 hour protein excretion is 800 mg; iv. urogram shows the left kidney to be 7cm long and the right kidney to be 10 cm long |
INT-7.849
BACD |
|
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) 11-hydroxylase defect B) 3-beta-dehydrogenase defect C) Both of the above D) None of the above 1) hypertension 2) hypokalemia 3) hyperkalemia 4) glucocorticoid therapy 5) metyrapone therapy 6) hypogonadism 7) virilisation 8) usually associated with fatal outcome in pediatric patients |
INT-7.850.
CCDCDA |
|
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)!
A) cholestyramine has a beneficial effect B) a good response to a gluten-free diet C) a good response to wide-spectrum antibiotics D) a good response to the withdrawal of milk E) the administration of digestive enzymes decreases steatorrhea 1) Lactase deficiency 2) Celiac disease 3) Enteropathy caused by bile acid salts 4) Chronic pancreatitis 5) Whipple's disease |
INT-7.855.
DBAEC |
|
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Pancreas B) Lung C) Kidney D) Muscle E) Breast 1) Zenker's waxy necrosis 2) enzymatic fatty necrosis 3) traumatic fatty necrosis 4) anemic infarction 5) hemorrhagic infarction |
INT-7.858.
DAECB |
|
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Digoxin B) Lidocaine C) Propranolol D) Albuterol 1) a sudden withdrawal in patients with angina pectoris can cause angina 2) it is an efficient bronchodilator 3) it should not be given to asthmatic patients 4) it lowers the increased ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation 5) it affects only ventricular arrhythmias |
INT-7.864.
CDCAB |
|
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Tubular type colonic polyp B) Intermediate form of colonic polyp C) Villous adenoma 1) a 53% probability of malignancy 2) a 35% probability of malignancy 3) a 46% probability of malignancy |
INT-7.869.
CAB |
|
Glomerulonephritis is common in systemic lupus erythematosus
because the circulating antigen-antibody complexes precipitate in the walls of the glomerular capillaries. |
INT-7.875.
D |
|
Prostate hyperplasia leads to the retention of urine, therefore a bacterial
infection can easily occur in prostatic hyperplasia. |
INT-7.876.
A |
|
An embolus is always solid because fluids and gases cannot cause
obstruction of the vascular lumen. |
INT-7.878.
E |
|
Anaerobic glycolysis is enhanced in the body's tissue during hypoxia,
therefore glycogen accumulates in the hypoxic hepatic tissue. |
INT-7.879.
C |
|
Melanin accumulation occurs in Addison's disease because
hydrocortisone fails to inhibit the pituitary melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) secretion. |
INT-7.880.
A |
|
Aortic stenosis markedly contributes to the left ventricular load,
therefore left ventricular hypertrophy is a sequel of aortic stenosis. |
INT-7.885
A |
|
Fluid transudation across the lymphatic vessel walls occurs in
lymphedema because in lymphedema the permeability of the lymphatic vessels increases. |
NT-7.888.
C |
|
Heparin exhibits an antithrombin effect because the heparin molecule
is comprised of acidic mucopolysaccharides. |
INT-7.889.
B |
|
Inflammatory hyperemia is an active process because the vascular
permeability is increased in a focus of inflammation. |
INT-7.890.
B |
|
Gelatinous pneumonia is an exudative form of pulmonary tuberculosis
because a specific granuloma is the most typical tuberculotic reaction. |
INT-7.892.
B |
|
The left ventricular blood supply is inadequate in mitral insufficiency,
therefore. the left ventricle can exhibit a slight hypertrophy in mitral insufficiency |
INT-.895.
E |
|
In mitral insufficiency the congestion can spread to the pulmonary
circulation, therefore the right atrium and ventricle will undergo dilation and hypertrophy in mitral insufficiency. |
INT-7.897.
A |
|
Renal papillary necrosis mostly occurs in diabetic patients because the
Kimmelstiel- Wilson's syndrome is a typical renal disease in diabetes. |
INT-7.899.
B |
|
A marked cell decomposition occurs in leukemic patients following
irradiation, therefore the renal accumulation of urate salts is expected in post-radiation therapy in leukemic patients. |
INT-7.900
A |
|
A partial or intermittant urethra occlusion can lead to the development
of hydronephrosis because urine retention in the pyelon usually leads to a bacterial infection. |
INT-7.901.
B |
|
Acute glomerulonephritis is accompanied by albuminuria, therefore the
edema typical of acute glomerulonephritis is due to hypoproteinemia. |
INT-7.902.
C |
|
The red blood cells are more vulnerable in the spherocytic-type of
anemia because the red blood cells' osmotic resistance is decreased in the spherocytic type of anemia. |
INT-7.906.
A |
|
Metaplasia of the bronchial epithelium can occur in bronchiectasis,
therefore adeno-carcinoma is common in patients with bronchiectasis. |
INT-7.907.
C |
|
Dyspnea is one of the leading symptoms of emphysema because the
surface of the emphysematous lung is decreased. |
INT-7.909.
A |
|
Pulmonary alterations elicited by silicosis are irreversible because
the lung cannot eliminate the absorbed silicon. |
INT-7.910.
A |
|
Male patients with liver cirrhosis frequently develop gynecomastia
because the hepatic estrogen inactivation system is progressively destroyed. |
INT-7.914.
A |
|
A gallstone can sometimes impact itself in the hepatic duct, therefore
acute hemorrhagic pancreatic necrosis can develop as a complication of cholelithiasis. |
INT-7.915.
B |
|
Portal congestion develops due to liver cirrhosis, therefore an
intermittant jaundice can occur as a complication of liver cirrhosis. |
INT-7.916.
B |
|
A 37-year-old female patient was urgently admitted due to abdominal
seizures. During childhood the patient had been treated for jaundice in an infectious diseases ward. She has had 3 pregnancies; one was terminated by abortion. During the first pregnancy the patient complained of abdominal seizures on the right side. She took drotaverin (No-Spa) and was on a diet for a long time. Then the patient became symptom-free. She took oral contraceotive (norgestrol ethynil-estradiol - Ovidon) for three years. Two months before admission the oral contraceptive had been replaced by an IUD. The patient frequently compained of headaches and nausea. Before admission she had fever, vomited and developed abdominal seizures under the right costal arch, in the area of the cardia of the stomach. Spasmolytics relieved the pain, but not completely. The urine of the patient had a slightly darker color than normal. Physical status (most important findings): subicterus, enlarged (2 fingers), tender liver. Pressure tenderness under the right costal arch. Laboratory findings: temperature: 38.9 o C. red blood cell sedimentation rate: 39 mm/h. Serum bilirubin: 45 mol/L. SGOT: 210 IU; SGPT: 180 IU. ALP: 99 IU/L; GGT: 130 IU/L. WBC: 12900. Smear: Stab cells:6, Segm.: 83, Lymph.: 11%. Urine: norm. Specific density:. 1024. Prot.: (++). Ubg.: norm., Bilirubin: positive. Precipitate: several WBC/visual field. 7.919/ 1. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) adrug-induced cholestasis B) viral hepatitis C) acute pyelonephritis D) calculous cholecystitis E) adnexitis 7.919/2. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following studies should be performed in the acute phase of the disease to support the diagnosis? 1) an ERCP study 2) a HbsAg determination 3) a serum amylase determination 4) an ultrasound study 5) cholecystography A) (1),( 2), and (5) are true B) (3), (4), and (5) are true C) (2), (3), and (4) are true D) all of the above E) none of the above 7.919/3. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following laboratory parameters should be regularly monitored during the diasease? 1) serum Fe, Cu, and ferritin 2) bacteriological and parasitologic bile tests 3) WBC and serum amylase level 4) serum bilirubin, GOT, GPT, ALP 5) Weber's stool test A) (1), ( 2). (4), and (5) are true B) (3), (4), and (5) are true C) (3) and (4) are true D) all of the above E) none of the above 7.919/4. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following complications is the most probable? 1) coagulation disorders 2) chronic active hepatitis 3) pancreatitis 4) empyema vesicae felleae 5) hydronephrosis A) (2), (3), and (4) are true B) (1), (4), and (5) are true C) (3) and (4) are true D) all of the above E) none of the above 7.919/5. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following studies supporting the diagnosis should be performed? 1) if a liver disease due to a long-term use of oral contraceptive is suspected, a liver biopsy should be done 2) if the fever is further elevated an acute cholecystography should be done 3) an ultrasonic study should always be done first, since this non-invasive method yields important information 4) if a hydrops develops, ERCP should be done 5) palpation of hydrops is an indication for surgery A) (1), (3), and (5) are true B) (2), (4), and (5) are true C) (3) and (5) are true D) all of the above E) none of the above |
INT-7.919.
DCCCC |
|
Case Study
A 42-year-old female patient complained for 3 months of sustained headaches. Mild analgetics she subsequently received were successful for the headaches. No other symptoms were found in the history. The patient had three normal pregnancies, but during the third trimester of the fourth pregnancy the patient had to take diuretics. The only disease she had recently, was a cystitis which was treated with antibiotics. The patient's father and uncle both died of a heart attack at the age of 43 and 46 years old respectively. Physical examination: the patient is slim, her blood pressure taken at rest on both arms is 180/120 mmHg. Vein "notching" was observed during examination of the fundus. No other alterations could be observed. The initial laboratory tests showed trace amounts of protein in the urine. The ECG, and chest X-ray findings were normal. 7.920/ 1. Single Choice Question The most probable cause of the hypertension is: A) pheochromocytoma or renal artery disease B) renal artery disease or brain tumor C) cerebral tumor or Cushing's syndrome D) Cushing's syndrome or primary hypertension E) primary hypertension or chronic pyelonephritis 7.920/2. Single Choice Question All of the following diagnostic studies should be performed, EXCEPT: A) intravenous pyelography B) a bone marrow puncture C) a creatinine clearance test D) the plasma renine activity 7.920/3. Single Choice Question If hypokalemia is found then all of the following can be assumed, EXCEPT: A) pheochromocytoma B) primary aldosteronism C) Cushing's syndrome D) renal perenchymal disease E) antidiuretic drug abuse 7.920/4. Single Choice Question If a patient has primary hypertension, the primary therapeutic interventions comprise all of the following, EXCEPT: A) rest B) intravenous hydralazine C) hydrochlorothiazide D) a low salt diet E) sedatives |
INT-7.920.
EBAB |
|
Case Study
A 28-year-old male patient was admitted to an intensive care unit for chest pain (which had lasted for two hours), cough, and dyspnea. He had had several similar fits in the past. Such fits were usually elicited by emotional factors or strain. The patient(also has hay fever. Furthermore, the members of his family also have similar symptoms and fits. Physical examination: dyspnea, orthopnoea and cyanosis. A whistlingstridorous sound was found on auscultation of the lungs. Heart rate: 130/min, regular. Sputum: sticky, mucous. Arterial P02: 65 mmHg. 7.921 / 1. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) right heart insufficiency B) left heart insufficiency C) intrinsic bronchial asthma D) extrinsic bronchial asthma E) pneumoconiosis 7.921/2. Single Choice Question All of the following can cause this disease, EXCEPT: A) antigens, allergens B) excessive salt intake C) emotional stress D) infection E) analeptics 7.921/3. Single Choice Question The most probable respiratory functional finding during a fit is: A) a decreased FEV 1 B) an increased vital capacity C) a decreased residual volume D) a decreased airway resistance E) an increased arterial P02 7.921/4. Single Choice Question The best therapeutic step is: A) fluid restriction B) cardioversion C) beta-mimetics, bronchodilators D) beta-adrenergic blockers E) diuretics |
INT-7.921.
DBAC |
|
Case Study
A 64-year-old male patient was admitted complaining of frequent urination urges, anxiety, and nocturia. The symptoms have been persisting for 6 months. Apart from the afore mentioned symptoms, the patient also had two episodes of burning dysuria, which was treated with antibiotics. Furthermore, the patient also has a one-year history of angina pectoris and takes nitroglycerin when needed. Physical examination: blood pressure: 130/90, heart rate 90/min. Rectal examination revealed an enlarged prostate. Laboratory and ECG findings were not contraindictory for surgery. The prostate was removed by a transurethral resection with minimal blood loss. Six hours following surgery the patient started shivering, his temperature increased to 40 C and his blood pressure fell to 90/60 mmHg. 7.922/1. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) gram-negative sepsis B) a myocardial infarction C) a post-operative hemorrhage D) arrhythmia E) lobular pneumonia 7.922/2. Single Choice Question A further study of the hypotension will reveal all of the followIng, EXCEPT: A) lactic acidosis B) cold, wet skin C) an increased level of fibrin-degradation products D) sinus tachycardia on the ECG E) an increased urine output 7.922/3. Single Choice Question Bacteriemia due to urinary tract infection is caused by: A) Salmonella typhi murium B) Shigella sonnei C) Vibrio cholerae D) Hemophilus influenza E) Escherichia coli 7.922/4. Single Choice Question The most important intervention is: A) cardioversion B) the monitoring of the central venous pressure C) an electric pacemaker D) salt restriction E) potassium infusion |
INT-7.922.
AEEB |
|
Case Study
A 56-year-old female patient complains of weakness and fatigue that have been persisting persisting for about half a year. The patient sweats at night and is sometimes febrile. During this period she has lost 10 kg. A month ago she complained of pressure under the left costal arch. The patient sometimes has palpitations and pain which radiates to her left arm. Physical examination: the patient's skin and mucosa are pale. Percussion causes sternal pain. The liver is palpable. The spleen is enlarged exceeding the left costal arch by 4 cm. Laboratory findings: Hb: 100 g/L; Hct: 0.29; WBC: 100 g/L; platelets: 350 g/L; blood smear: myeloblasts: 0.01; promyelocytes: 0.03; myelocytes: 0.06; juvenile: 0.08; bands: 0.10; segmented: 0.60; eo: 0.02; ba: 0.06; ly: 0.04; red blood cells: sustained hypochromia and anisocytosis. Normoblasts: 1 / 100 WBC; platelets: anisocytosis. 7.924/ 1. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) myelofibrosis B) leukemoid reaction C) chronic granulocytic leukemia D) thrombocytemia E) polycythemia vera 7.924/2. Single Choice Question Keeping in mind the above noted diagnosis, select the stage of the disease: A) the initial stage B) the CML accelerated stage C) the CML inactive stage D) the blastic stage 7.924/3. Single Choice Question Which of the following is a characteristic laboratory finding? A) a chromosome analysis will demonstrate the Philadelphia chromosome B) the morphology of the blood cells is abnormal C) monocytosis D) the leukocyte alkaline phosphate score is high E) a low reticulocyte count 7.924/4. Single Choice Question Select the therapeutic drug of first choice: A) tamoxifen (Zitazonium) B) cyclophosphamide (cytoxan) C) busulfan (Myleran) D) melphalan (Alkeran) 7.924/5. Select One Of The Key Combinations Select the most common causes of death in the above noted disease: 1) disorders of pacemaker function 2) blast crisis 3) busulfan-induced bone marrow aplasia 4) pathologic fractures 5) infections A) (1), (2), and (5) are true B) (2},- (3), and (5) are true C) (1) and (4) are true D) only (3) is true E) all the above |
INT-7.924.
CCACB |
|
Case Study
A 32-year-old female patient felt a sudden retrosternal pain, which radiated to the shoulder and neck. The patient had an asphyxia episode and coughed. The patient takes oral contraceptives for 2 years. Physical examination: dyspnea, cyanosis, tachycardia (130 /min). The left ankle is slightly swollen and tender. No other pathological signs were found. Blood pressure: 110/80 mmHg, red blood cell sedimentation rate: 8 mm/h. WBC: 6200; Ht: 41%. Urine: negative findings. 7.926/ 1. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following studies are the most important in supporting the diagnosis: 1) ECG 2) blood smear 3) lung scintigraphy 4) echocardiography 5) heart catheterization 6) coronary angiography 7) urinalysis A) (2), (4), (6), and (7) are true B) (4), (6), and (7) are true C) (1) and (3) are true D) (2) and (5) are true E) all of the above 7.926/2. Single Choice Question Select the most probable correct diagnosis: A) myocardial infarction B) pulmonary embolism C) pericarditis D) lung tuberculosis E) acute pancreatitis 7.926/3. Single Choice Question Select the correct therapy: A) antibiotics B) immune suppression C) anticoagulants D) rest and diet E) antituberculotics |
INT-7.926.
CBC |
|
Case Study
A 55-year-old male patient suffers for years from chronic bronchitis which causes obstructive ventilation disorders. He also has diabetes mellitus. The patient was urgently admitted with fever, cough, substantial amount of purulent sputum, dyspnea, and cyanosis. The arterial blood gas analysis was as follows: P02: 51 mmHg; PC02: 54 mmHg; pH: 7.28; St. bicarbonate: 31 mmol/L. 7.928/ 1. Single Choice Question Select the correct acid-base disorder: A) metabolic acidosis B) metabolic alkalosis C) respiratory acidosis D) respiratory alkalosis 7.928/2. Single Choice Question The patient required oxygen therapy and received 4 L 02/min via a nasal catheter. After 24 hours the blood gas analysis showed the following changes: P02: 65 mmHg; PC02: 81 mmHg; pH: 7.20; St. bicarbonate: 36 mmol/L. Select the correct therapy: A) increase the oxygen via the nasal catheter B) decrease the oxygen via the nasal catheter C) artificial respiration is required D) inhalation of 100% (pure) oxygen |
INT-7.928.
CC |
|
A 50-year-old alcoholic male patient has complained for several months
of fatigue, weakness, and abdominal swelling. The swelling was at first intermittant, later it became constant. The day before, his hindlimbs became swollen too. The patient lost his appetite and his body weight decreased. Physical examination: jaundice, free abdominal fluid, liver: a four -fin-- ger enlargement, uneven surface. Laboratory findings: Se-bilirubin: 50; direct bilirubin 40 mol/1; GOT: 50 IU; GPT: 22 IU; gamma-GT: 580 IU; ALP: 40 IU/L. Urine: bilirubin: positive, UBG: increased. 7.930/ 1. Single Choice Question Select the correct diagnosis: A) alcoholic hepatitis B) liver metastases C) hepatic cirrhosis D) right heart insufficiency 7.930/2. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following studies should be done in the acute phase of the disease to verify the diagnosis? 1) duodenal tube 2) liver scintigraphy 3) cholecystography 4) liver biopsy A) (1, (2), and (3) are true B) (1) and (3) are true C) (2) and (4) are true D) only (4) is true E) all of the above 7.930/3. Select One Of The Key Combinations Select the possible complications of the disease: 1) esophageal varicous bleeding 2) hepatoma 3) coagulation disorders 4) empyema vesicae felleae A) (1, (2), and (3) are true B) (1) and (3) are true C) (2) and (4) are true D) only (4) is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.930
CCA |
|
Case Study
A month ago a patient became subfebrile. He also complained of a sore throat, poor general condition, pain in the limbs and in the chest, and cough. At present he complains of dyspnea, sensation of pressure in the liver, tachycardia. He can sleep only with an elevated pillow. Physical examination: mild lip cyanosis. Respiration is accompanied by flaring of the nostrils. Bilateral protruding jugular veins, tachycardia. A third heart sound at the apex was noted; decreased heart sounds. The relative dullness of the heart is shifted toward the lateral chest wall. Harsh respiration. The liver is enlarged by 4 flngers. The spleen is not palpable. Adequate pulsation of the peripheral arteries. Blood pressure: 120/70 mmHg. ECG: sinus tachycardia, low-voltage. Left axis deviation. Diffuse, flattened T waves. Chest X-ray (+ 2-D imaging of the heart): "cor bovinum". Low pulsation along the heart contoure. Laboratory findings: We: 30 mm/h. AST: 120 U; SGOT, GPT, and alkaline phosphatase - normal. Pharynx: bacteria + . A high titer of the anti-Coxsackie virus antibodies. WBC count: Se: 59%; Ly: 40%; Mo: 1%. 7.934/ 1. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) a pulmonary embolus B) a left ventricular aneurysm following a myocardial infarction C) an exudative pericarditis with a substantial amount of fluid after a viral infection D) a combined mitral defect E) rheumatic carditis F) viral hepatitis 7.934/2. Single Choice Question Which of the following non-invasive studies should be done to support this diagnosis? A) echocardiography B) lung scintigraphy C) phono-mechanocardiography D) bronchoscopy 7.934/3. Select One Of The Key Combinations Select the correct therapy: 1) salicylates, steroids and rest (if necessary) 2) implantation of an artificial valve 3) digitalis 4) hepatoprotective therapy; diet; bed-rest 5) anticoagulant therapy 6) diuretics; pericardial puncture if necessary A) (1) and (6) are true B) (1), (2), and (5) are true C) (3), (5), and (6) are true D) (1) and (5) are true E) (3) and (6) are true |
INT-7.934.
CAA |
|
Case Study
A 26-year-old female patient complained for 3 years of hypogastric, spastic pain accompanied by abdominal swelling. Every year the patient has 5-6 bouts of diarrhea, each lasting for 2-3 months. The stool contains fresh red blood and mucus. The patient also complains of frequent occasions of tenesmus. She has lost weight and complains of arthralgia. The symptoms worsen after consumption of milk. Physical examination: slightly anemic mucosa; hypogastric tenderness. Other findings negative. 7.936/1. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) a rectal tumor B) Crohn's disease C) the irratable bowel syndrome D) a severe form of ulcerative colitis E) salmonellosis 7.936/2. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following should be done to support this diagnosis: 1) a stool cultivation for amebiasis and dysenteria 2) rectoscopy; biopsy; stool cultivation 3) only irrigoscopy 4) a digital rectal exploration 5) stool cultivation; colonoscopy; biopsy A) (2) and (5) are true B) (1), (2), (3), and (4) are true C) (1), (3), and (5) are true D) (2), (3), (4), and (5) are true E) (1), (2), (3), and (5) are true 7.936/3. Single Choice Question Select the etiology and pathogenesis of this disease: A) a viral infection B) a bacterial infection C) can be an autoimmune disorder D) unknown E) an allergy to milk and other food products 7.936/4. Single Choice Question Select the most characteristic complication of this disease: A) liver and pulmonary metastases B) intestinal perforation C) fistula formation D) sooner or later ileus will develop E) since the patient is in a precancerous state, cancer might develop in the future 7.936/5. Single Choice Question . Select the prognosis of this disease: A) uncurable, with a fatal outcome B) it does not affect the life-style of the patient C) cancer will develop D) it can be controlled with conservative therapy E) secondary infections will markedly reduce the life-span of the Patient 7.936/6. Single Choice Question Select the most characteristic form of the disease: A) continuous deterioration B) exacerbations and remissions are typical C) it has a sudden onset with severe toxic state D) spontaneously heals in several weeks E) lasts for years, with constant activity 7.936/7. Single Choice Question Select the most relevant therapy for this disease: A) diet; spasmolytics B) surgery C) surgery; X-ray therapy D) sulfosalazine; steroids E) antibacterial and symptomatic therapy |
INT-7.936.
DACEDBB |
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Case Study
An 18-year-old female patient complains for about a month of fatigue, dyspnea after exercise, and swollen limbs. Three days before admission the patient had an upper respiratory infection. The patient is pale. A palm-size dullness was detected over the left side of the diaphragm. Chest X-ray: fluid (a 5-finger sized area) over the left diaphragm. Edema of both lower limbs. Clear heart sounds, rhythmic contractions. Pleural puncture: straw-yellow color fluid: 1.5% protein; specific density: 1012. BP: 130/80; sedimentation: 65 mm/h; cholesterol: 6.6 mmol/L; se-creatinine: 96 mmol/L; urine protein excretion: 2.8 g/24h; se total protein: 52 g%. 7.937/1. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) cardiac insufficiency B) lymphedema C) the nephrotic syndrome D) acute glomerulonephritis E) diabetic glomerulosclerosis 7.937/2. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following data support the assumed diagnosis? 1) hypercholesterolemia 2) anuria 3) proteinuria 4) leukemic cells 5) edema A) (1), (2) and (5) are true B) (2) and (4) are true C) (1), (4), and (5) are true D) (2), (3), and (5) are true E) (1) and (5) are true 7.937/3. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following studies should be done to support the diagnosis? 1) ECG 2) a kidney concentrating ability test 3) abdominal lymphography 4) renal ultrasonography 5) renal biopsy A) (1), (3) and (5) are true B) (2) and (4) are true C) (1), (4), and (5) are true D) (1) and (4) are true E) (4) and (5) are true 7.937/4. Select One Of The Key Combinations Select the typical findings of this disease: 1) a decreased glomerular filtration rate 2) sinus arrhythmia 3) metabolic acidosis 4) hypoproteinemia 5) an increased red blood cell sedimentation rate A) (1), (3), and (5) are true B) (2) and (4) are true C) (1), (4), and (5) are true D) (2), (4), and (5) are true E) (1), (2), (4), and (5) are true 7.937/5. Select One Of The Key Combinations Select the correct therapy? 1) cardiac therapy 2) immunosuppressive therapy 3) steroids 4) the patient does not require drug therapy 5) peritoneal dialysis A) (1), (3), and (5) are true ` B) (2) and (5) are true C) (2) and (3) are true D) only (4) is true E) (1), (2), and (3) are true 7.937/6. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following parameters should be checked during therapy? 1) the serum transaminase levels 2) urine protein excretion 3) the red blood cell sedimentation rate 4) the total se protein 5) Weber's test (feces) A) (1), (3), and (4) are true B) (1), (2), (3), and (4) are true C) (2), (3), and (5) are true D) (2), (3), and (4) are true E) (1), (3), and (5) are true 7.937/7. Single Choice Question Select the most probable prognosis of this disease: A) a total cure within two years B) a progression of the process C) the development of diabetic retinopathy D) cor pulmonale |
INT-7.937.
CAECCDA |
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Case Study
A 40-year-old female patient lost 6 kg in 3 months. She complains of fatigue, vertigo and headaches. In one month the patient had 4 occasions of orthostatic vertigo and fainted twice. The patient also complains of a constant abdominal pain. She has lost her appetite, frequently vomits, and has had diarrhea for several days. The patient observed an axillary and pubic hair loss and complains of decreased libido despite a normal menstruation cycle. Six weeks ago she sunbathed for several hours and got a tan of a surprisingly intensive color; she still has the tan of the same and even darker color. The patient is dysthymic and excitable. Physical examination: the patient is adynamic and has increased skin pigmentation without cyanosis. Blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg (lower than the usual value mentioned by the patient). Heart and lungs - negative; free abdomen; ptosis of the liver (one finger beyond the costal arch). The liver is smooth, not edgy. The spleen is not palpable. No. tenderness in the renal region. No edema. Loss of axillary hair. 7.940/ 1. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) a prolactin-secreting adenoma of the anterior pituitary B) hypothyroidism C) primary adrenal insufficiency D) the first signs of menopause E) post-partum pituitary damage (Sheehan's syndrome) F) anorexia nervosa G) porphyria cutanea tarda (urocoproporphyria) 7.940/2. Select One Of The Key Combinations Select the most relevant clinical study for this diagnosis: 1) "Cold-pressor" test 2) the presence or absence of orthostatic hypotension 3) palpation of the lymphatic nodes 4) a simple equilibrium test (Romberg's) 5) examination of the buccal mucosa 6) examination of the palms A) (1), (2), and (3) are true B) (2), (5), and (6) are true C) (3, (4), and (6) are true D) (1), (3), 5), and (6) are true E) all of the above 7.940/3. Select One Of The Key Combinations Select the relevant questions which can support the diagnosis: 1) Did the patient have sarcoidosis? 2) When was thelast pregnancy, if any? 3) Did the patient have antituberculotic therapy? 4) Did the patient have a cranial injury? 5) Did the patient take hormonal contraceptives? A) (1), (3), and (5) are true B) (2), (3), and (4) are true C) (1), (2), (3), and (4) are true D) (1) and (3) are true E) all of the above 7.940/4. Select One Of The Key Combinations Considering the diagnosis, select the most important accompanying diseases or symptoms: 1) chronic thyroiditis 2) fatty degeneration of the liver 3) polyglobulinemia; an elevated red blood cell count 4) increased susceptibility to vein thrombosis 5) chronic atrophic gastritis; hypoacidity A) (1), (3), (4), and (5) are true B) (1) and (5) are true C) (2), (3), and (5) are true D) (3), (4), and (5) are true E) all of the above 7.940/5. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following should be done: 1) Ask for admittance to an internal ward 2) Define the patient as unfit to work; a control examination should be done after a 6-8 week rest. The following steps depend on the state of the patient (improved - deteriorated) 3) Ask for a consultation with a gynecologist 4) Ask for admittance to a special endocrinologic ward 5) Explain to the patient that her problem is not so serious. Prescribe oxedrine (Sympathomin) drops and appetite improving therapy - cyproheptadine (Peritol). The patient should avoid sunlight, because photosensitivity indicates proneness to autoimmune diseases. A) (1) and (4) are true B) (2), (3), and (4) are true C) (1), (2), and (5) are true D) (2), (4), and (5) are true E) all of the above 7.940/6. Select One Of The Key Combinations If you have a chance to perform certain simple and quick tests, which of the following would confirm your diagnosis? 1) an X-ray of the sella turcica 2) the blood glucose level 3) the red blood cell sedimentation rate 4) a cholesterol and triglycerin test (information on the thyroid function) 5) determination of the Se Na+, K-, and Cl- levels 6) an ECG A) (1), (4), and (6) are true B) (2), (3), and (5) are true C) (2) and (5) are true D) (1), (2), (3), and (4) are true E) all of the above |
INT-7.940.
CBDBAC |
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Case Study
A 58-year-old male patient complains for 3-4 weeks of heartburn, belching, a burning epigastric pain relieved by sodium bicarbonate or milk; the pain never radiates elsewhere. The patient has no fever. He has lost his appetite and 3 kg. He has stool only every second day. The patient is normacidic. Gastric X-ray: filling excess is observed at the lesser curvature and irregular folds in the adjacent area. Laboratory findings: We: 26 mm/h; WBC: 8.4 G/L; Hb: 8.81 mmol/L; Ht: 0.40. 7.942/1. Single Choice Question Which of the following steps would you recommend: A) immediate admission to an internal ward, because the disease requires hospitalization B) immediate admission to a surgical ward, because the patient must soon undergo immediate surgery C) prescribe an immediate diet for patients with ulcer, as well as a therapy aimed at neutralization and decrease of acid production D) outpatient gastrofiberoscopy, because the clinical signs and the X-ray findings suggest the possibility of a ventricular malignant ulcer. Until the histological data are ready, prescribe a diet for patients with ulcer, as well as a therapy aimed at neutralization and decrease of acid production E) same as in (C); 4-5 weeks later repeat control X-ray study. If the ulcer is healed the therapy can be terminated. If no healing tendency is found perform a gastrofiberoscopy and/or refer the patient to a surgical ward. 7.942/2. Single Choice Question Select the adequate diet if the patient is treated conservatively: A) hunger diet: tea or milk with 1-2 cakes in the morning and evening; some unseasoned, lean soup and mashed potatoes B) the patient should avoid alcohol consumption, seasoned meals, and meat, and should eat three times a day C) the patient should avoid seasoned, fatty, smoked and other heavy meals, alcohol, and coffee. Otherwise the diet should guarantee a normal daily energy requirement, and adequate vitamin, and fat consumption. Between the three main meals recommend to the patient to have milk and dry cakes. D) avoid seasoned food and alcohol, restrict the amount of consumed food; the diet should be low in fiber and fat. Recommend to the patient to eat every hour E) let the patient keep his own diet (it is the recent trend in dietology); recommend him to avoid food which causes him complaints and to consume everything that does not cause him symptoms of any kind. |
INT-7.942.
DC |
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Case Study
A 27-year-old female patient was urgently admitted due to complaints of dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. Four days before the patient observed swelling and pressure tenderness in the right leg. Clinical signs suggest deep vein thrombosis which might have caused pulmonary embolism. 7.943/ 1. Select One Of The Key Combinations Select data in the history which support the diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis: 1) oral contraceptives 2) long-term immobilization of the lower limbs 3) injury of the lower extremity 4) hypertension A) (1), (2), and (3) are true B) (1) and (3) are true C) (2) and (4) are true D) only (4) is true E) all of the above 7.943/2. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following methods help in the verification of deep vein thrombosis: 1) Doppler's ultrasonography 2) contrast venography 3) impedance plethysmography 4) nuclear scanning with 125-iodine labelled fibrinogen A) (1), (2), and (3) are true B) (1) and (3) are true C) (2) and (4) are true D) only (4) is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.943.
AE |
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Case Study
A 47-year-old female patient presented with a complaint of arthralgia which started about 6 months ago. The joints of her fingers are red and swollen; in the morning she complains of joint rigidity in the fingers, toes, wrists and knees. The pain decreases after an hour. Physical examination: red, swollen interphalangeal proximal joints and multiple small nodes on the extensor surface of the elbow. 7.945/1. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) osteoarthritis B) gout C) scleroderma D) psoriatic arthritis E) rheumatoid arthritis 7.945/2. Single Choice Question All of the following parameters are pathologically altered, EXCEPT. A) bone marrow iron stores B) red blood cell sedimentation rate C) latex agglutination test D) immunoglobulin levels E) X-ray of the hands |
INT-7.945.
AE |
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Case Study
A 60-year-old female patient complains of progressive weakness in both hindlimbs which started three days ago. Several hours before the examination the patient became incontinent. Physical examination: bilateral plantar reflex (Babinski positive), bilateral weakness in the legs and decreased sensory function up to the middle of the abdomen. 7.946/ 1. Single Choice Question Select the most important urgent study: A) myelography B) CT study of the brain C) cystoscopy D) CT scan of the whole body E) EEG 7.946/2. All of the following diagnoses are possible, EXCEPT: A) cerebral tumor B) spinal meningeoma C) multiple sclerosis D) transverse myelitis E) spinal epidural abscess |
INT-7.946.
AA |
|
Select the localization of regional enteritis relapsing after
surgery: A) the jejunum B) the site of the anastomosis C) the colon D) at any site of the gastrointestinal tract E) the rectum |
INT-7.448.
B |
|
Which of the following processes can cause serous pleuritis?
A) bronchopneumonia B) lobar pneumonia C) tuberculosis D) lung cancer E) pulmonary abscess |
INT-7.300.
C |
|
All of the following changes are typical of tabes dorsalis, EXCEPT:
A) piercing pain B) ataxia C) neurogenic bladder D) Argyll-Robertson's pupil E) most of the serological reactions of the serum and CSF are positive |
INT-7.35.
E |
|
In all of the following renal calculi can be formed, EXCEPT:
A) in urinary tract obstruction B) in congenital metabolic disorders C) in constant substantial fluid loss D) along with gallstones E) in pyelitis |
INT-7.289
D |
|
In alcoholic cirrhosis and esophageal varicosities:
A) the presence and size of the varices is related to the extent of hypertension B) the risk of gastrointestinal hemorrhage correlates with the severity of portal hypertension C) the risk of gastrointestinal hemorrhage correlates with the size of the varices D) all of the above E) none of the above |
INT-7.447.
C |
|
Furosemide inhibits:
A) chloride transport in the ascending loop of Henle B) potassium transport in the distal tubules C) sodium transport in the collecting ducts D) potassium transport in the proximal tubules E) potassium transport in the collecting duct |
INT-7.111.
A |
|
Case Study:
Nephrosis was diagnosed in a 15-year-old boy. A renal biopsy revealed a "minimal change" process. The creatinine clearance determined from a timed urine sample while the patient remained recumbent was 150 ml/min. Select the possible cause of the high creatinine clearance rate: A) an increased permeability of glomeruo-capillary surface B) inaccurate urine sampling C) a decreased plasma osmotic pressure in the glomeruli D) an increased renal blood flow (RBF) E) an increased transcapillary hydrostatic pressure |
INT-7.118.
C |
|
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)!
A) rash, pruritis, arthritis, neurologic disorders B) hemorrhagic necrosis caused by endotoxins C) deficiency of the inhibitor of the first complement component 1) Schwartzman's reaction 2) Serum disease 3) Inherited angio-edema |
INT-7.843.
BAC |
|
The most common histological type of thyroid carcinoma is:
A) medullary carcinoma B) undifferentiated small-cell carcinoma C) undifferentiated large-cell carcinoma D) papillary carcinoma E) follicular carcinoma |
INT-7.479.
D |
|
Which of the following cardiac disorders can elicit cyanosis in the
early neonatal period: 1) Tetralogy of Fallot 2) an atrial septal defect 3) transposition of the major vessels 4) endocardial fibroelastosis A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.838
B. |
|
Which of the following statements about uric acid transport is FALSE?
A) interstitial uric acid concentration is highest in the juxtamedullary region B) in proximal tubuh the uric acid transport occurs in both directions C) hyperthyroidosis increases the uric acid clearance D) pyrazinoate mainly decreases the uric acid secretion E) acetazolamide slightly increases the uric acid excretion |
INT-7.73
A |
|
Which of the following is affected in Dupuytren's contracture?
A) the tendons B) the muscles C) the palmar fascia D) the joint E) the meniscus |
INT-7.247.
C |
|
Which of the following can cause right-sided heart hypertrophy?
1) emphysema 2) silicosis 3) an old fibrotic tuberculosis infection 4) mitral stenosis 5) kyphoscoliosis A) 1, 3, and 4 are true B) 2 and 4 are true C) 3 and 5 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.795.
E |
|
Case Study
A 30-year-old female patient had fever and observed red, coin-size, tender nodes on the extensor surface of both hindlimbs 3 months after delivery. The family doctor recommended further examination. A chest X-ray showed lobular opacity in the hilus of both lungs. Blood analysis, ESR, and other laboratory studies were negative. 7.929/1. Single Choice Question Select the correct diagnosis: A) Hodgkin's disease B) tuberculosis C) sarcoidosis D) leukemia E) infectious mononucleosis 7.929/2. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following endoscopic studies should be performed to verify the diagnosis? 1) bronchoscopy 2) Klassen-biopsy 3) pleural biopsy 4) mediastinoscopy 5) thoracotomy A) (1) and (3) are true B) (1) and (4) are true C) (2) and (4) are true D) (1) and (5) are true E) (3) and (5) are true 7.929/3. Single Choice Question Select the correct therapy: A) combined antibiotic B) combined antituberculotic C) cytostatic D) steroid E) antibiotics+steroids F) antituberculotic+steroid |
INT-7.929.
CBF |
|
Select the most important restricting side-effect of chloroquine,
when used for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) therapy: A) cardiotoxicity B) hepatotoxicity C) ocular toxicity D) peripheral neuropathy E) drug fever |
INT-7.26.
C |
|
Streptococcus infections can cause the following diseases EXCEPT:
A) lymphangitis B) puerperal infections C) erysipelas D) pyelonephritis |
INT-7.32.
D |
|
All of the following are opiate withdrawal symptoms, EXCEPT:
A) yawning and rhinorrhea B) sweating and lacrimation C) dilated pupils D) piloerection E) myalgia F) hypothermia |
INT-7.41.
F |
|
Select the pCO2 value characteristic of pure metabolic alkalosis if
the serum bicarbonate value is 34 mmol/L? A) 20 mmHg B) 30 mmHg C) 40 mmHg D) 60 mmHg E) 70 mmHg |
INT-7.54
C |
|
Case Study:
A patient with chronic metabolic acidosis treated with alkalic equivalents to correct the acidosis kept hyperventilating for several days. Which of the following is the most typical finding in this case? A) pH 7.4; pCO2 40; HCO3 24 B) pH 7.5; pCO2 40; HCO3 30 C) pH 7.5; pCO2 20; HCO3 16 D) pH 7.3; pCO2 30; HCO3 14 E) pH 7.5; pCO2 50; HCO3 36 |
INT-7.61.
C |
|
According to data obtained in many hospital patients, hyperuricemia
is primarily caused by: A) chronic renal insufficiency B) poorly treated hypertension C) chronic diuretic therapy D) obesity and an increased consumption of purines E) diabetes mellitus in adults |
INT-7.71.
C |
|
Which of the following statements about furosemide is FALSE?
A) in a maximum dose furosemide is more effective than the thiazides B) furosemide is efficient even at very low filtration rates C) it increases RBF and GFR if severe hypovolemia is not present D) it maintains the concentrating capacity of the kidney E) other diuretics potentiate it's effect |
INT-7.108.
D |
|
Which of the following statements about the baroreceptors of the
carotid sinus and the aortic arch is FALSE? A) in animals full denervation causes constant hypertension B) the baroreceptor sensitivity slightly decreases in essential hypertension C) the baroreceptor activity can increase in young individuals with "borderline hypertension" D) at decreased baroreceptor activity, the peripheral resistance and diastolic pressure can markedly increase in the orthostatic position E) a higher pressure is necessary to activate baroreceptors in hypertension |
INT-7.162.
D |
|
Catecholamines exhibit all of the following effects, EXCEPT:
A) anxiety followed by hyperventilation, palpitation and tremor B) a long-term elevation of blood pressure C) an increased cardiac output D) an increased muscle blood flow E) an increased renal blood flow |
INT-7.164.
E |
|
Case Study:
A 32-year-old male patient complains of various fits of hypertension and headaches. The repeatedly determined urine and plasma vanillylmandelic acid, catecholamine, and metanephrine values were normal. Select a possible explanation: A) cerebral astrocytoma B) a non-functioning adrenal tumor C) aortic coarctation D) aberrant adrenal tissue E) an inadequate sampling of the urine |
INT-7.191.
A |
|
All of the following symptoms occur in renal vein thrombosis, EXCEPT:
A) severe lumbar pain B) ureter incisure on the intravenous pyelogram C) hematuria D) proteinuria E) medial deviation of the ureter |
INT-7.203.
E |
|
Case Study:
A 50-year-old female patient complains of redness, swelling and rigidity of the distal interphalangeal joints. She has no other arthralgias. The most probable diagnosis is: A) erosion osteoarthritis B) rheumatoid arthritis C) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) D) ankylosing spondylitis E) systemic sclerosis |
INT-7.228.
A |
|
Initial gonococcemia causes gonorrheal urethritis plus one of the
following: A) myocarditis B) endocarditis C) encephalitis D) meningitis E) hepatitis |
INT-7.285.
B |
|
Case Study:
A 25-year-old female patient is admitted with metabolic alkalosis. The chloride concentration in the urine exceeds 110 mmol/L. This fording can occur in all of the following, EXCEPT: A) severe vomiting B) diuretic therapy C) severe potassium loss D) Bartter's syndrome E) Cushing's syndrome |
INT-7.141.
A |
|
Which of the following statements is typical of albinism?
A) a,tyrosinase enzyme deficiency B) a decreased level of glucuronide-transferase C) a decreased level of ceruloplasmin D) a Kayser-Fleischer circle E) liver cirrhosis |
INT-7.266.
A |
|
Case Study:
A middle-aged male patient is examined for back pain. The X-ray study showed round-shaped hypodense regions in the lumbar vertebra. Laboratory findings also include an increased sedimentation rate and high levels of serum alkaline phosphatase. Select the most probable diagnosis: A) prostate carcinoma metastasis B) gastric carcinoma metastasis C) hypernephroid carcinoma metastasis D) osteolytic osteosarcoma E) benign osteoblastoma |
INT-7.250.
C |
|
Define the term "phlebolith":
A) an organized thrombus B) a venous stone C) calcification of the venous wall D) inflammation of the vein wall E) the inflammation of a thrombus |
INT-7.275.
B |
|
The incubation period of rabies shows individual differences and is
related to the: A) infecting dose of the virus B) type of the vector C) history of vaccination D) distance between the wound and the brain or spinal cord E) clinical form of the vector |
INT-7.483.
D |
|
In all of the following thrombosis can develop, EXCEPT:
A) leukemia B) polycythemia C) systemic lupus erythematosus D) potassium chlorate intoxication E) echidnotoxin intoxication |
INT-7.273.
c |
|
In which of the following does hematuria occur?
A) acute pyelonephritis B) chronic pyelonephritis C) acute glomerulonephritis D) membranous glomerulonephritis E) amyloid nephrosis |
INT-7.282.
C |
|
Vinyl chloride causes cancer in which organs?
A) the liver B) the adrenals C) the colon D) the thyroid E) the thymus |
INT-7.317.
B |
|
Case Study
A 65-year-old female patient complains of progressive abdominal distension. lasting for two weeks. In a period of a half-a-year the patient lost 5.5 kg, but regained 3 kg during the past two weeks. Physical examination: a thin woman with visible ascites and pale mucosa. Ht: 0.30; WBC: 9.8 g/L; left inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged but not tender. 7.944/ 1. Single Choice Question Select the most relevant method of examination: A) a liver biopsy B) a lymph node biopsy C) a diagnostic ascites puncture D) intravenous pyelography E) an X-ray of the upper part of the GI tract 7.944/2. Multiple Choice Question Which of the following can cause a milk-like ascites? A) pus B) chylus C) trauma D) all of the above E) none of the above 7.944/3. Multiple Choice Question Chylus ascites was found. Select the most probable diagnosis: A) lymphoma B) pancreatic carcinoma C) syphilis D) tuberculosis E) none of the above 7.944/4. Single Choice Question Which of the following methods help in establishing the final diagnosis: A) gastrointestinal studies B) a lymph node biopsy C) a rectal biopsy D) intravenous pyelography E) arteriography 7.944/5. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) colon carcinoma B) lymphoma C) syphilis D) gastric carcinoma E) pneumococcal peritonitis |
INT-7.944.
CABABCDBB |
|
The most common cause of gastrointestinal obstruction by a foreign
body is: A) bezoars B) parasites C) intestinal calculi D) iron-containing calculi E) gallstones |
INT-7.431.
E |
|
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Meckel's diverticulum B) Hirschprung's disease C) Pyloric stenosis D) Cystic fibrosis E) Enteric cyst 1) no ganglion cells are found in a rectal biopsy 2) surgical resection of the involved, non-hypertrophic segment 3) a rudimentary omphalomesenteric duct 4) inflammation elicits symptoms which cannot be differentiated from appendicitis 5) surgical resection of the hypertrophic muscle has a beneficial effect 6) meconium ileus |
INT-7.867.
BBAACD |
|
The disease frequently misdiagnosed as regional enteritis is:
A) acute pyelonephritis B) irritable colon C) diverticulosis D) appendicitis E) gastritis |
INT-7.439.
D |
|
Which of the following states increase the incidence of arteriosclerosis?
1) obesity 2) gastric cancer 3) diabetes mellitus 4) hypothyroidism 5) lymphoid leukemia |
INT-7.792.
A |
|
The most common complaint in carcinoma of the rectum is:
A) diarrhea B) anal pain C) abdominal pain D) constipation E) melena |
INT-7.443.
E |
|
Which of the following hormones can elevate the serum calcium level?
1) thyroxine 2) calcitonin 3) parathyroid hormone 4) glucocorticoids 5) testosterone A) 2, 3, 4, and 5 are true B) only 3 is true C) 1, 2, and 3 are true D) 3 and 4 are true E) all of the above |
INT-7.785.
C |
|
Liver cirrhosis is the most common, but not the sole cause of portal
hypertension and esophageal varicosities. Which varices can be treated with a splenectomy? A) schistosomiasis B) thrombosis of the splenic veins C) nodular regenerative hyperplasia D) none of the above |
INT-7.463.
B |
|
Steatorrhea can be caused by:
1) decreased lipase production 2) bile secretion disorders 3) damage of the intestinal epithelium 4) celiac disease 5) tropical sprue A) 1, 3, 4, and 5 are true B) 4 and 5 are true C) 1, 2, 4, and 5 are true D) 2 and 5 are true E) all of the above |
INT-7.780.
E |
|
In which of the following malignancies does parathyroid hormone
overload occur? A) oat-cell carcinoma of the lung B) thyroid carcinoma C) epithelial carcinoma of the lung D) fibrosarcoma E) lymphoma |
INT-7.543.
C |
|
The initial lesion caused by rheumatoid arthritis:
A) remains in the articular cartilage B) remains in the articular cavity C) remains in the synovia D) remains in the bones comprising the joint E) remains in the secondary ligaments and tendons |
INT-7.482.
C |
|
Bacterial overgrowth following extensive intestinal resection can cause:
A) hepatic steatosis B) arthritis C) colon pseudo-obstruction D) lactate acidosis E) all of the above |
INT-7.500.
E |
|
Case Study:
A 48-year-old male patient is treated for Zollinger-Ellison's syndrome with cimetidine and anticholinergic agents. The disease is well maintained with this therapy, however gynecomastia and marked impotence have developed. Due to these side-effects the patient asks for a different therapy. Which of the following can be recommended? A) a total gastrectomy B) a reduced cimetidine dose and an elevation of the anticholinergic dose C) a shift from cimetidine to ranitidine D) to reassure and comfort the patient E) a vagotomy and a decreased cimetidine dose |
INT-7.498.
B |
|
Which of the following can lead to the development of chronic cor
pulmonale? A) lobar pneumonia B) thromboembolism of the pulmonary vein C) lung edema D) chronic pulmonary emphysema E) bronchopneumonia |
INT-7.301.
D |
|
Which study should be performed if infectious arthritis is suspected?
A) X-ray study B) scintigraphy C) articular puncture D) antibiotic therapy |
INT-7.343.
C |
|
Case Study:
A 40-year-old worker had a massive upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage accompanied by splenomegaly. He never consumed alcohol. Which of the following could have caused this gastrointestinal bleeding? A) a peptic ulcer B) gastritis C) esophageal varices D) gastric carcinoma E) esophagitis |
INT-7.446.
C |
|
All of the following are clinico-pathological symptoms of lead intoxication,
EXCEPT: A) anemia with basophilic granules in the red blood cells B) membranous nephropathy with nephrotic syndrome C) increased renal excretion of aminolevulinic acid and coproporphyrin D) lethargy, stupor, mental retardation and encephalopathy |
INT-7.473.
B |
|
Which of the following should be the drug of choice in idiopathic
hypercalciuria? A) ascorbic acid B) trichlormethiazide C) oral orthophosphate D) cortisone E) cellulose phosphate |
INT-7.535.
B |
|
The intensity of cardiac murmurs:
A) increases on the right side during expiration B) amyl nitrate increases the murmur in aortic stenosis C) increases during Valsalva's maNEUver in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy D) in mitral stenosis the intensity of the murmur depends on the extent of the stenosis E) increases during a physical load in aortic insufficiency |
INT-7.560.
BCE |
|
A left ventricular aneurysm:
A) is a common sequel of rheumatic fever B) causes recurrent ventricular tachycardia C) causes ST depression on the ECG D) leads to cardiac insufficiency E) correlates with a higher incidence of systemic embolization |
INT-7.563.
BDE |
|
Typical alterations in Paget's disease include:
A) increased bone resorption and bone formation B) stronger than normal bones C) an increased serum parathormone level D) high-output cardiac insufficiency is the usual cause of death E) a high level of urinary hydroxyproline excretion |
INT-7.580.
AE |
|
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Carcinoma of the pancreas body B) Mild, chronic pancreatitis C) Pancreatitis related to alimentary and metabolic factors D) Carcinoma of the pancreas head with complete obstruction E) Pancreatic disease related to hemochromatosis 1) a lack or markedly decreased amount of fluid, low bicarbonate and amylase level 2) a decreased amount of fluid, with normal bicarbonate and amylase level 3) a normal amount of fluid, with low bicarbonate and normal or low amylase level 4) a normal amount of fluid, with normal bicarbonate and low amylase level 5) an increased amount of fluid, low bicarbonate and normal amylase level |
INT-7.856.
DABCE |
|
Anemic infarction does not always develop after an occlusion of the
mesenteric artery because an impairment of the venous outflow is another important factor in the development of hemorrhagic infarction. |
INT-7.891.
E |
|
Case Study
A 32-year-old obese female patient was admitted due to an epigastric pain on the right side. After a 5-hour observation the symptoms indicated appendicitis and appendectomy was subsequently performed. The postoperative period and the next day were uneventful. When the patient tried to stand up she complained of pain in the right lower limb accompanied by a period of dyspnea. After rest however, the symptoms disappeared. Physical examination: sustained tachycardia. On the 3rd day the patient had a severe stabbing pain in the chest during walking with marked dyspnea, cough, and hemorrhagic sputum. The most important observations in the status were: dyspnea, marked cyanosis, protruding neck veins, a circumscribed pleural friction sound above the left diaphragm, subfebrility, several cm difference in the diameter of the lowe limbs, and hypotension. X-ray: lung opacity over the left diaphragm. ECG: P pulmonale and signs of right heart strain. The patient had tuberculosis in the past. The patient never took any medications other than oral contraceptives (for three years). 7.939/1. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) pneumonia B) pulmonary tuberculosis C) superficial thrombophlebitis D) thrombosis of the deep veins with subsequent pulmonary embolism E) cardiac insufficiency 7.939/2. Single Choice Question All of the following studies can verify the diagnosis EXCEPT: A) a chest X-ray B) ECG C) venography D) laboratory studies (hemostasis, enzymes) E) a lung-scan F) lymphography 7.939/3. Single Choice Question Select the most helpful therapy: A) combined antibiotic therapy B) cardiac support C) low-dose heparin therapy D) high-dose intravenous heparin therapy E) diuretics 7.939/4. Single Choice Question How long should the patient be treated after disappearance of the acute symptoms? A) until improvement is noted B) until the patient is complaint-free C) for 2-3 weeks after disappearance of the complaints D) for half a year or a year after disappearance of the complaints 7.939/5. Single Choice Question Select the drug of choice for prolonged therapy: A) aspirin (Colfarit) tabl. B) heparin C) rutoside (Venoruton) D) coumarin (Syncumar) E) antibiotics 7.939/6. Single Choice Question Select the laboratory studies indicated in controlling this patient's state: A) a platelet count B) the bleeding time C) the prothrombin time D) the coagulation time E) the partial thromboplastin time 7.939/7. Single Choice Question Which of the following does not contribute to the development of this disease? A) immobilization B) obesity C) varicosity D) surgery E) hypertension F) oral contraceptives |
7.939
939.DFDDDCE |
|
Case Study:
A 60-year-old female patient is admitted to an intensive care unit for dyspnea. The patient has been treated with digoxin and diuretics. A month later she developed a syncopal episode. What should be done? 1) an ECG should be taken 2) nifedipine therapy should be initiated 3) a determination of the serum potassium level 4) a determination of the serum calcium and magnesium levels A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.757.
B |
|
Select the complications of chronic acute cholecystitis which require
early surgical intervention: 1) gallbladder empyema 2) ileus 3) emphysematous cholecystitis 4) jaundice A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.770.
B |
|
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)!
A) macroglobulin, vascular insufficiency, plasmapheresis B) occurs in multiple myeloma, macroglobulinemia, systemic lupus and peripheral vascular insufficiency C) macroglobulin which causes hemolytic anemia 1) Increased viscosity 2) Cryoglobulins 3) Cold agglutinins |
INT-7.842.
ABC |
|
A 28-year-old female patient had a tonsilectomy at the age of 6, and an
operation due to otitis media at the age of 9. Since that time she has had recurrent otitis media and consequently received the appropriate drug therapy. A month before admission the patient had rhinitis and took oxytetracycline (Tetran). A day before admission she complained of otalgia in the right ear. Next morning the patient had nausea and fever (39 o C). By that time her husband reported that he could not communicate with her. At examination: occipital stiffness; Kernig-positivity; narrow pupils only slight reactivity to light. Central facial paralysis on the left side. Increased flexor tone in the upper limbs. Lower limbs are also flexed at knees. Stupor. Lumbar puncture: colorless cerebrospinal fluid. Cell count: 51 000/mm 3 . Pandy's test (globulin in the CSF): positive. 7.918/ 1. Single Choice Question The most probable diagnosis is: A) choriomeningitis B) cerebral abscess C) purulent meningitis D) epidemic encephalitis E) basilar tuberculous meningitis 7.918/2. Single Choice Question The most typical symptom of the disease is: A) an increased flexor tone of the upper limbs B) a central facial paralysis C) an impaired light reaction of the pupil D) disorientation E) meningeal signs 7.918/3. Single Choice Question The typical CSF finding is: A) dissociation of the cell proteins B) compression CSF C) a high cell count with a granulocyte prevalence D) a mixed cell finding E) an increased lymphocyte count 7.918/4. Single Choice Question Medication and therapy include: A) surgery B) antibiotics + steroids C) aimed antibiotic therapy D) antituberculotic therapy E) anti-inflammatory therapy |
INT-7.918.
CECC |
|
Case Study
A 31-year-old female patient consults her family doctor. She complains of a strong pain under the right costal arch and in the lumbar area which has persisted for several weeks. The pain lasts from several minutes to several hours and is not related to meals or the quality of the consumed food. Sometimes she feels pain when travelling by bus. When the pain is very intense, it is accompanied by nausea and swelling. The patient was afebrile at all times. Sometimes she felt a more frequent urge to urinate, but urination was never accompanied by a burning sensation. Her menstruation cycle is normal. The patient takes no medications. 7.931 / 1. Single Choice Question Which of the following questions should be asked on the basis of the above complaints? A) Have you experienced intense sweating? B) Have you had dark stools? C) Have you had dark urine? D) Do you have an appetite? E) Do you feel disgusted by certain meals? 7.931/2. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following laboratory tests should be performed to verify the diagnosis? 1) the red blood cell sedimentation rate 2) a complete WBC count 3) the urine amylase concentration 4) any urine precipitate 5) the urine bilirubin concentration A) (1, (2), and (3) are true B) (4) and (5) are true C) (2), (3), and (4) are true D) all of the above E) none of the above 7.931/3. Single Choice Question After having done these laboratory tests, which of the following studies should be performed? A) liver scintigraphy B) an X-ray of the stomach C) a native abdominal X-ray D) abdominal ultrasonography E) a CT 7.931/4. Single Choice Question Select the appropriate therapy: A) antibiotics B) sedation C) spasmolytics D) diuretics E) antacids 7.931/5. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following recommendations would you give your patient? 1) Check your body weight regularly! 2) Check your stools regularly! 3) Check your urine regularlyl 4) Check your menstruations regularly! 5) Check your body temperature regularly! A) (1), (2), (3), and (4) are true B) (2), (4), and (5) are true C) (3) and (5) are true D) all of the above E) none of the above 7.931/6. Single Choice Question Which specialist should the patient consult if the complaints persist? A) a gynecologist B) a surgeon C) a urologist D) an internist E) a rheumatologist |
INT-7.931.
CBDCCC |
|
The highest secretin secretion occurs in the:
A) stomach B) duodenum C) jejunum D) ileum E) none of the above |
INT-7.468.
B |
|
Which of the following can develop after long-term antibiotic
therapy? A) esophageal candidiasis B) esophageal stricture C) corrosive esophagitis D) achalasia E) diffuse scleroderma |
INT-7.303.
A |
|
Which of the following substances induces urinary bladder cancer
in humans? A) p-aminodiphenyl (aniline dyes) B) benzene C) hydramine D) aflatoxin E) vinyl chloride |
INT-7.318
A |
|
All of the following drugs can elicit systemic lupus erythematosus,
EXCEPT: A) procainamide B) hydralazine C) isoniazide D) chlorpromazine E) gold salts |
INT-7.322.
E |
|
Which of the following most probably occured in the history of a 16-
year-old boy with diabetes mellitus? A) a recent viral infection B) an insulin response to a glucose load is about 50% of the normal C) a decreased energy uptake is required D) an initiation of biguanide treatment before starting insulin therapy E) the patient can participate in physical training lessons and can participate in other games requiring physical performance |
INT-7.355.
E |
|
Nephrosis occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) right heart insufficiency B) constrictive pericarditis C) obstruction of the inferior caval vein above the renal artery D) polycystic kidney disease E) amyloidosis |
INT-7.373.
D |
|
The nephrotic syndrome occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) membranous glomerulonephritis B) thrombosis of the renal vein C) paraproteinemic nephrosis D) cholemic nephrosis E) Kimmelstiel-Wilson's syndrome |
INT-7.288.
D |
|
Initial gonococcemia causes gonorrheal urethritis plus one of the
following: A) myocarditis B) osteomyelitis C) arthritis D) parotitis E) meningitis |
INT-7.286.
C |
|
Marked splenomegaly occurs in which of the following types of
leukemia? A) acute lymphoid leukemia B) acute myeloid leukemia C) chronic lymphoid leukemia D) chronic myeloid leukemia E) polycythemia |
INT-7.292.
D |
|
Case Study:
A 35-year-old male patient complains of a resistant limb edema which has persisted for many years. He spent most of his life in tropical countries. His urine is milk-like. Which of the following explains the pathological changes of his urine? A) lipiduria B) a urinary tract infection C) gonorrhea D) chyluria E) an increased consumption of milk |
INT-7.116.
D |
|
All of the following are typical of endogenous pyrogens, EXCEPT:
A) they are low molecular weight proteins B) they are similar to lysozyme C) they are heat labile D) they elicit fever E) they are inhibited by an endotoxin |
INT-7.38.
E |
|
All of the following are true for osteogenesis imperfecta, EXCEPT:
A) progressive deafness B) blue sclerae C) a soft skull with "wormian" bones D) multiple fractures E) cataracts |
INT-7.28.
E |
|
Case Study:
A 45-year-old patient's blood pressure is 140/95 (stage 4); the patient has no other risk factors. Which of the following should be performed after a 6-month observation period? A) propranolol therapy should be started B) potassium chloride therapy should be started C) diuretic therapy combined with a reduced sodium uptake should be started D) the stage-5 diastolic pressure should be checked E) a larger cuff should be used and the patient's ECG should be taken |
INT-7.145.
D |
|
All of the following tissues contain alkaline phosphatase, EXCEPT:
A) skin B) bone C) leukocytes D) placenta E) liver |
INT-7.494
A |
|
The main mechanism of action of the thiazide diuretics is on:
A) the thin segment of the loop of Henle B) the pyramids C) the collecting duct D) the whole nephron E) the early portion of the distal tubule |
NT-7.99.
E |
|
Case Study
A 67-year-old female patient complains of arthralgia which started about 3 months ago. She has swollen wrists, spindle-like interphalangeal joints, swollen knees (first left, then right) and ankles. In the morning she complains of joint rigidity. The patient has no appetite, fever, and has lost 10 kg. She coughs, and the sputum is sometimes hemorrhagic. Chest X-ray: on the left side a round-shaped opacity with blurred edges and hypodense area in the middle is observed. 7.941 / 1. Select One Of The Key Combinations Select the correct diagnosis: 1) uric arthritis 2) rheumatoid arthritis 3) Caplan's-syndrome (pneumoconiosis) 4) bronchial cancer 5) paraneoplastic syndrome A) (1), (3), and (5) are true B) (4), and (5) are true C) (1), (3), and (4) are true D) (2) and (5) are true E) all of the above 7.941/2. Select One Of The Key Combinations Which of the following methods support the diagnosis: 1) the red blood cell sedimentation rate 2) the complement level 3) Waaler-Rose's latex test 4) determination of the antinuclear factor 5) bronchoscopy-cytology-biopsy 6) the serum uric acid level A) (1), (3), and (4) are true B) (2), (4), (5), and (6) are true C) (1), (3), (5), and (6) are true D) (3), (4), and (5) are true E) all of the above 7.941/3. Select the adequate primary therapy: A) steroids B) non-steroid antiinflammatory agents C) cytostatics in an immunosuppressive dose D) combined cytostatic therapy in tumor dose E) surgery |
INT-7.941.
BEE |
|
Which of the following symptoms does not occur in nephroptosis?
A) abdominal seizures in the orthostatic position B) postural hypertension C) postural hyperaldosteronism D) abdominal pain in Trendelenburg's position E) renal insufficiency |
INT-7.202.
E |
|
Dupuytren's contracture:
A) is a congenital pathology B) causes extension contracture of the fingers C) occurs in pseudosarcomatous fibromatosis D) is caused only by mechanical factors E) is more common in women |
INT-7.248.
C |
|
Case Study:
Laboratory findings in a patient with an assumed diagnosis of pertussis showed a 25000 leukocyte count and 75% lymphocytosis. However nasopharyngeal cultivation did not support the diagnosis. Which of the following diagnosis can be assumed? A) an adenovirus infection B) an unidentified viral infection C) Rickettsiosis D) none of the above |
INT-7.487
A |
|
In which of the following is the angiotensinogen (renin substrate)
level abnormally high? A) during estrogen therapy B) Hodgkin's disease C) colitis D) essential hypertension E) leukemia |
INT-7.175.
A |
|
Which of the following statements is not typical of membranous
glomerulonephritis? A) proteinuria but not so pronounced that it causes edema B) microhematuria C) a normal complement level D) non-selective proteinuria E) hypertonia |
INT-7.525.
A |
|
Which of the following pathological states is accompanied by hypertension?
1) aortic insufficiency 2) hyperthyroidism 3) beriberi disease 4) aortic calcification A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.741.
E |
|
Which of the following is accompanied by a low uric acid level?
A) diabetes without glucosuria B) diabetic ketoacidosis C) diabetic nephropathy D) Hodgkin's disease E) none of the above |
INT-7.81.
D |
|
The most pronounced gastrointestinal fluid absorption occurs in
the: A) duodenum B) jejunum C) ileum D) colon E) none of the above |
INT-7.238
B |
|
A ball on the foot develops in patients with:
1) a bronchogenic carcinoma 2) a lung abscess 3) bronchiectasia 4) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
INT-7.767.
A |
|
The most common hepatic lesion in cystic fibrosis is:
A) postnecrotic cirrhosis B) fat atrophy C) multinodular biliary cirrhosis D) Laennec's cirrhosis E) none of the above |
INT-7.242.
C |
|
The anion gap can be increased in:
A) ammonium chloride intoxication B) pyloric stenosis C) bromide intoxication D) multiple myeloma E) liver cirrhosis |
INT-7.63.
B |
|
Case Study:
A routine test has revealed proteinuria in a 35-year-old male patient. Electrophoresis of the urine proteins showed low molecular proteins at high concentration and only sustained albuminuria. RIA (radioimmunoassay) identifiedthe predominance of beta 2- microglobulins. Which of the following caused the proteinuria? A) cadmium intoxication B) mercury intoxication C) penicillin intoxication D) glomerulonephritis E) none of the above |
INT-7.125.
A |
|
In which of the following diseases does kallikrein secretion decrease?
A) essential hypertension B) pheochromocytoma C) primary aldosteronism D) all of the above E) none of the above |
INT-7.166.
A |
|
In which disease is a pacemaker usually implanted?
A) total AV block B) hyperesthesia of the carotid sinus C) sick sinus syndrome D) SA node block E) none of the above |
INT-7.514.
C |
|
All of the following statements about drugs for iron-deficiency
anemia are true, EXCEPT: A) oral iron preparations contain ferrous iron B) iron dextran contains ferric iron C) ferrous sulfate is the drug of choice for iron-deficiency anemia D) ferrous sulfate contains more than 90% elementel iron E) diarrhea or constipation can occur with oral iron preparations |
INT-7.545.
D |
|
Which segment of the colon most commonly shows signs of toxic
megacolon or toxic dilation due to ulcerative colitis? A) the cecum B) the transverse colon C) the descending colon D) the sigmoid colon E) the rectum |
INT-7.441.
B |
|
What percent of the total cortical surface is comprised by the frontal
lobe? A) 20% B) 40% C) 60% D) 70% E) 90% |
NEU-6.136.
B |
|
A bilateral lesion of the feeding center in the lateral hypothalamus
causes: A) aphasia B) aphagia C) hyperphagia D) polyuria |
NEU-6.169.
B |
|
Select the most typical feature of synaptic transmission:
A) conduction is not unidirectional B) it is a combination of electrical and chemical transmission C) norepinephine is always involved D) synaptic transmission cannot be blocked |
NEU-6.172.
B |
|
A long period between the onset of the symptoms and the diagnosis
of an intracranial tumor occurs in cases of. A) melanoma metstasis B) medulloblastoma C) multiforme glioblastoma D) pituitary adenoma E) melanosarcoma |
NEU-6.537.
D |
|
At high doses all barbiturates exhibit an anticonvulsive effect.
|
NEU-6.2.
T |
|
The electric stimulation of certain areas of the brain can mimic normal
sleep. |
NEU-6.3.
T |
|
Phenytoin strongly inhibits the post-tetanic increase of excitation.
|
NEU-6.4.
T |
|
Local anesthetics inhibit the depolarization and propagation of
physiological stimuli. |
NEU-6.5
T |
|
D-tubocurarine is a non-specific inhibitor of the motor end-plate.
|
NEU-6.6.
F |
|
Phenytoin increases the intracellular sodium level.
|
NEU-6.7.
F |
|
impaired liver function affects the metabolism of phenytoin leading
to the subsequent accumulation of this component. |
NEU-6.8.
T |
|
Phenothiazines and Rauwolfia alkaloids induce Parkinson-like
symptoms. |
NEU-6.9.
T |
|
It is generally accepted that the dopaminergic pathways of the extrapyramidal
system are damaged in Parkinson's disease. |
NEU-6.12.
T |
|
Tumors never induce spike activity.
|
NEU-6.18.
F |
|
In tuberculous meningitisthe tuberculin test is usually negative.
|
NEU-6.24
F |
|
A cerebellar abscess can occur in chronic mastoididtis.
|
NEU-6.30
T |
|
A decreased serum ceruloplasmin level is typical of Wilson's disease.
|
NEU-6.45.
T |
|
Clinical symptoms alone are not sufficient to differentiate Friedreich's
ataxia from multiple sclerosis. |
NEU-6.56.
F |
|
Mark the prognosis of the following pediatric tumors as favorable (F)
or unfavorable (U): 1. cerebellar astrocytoma 2. cerebral astrocytoma 3. medulloblastoma 4. tumor of the medulla |
NEU-6.83.
FUUU |
|
Mark the following as causing hydrocephalus of a communicating
(C) or non-communicating type (NC): 1. subdural hematoma 2. post-inflammatory hydrocephalus 3. basilar impression 4. thrombosis of the lateral sinus |
NEU-6.84.
CCCC |
|
Mark the following alterations as either of muscular (A) or NEUrogenic
(B) origin: 1. frequent fasciculations 2. predominantly proximal weakness 3. predominantly distal weakness 4. lack of fasciculations 5. fibrillations 6. muscle irritability at percussion |
NEU-6.85.
NMNMNN |
|
Herpes infection of the geniculate ganglion usually causes a facial
paralysis. |
NEU-6.92.
T |
|
In some cases herpes zoster spares the nuclei and causes paralysis
of only the nerve. |
NEU-6.93.
T |
|
Parenteral histamine is the therapy of choice in migraine fits.
|
NEU-6.100.
F |
|
In most cases the site of pain helps to differentiate a migraine from
trigeminal neuralgia. |
NEU-6.102.
T |
|
A Parkinsonian tremor is more pronounced during voluntary motions.
|
NEU-6.103.
F |
|
Sensory disturbances can quickly develop in arsenic and alcoholinduced
polyneuritis. |
NEU-6.105.
T |
|
Micturition symptoms develop early in cervical spondylosis.
|
NEU-6.108.
F |
|
In case of a well localized cerebral abscess the body temperature is
normal or subnormal. |
NEU-6.118.
T |
|
The cells of the fasciculus cuneatus are localized in the:
A) gelatinous substance B) ganglia of the dorsal horns C) nucleus proprius D) all of the above. E) none of the above |
NEU-6.126.
B |
|
Fibers enter the gelatinous substance from:
A) the lateral spinothalamic tract B) the dorsal roots associated with sensation of pain and heat C) the Clarke nucleus D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.127.
B |
|
The following two lobes constitute the inferior part of the parietal
lobe: A) triangular and opercular lobes B) supermarginal and angular lobes C) triangular and angular lobes D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.129.
B |
|
Pigment granules can be observed in:
A) the cells of the substantia nigra B) the cells of the locus ceruleus C) the dorsal efferent nuclei of the vagus D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.130.
D |
|
Which of the following is a parasympathetic nucleus?
A) Edinger-Westphal nucleus B) Inferior salivatory nucleus C) Dorsal efferent nucleus of the vagus D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.131.
D |
|
Which types of cells can be found in the brain cortex?
A) pyramidal cells B) stellate cells C) Cajal's cells D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.133.
- |
|
The recurrent artery (Heubneri) originates from:
A) the internal carotid artery B) the anterior communicating artery C) the anterior choroid artery D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.134.
E |
|
Cerebral posterior arteries:
A) originate from the basilar artery B) can join with the superior cerebellar artery C) supply the occipital lobe D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.140
D |
|
The "genu" of the internal capsule carries the following fibers:
A) fibers from the anterior thalamic nuclei B) frontoparietal fibers C) corticobulbar fibers D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.142.
C |
|
Following the occlusion of the saggital sinus:
A) the ventricles dilate B) the CSF pressure increases C) both of the above D) none of the above |
NEU-6.145.
|
|
The blood-brain barrier is composed of.
A) capillary endothelium B) basal membrane C) podocytes of the astrocytes D) all of the above |
NEU-6.149.
D |
|
Which of the following is a neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic
postganglionic synapses? A) muscarine B) norepinephrine C) epinephrine D) acetylcholine E) buterylcholine |
NEU-6.164.
D |
|
Which of the following is not an intermediate product of norepinephrine
synthesis? A) tyrosine . B) epinephrine C) dopamine D) DOPA |
NEU-6.165.
B |
|
Which of the following is not a side-effect of antihistamine drugs?
A) supression of sea-sickness B) alleviation of some symptoms of Parkinson's disease C) alleviation of symptoms of tertiary syphilis D) suppression of petit mal epilepsy |
NEU-6.166.
C |
|
The typical memory loss occurring in Korsakoffs syndrome is due to
a lesion of which of the following structures? A) parietal associative cortex B) frontal associative cortex C) mammilary body, limbic cortex D) habenula |
NEU-6.167.
C |
|
Which fibers convey nociceptive stimuli?
A) unmyelinated C fibers B) myelinated fibers of small diameter C) both of the above D) none of the above |
NEU-6.168.
C |
|
A bilateral lesion of the feeding center in the lateral hypothalamus
causes: A) aphasia B) aphagia C) hyperphagia D) polyuria |
NEU-6.169.
B |
|
Mark the false statement - the pyramidal tract:
A) a part of it arises from Brodmann's area 4 B) most of it originates from neocortical areas C) 80-90% of the pathways cross in the inferior part of medulla |
NEU-6.170.
B |
|
The conduction velocity of an axon:
A) increases as the diameter increases B) is less in axons with lower threshold values C) both of the above D) none of the above |
NEU-6.173.
A |
|
The motor unit:
A) consists of the alpha-motor neurons of a given muscle B) consists of the alpha and gamma-motor neurons of a given muscle C) consists of an alpha-motor neuron and the muscle fibres supplied by this neuron. D) consists of the muscle fibers supplied by one motor neuron and a nerve. |
NEU-6.174.
D |
|
The retinal representation of the eye is observed in:
A) the lateral geniculate body B) the primary visual cortex C) both of the above D) none of the above |
NEU-6.175.
C |
|
The membrane potential is created by a:
A) concentration difference on both sides of the membrane and different permeabilities for individual ions B) Na+-pump C) resting potential D) reduced activity of the ions in the cytoplasm |
NEU-6.176.
A |
|
Typical electric signs of a paradox sleeping behavior are:
A) low amplitude, high frequency B) high amplitude, high frequency C) low amplitude, low frequency D) high amplitude, low frequency |
NEU-6.177.
A |
|
After transection of the, spinal cord in humans:
A) flexion reflexes reappear earlier than the extension reflexes B) extension reflexes reappear earlier than the flexor reflexes C) flexor and extensor reflexes reappear at the same time D) after trauma sweating is a common response to strong stimuli |
NEU-6.179.
A |
|
Loss of which of the following functions develops in spinal shock
caused by transection of the spinal cord? A) voluntary movement B) sensory function C) spinal reflexes D) all of the above |
NEU-6.181.
D |
|
The following substrate is mainly metabolized by the human
brain: A) glutamate B) albumin C) glucose D) none of the above |
NEU-6.183.
C |
|
During generalized seizures brain metabolism:
A) increases B) decreases C) remains unchanged |
NEU-6.184.
A |
|
Phosphorylase:
A) does not occur in the brain B) occurs in the brain in low concentrations C) occurs in the brain in high concentrations |
NEU-6.188.
C |
|
The most common tumor of the 3rd ventricle is:
A) ependymoma B) pinealoma C) colloid cyst D) medulloblastoma E) astrocytoma |
NEU-6.189.
B |
|
The most common tumor which causes sella enlargement is:
A) eosinophilic pituitary adenoma B) basophilic pituitary adenoma C) chromophobic pituitary adenoma D) dorsurri sellae meningioma E) craniopharyngioma |
NEU-6.193.
C |
|
The frequency of the alpha rhythm is:
A) 4-6 cycles/sec B) 6-8 cycles/sec C) 8-12 cycles/sec D) none of the above |
NEU-6.195.
C |
|
In a chronic subdural hematoma:
A) the EEG can be normal B) the EEG exhibits a slow-wave focus C) the EEG has decreased amplitude D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.196
D |
|
Blood in a CSF sample gained with lumbar puncture quickly disappears:
A) if it was caused by subarachnoid bleeding B) if bleeding was caused by the puncture itself C) if it was caused by thrombosis of the cerebral vessels D) if it was caused by an embolism of the cerebral vessels E) suggests rupture of an intracranial aneurysm |
NEU-6.204.
B |
|
An electrode is considered to be positioned over an epileptic focus if:
A) alpha-activity is observed B) if the so-called "inversed phase" phenomenon is observed C) both (A) and (B) are true D) the rest activity is recorded E) none of the above |
NEU-6.205
B |
|
Eczema, blond hair, blue eyes and mental retardation are typical of:
A) phenylketonuria B) cretinism C) tuberous sclerosis D) Down's syndrome E) toxoplasmosis |
NEU-6.207.
A |
|
In acute purulent meningitis, the CSF is NEVER:
A) opalescent B) clear C) turbid ("cloudy") D) purulent E) flowing at increased pressure |
NEU-6.208.
B |
|
Which of the following are the most common symptoms of an epidural
hematoma in a child? A) papilledema and stupor B) retinal bleeding and coma C) ataxia and hemiparesis D) hemiparesis and contralateral pupil dilation E) hyperreflexia and contralateral paresis of cranial nerve VI. |
NEU-6.219
D |
|
If the case history of an infant mentions trauma, vomiting, seizures,
and an enlarged head. What should be done? A) an EEG B) a lumbar puncture C) an X-ray of the skull D) a CT of the skull E) a radionuclide scan of the brain |
NEU-6.220.
D |
|
The most common symptom of increased intracranial pressure in
children is: A) a loss of visual acuity B) stupor C) vomiting D) ataxia E) diplopia |
NEU-6.221.
C |
|
Wilson's disease:
A) a Kayser-Fleischer ring is observed in nearly all cases, B) it is usually not inherited C) it is resistant to all kinds of therapy D) has only neurologic symptoms E) can only be diagnosed by a cortex biopsy |
NEU-6.228.
A |
|
The best diagnostic method in pediatric head trauma is:
A) X-ray of the skull B) pneumoencephalography (PEG) C) skull CT D) EEG E) radionuclide brain scan. |
NEU-6.230.
- |
|
Seizures in pediatric patients:
A) occur most frequently in tumors B) occur most frequently with high fever C) rarely occur after the introduction of "Sabin's vaccination D) rarely occur in subdural hematoma E) rarely occur in hypocalcemia |
NEU-6.231.
B |
|
Case Study:
Shortly after a penetrating foot injury a pediatric patient developed trismus, risus sardonicus, opisthotonus, abdominal rigidity. The most probable diagnosis is: A) drug allergy B) hysteria C) tetanus D) gas gangrene E) meningitis |
NEU-6.232.
C |
|
Subdural hematomas in infants are:
A) bilateral and occipital B) unilateral and frontoparietal C) bilateral and frontoparietal D) unilateral and basal E) unilateral and temporal |
NEU-6.233.
C |
|
Which of the following CSF findings occur in acute purulent meningitis?
A) normal pressure, clear and xanthochromic B) normal pressure, clear and colorless C) increased pressure, hemorrhagic D) increased pressure, turbid E) increased pressure, clear |
NEU-6.234
D |
|
Which of the following pediatric tumors spreads (is disseminated) in
the CSF prior to surgery? A) cerebellar astrocytoma B) medulloblastoma C) craniopharyngioma D) glioma of the optic nerve E) teratoma |
NEU-6.235.
B |
|
After an intramuscular penicillin injection an immediate sciatic
nerve neuropathy develops. What is suspected? A) an allergic reaction B) direct injury to the sciatic nerve C) a toxic effect of penicillin on the nerve tissue D) none of the above |
NEU-6.257.
B |
|
Case Study:
A deep injury of the foot has been treated with tetanus-antitoxin; several days later the patient reported weakness and pain in his arms. What is suspected: A) tetanus B) septicemia C) botulism D) brachial serum-neuritis E) none of the above |
NEU-6.259.
D |
|
Duchenne's dystrophy:
A) the symptoms develop at the age of 3-5 B) sometimes mental retardation occurs C) can be best diagnosed with muscle biopsy D) the serum creatine-phosphokinase is elevated E) all of the above |
NEU-6.264
E |
|
Case Study:
A 45-year-old male patient complains of lumbar pain radiating to his leg.Ipsilateral Achilles areflexia and hypesthesia in the small toe were found. At which spinal root level does the patient have a disc hernia compression? A) L2 root B) L3 root C) L4 root D) L5 root E) S1 root |
NEU-6.271.
E |
|
Occlusion of the main trunk of the middle cerebral artery results in:
A) hemiplegia and hemianesthesia B) hemiparesis C) hemiplegia, hemianesthesia and homonymous hemianopsia D) the thalamus syndrome and choreoathetosis |
NEU-6.283.
C |
|
Thrombosis of which artery is the most common vascular lesion of
the brain stem? A) the anterior chorioid artery B) the paramedian pontine artery C) the anterior inferior cerebellar artery D) the posterior inferior cerebellar artery E) the superior cerebellar artery |
NEU-6.284.
D |
|
Define the following: emotional lability, dysarthria, dysphagia, hyperactive
mandibular reflex: A) Wallenberg's syndrome B) Weber's syndrome C) Pseudobulbar syndrome D) Millard-Gubler's syndrome E) Benedict's syndrome |
NEU-6.285.
C |
|
A sudden development of hemiplegia and contralateral ophthalmoplegia
is most probably due to alterations in the: A) frontal lobe B) lateral medulla C) mesencephalon D) pons E) paracentrallobe |
NEU-6.286.
C |
|
The most common site of congenital aneurysms is:
A) between the middle cerebral artery- internal carotid artery B) between the anterior cerebral artery - anterior communicant artery C) between the posterior cerebral artery - posterior communicant artery D) between the basilar artery - vertebral artery E) the ophthalmic artery |
NEU-6.288
A |
|
The symptoms of a left-sided epidural hematoma in comatous patients
include: A) contralateral hemiplegia B) ipsilateral hemiplegia C) contralateral hemiplegia and ipsilateral paralysis of CN III D) contralateral hemiplegia and paralysis of CN III E) ipsilateral hemiplegia and paralysis of CN III |
NEU-6.289.
C |
|
Case Study:
A male patient complains of diplopia and numbness of one side of his body and face. Later he became comatous, developed quadriplegia and narrow pupils not sensitive to light. The most probable site of thrombosis is the: A) anterior cerebral artery B) basilar artery C) superior cerebellar artery D) inferior cerebellar artery E) lenticulostriatal artery |
NEU-6.290.
B |
|
Case Study:
A 64-year-old male patient has mental disorders, abnormal gait and incontinence. The CT study revealed expanded ventricles and compression of the subarachnoid space. The most probable diagnosis is: A) Alzheimer's disease B) Pick's disease C) a normal pressure hydrocephalus D) Jakob-Creutzfeldt disease E) Quentin's disease |
NEU-6.291.
C |
|
The worst prognosis of the functional restitution of the bladder is expected
in: A) a thoracic spinal injury B) a cervical spinal injury C) a lumbar spinal injury D) an injury of the sacral plexus E) a cervical plexus injury |
NEU-6.292.
D |
|
The best diagnostic approach in familial periodic paralysis is:
A) a muscle biopsy B) an EMG C) the serum K+ concentration D) an oral glucose tolerance test E) the nerve conductance velocity |
NEU-6.293.
C |
|
Nasal discharge of cerebrospinal fluid occurs in:
A) cranial fractures B) brain tumors C) congenital defects D) pseudotumor E) all of the above |
NEU-6.294.
A |
|
Which structure remains unaffected in multiple sclerosis?
A) the cerebellar tract B) the pyramidal tract C) the motoneurons of the ventral horn D) the spinal dorsal horn E) the visual tract |
NEU-6.296
C |
|
Lumbar and low extremity pain, peripheral low extremity paresis
and urination disorders occur in: A) lumbar spondylosis B) lumbar disc hernia C) a tumor of the cauda equina D) all of the above |
NEU-6.297.
D |
|
Cataplexy occurs in:
A) grand mal epilepsy B) Kleine-Levin's syndrome C) narcolepsy D) psychomotor epilepsy E) "status epilepticus" |
NEU-6.298
C |
|
Which diseases are accompanied by paralysis of the external ocular
muscles? A) myasthenia gravis B) multiple sclerosis C) Tolosa-Hunt's syndrome D) Wernicke's encephalopathy E) migraine headache F) ischemic injury of the brain stem G) all of the above |
NEU-6.299
G |
|
The therapy of choice in trigeminal neuralgia is:
A) clonezepam (Rivotril) B) alcohol infiltration C) carbamazepine D) retroganglionic neurotomy E) none of the above |
NEU-6.300.
C |
|
Occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery has the following symptoms:
A) contralateral homonymous hemianopsia B) contralateral hemihypesthesia C) Gerstmann's syndrome D) ipsilateral paresis and sensory disturbances of the lower extremity. E) contralateral paresis and sensory disturbances of the lower extremity |
NEU-6.301.
E |
|
Atrophy of the optic nerve can be caused by:
A) glioma of the optic nerve B) severe congestion of the fundus C) Kennedy-Gowers's syndrome D) optochiasmatic arachnoiditis E) all of the above F) none of the above |
NEU-6.302.
E |
|
Atrophy of the optic nerve can occur:
A) as a sequel of glaucoma B) after rupture of an intracranial aneurysm C) after papillitis D) after cerebral commotion E) none of the above |
NEU-6.303.
C |
|
Which of the following can occur after an ipsilateral occlusion of the
internal carotid artery? A) no neurologic signs B) ipsilateral amaurosis and contralateral hemiparesis C) contralateral hemiparesis and hemihypesthesia D) contralateral hemiparesis, hemihypesthesia, and homonymous hemianopsia E) all of the above |
NEU-6.304.
E |
|
A sudden visual disorder can occur in:
A) temporal arteritis B) disease of the ipsilateral internal carotid artery C) ipsilateral embolism of the central retinal artery D) migraine headaches E) all of the above |
NEU-6.305.
E |
|
Which of the following is typical of the retrobulbar NEUritis occurring
in multiple sclerosis? A) it is usually unilateral B) marked visual disorders C) later it is accompanied by temporal pallor D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.306.
D |
|
Embolization of the cerebral vessels occurs:
A) as a sequel of mitral valve prolapse B) as a seqel of atrial fibrillation C) if a lateral thrombus develops D) as a sequel of subacute bacterial endocarditis E) after cardiac surgery F) all of the above |
NEU-6.307.
F |
|
Which of thefollowing should be considered in the differential diagnosis
of papilledema? A) pseudoedema of the papilla B) papillitis C) thrombosis of the central vein D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.308.
D |
|
Which of the following diseases is accompanied by papilledema?
A) Gullain-Barré syndrome B) lung emphysema C) anemia D) hypoparathyroidism in children E) hypervitaminosis -A F) all of the above |
NEU-6.309.
F |
|
The most common cause of cerebral vascular thrombosis is:
A) hypertension B) arteriosclerosis C) diabetes D) syphilis E) collagen disease |
NEU-6.310.
B |
|
When do the symptoms of parainfectional encephalomyelitis develop?
A) 2 weeks before the appearance of exanthemas B) 1 week before the appearance of exanthemas C) simultaneously with the exanthemas D) 2 weeks after the appearance of exanthemas E) none of the above |
NEU-6.311.
D |
|
Which of the following can accompany infectious mononucleosis?
A) generalized polyneuritis B) facial paralysis C) encephalitis D) a lesion of the oculomotor nerve E) all of the above |
NEU-6.312.
E |
|
Which of the following is typical of rabies?
A) it develops following different incubation periods B) it develops within a short time period following a bite from an infected animal C) bites of different animals can elicit the disease D) it causes difficulties in swallowing E) all of the above |
NEU-6.313.
E |
|
A brain abscess:
A) is a sequel of bronchiectasis B) is a sequel of frontal sinusitis C) is similar to other intracranial space occupying processes as it causes neurologic symptoms D) is fatal if left untreated E) all of the above |
NEU-6.314.
E |
|
If meningitis symptoms are accompanied by petechias on the skin,
the most probable pathogenic microorganism is: A) Staphylococcus B) Streptococcus C) Pneumococcus D) Meningococcus E) Hemophilus influenzae |
NEU-6.317.
D |
|
Nneurologic symptoms accompanying cardiac diseases are:
A) thrombosis and embolism B) abscess and aneurysm C) seizures and syncope D) all of the above |
NEU-6.318.
D |
|
Hemiplegia developing after a subarachnoid hemorrhage can be
caused by: A) softening due to vascular spasm B) an intracerebral hematoma C) both of the above D) none of the above |
NEU-6.321.
C |
|
Case Study:
During physical work a 50-year-old male patient had a sudden headache, neck rigidity, seizures, paralysis of the 3rd cranial nerve and a rapidly developing coma The most probable diagnosis is: A) bacterial meningitis spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage due to an aneurysm C) rupture of a brain abscess D) glioma hemorrhage E) brain metastasis |
NEU-6.322.
B |
|
Which process is usually followed by hematomyelitis?
A) a blood dyscrasia B) congenital aneurysm C) trauma D) a demyelinizating process E) all of the above |
NEU-6.324.
C |
|
Which pathological process is usually accompanied by an epidural
hematoma? A) brain contusion B) rupture of the medial meningeal artery C) rupture of the lateral sinus D) rupture of the pontine veins E) none of the above |
NEU-6.326.
B |
|
If a head injury is followed by unconsciousness. Which pathological
process is assumed? A) brain contusion B) brain commotion C) an epidural hematoma D) a subdural hematoma E) abrain abscess |
NEU-6.327.
|
|
The most common neurologic symptoms in amyotrophic lateral
sclerosis are: A) organic mental syndromes B) urological symptoms C) aphasia; agnosia D) spinal muscle atrophy, spasticity, pyramidal symptoms E) visual field disturbances |
NEU-6.328
D |
|
Case Study:
A 10-year-old girl with normal gait complains of proximal muscle weakness. This, as well as atrophy of the proximal muscles of the lower extremities has been verified during the examination. A weak patellar reflex and pseudohyperlrophy of the leg muscles are also observed. Muscle biopsy indicated neurogenic atrophy. The most probable diagnosis is: A) myasthenia gravis B) hereditary amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C) Wolfhart-Kugelberg-Welander's disease D) Duchenne's dystrophy E) polymyositis |
NEU-6.329.
C |
|
The most common sequel of a cerebrospinal fluid fistula is:
A) headache B) meningitis or brain abscess C) a decrease of the CSF pressure D) cortical atrophy E) development of a hygroma |
NEU-6.330.
B |
|
The diagnosis of syringomyelia is primarily based on:
A) myelography B) the CSF findings C) localized muscle atrophy, sensory disorders, and impaired development of the bones D) an EMG E) any remissions in the course of the disease |
NEU-6.331.
|
|
Which test is of no (less) value in the diagnosis of progressive muscle
dystrophy? A) a muscle biopsy B) the serum creatinine phosphokinase level C) the EMG D) the muscle histochemistry E) the EEG |
NEU-6.333.
E |
|
A less typical symptom of myotonic dystrophy is:
A) pseudohypertrophy B) cataract C) baldness D) testis atrophy E) mental disorders F) atrophy of the facial muscles |
NEU-6.335.
A |
|
One of the following is not characteristic of Parkinson's syndrome:
A) degeneration of the substantia nigra B) dopamine deficiency C) cholinergic substances provoke parkinsonism D) decreased muscle tone E) mental symptoms |
NEU-6.336.
D |
|
Which of the following is typical of an alcoholic polyneuropathy?
A) a piercing pain is always present B) sensory disorders in-the lower extremities C) absence of autonomic symptoms D) normal conducting velocity in the peroneal nerve E) hyperthermia |
NEU-6.341.
B |
|
The rarest symptom in multiple sclerosis is:
A) impaired visual acuity B) ataxia C) vertigo D) paresthesia E) weakness F) seizures G) urinary disorders |
NEU-6.342.
F |
|
The most common CSF finding in multiple sclerosis is:
A) increased pressure B) a cell count of over 100/mm 3 C) an elevated gamma-globulin level D) a decreased protein level E) a decreased glucose level |
NEU-6.343.
C |
|
One of the following is less typical of multiple sclerosis:
A) spastic paraparalysis B) internuclear ophthalmoplegia C) nystagmus D) a concomitantpregnancy should be interrupted E) retrobulbar neuritis |
NEU-6.344.
D |
|
Which of the following is not true for epilepsy?
A) the diagnosis of epilepsy does not solely depends on the EEG B) the CT or MRI can be helpful if focal EEG alterations are observed C) after cessation of a seizure the medication used for its therapy can be discontinued immediately D) pathogenic causes can be ruled out in symptomatic epilepsy E) the dose of the effective drug should be continuously increased |
NEU-6.346.
C |
|
Case Study:
A 45-year-old male patient is being examined for epilepsy. A mild left facial and left-sided hemiparesis were found. A circumscribed bone thinning and bone spicules on the right side were also visualized on the X-ray. What is the most probable diagnosis? A) occlusion of the right carotid artery B) medulloblastoma C) cerebellar astrocytoma D) withdrawal symptoms E) meningioma |
NEU-6.348.
E |
|
The most frequent cause of retrobulbar neuritis is:
A) a paranasal sinus infection B) temporal arteritis C) multiple sclerosis D) aneurysm E) alcohol; smoking |
NEU-6.349.
C |
|
Case Study:
A 30-year-old woman complains of diplopia, disturbances of speech and swallowing. The symptoms show daily variations. Which of the following tests is the most relevant? A) an oral glucose tolerance test B) the EEG C) an Edrophonium (Tensilon) test D) an oligoclonal gamma test E) the VEP |
NEU-6.350.
C |
|
Case Study:
After sustaining a skull injury a 50-year-old male patient complains of progressive pulsating exophthalmus and diplopia What could have happened? A) a subtemporal hematoma B) an epidural hematoma C) a carotid-cavernous fistula D) an intracerebral hematoma E) an aneurysm of the basilar artery |
NEU-6.352.
C |
|
Select a lumbar CSF finding typically occurring in viral meningitis:
A) 2 mononuclear cells/mm3, protein 20 mg%, glucose 20 mg% B) 2 mononuclear cells/mm3, protein 50 mg%, glucose 20 mg% C) 20 mononuclear cells/mm3, protein 100 mg%, glucose 20 mg% D) 200 mononuclear cells/mm3, protein 100 mg%, glucose 20 mg% E) 100-1000 mononuclear cells/mm3, protein 60 mg%, glucose 50 mg% |
NEU-6.353
E |
|
A suddenly developing nystagmus, vertigo, Horner's syndrome,
ataxia without paralysis, and alternating sensory disorder suggest occlusion of which artery? A) anterior chorioidal artery B) posterior chorioidal artery C) basilar artery D) inferior posterior cerebellar artery E) superior cerebellar artery |
NEU-6.354.
D |
|
Case Study:
An 80-year-old alcoholic male patient complains of a headache probably due to skull injury. He has had left-sided hemiparesis for a month. The right carotidangiography showed detachment of the cerebral vessels from the internal surface of the skull. The most probable diagnosis is: A) cerebral contusion B) right-sided glioblastoma of the frontal lobe C) right-sided subdural hematoma D) right-sided epidural hematoma E) occlusion of the right middle cerebral artery |
NEU-6.355.
C |
|
One of the following is not characteristic of the cauda syndrome:
A) it is commonly caused by traumatic alterations in Ll-2 B) it can impair all sensory modalities C) sphincter paralysis D) no pyramidal symptoms E) spastic paralysis |
NEU-6.357.
E |
|
Case Study:
A 40-year-old male patient develops a sudden vertigo, vomiting, and imbalance. Which disease is the least probable? A) Meniére's syndrome B) acute labyrinthitis C) acoustic neuroma D) multiple sclerosis E) vascular disease of the brain stem |
NEU-6.362.
C |
|
Which part of the nervous system is the least affected in multiple
sclerosis? A) the spinal cord B) the cerebral cortex C) the cerebellar tracts D) the brain stem E) the visual tract |
NEU-6.368.
B |
|
In optic atrophy which of the following alterations are accompanied
by a bitemporal visual field defect? A) parachiasmallesion B) retinal vascular disease C) chiasmatic lesion D) tumor of the optic nerve E) none of the above |
NEU-6.371.
C |
|
The most common intracranial tumor is:
A) meningoma B) acoustic neuroma C) glioma D) pituitary adenoma E) angioma F) metastasis |
NEU-6.372.
C |
|
Which disease does not accompany alcoholism?
A) central pontine myelinolysis B) Pick's psychosis C) primary degeneration of the corpus callosum D) Wernicke's syndrome E) Korsakoffs psychosis F) parenchymal cerebellar degeneration |
NEU-6.374.
B |
|
Which of the following diseases shows the greatest coincidence with
myasthenia gravis? A) thymus tumor B) thymus hyperplasia C) hyperthyroidism D) hypothyroidism E) all of the above |
NEU-6.375.
E |
|
Select the main anastomoses of the cerebral circulation:
A) The circle of Willis B) supracortical anastomoses of the main cerebral arteries C) anastomosis between internal and external carotid arteries D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.376.
D |
|
Continous therapy with phenytoin can cause:
A) peripheral neuropathy B) visual impairment, ataxia C) gingival hyperplasia D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.378.
D |
|
Coma frequently occurs in:
A) thrombosis B) embolism C) hemorrhage |
NEU-6.382.
C |
|
Headache frequently occurs in:
A) thrombosis B) embolism C) hemorrhage |
NEU-6.383.
C |
|
Blood pressure is usually normal in:
A) thrombosis B) embolism C) hemorrhage |
NEU-6.384.
B |
|
Atrial fibrillation frequently occurs in:
A) thrombosis B) embolism C) hemorrhage |
NEU-6.385.
B |
|
Anisocoria is frequently observed in:
A) thrombosis B) embolism C) hemorrhage |
NEU-6.386.
C |
|
Case Study:
A 54-year-old hypertensive male patient suddenly develops vertigo, headache, and vomiting. At examination the patient is conscious and has unilateral ataxia without weakness. Conjugated eye movements are disturbed. What is suspected? A) pontine hemorrhage B) capsule hemorrhage C) cerebellar hemorrhage D) subarachnoid hemorrhage E) aneurysm of the basilar artery |
NEU-6.387.
C |
|
Which symptom is not typical of tabes dorsalis?
A) Argyll-Robertson pupils B) ataxia C) hypertonic muscles D) lack of vibration sensation E) root pain |
NEU-6.388.
C |
|
The typical course of herpes zoster is:
A) pain-blisters-pigmentation B) blisters-pigmentation-pain C) pain-pigmentation-blisters D) pigmentation-blisters-pain E) blisters-pain-pigmentation |
NEU-6.389.
A |
|
The most common cause of acute meningitis in adults is:
A) PNEUmococcus B) Streptococcus C) Hemophilus influenza D) Meningococcus E) none of the above |
NEU-6.391.
D |
|
The onset of bacterial meningitis can be best diagnosed by the
following: A) the general symptoms of the patient B) a murmur over the skull C) central scotoma D) bitemporal hemianopsia E) fasciculations |
NEU-6.393.
A |
|
The CSF in case of meningococcal meningitis:
A) is clear and colorless B) has a normal protein content C) has a normal pressure D) has a normal cell count E) none of the above |
NEU-6.395.
E |
|
Adrenal cortical tumors can cause:
A) recurrent fits of weakness resembling familial periodic paralysis B) hypertension with hypokalemia, hyponatremia and alkalosis C) hypertension with hyponatremia but without hypokalemia D) hyperetension with hypokalemia and acidosis E) none of the above |
NEU-6.403.
A |
|
Spina bifida means a congenital anomaly of which of the following
structures? A) the spine and brain stem B) the cerebellum, but not of the cerebrum C) the cerebrum but not of the cerebellum D) the spine but not of the brain stem E) the brain stem but not of the spine |
NEU-6.405.
A |
|
The typical onset of syringomyelia is:
A) a focal atrophy of the upper extremities, weakness and a lack of pain sensation to burning B) pain in the upper extremity C) sphincter disorders D) fasciculations E) none of the above |
NEU-6.406.
A |
|
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis:
A) usually starts in the proximal muscles B) usually causes dysphagia and dysarthria C) rarely causes diffuse hyperreflexia D) causes fasciculation, the intensity of which correlates with the severity of the disease E) none of the above |
NEU-6.407.
B |
|
The recommended therapy of "paralysis agitans" (a form of parkinsonism)
is: A) L-dopa therapy combined with a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor B) surgical treatment in elderly patients with bilateral disease C) trihexyphenidyl, 20-25 mg/day in split doses D) atropine and prochlorperazine E) diphenhydramine, 50 mg daily |
NEU-6.416.
A |
|
Case Study:
A hemorrhagic CSF which rapidly cleared up was obtained after a lumbar puncture. The first portion of the CSF contained 2000 RBC/mm 3 . The RBC content of the third portion was only 10 RBC/ mm 3 . The most probable diagnosis is: A) cerebral embolization B) rupture of an intracranial aneurysm C) subarachnoid hemorrhage D) artificial CSF hemorrhage E) cerebral thrombosis |
NEU-6.429.
D |
|
Case Study:
A lumbar puncture revealed an opalescent CSF with increased pressure. The most probable diagnosis is: A) the patient is healthy but at strain B) a brain tumor C) the alterations are due to trauma caused by the puncture D) subarachnoid hemorrhage E) tuberculous meningitis |
NEU-6.430.
E |
|
Case Study:
An infant has lost his appetite, vomits, has seizures and fever. What should be done? A) a cultivation of nasal and pharyngeal discharge B) try to find emotional problems in the family C) obtaining a urine sample with a catheter D) a lumbar puncture E) intravenous pyelography |
NEU-6.431.
D |
|
Case Study:
A 7-year-old child complains of a sore throat, joint pain, and headache. He has fever and occipital stiffness. What should be done? A) an ECG B) an X-ray of the wrists and knees C) a lumbar puncture D) a cultivation of nasal and pharyngeal discharge E) the RBC sedimentation rate |
NEU-6.432.
C |
|
After smallpox vacination any postvaccination encephalomyelitis
ocurs within: A) 30-40 days B) 20-25 days C) 10-12 days D) 4-6 days E) 2-3 days |
NEU-6.433.
|
|
One of the following occurs in a subdural hematoma.
A) an increased intracranial pressure B) a xanthochromic CSF C) an elevated CSF protein level D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.434.
D |
|
Which of the following rarely occurs in infants in case of a subdural
hematoma? A) papilledema B) fever C) protrusion of the fontanelle D) a hemorrhage in the retina E) hemiparesis |
NEU-6.435.
A |
|
When do the symptoms of an epidural hemorrhage in children
develop? A) weeks after trauma B) days after trauma C) seconds after trauma D) hours after trauma E) minutes after trauma |
NEU-6.436.
D |
|
Common symptoms of an epidural hemorrhage in a child include:
A) ataxia and hemiparesis B) papilledema and stupor C) hyperreflexia and contralateral paralysis of the abducent nerve D) retinal hemorrhage and coma E) hemiparesis and contralateral pupil dilatation |
NEU-6.437.
E |
|
The most common symptom of increased intracranial pressure in
children is: A) ataxia B) diplopia C) stupor D) vomiting E) impaired visual acuity |
NEU-6.438.
D |
|
A common cause of intracranial hemorrhage in children is:
A) hepatic disease B) a blood dyscrasia C) an intracranial aneurysm D) glomerulonephritis E) trauma |
NEU-6.439.
E |
|
Case Study:
3 days after a tibial fracture the child became confused, had fever, blood in the sputum, and developed hemiparesis. The most probable diagnosis is: A) cerebral fat embolism B) subdural hematoma C) metastatic cerebral abscess D) cortical contusion E) traumatic cerebral thrombosis |
NEU-6.440.
A |
|
Case Study:
2 weeks after a penetrating hand injury a child developed abdominal muscle rigidity, trismus, risus sardonicus, and opisthotonus. Diagnosis: A) meningitis B) hysteria C) drug allergy D) intercurrent peritonsillar abscess E) tetanus |
NEU-6.441
E |
|
The CSF in acute purulent meningitis:
A) clear; colorless; and has normal pressure B) increased pressure; clear C) increased pressure; opaque D) increased pressure; hemorrhagic E) normal pressure; clear; xanthochromic |
NEU-6.442.
C |
|
If a child has recurrent otitis the following is assumed:
A) mastoiditis B) deficient alimentation C) a dermal sinus duct D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.444.
A |
|
A postinfection encephalomyelitis can be due to the following:
A) measles B) varicella C) mumps D) rubella E) all of the above |
NEU-6.446.
E |
|
Which of the following is frequently observed in children after
head injuries? A) vertigo B) seizures C) headaches D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.447.
D |
|
The first symptoms of a brain tumor in children are:
A) seizures and coma B) behavior disturbances C) headaches and vomiting D) hemiparesis and hyperreflexia E) none of the above |
NEU-6.449
C |
|
An X-ray study is a valuable tool in the diagnosis of lead intoxication
because: A) it reveals lead lines along the long bones B) it reveals suture separation C) an abdominal image shows lead incorporation D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.451.
D |
|
A lucid period following a head injury indicates a:
A) subdural hematoma B) cerebral laceration C) cerebral contusion D) cerebral commotion E) epidural hematoma |
NEU-6.453.
E |
|
Secondary Parkinsonism suggests one of the following intoxications:
A) manganese B) phenothiazine C) carbon monoxide D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.454.
D |
|
Case Study:
A 31-year-old male patient complains of a bifrontal headache and impaired visual acuity lasting for about 4 weeks. During the previ- ous 4 months the patient had a mild, intermittant headache. At present the patient is irritable and difficult to live with. In the previous months he felt sleepy, sometimes sleeping for 20-30 hours. 8-9 months earlier the patient had an accident, when he had fallen out from a moving car causing a laceration of the skull skin. Examination revealed papilledema, a dilated right pupil and leftsided hemiparesis. The assumed diagnosis is: A) paralytic dementia B) a chronic subdural hematoma C) bromide intoxication D) a space-occupying process in the brain |
NEU-6.455.
B |
|
Case Study:
A 38-year-old female patient complains of intermitting episodes of tinnitus, vertigo, and feelings that the auditory passage on the rightside was closed, which have been persisting for about a year. These episodes usually last for 3-5 hours. Recently the patient complained of a hearing impairment on the right side which always got worse during the fits. Examination performed during one of these fits revealed right nystagmus while looking to the right and a right-sided perception hearing impairment. The patient was instable in Romberg's position. The assumed diagnosis is: A) petrositis B) a tumor of the cerebellar-pontine angle C) Méniére's disease D) vertebrobasilar insufficiency |
NEU-6.456.
C |
|
Which of the following can be observed in a healthy new-born?
A) patellar clonus and Babinski reflex B) optikinetic nystagmus C) suckling and Moro's reflex D) all of the above E) none of the above |
NEU-6.457.
D |
|
Case Study:
A patient has a sudden vertigo, swallowing disturbances and subsequently vomits. Examination reveals Horner's syndrome, analgesia, thermanesthesia on one side of his face, and sensory disturbances on the contralateral side. The most likely cause is: A) thrombosis of the middle or anterior cerebral artery B) thrombosis of the inferior posterior cerebellar or vertebral artery C) hemorrhage affecting the internal capsule D) embolization of the posterior cerebral artery E) occlusion of the carotid artery |
NEU-6.460.
B |
|
Acute paralysis of the left lower extremity with only a mild involvement
of the upper extremity suggests: A) occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery B) occlusion of the middle cerebral artery C) occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery D) occlusion of the inferior posterior cerebellar artery E) occlusion of the anterior spinal artery |
NEU-6.461.
A |
|
Occlusion of which artery is accompanied by a typical symptom of
homonymous hemianopsia? A) lenticulostriatal artery B) Heubner's artery C) posterior cerebral artery D) superior cerebellar artery E) none of the above |
NEU-6.462.
C |
|
Transient unilateral amblyopia with unilateral motor and sensory
deficits is most characteristic of which of the following? A) internal carotid artery disease B) vertebrobasilar artery disease C) middle cerebral artery disease D) posterior chorioid artery disease E) the (A) and (C) answers are true |
NEU-6.463.
A |
|
The most common cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage of nontraumatic
origin is: A) aneurysm B) arterio-venous malformation C) intracranial tumor D) blood dyscrasia E) none of the above |
NEU-6.464.
A |
|
The most important factor in the development of cerebral aneurysms is:
A) trauma B) congenital anomaly C) syphilis D) septic embolism E) none of the above |
NEU-6.465
B |
|
The most common site of an intracranial aneurysm in adults is
between: A) the anterior communicans artery and the internal carotid artery B) the basilar artery and the internal carotid artery C) the middle cerebral artery and the vertebrobasilar artery D) the posterior cerebral artery and the basilar artery E) none of the above |
NEU-6.466.
A |
|
A common cause of cerebral embolization in adults is:
A) cardiac disease B) air embolism C) tumor thrombus D) fat embolism due to fracture E) septic lung disease |
NEU-6.470.
A |
|
Occlusion of the internal carotid artery:
A) if the internal carotid artery is affected, a murmur is auscultated on the neck; in case of external carotid artery disease this finding is absent B) a hypersensitive carotid sinus reflex is nearly always absent C) transient unilateral amblyopia usually develops; homonymous hemianopsia occurs in about 50% of the cases D) a transient ischemic attack lasting for 5-30 min. can occur E) pathological ophthalmic findings are as common as in vertebrobasilar disease |
NEU-6.471.
D |
|
Cardiac disturbances accompanying cerebrovascular disease:
A) are rare B) are unknown C) sometimes occur D) are common E) occur in a ratio of 1:1 |
NEU-6.472.
D |
|
The rupture of an intracranial aneurysm usually does not occur
together with the following: A) severe headache B) nausea and vomiting C) unconsciousness D) occipital stiffness E). none of the above |
NEU-6.474.
E |
|
The role of hypotension in the development of cerebral infarction:
A) both hypotension and hypertension play an etiological role in the development of cerebral ischemia and infarction B) obstruction and the consequent distal decrease of the blood pressure and blood flow play an important role C) hypotension due to a cardiac disease is a rare cause D) in healthy individuals hypotension does not affect cerebral blood flow unless it gets below 40 mmHg E) none of the above |
NEU-6.479.
A |
|
Stroking the sole of a foot with a pointed object is a technique for
eliciting: A) Hoffman's sign B) Babinski's sign C) Chaddock's sign D) Romberg's sign E) Gordon's sign |
NEU-6.482.
B |
|
Delirium or confusion occur in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) pneumonia B) thyrotoxicosis C) congested cardiac failure D) thiamine deficiency E) homocystinuria |
NEU-6.484.
B |
|
All of the following are true for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis EXCEPT:
A) it starts at the age of 50-60-years-old B) it is symmetric C) it has symptoms of impaired sensory function D) fasciculations in the upper extremities E) it should be differentiated from a cervical spine compression F) there are no signs of a neurogenic bladder or incontinence |
NEU-6.488.
E |
|
Case Study:
A 40-year-old male patient, - occupation: technician. His motorcycle smashed into a car and the patient was attended to at a traumatology unit. Commotio cerebri and twisted neck were diagnosed. The patient was discharged after a 5 day observation period. After a two week rest period he returned to work. Subsequently 2 months later, at home, the patient had a left-sided headache, vertigo, transient impairment of speech, and numbness on the right side of his face and tongue. His family doctor failed to find any external injures on his body. A two-dimensional cranial and cervical X-ray did not reveal any traumatic alterations. Blood pressure 140/90, heart rate 82/min. Examination: the left pupil was somewhat larger than the right one. The grip in his right hand was slightly weaker than the left (the patient is right-handed). Ophthalmic examination: 0.5D congestion in the left fundus. What is the suggested diagnosis? A) hypertensive disease B) brain tumor C) post-commotion syndrome D) chronic subdural hematoma E) vertebrobasilar insufficiency |
NEU-6.489
D |
|
Complete stroke:
A) in 80-90% of the cases seizure fits will develop in patients with both embolic or atheromatous infarction B) a sudden onset is typical of an embolic infarction, while the atheromatous form is characterized by a gradual onset C) alternating symptoms suggest supratentorial ischemia D) anosognosia usually develops in a right-sided paralysis E) none of the above |
NEU-6.490.
B |
|
The circulatory disturbances of the occipital cerebral regions:
A) comprise about 80% of the cases of cerebral ischemia B) do not affect head movements (passive moving) C) a bilateral occipital infarction can be followed by cortical blindness D) occipital infarction is always accompanied by the Weber's syndrome E) none of the above |
NEU-6.492.
C |
|
Diagnosis of cerebral embolism:
A) a complex examination (EEG, carotid and heart ultrasound study, complete blood count including hemostasis) is useful B) an examination of the cerebrospinal fluid is of crucial importance C) a normal sinus rhythm excludes embolism D) MRI is the method of choice E) amnesia is typical |
NEU-6.497.
A |
|
In cerebral vein thrombosis:
A) epileptic fits rarely occur B) it is usually of a septic or focal origin C) headache and delirium are common, but confusion and seizures are not typical D) headache and vomiting never develop E) focal neurologic symptoms are rare |
NEU-6.498.
B |
|
If a murmur is detected during the examination of a possible
extracranial vascular obstruction: A) a murmur below the mandibular angle suggests a disease of the carotid artery B) a murmur directly under the clavicle suggests a disease of the vertebral artery C) the murmur always accurately reflects the severity of stenosis D) a loud murmur indicates obstruction E) none of the above |
NEU-6.499.
A |
|
In a patient with cerebral infarction:
A) the CT study has fully replaced the pneumoencephalography in radiologicexaminations B) a CT study does not substitute static brain scintigraphy in the evaluation C) a CT study does not substitute echoencephalography in the evaluation D) during the first 1-2 hours, a CT study can differentiate between the intact and infarction area E) In 50% of the cases a CT study can help to detect any complications such as hemorrhage into the brain matter |
NEU-6.500.
|
|
An ECG is not required in cerebral infarction because:
A) a CT can determine the diagnosis and the cause of this disease B) this is a false statement becausethe ECG can reveal arrhythmia, coronary disease, and infarction C) an isoenzyme study is more important D) only the ECG under a physical stress test is informative E) none of the above |
NEU-6.501.
B |
|
Which of the following special examinations should be done in case
of cerebral infarction? A) angiography, which reveals different vascular changes and hemodynamic disturbances B) a brain radionuclide study, which shows a marked isotope accumulation during the first day followed by a subsequent decrease C) echoencephalography, which can differentiate between cerebral edema and tumor, as well as between tumor and subdural hematoma D) angiography because mortality due to this intervention at present is only 10% E) none of the above |
NEU-6.502
A |
|
In the differential diagnosis of a cerebral infarction:
A) a hemorrhagic CSF excludes a cerebral infarction B) an angiographic study visualizes a brain abscess as an avascular region; and lymphocytes are frequently found in the CSF C) if the state of the patient worsens, angiography should be postponed until an exploration bore is made D) the CT study helps in the differential diagnosis of infarction, and subdural or epidural hematoma E) none of the above |
NEU-6.503.
D |
|
In the prognosis of cerebral infarction:
A) the age of the patient, but not the extent of the nervous system damage is an important predictive factor of early mortality B) after the development of a stroke, hypertension and diabetes do not affect the outcome C) the severity of a concomitant cardiovascular disease is an important factor of the survival D) about 3/4 of the patients die during the first attack E) About one-half of the patients surviving the first ischemic infarction will have a hemorrhage within 1-7 years |
NEU-6.504.
C |
|
Antiedematous therapy in cerebral infarction:
A) hypertonic urea is not effective B) mannitol is effective and has no rebound effect C) glycerine is not effective D) dexamethasone is mainly used for the therapy of cytotoxic edema E) none of the above |
NEU-6.505
E |
|
In cerebral infarction the cerebral blood flow can be increased with
the use of: A) aminophylline, tolazoline, histamine B) papaverine and nicotinic acid C) a blockade of the stellate ganglion D) carbon dioxide E) none of the above |
NEU-6.506.
E |
|
In repeated Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIAs), the following therapy
is recommended: A) lithium carbonate if neutropenia develops B) aspirin if an ulcer develops C) aspirin, 2-3 g/day D) anticoagulants if cardiogenic stroke develops E) anticoagulants if endocarditis underlies the ischemia |
NEU-6.507.
D |
|
The therapy of progressive stroke:
A) anticoagulant therapy is of no value B) multifactorial therapy by itself or if combined with anticoagulant therapy is of no value C) surgical correction of arterial obstruction has good results D) inhibition of platelet aggregation is never effective E) none of the above |
NEU-6.508.
E |
|
The general treatment of completed stroke, including long-term therapy:
A) multifactorial therapy is of no value B) surgical intervention in patients with pronounced neurologic defects alleviates the symptoms C) long-term anticoagulant therapy is beneficial and has no significant complications D) carotid surgery in patients with pronounced neurologic defects decreases the morbidity in cases of fresh softening E) none of the above |
NEU-6.509.
E |
|
The therapy of a cerebral embolism of cardiac origin:
A) anticoagulants decrease morbidity and mortality due to the recurrent embolization B) anticoagulants are given for 6-12 months after valve prosthesis surgery C) cardioversion is always performed in atrial fibrillation to restore the normal sinus rhythm; this intervention reduces the danger of re-embolization D) the incidence of myocardial ischemia is not increased after myocardial infarction E) none of the above |
NEU-6.510.
A |
|
In considering contraindications to anticoagulant therapy the following
is NEGLIGIBLE: A) an inadequate laboratory background B) unsatisfactory patient compliance C) peptic ulcer, hemorrhagic diathesis, hypertension, sever liver or renal disease D) hemorrhagic CSF E) none of the above |
NEU-6.511.
E |
|
Anticoagulant therapy:
A) can be started even in case of hemorrhagic softening B) as a rule does not cause bleeding, unless the prothrombin time is 4-5x longer compared to the control C) can be started in cases of severe ischemia (vast area of softening) D) can be started in endocarditis lenta (subacute infectious endocarditis) E) can be very effective in cases of severe ischemic insult if initiated early |
NEU-6.512
B. |
|
In hypertensive encephalopathy:
A) hypotensive therapy does not markedly affect the outcome B) visual impairment is rare C) confusion, seizures and papilledema are typical D) papilledema is a rare finding E) the CSF fmding is normal |
NEU-6.513.
C |
|
Which of the following is typical of the rupture of an aneurysm?
A) a sudden headache, vomiting, sometimes confusion B) it typically starts in the morning C) a CSF sample has no diagnostic value D) it has no typical neurologic symptoms E) the CSF obtained immediately after the hemorrhage is xanthochromic |
NEU-6.516
A |
|
Which of the following is typical of brain tumors?
A) usually progressive symptoms, frequent headaches, increased intracranial pressure B) the CSF finding is always abnormal C) metastases are the most common finding D) multiform glioblastoma is a malignant, well circumscribed tumor E) brain tumors comprise about 1/3 of all occurring tumors |
NEU-6.517.
A |
|
Which of the following possibilities should not be considered in the
differential diagnosis of an intracranial hemorrhage? A) an overdose of anticoagulants B) the hemorrhage fully destroying a minor malformation C) a hemorrhagic infarction with marked softening, hence differing from a primary hemorrhage D) leukemia or thrombocytopenia E) none of the above |
NEU-6.518.
E |
|
Which of the following is typical of an intracerebral hemorrhage?
A) the CT visualizes hyperdense regions even after several months B) the CSF is always hemorrhagic C) it usually. occurs due to a hypertensive vascular disease or a minor a-v malformation D) a fresh hemorrhage is not always detectable E) these patients always have hypnoid confusion |
NEU-6.521
C |
|
After subarachnoid hemorrhage:
A) seizures and headache occur at the onset B) hypertonic hemiplegia or hemiparesis with Babinski's sign is the most common neurologic symptom C) papilledema is the most common symptom D) no signs of meningeal excitement are observed E) a CT is of no diagnostic value |
NEU-6.522.
A |
|
Which of the following is important in the diagnosis of hemorrhages
caused by the rupture of arteriovenous malformations? A) focal seizures in the history, focal neurologic symptoms, hemilateral headaches, nausea B) clinical symptoms markedly differ from those occurring in a ruptured aneurysm C) murmurs equally occur in aneurysms and arteriovenous malformations D) seizures developing at the onset of hemorrhage rather suggest a traumatic origin E) the CT is of no value |
NEU-6.524.
A |
|
In the diagnosis of an intracerebral hemorrhage:
A) a lumbar puncture nearly always helps to differentiate it from a hemorrhagic infarction B) the onset is usually gradual C) unconsciousness and hypertension are common after the onset D) headache is as frequent as in cerebral infarction E) a CT can differentiate the hemorrhagic area from the intact tissue only several hours after hemorrhage |
NEU-6.525.
C |
|
In cases of intracerebral bleeding:
A) surgery is the method of choice B) independently of the applied therapy a high ratio of patients in deep coma will die C) surgical removal of intracerebral hematoma due to a ruptured aneurysm has better results compared to those, in which hemorrhage was due to a hypertensive vascular event D) in most cases drug therapy gives satisfactory results E) patients in coma usually survive if treated by calcium-channel blockers |
NEU-6.528.
B |
|
Metstatic intracranial tumors:
A) comprise about 80% of all intracranial tumors B) primarily originate from the lung or breast C) a supratentorial localization has poor prognosis D) are common in the cerebrum, but rare in the cerebellum |
NEU-6.530.
|
|
The two main causes of cerebral metastases are the:
A) breast and lung B) lung and colon C) colon and rectum D) colon and nasal sinuses E) uterus and ovaries |
NEU-6.533.
A |
|
The most common pituitary tumor is:
A) chromophobic adenoma B) chromophilic, adenoma C) colloid cyst D) carcinoma E) none of the above |
NEU-6.536.
A |
|
The most frequent intradural extramedullary spinal tumor is:
A) glioma and angioma B) meningioma and neurofibroma C) sarcoma and lipoma D) glioma E) cold abscess |
NEU-6.538.
B |
|
Which of the following is typical of a tumor or a disc-compression of
the cauda equina? A) the processes are above the L1-2 level B) pain; flaccid paralysis of the lower extremities C) spastic paralysis D) Babinski's sign; hyperreflexia E) none of the above |
NEU-6.542.
B |
|
After cranial injury:
A) an epileptic fit indicates at least a cerebral contusion B) brain commotion is always accompanied by morphological symptoms C) headaches following brain commotion last only for several hours D) a CSF sample helps to confirm the diagnosis E) lucid intervals always occur in epidural hematoma |
NEU-6.543.
A |
|
Which of the following is typical of diabetic polyneuropathy?
A) it develops only in severe diabetes B) the CSF is always normal C) a determination of the nerve conduction velocity is not relevant in the diagnosis D) a symmetric, distal sensomotor diabetic polyneuropathy is the most common disorder E) all of the above F) none of the above |
NEU-6.547.
D |
|
A subdural hematoma:
A) is not accompanied by epileptic symptoms B) a xanthochromic CSF is not typical C) the CSF is always Clear D) is never isodense on the CT E) all of the above F) none of the above |
NEU-6.548.
F |
|
Bell's palsy:
A) Bell's palsy (idiopathic form) comprises about 75% of all cases of facial palsy B) rarely occurs in diabetes C) only 5-10% of the patients will recover D) hyperacusis does not occur E) all of the above F) none of the above |
NEU-6.549.
A |
|
Full recovery after Bell's palsy:
A) occurs in 20% of the cases B) does not occur in elderly patients, hyperacusis, and cases of severe muscle weakness at the onset of the disease C) develops within 10-14 days D) does not depend on the severity of the lesion E) surgery should be immediately performed |
NEU-6.553.
B |
|
Epilepsy after head injury:
A) is always accompanied by the same type of seizures B) usually occurs following closed skull injuries C) develops within several minutes or hours following the injury D) the correct therapy indicates a good prognosis E) all of the above F) none of the above |
NEU-6.556.
D |
|
An extradural hematoma:
A) affects the middle cerebral artery B) is usually bilateral C) the patient always has a lucid interval which is the essential sign for the correct diagnosis D) usually accompanies fractures of the ethmoid bone E) all of the above F) none of the above |
NEU-6.558.
F |
|
An epidural hemorrhage:
A) is usually localized in the scala media over the hemispheral convexity B) the CSF is usually hemorrhagic C) is usually accompanied by a lucid interval of several days D) usually elicits a contralateral pupil dilation E) usually causes ipsilateral hemiplegia |
NEU-6.559.
A |
|
In tuberculous meningitis:
A) the upper cranial nerves are damaged B) the CSF glucose level is usually normal C) the WBC count in the CSF usually exceeds several thousand D) the CSF glucose level is elevated E) the CSF usually contains several hundred lymphocytes |
NEU-6.563.
E |
|
In the acute phase of bacterial meningitis:
A) the glucose level is normal B) the cell count is between 50-100 C) the cell count (mainly polymorphonuclear cells) is between 1000-10,000 D) therapy can be started only after evaluation of the antibiogram E) the CSF pressure is low |
NEU-6.564
C |
|
In acute bacterial meningitis the CSF shows:
A) lymphocytes B) polymorphonuclear leukocytes comprising 80-90% of the cells C) a low protein content D) positive bacteriologic cultivation results E) all of the above F) none of the above |
NEU-6.565.
B |
|
In acute bacterial meningitis:
A) clinical symptoms develop over several weeks B) occipital stiffness and Brudzinsky's sign are not always present (like in infants, elderly patients) C) therapy cannot be started before evaluation of the antibiogram D) a daily dose of 10,000 U of penicillin should be administered E) all of the above F) none of the above |
NEU-6.566.
B |
|
The most frequent cause of meningitis:
A) Leptospira; Brucella B) Salmonella; Listeria C) E.Coli; Shigella D) Cocci; Hemophilus influenzae E) none of the above |
NEU-6.567.
D |
|
Viral meningitis:
A) causes a typical CSF pressure elevation B) the cell count is usually several thousand C) polymorphonuclear cells are found in the CSF D) the pleocytosis in mumps is milder E) all of the above F) none of the above |
NEU-6.570.
F |
|
Viral encephalitis:
A) usually accompanies viral meningitis B) rarely causes headache C) usually does not cause focal symptoms, seizures D) the EEG changes are not typical E) the CT is always normal |
NEU-6.571.
A |
|
Which of the following do not cause any meningeal signs?
A) a high cell count in the CSF B) a low glucose content in the CSF C) an increased intracranial blood pressure D) dehydration |
NEU-6.573.
B |
|
Which symptom is not a sign of meningeal excitement?
A) occipital stiffness B) "foxhound" posture C) Kernig's sign D) Brudzinsky's sign E) Chaddock's sign |
NEU-6.574.
E |
|
Which pathological process does not elicit any meningeal symptoms?
A) a rupture of an intracranial aneurysm B) an increase of the intracranial pressure C) any circumscribed softening of brain tissue D) leptomeningeal inflammation |
NEU-6.576.
C |
|
Which symptom is not typical of multiple sclerosis?
A) a scanning speech B) a lack of the abdominal cutaneous reflex C) flaccid paraparalysis D) optic atrophy - temporal pallor E) pyramidal signs |
NEU-6.578.
C |
|
In which of the following can retrobulbar neuritis occur?
A) a tumor of the optic nerve B) multiple sclerosis C) a tumor of the occipital lobe D) Foster-Kennedy's syndrome |
NEU-6.583.
B |
|
Which of the following pathological processes cannot be diagnosed
on the basis of the fundus finding? A) the presence of an intracranial space occupying process B) whether the patient had an intracranial space occupying process at an earlier time C) an alteration of the vascular system D) any brain atrophy |
NEU-6.584.
D |
|
Which of the following is typical of multiple sclerosis?
A) it mainly develops in elderly patients B) it is related to an infection caused by ticks C) any oligoclonal y-antibidies in the CSF is of diagnostic value D) a relapsing course with accumulating disability E) it improves after steroid or cytostatic therapy F) only (A), (B), and (C) are true G) only (A), (B), (C), and (D) are true H) only (C), (D), and (E) are true |
NEU-6.585.
H |
|
Which of the following causes ipsilateral blindness?
A) ipsilateral damage of the optic tract B) ipsilateral damage of the optic nerve C) ipsilateral damage of the chiasma D) contralateral damage of the optic radiation |
NEU-6.593.
B |
|
After a central type of damage to eye movements one of the following
symptoms develop: A) conjugated deviation B) diplopia C) indistinct images |
NEU-6.610.
A |
|
Which of the following is true for a peripheral visual impairment?
A) no diplopia occurs B) diplopia develops C) conjugated deviation develops |
NEU-6.611
B |
|
Which of the following types of trigeminal neuralgia does not exist?
A) symptomatic B) psychogenic C) genuine |
NEU-6.622.
B |
|
The symptoms of a peripheral facial nerve lesion include:
A) the angle of the mouth on the ipsilateral side is localized deeper, and ptosis develops B) the angle of the mouth on the ipsilateral side is localized deeper, the patient has lagophthalmus and cannot wrinkle his forehead C) the angle of the mouth on the contralateral side is localized deeper. D) the angle of the mouth on the contralateral side is localized deeper, the patient has lagophthalmus and cannot wrinkle his forehead |
NEU-6.624.
B |
|
Which of the following is typical of a peripheral facial nerve lesion?
A) ptosis on the ipsilateral side B) ptosis on the contralateral side C) lagophthalmus on the ipsilateral side D) lagophthalmus on the contralateral side |
NEU-6.625.
C |
|
Which of the following is true for a peripheral facial nerve paralysis?
A) steroid therapy is recommended B) cytostatic therapy is recommended C) surgery depends on the EMG diagnostic findings D) the patient usually recovers in 5-10 days E) all of the above F) only (A) and (B) are'true G) only (B) and (C) are true H) only (C) and (D) are true I) only (A) and (C) are true |
NEU-6.626.
|
|
Which of the following are symptoms of a peripheral facial nerve
paralysis? A) ipsilateral paralysis of the facial muscles of the eye, mouth, and forehead B) ipsilateral tinnitus C) ipsilateral lacrimation disorders; hyperacusis D) flavor sensation disorders on the whole surface of the tongue E) all of the above F) only (A), (B), and (C) are true G) only (B), (C) and (D) are true H) only (A), (B), and (D) are true. |
NEU-6.630.
|
|
The direction of nystagmus is defined:
A) according to its slow component B) according to its fast component C) according to the side of the vestibular lesion |
NEU-6.637.
B |
|
Tinnitus is usually caused by:
A) arteriosclerosis B) hypertension C) medication D) a tumor of the cerebello-pontine angle E) multiple sclerosis F) all of the above G) only (A), (B), (C), and (D) are true H) only (B), (C), (D), and (E) are true |
NEU-6.638.
G |
|
Which of the following is not typical of Méniére's disease?
A) confusion B) rotation vertigo C) a feeling of dissolution D) vegetative symptoms |
NEU-6.640
A |
|
The result of the tuning fork test in a perception-type hearing impairment
is: A) Weber test: lateralization to the left B) Rinné test: negative on the right side C) Weber test: lateralization to the right |
NEU-6.642.
A |
|
The result of the tuning fork test in a right-sided hearing impairment
due to a disease in the middle ear is: A) Weber test: lateralization to the right B) Weber test: lateralization to the left C) Rinné test: positive on the right side |
NEU-6.643.
A |
|
Which of the following statements is false for a central lesion of the
hypoglossal nerve? A) the tongue deviates towards the side of the cerebral lesion B) the tongue deviates to the side opposite to that of the cerebral lesion C) no fasciculations develop in the tongue D) no atrophy is observed in the tongue |
NEU-6.652.
A |
|
What does paraneoplasia mean?
A) cerebellar atrophy B) polyneuropathy C) encephalitis D) abscess E) polymyositis F) all of the above G) only (A), (B), and (D) are true H) only (A), (B), and (E) are true |
NEU-6.661.
H |
|
Tremor at rest is typical of:
A) multiple sclerosis B) epilepsy C) parkinsonism D) neurasthenia |
NEU-6.667.
C |
|
The examination of headaches includes:
A) CT and skull X-ray studies B) focus examination and psychological studies C) provocative tests D) a CSF sample is always taken E) WBC count, RBC sedimentation rate F) all of the above G) only (A), (B), (C), and (D) are correct H) only (A), (B), (C), and (E) are correct I ) only (B), (C), (D), and (E) are correct |
NEU-6.670.
H |
|
A patient is considered as epileptic if:
A) an epileptic seizure can be proved B) a patient had the seizure following a head trauma C) a patient had a seizure and epilepsy was noted in the family history D) a patient has systematic and EEG verified seizures E) all of the above F) only (A) and (B) are correct G) only (C) and (D) are correct |
NEU-6.671.
D |
|
Which spinal segment should remain intact for the patellar reflex?
A) S 1 B) L4 C) S2 D) L5 and S1 |
NEU-6.673.
B |
|
Pseudobulbar syndrome is caused by:
A) bilateral damage of the nuclei of the lower cranial nerves B) bilateral damage of the lower cranial nerves C) bilateral damage of the pyramidal tracts projecting towards the nuclei of the lower cranial nerves D) ipsilateral damage of the pyramidal tracts projecting towards the nuclei of the lower cranial nerves |
NEU-6.674.
C |
|
The distribution of spastic hypertonia includes:
A) flexors of the upper extremities and extensors of the lower extremities B) flexors of the upper and lower extremities C) extensors of the upper and lower extremities D) all groups of muscles |
NEU-6.676.
A |
|
Which of the following symptoms does not occur in a lesion of the
pyramidal tract? A) spastic hypertonia B) hyperreflexia of the deep reflexes C) pyramidal symptoms D) fasciculation |
NEU-6.681.
D |
|
Which of the following symptoms does not belong to those of a
transverse lesion? A) all sensory modalities are altered beneath the level of injury B) spasticity or paraparesis of the lower extremities C) urinary disorders D) segmental deficiencies (lack or alteration of certain reflexes, individual atrophy) E) dissociated sensory disorders |
NEU-6.682.
E |
|
Which of the following does not occur in central motor neuron
damage? A) global atrophy B) hyperreflexia of the deep reflexes C) individual atrophy D) pyramidal signs E) decreased surface reflexes |
NEU-6.683.
C |
|
Select a pyramidal sign for the lower extremities:
A) Mayer's reflex of the proximal joints B) Juster's sign C) Oppenheim's sign D) Wartenberg's sign |
NEU-6.684.
C |
|
Select a pyramidal sign for the upper extremities:
A) Chaddock's sign B) Rossolimo's sign C) Tr6mner's sign D) Schaefer's sign |
NEU-6.685.
C |
|
Which of the following is not a pyramidal sign?
A) Babinski's sign B) Brudzinsky's sign C) Rossolimo's sign D) Chaddock's sign E) Gordon's sign F) Trömner's sign |
NEU-6.686.
B |
|
Select the definition of an increased deep reflex:
A) hyperreflexia B) an enlarged reflexogenic zone C) hyperreflexia accompanied with pyramidal signs D) hyperreflexia accompanied with a grasping reflex |
NEU-6.687.
C |
|
Paralysis means:
A) cessation of muscle strength B) decreased muscle strength C) flaccid muscles D) coordination disorders E) decreased muscular mass F) complete paraplegia |
NEU-6.689
B |
|
The primary motor cortex:
A) is localized in the parietal lobe B) is localized behind the central sulcus C) is localized just before the central sulcus D) is localized in the temporal lobe |
NEU-6.691
C |
|
If a patient with a disc hernia suddenly develops paralysis and
autonomic symptom's, then: A) the patient should be examined and operated within 6 weeks B) the patient should be examined and operated within 1 month C) bed rest, with the patient being examined and operated within 1 week D) the patient should be examined and operated immediately E) bed rest, with the patient being examined and operated within 6 weeks |
NEU-6.694.
D |
|
Which symptom does not belong to the cauda syndrome?
A) flaccid paralysis B) hyporeflexia C) pyramidal signs D) assymmetric symptoms |
NEU-6.696.
C |
|
A typical representative of hypertonic hypokinetic disorders includes:
A) Alzheimer's disease B) Pick's lobe atrophy C) Korsakoffs syndrome D) parkinsonism |
NEU-6.698.
D |
|
A typical representative of hypotonic hyperkinetic disorders includes:
A) Wernicke's encephalopathy B) spastic torticollis C) Huntington's chorea D) Foster-Kennedy's syndrome |
NEU-6.699.
C |
|
Cerebellar hemorrhage:
A) is always fatal B) surgery can be performed depending on the size of the hemorrhage C) should always be treated conservatively D) is easy to diagnose because the CSF is always hemorrhagic in these cases |
NEU-6.702.
B |
|
Which of the following is not an exteroreflex?
A) the plantar reflex B) the abdominal cutaneous reflex C) the conjunctival reflex D) the cremaster reflex E) the masseter reflex |
NEU-6.706.
E |
|
Which statement is not true for the therapy of epilepsy?
A) the importance of carbamazepine therapy has grown B) monotherapy is a method of choice C) therapeutic surgery should be considered in drug-resistant epilepsy D) the drug blood level evaluation is of growing importance E) the EEG changes are the most important signs for therapy F) certain antiepileptic drugs interact, decreasing each other's efficiency and increasing toxicity |
NEU-6.708.
E |
|
Which of the following is not a deep reflex?
A) the conjunctival reflex B) the masseter reflex C) the ulnar reflex D) the biceps reflex |
NEU-6.712.
A |
|
Which reflex has its receptors in the corresponding muscle?
A) the abdominal cutaneous reflex B) the grasping reflex C) the mucosal reflexes D) the plantar reflex E) the cremaster reflex |
NEU-6.713
B |
|
Which of the following is not considered as hyperkinesis?
A) ballism B) intention tremor C) chorea D) athetosis E) myoclonus |
NEU-6.714.
B |
|
Which of the following is not a sign of psychic deterioration?
A) oral exploration B) a tendency to pronate the distal extremities C) a grasping reflex D) a loss of initiation |
NEU-6.717.
B |
|
Where should the damaging focus be localized in order to elicit a
central-type paralysis in the upper extremities? A) a parasaggital localization B) the precentral gyrus is damaged over the Sylvian fissure C) the postcentral gyrus is damaged over the Sylvian fissure D) a damage of the premotor cortex |
NEU-6.719.
B |
|
In which of the following do the deep reflexes remain unchanged?
A) damage of a peripheral nerve B) damage of the motor neuron of the ventral horn C) damage of the parietal lobe D) cerebellar damage E) damage of the occipital lobe |
NEU-6.722.
E |
|
In which muscle groups is hemiparesis of the upper extremeties
more pronounced? A) the flexors of the elbow B) the extensors of the elbow C) the abductors |
NEU-6.724
B |
|
Assign Parkinson's disease to one of the following:
A) a hypertonic hypokinetic disorder B) a hypotonic hyperkinetic disorder C) a hypotonic hypokinetic disorder D) a hypertonic hyperkinetic disorder |
NEU-6.725.
A |
|
Which of the following does not cause tetraparesis?
A) extensive damage to the basis of the pons B) parasaggital processes C) a transverse spinal lesion |
NEU-6.726.
B |
|
Which of the following is not characteristic of a pyramidal tract lesion?
A) hyporeflexia of the surface reflexes B) spastic hypertonia C) Achilles clonus D) patellar clonus E) myoclonus in the muscles of the upper extremities |
NEU-6.727.
E |
|
Which spinal segment is required for the Achilles reflex?
A) I B) L3 C) S 1 D) L2 |
NEU-6.728.
C |
|
Which of the following is not a pyramidal sign of the upper extremities?
A) Hoffman's sign B) Oppenheim's sign C) Tr6mner's sign D) Juster's sign |
NEU 6.729.
B |
|
In which of the following does cogwheel rigidity develop?
A) Foster-Kennedy's syndrome B) Parkinson's disease C) Wernicke's encephalopathy D) Marchiafava-Bignami's, disease |
NEU-6.731.
B |
|
At what level does the spinal cord end?
A) L2 B) L5 C) S 1 D) S2 |
NEU-6.734.
A |
|
A "cerebellar fit" is caused by:
A) an elevated intracranial pressure B) a congenital cerebellar anomaly C) alcohol-induced cerebellar atrophy D) vertobrobasilar insufficiency |
NEU-6.736.
A |
|
Which of the following symptoms is not typical of a hypertonichypokinetic
disorder? A) rigor B) tremor C) akinesis D) chorea |
NEU-6.739
D |
|
How is Oppenheim's reflex elicited?
A) by pressing the Achilles tendon B) by pressing the triceps muscle of the calf C) by drawing a forger along the edge of the tibia D) by drawing a pointless object along the lateral edge of the upper surface of the foot |
NEU-6.741.
C |
|
Which of the following is not typical of Lérfs reflex?
A) an asymmetric reflex indicates a lesion of the pyramidal tract B) bilateral hyperreflexia indicates a lesion of the pyramidal tract C) it is a negative supporting reflex |
NEU-6.742.
B |
|
The phases of disorientation are:
A) somnolence-stupor-coma B) stupor-somnolence-coma C) coma-stupor-somnolence |
NEU-6.743
A |
|
Which of the following is typical of multiple sclerosis?
A) the vision is usually involved B) diplopia is common C) a lack of abdominal skin reflexes D) intention tremor E) rigid hypertonia F) only (A), (B), (C), and (D) are true G) only (A), (B), and (E) are true H) only (B), (C), (D), and (E) are true |
NEU-6.745.
F |
|
The cause of deep sensation disorders is:
A) a lesion of the spinal ventral horn B) a lesion of the spinal posterior column C) a lesion of the area around the central canal D) a lesion of the ventral root |
NEU-6.747.
B |
|
Where is the primary sensory cortex localized?
A) just behind the central sulcus B) just before the central sulcus C) at the opercular area D) in the temporal lobe |
NEU-6.751.
A |
|
Where does the spinothalamic tract cross?
A) in the spinal cord B) in the medulla C) in the pons D) in the mesencephalon |
NEU-6.753.
A |
|
Which of the following is typical of cervical spondylotic headaches?
A) they are usually ipsilateral B) they are usually occipital and/or the pain radiates forward C) there are pathological findings on the X-ray of the neck D) they can be caused by abnormal (pathological) positions of the head E) all of the above F) none of the above |
NEU-6.755.
E |
|
Which of the following can be used for migraine therapy?
A) hydergine (Imigran) B) Aspirin C) dihydroergotamine D) all of the above |
NEU-6.757.
D |
|
How is Chaddock's reflex elicited?
A) by pressing the Achilles tendon B) by pressing the triceps surae muscle of the calf C) by drawing a finger along the edge of the tibia D) by drawing a pointless object along the lateral edge of the upper surface of foot |
NEU-6.760.
D |
|
How is Gordon's reflex elicited?
A) by pressing the Achilles tendon B) by pressing the triceps surae muscle of the calf C) by drawing a finger along the edge of the tibia D) by drawing a pointless object along the lateral edge of the upper surface of foot |
NEU-6.761.
B |
|
Side effects of phenytoin therapy include:
A) gingival hyperplasia B) anemia C) alterations in the bones D) enlarged lymph nodes E) sleep disorders F) all of the above G) only (A), (B), and (E) are true H) only (A), (C), and (E) are true I) only (A), (B), (C) and (D) are true |
NEU-6.762.
I |
|
The daily dose of phenytoin is:
A) 0.03-0.07 mg/kg B) 3-7 mg/kg C) 30-70 mg/kg D) 100-150 mg/kg |
NEU-6.763
B |
|
Side-effects of carbamazepine therapy include:
A) allergy B) leukopenia C) polycythemia D) liver disorders E) all of the above F) only (A), (B), and (D) are true G) only (A), (B), and (C) are true H) only (B), (C), and (D) are true |
NEU-6.764.
F |
|
Which of the following is not a pyramidal sign?
A) hard-palate reflex B) clonus of the foot C) tonic dorsal flexion of the big toe D) corneal hyperreflexia |
NEU-6.765.
D |
|
Which of the following is not a complication of chronic alcoholism?
A) superior hemorrhagic polyencephalitis B) a lesion of the optic nerves C) central pontine myelinolysis D) syringomyelia |
NEU-6.767.
D |
|
The therapy of status epilepticus is:
A) phenytoin (Diphedan) iv. B) diazepam iv. C) clonazepam iv. D) disulfiram E) all of the above F) only (B), (C), and (D) are true G) only (C) and (D) are true H) only (A), (B), and (C) are true |
NEU-6.768.
H |
|
The medication of primary choice in a grand mal attack is:
A) phenytoin (Diphedan) B) carbamazepine C) dipropylacetate D) nitrazepam E) only (A), (B), and (C) are true F) only (A) and (D) are true G) only (C) and (D) are true H) all of the above |
NEU-6.769.
E |
|
Which of the following cannot develop as a consequence of alcoholism?
A), polyneuropathy B) cerebral atrophy C) Wernicke's encephalopathy D) central pontine myelinolysis E) Foster-Kennedy's syndrome F) Marchiafava-Bignami's syndrome |
NEU-6.778.
E |
|
The causes of aphasia include:
A) damage to the nuclei of the lower cranial nerves B) damage to the lower cranial nerves C) a cerebellar lesion D) a lesion of the dominant hemisphere |
NEU-6.782.
D |
|
Which pathological processes cannot be visualized by a CT?
A) identification of an infarction during the early hours B) identification of any demyelinization disorders C) identification of abscesses D) identification of hemorrhages |
NEU-6.796.
A |
|
Which of the following is not applicable in myelography?
A) the intravenous administration of contrast substance B) the intrathecal administration of contrast substance C) the intrathecal administration of air |
NEU-6.797
A |
|
A simple spinal X-ray image cannot reveal:
A) any degenerative alteration of the spine B) any osteolytic vertebral metastases C) any osteoplastic vertebral metastases D) any intramedullary processes |
NEU-6.798.
D |
|
A Doppler study can be used for the identification of.
A) the cause of cerebral circulatory disorders B) the diagnosis of any space-occupying process in the brain C) Marchiafava-Bignami's disease D) Foster-Kennedy's syndrome |
NEU-6.799.
A |
|
Which of the following is commonly used in myasthenia gravis?
A) domperidone (Motilium) B) papaverine (Meristin) C) pyridostigmine (Mestinon) D) mexiletine (Mexitil) E) moroxydine hydrochloride (Morgalin) |
NEU-6.804.
C |
|
A congested fundus:
A) always indicates a brain tumor B) is frequently caused by inflammation C) is common in multiple sclerosis D) frequently occurs in brain tumors, but can also accompany other processes (for example obscure encephalopathies or lymphostatic encephalopathies) E) is always accompanied by severely impaired vision |
NEU-6.806.
D |
|
The normal cell count in the lumbar CSF is:
A) 20-30/mm3 B) 30-40/mm3 C) 40-50/mm3 D) maximum 8-10/mm3 |
NEU-6.807.
D |
|
Which pathologic process is not detectable with a simple skull
X-ray? A) progressive staging of intrasellar space-occupying processes B) tumors showing calcification C) a cranial fracture D) cerebral atrophy |
NEU-6.808
D |
|
Cerebral angiography cannot be used for the detection of:
A) vascular occlusions B) malformations C) the cause of cranial polyneuropathy D) a subdural hematoma |
NEU-6.809.
C |
|
The EMG is used for the following purpose:
A) a study of the electric activity of the brain B) evoked potentials due to sensory stimuli C) the state of the muscles, activity of the motor neurons and peripheral nerves D) only intracellular leads are used in clinical practice |
NEU-6.811.
C |
|
Which of the following is the most common complication of chronic
alcoholism? A) polyneuropathy B) Marchiafava-Bignami disease C) central pontine myelinolysis D) cerebellar vermis atrophy E) alcoholic hallucinosis |
NEU-6.815.
A |
|
Which symptom is not typical of delirium tremens?
A) tremor B) increased vegetative symptoms C) visual and tactile hallucinations D) olfactory hallucinations |
NEU-6.817.
D |
|
An epileptic patient can drive a car if:
A) the drug level is properly set B) if the patient is not a professional driver and has attacks only at night C) if the patient experienced no attacks for 6 weeks and the epilepsy is not due to a progressive disease D) if the patient does not take drugs and is attack-free for at least 2 years and epilepsy is not a sign of a progressive disease E) if the patient takes drugs and has no attacks F) if the patients takes drugs and has fits without unconsciousness |
NEU-6.819.
D |
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Which vessels are primarily damaged in hypertension?
A) the arteries of the circle of Willis B) arteries of middle caliber C) capillaries D) arterioles E) the collaterals |
NEU-6.820.
D |
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During which period of the day is thrombosis of the cerebral arteries
manifested for the first time? A) any time B) at day time during physical exercise C) at dawn D) when the patient goes to bed |
NEU-6.821.
C |
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Damage of which lobe causes sensory aphasia?
A) the frontal lobe B) the temporal lobe C) the parietal lobe D) the occipital lobe |
NEU-6.823.
B |
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Which of the following is typical of borreliosis?
A) it can be accompanied by arthralgia and cutaneous symptoms B) it can be followed by a bilateral paralysis of the peripheral facial nerve C) the CSF content is always normal D) it is caused by a virus E) only (A), (B), and (D) are true F) only (A) and (B) are true |
NEU-6.824.
F |
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How is cerebral hemorrhage differentiated from "brain softening"?
A) by the clinical symptoms B) by the course of the disease C) with the EEG D) by the case history E) with a CT study |
NEU-6.825.
E |