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128 Cards in this Set

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What Area Radiation Monitoring System component sends a signal to the electronics circuit where it is processed? A. Remote IndicatorB. NPISC. Local IndicatorD. Detector Assembly
D
What type of detector is used in the Area Radiation Monitoring System? A. ScintillationB. Photovoltaic CrystalC. Geiger-Mueller TubeD. Boron Tri-fluoride
C
Annunciator 062B, "AREA RAD HI" goes into alarm.Which of the following should an operator do in order to determine which monitor is in alarm? A. Check NPIS for any monitor display flashing amberB. Check NPIS for any monitor display that is flashing redC. at SD055A and SD055B, check any monitor red light lit.D. At SD055A and SD055B, check for any amber light lit.
D
A power supply in SD RE-37, Spent Fuel Pool Criticality Monitor, fails causing alarms in the control room. When I & C commences troubleshooting they de-energize SD RE-38 by mistake and cannot re-energize this monitor after realizing their error.What (if any) action is required? A. Within one hour restore both SD RE-37 and SD RE-38 to service.B. Immediately take action to place a portable monitor with the same setpoints in service.C. Within one hour restore SD RE-38 or SD RE-37 to service.D. No action required.
B
The Spent Fuel Pool and New Fuel Storage Area are monitored for an inadvertent criticality accident using which monitors? A. SD RE-04, 05, 06 and 07B. GT RE-22, 31, 32 and 33C. AB RE-111, 112, 113 and 114D. SD RE-35, 36, 37 and 38
D
The RO notes increased frequency of VCT makeups and performs a short STS BB-004 RCS leak rate calculation and determines leakage has increased .5 gpm since the last performance of the surveillance.What indication available in the control room would validate this finding? A. Conductivity increasing on Turbine Seal packing exhauster.B. Increased radiation on seal table area rad monitor.C. Pressurizer level decreasing.D. Main Feedwater Regulating valves throttling closed.
B
A fire alarm for the EDG "A" has locked in but no fire exists. I & C determines the detector has failed.What is the status of the EDG? A. Operable; the Fuel Oil Transfer pump is not required.B. Operable; the Fuel Oil Transfer Pump would start on an EDG start.C. Inoperable; the Fuel Oil Transfer Pump is locked out.D. Inoperable; the fire alarm is inoperable.
B
NE01 ("A" EDG) is running in Emergency Mode when an electrician inadvertently trips 186-1 lockout relay.What must be done to restart the Diesel after lockout relay is reset? A. Reset the Diesel using the Start/Reset switch on the MCB.B. Reset the Diesel using the local Diesel Shutdown Reset Switch.C. Use the Break Glass Emergency Start.D. Manually initiate SIS.
B
The "A" EDG is in LOC/MAN when the Normal Supply Breaker to Bus NB01 trips OPEN.What action will occur? A. Bus NB01 will deenergize, SI and UV EDG starts are defeated.B. Bus NB01 will transfer to the unit Auxiliary Transformer.C. The EDG will auto start and sequence loads on NB01 UV.D. Alternate Supply from ESF XFMR #2 Breaker will close.
A
What action, if any, is required if bus NK01 is deenergized and EDG NE01 is running for surveillance testing? A. Depress Start/Reset on the MCB then depress Stop.B. No action is required.C. Secure the EDG locally.D. Complete the surveillance with a deficiency.
C
The Master Transfer Switch for an Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) is in "LOC/MAN" for a surveillance test.How would a loss of Offsite power affect the EDG? A. Start but will not flash the generator field.B. Not start but can be started from the MCB.C. Start but will not close the output breaker.D. Not start but can be started locally.
D
Which pumps do both the LOCA and Shutdown Sequencer start? A. Normal chargingB. Residual heat removalC. Centrifugal chargingD. Safety Injection
C
Preparations are being made to establish charging flow in EMG ES-03, SI TERMINATION, when offsite power is lost. The Emergency Diesel Generators start and power both safety buses. Fifteen seconds later the SS/STA observes SI Pumps are NOT running. SI Pumps were running before loss of offsite power.Should SI Pumps restart automatically by this point in time? A. No, the LOCA Sequencers will not start the SI Pumps for another 10 seconds.B. Yes, the Shutdown Sequencer should have started the SI Pumps 10 seconds ago.C. No, the LOCA Sequencer did not actuate because the SI signal has been reset.D. Yes, the LOCA Sequencers should have started the SI Pumps 10 seconds ago.
C
As part of a surveillance test, an Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) is running in parallel with offsite power and carrying full load. At this time, a Safety Injection Signal (SIS) is received.How are the EDG and its output breaker affected? A. Output breaker trips open, EDG continues to run in the emergency mode.B. Shifts to the emergency mode, continues to run parallel with off site power.C. EDG and breaker trip, and must be locally reset for restart.D. Output breaker trips open, EDG trips, then restarts in the emergency mode.
A
At 100% power operation an inadvertent SIS causes a Reactor Trip and LOCA Sequencer actuation and "B" MDAFW Pump fails to start at step 6 because of a faulty contact in the LOCA Sequencer.How would the MDAFP get started? A. Automatically, after the LOCA Sequencer had timed out.B. Automatically, when AMSAC actuates.C. Automatically, if an undervoltage occurs on NB02.D. Manually
D
What is the effect of a spurious "START FAILURE RELAY" actuation when the Emergency Diesel Generator is running? A. The EDG continues to run, but its output breaker trips open.B. The EDG trips in any mode.C. The EDG continues to run, but must be reset locally for a subsequent start.D. The EDG continues to run if in the emergency mode, but trips if in the test mode.
C
Assuming the EDG is not running, how would deenergizing 125 VDC bus NK04 affect Emergency Diesel Generator NE02? A. Field flashing is lost.B. Start and load in emergency mode only.C. Local manual start and output breaker closure.D. It will not start on SIS or bus UV.
A
What adverse condition will still allow automatic starting of an Emergency Diesel Generator? A. Motor driven lube oil pump out of service.B. Barring device engaged.C. Shutdown relay energized.D. Master transfer switch in Local/Manual.
A
What automatic actions occur when power to an NB bus is lost?Assume no SI signal and no lockout on the bus. A. The respective EDG starts, the EDG output breaker closes, and the S/D Sequencer activates.B. The respective EDG starts, the EDG output breaker closes, and the LOCA Sequencer activates.C. The respective EDG starts, the S/D Sequencer activates, then the EDG output breaker closes.D. The respective EDG starts, the LOCA Sequencer activates, and the EDG output breaker closes.
A
What is the sequence of components starting when the S/D Sequencer activates? A. CCP, CCW pump, ESW pump, MDAFW pump, CR A/C unit, Class IE A/C Unit, 2 Ctmt Coolers.B. CCW pump, MDAFW pump, CCP, ESW pump, CR A/C unit, Class IE A/C Unit, 2 Ctmt Coolers.C. CCP, CCW pump, MDAFW pump, ESW pump, CR A/C unit, Class IE A/C Unit, 2 Ctmt Coolers.D. CCP, CCW pump, CR A/C unit, ESW pump, MDAFW pump, Class IE A/C Unit, 2 Ctmt Coolers.
A
What is the expected plant response to a loss of voltage to an NB bus? A. The affected train's Emergency Diesel starts and re-energizes the bus once the emergency feeder breaker is taken to CLOSE.B. The affected train's Emergency Diesel starts and re-energizes the bus once the synch transfer switch is selected to ON.C. The affected train's Emergency Diesel starts and re-energizes the bus once the emergency feeder breaker handswitch is taken out of NORMAL.D. The affected train's Emergency Diesel starts and automatically re-energizes the affected bus.
D
The caution prior to step 1 of EMG ES-03, SI TERMINATION, states manual action may be required if offsite power is lost after SI is reset.Why is this caution necessary? A. Needed ECCS pumps will not restart on the shutdown sequencer.B. After SI is reset the LOCA sequencer will not work until P-4 is reset.C. The EDG's may still be running from SI actuation and the LOCA sequencer is blocked after the output breaker closes.D. This is a generic caution throughout the EMG network based on WOG format guidelines.
A
An undervoltage on a 4160 volt safeguards bus occurs 20 seconds after the receipt of a Safety Injection signal. Which of the following statements regarding sequencing of loads onto the safeguards bus is correct? A. Load shedding occurs and the SI Sequencer is reinitiated from step #1 once the DG output breaker is closedB. SI Sequencer stops until the DG output breaker is closed at which time only the SI Sequencer is reinitiated from step #5C. Load shedding occurs and the Blackout Sequencer is reinitiated from step #1 once the DG output breaker is closedD. SI Sequencer stops until the DG output breaker is closed at which time it continues from the point at which the undervoltage occurred
A
Which of the following describes the bases for the storage capacity of the fuel oil systems which supply the emergency diesel generators A. The storage will supply a diesel at full load with fuel oil for 7 daysB. The storage will supply a diesel at full load with fuel oil for 24 hoursC. The storage will supply a diesel for 4 1/2 hours, at full loadD. The storage will supply a diesel at full load with fuel oil for 2 days plus a 1 day margin.
A
A loss of offsite power occurred and both Emergency Diesel Generators (EDGs) are supplying NB buses. ESW Pump 'B' will not start.What action should be performed on EDG 'B' as a result of this failure? A. Unload it within 3 minutes.B. Stop it within the next hour.C. Unload it within the next hour.D. Stop it as soon as possible.
A
The plant is at 100% power while performing STS KJ-005A, A DG SURVEILLANCE. The DG achieved 59.7 Hz and 3.6kV in 10.2 seconds.What is the status of the A Diesel Generator? A. Voltage is too low, the DG is inoperable.B. Frequency is too low, the DG is inoperable.C. Al readings are acceptable, the DG is operable.D. Time to reach speed and voltage is too long, the DG is inoperable.
A
An NE01 trouble alarm is received in the Control Room. The Turbine Building operator reports JACKET WATER LOW TEMPERATURE is causing the alarm. The Jacket Water Heater breaker is tripped and all attempts to close the breaker fail.Does the failure impact EDG operability? A. No, the Diesel Generator will function at full capacity.B. Yes, the Jacket Water temperature is below the alarm setpoint.C. No, if the HVAC is verified operable within the next two hours.D. Yes, the Jacket Water Heater is a required support component.
B
The unit is in Mode 1 at 100% RTP. Two Required Loss of Power (LOP) Diesel Generator (DG) Start Instrumentation loss of voltage channels on one 4Kv NB bus are declared inoperable at 0800 on 7/1.What TS Action maintains compliance for this condition? A. The inoperable DG is restored to OPERABLE status by 1400 on 7/4.B. SR 3.8.1.1 is performed for the OPERABLE offsite circuit by 0900 and once per 8 hours thereafter.C. The inoperable offsite circuit is restored to OPERABLE status by 0200 on 7/2.D. Only one of the two channels is placed in trip by 1600 on 7/1.
B
If the red train NB bus had an Under Voltage and the "A" Emergency Diesel Generator is now supplying NB01, why is the yellow train ESW system started and aligned to the UHS? A. To provide ESW cooling water to the running yellow train Emergency Diesel.B. Because the CCW service loop has been (or will be) swapped to the yellow train CCW system.C. Because the red train Shutdown Sequencer isolated Service Water to the yellow train ESW system.D. Because of single failure criteria considerations.
C
The plant is operating at 100% power with no equipment out of service when an 86-2 LOR fault occurs on Bus NB02. The LOR initiates trips on the normal, alternate and diesel feeder breakers to the bus. EDG B starts and runs with its output breaker open. Assuming all Train A equipment functions as designed, which of the following actions should be performed? A. Momentarily place EDG 2-02 Start/Reset/Stop handswitch at RL015 in STARTB. Select LOCAL on the Master Switch and place the Local Start/Stop handswitch in STARTC. Select LOCAL on the Master Switch and place the Local Start/Stop handswitch in STOPD. Momentarily place EDG 2-02 Emer Start/Reset/Stop handswitch at RL015 in STOP
C
Which one of the following is true regarding Technical Specification Operability requirements for the emergency diesel generators? A. Two diesels are required to be operable in MODES 1 & 2 and one operable in MODES 3, 4, 5 & 6B. Two diesels are required to be operable in MODES 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6C. Two diesels are required to be operable in MODES 1, 2 & 3 and one operable in MODES 4, 5 & 6D. Two diesels are required to be operable in MODES 1, 2, 3 & 4 and one operable in MODES 5 & 6
D
The unit is in MODE 1 and Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) A has been declared inoperable. What action below must be completed within one hour? A. Verify proper fuel level in the fuel storage tank for EDG 1-02B. Verify EDG 1-02 starts on a simulated Safety Injection signalC. Verify correct breaker alignment between the offsite transmission network and the Onsite Class 1E Distribution System.D. Verify EDG 1-02 starts from ambient conditions from a Control Room start handswitch
C
The Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) is operating in parallel with its ESF bus when a Safety Injection Signal (SIS) is received. What is the Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) response given these conditions? A. The EDG output breaker will stay closed and the Diesel will remain running.B. The EDG output breaker will open, and the Diesel will remain running.C. The EDG output breaker will open and the Diesel will trip.D. The EDG output breaker will stay closed and the Diesel will trip.
B
The plant has commenced a refueling and the core is being off-loaded. NE01 ("A" EDG) is removed from service for overhaul and the breaker to NE02 ("B" EDG) Fuel Oil Transfer Pump (NG04DDF3) is found tripped. All attempts to reset and close this breaker fail.What, if any, are the restrictions and required actions? A. "B" EDG is INOPERABLE however there are no actions or restrictions on fuel movement.B. "B" EDG is INOPERABLE, off-loading is permitted but no positive reactivity additions are allowed.C. "B" EDG is INOPERABLE suspend fuel movement in the Refueling Pool.D. "B" EDG is OPERABLE if the Day Tank level is > 61% therefore no restrictions apply.
C
The unit is being shutdown for a refueling outage and is at 45% RTP.The fuel oil storage tank for DG "A" is scheduled to be removed from service and drained when reactor power is below 40% RTP for cleaning during the outage.Can the fuel oil storage tank be drained while the unit shutdown is in progress and why? A. No, only after the unit is in Mode 3 when only one DG is required to be OPERABLE.B. Yes, provided the unit is in Mode 4 within 48 hours of removing the storage tank from service.C. Yes, provided the unit is in Mode 5 within 48 hours of the storage tank level below 85,300 gallons.D. No, draining must wait until Mode 5, TS do not allow removal of equipment from service for operational convenience.
D
Which Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) breaker trip remains in effect after an Emergency Start? A. Reverse Power B. Generator DifferentialC. OvercurrentD. Loss of Field
B
The normal feeder breaker trips to 4160 volt bus NB01, resulting in an undervoltage that starts Emergency Diesel Generator NE01. The EDG output breaker does not close.Which of the following could be the reason that the EDG output breaker does NOT close? A. Diesel Generator Speed is 470 rpmB. Generator Voltage is 3950 voltsC. Master Transfer Switch is in AUTOD. Normal Bus Feeder Breaker is OPEN
A
A lockout actuation occurs on Bus NB02 due to a bus fault. The normal supply breaker trips and the EDG starts and achieves rated speed and voltage, but its supply breaker does not close.After the fault is repaired, the operator can close the EDG supply breaker when the ____________________________. A. local Lockout Relay (LOR) is reset.B. Main Control Board hand switch is taken to close.C. breaker cubicle local handswitch is taken to close.D. NE01 Master Transfer switch is taken to LOC/MAN then back to AUTO.
A
Which one of the following initially supplies the diesel driven generator during startup of DG NE01? A. Permanent Magnet Generator (PMG).B. Diesel DC control power, supplied by 125V DC bus NK02.C. Diesel DC control power, supplied by 125V DC bus NK01.D. Diesel DC control power, supplied by 125V DC bus NK03.
C
What is the source of power for the Emergency Diesel Generator field flashing? A. Non-Vital DC (PJ) SystemB. Vital DC (NK) SystemC. Vital AC (NN) System via rectifiersD. Non-vital DC (PK) System
B
The train specific Shutdown Sequencer will automatically actuate if which three conditions are met? A. No SIS or CSAS signal is present; EDG output breaker is closed; and either normal or alternate NB bus feeder breaker is closed.B. No SIS or CSAS signal is present; EDG output breaker is open; and both normal and alternate NB bus feeder breakers are open.C. No SIS or CSAS signal is present; EDG output breaker is closed; and both normal and alternate NB bus feeder breakers are closed.D. No SIS or CSAS signal is present; EDG output breaker is closed; and both normal and alternate NB bus feeder breakers are open.
D
Why is the Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA) sequencer prevented from starting if an undervoltage condition exists on the Safeguards Bus? A. Prevents reverse power of the Diesel.B. Ensures overspeeding of the Diesel does not occur.C. Ensures power is available to the bus before the sequencer starts.D. Prevents loss of field to the Diesel.
C
The load shedder prevents _____________ the Emergency Diesel Generator by removing bus loads prior to _____________ the generator output breaker. A. overspeeding; openingB. overloading; closingC. tripping; closingD. starting; opening
B
A 5 second time delay is provided between breaker closures on both the LOCA and Shutdown Sequencer actuation.Which of the following describes the purpose of this delay? A. Prevents trip of the Diesel Generator on overvoltage due to feedback from the load generated counter-electromagnetic forces (CEMF).B. Prevents trip of the generator output breaker by allowing the running current of the first load started to decay prior to starting the next load.C. Prevents trip of generator output breaker by allowing starting currents to decay off prior to starting the next load.D. Prevents trip of the Diesel Generator on overspeed by sequential loading of the bus while keeping the engine speed low.
C
Which of the following signals or conditions is NOT required to start the Shutdown Sequencer? A. Normal and alt. supply breakers open.B. EDG output breaker closed.C. No SIS or CSASD. Undervoltage
D
An Emergency Diesel Generator is operating in parallel with the normal supply for its safeguard's bus when a safety injection signal occurs.Which of the following will NOT occur for this condition? A. The Emergency Diesel Generator output breaker trips open.B. The LOCA Sequencer starts required equipment on the bus.C. The Emergency Diesel Generator shuts down.D. The load shed signal removes non-safety load from the bus.
C
The unit is in Mode 1 at 100% RTP. Two required Loss of Power (LOP) Diesel Generators (DG) Start Instrumentation loss of voltage channels on one 4Kv NB bus are declared inoperable at 0400 on 7/1. - At 0800, one channel was placed in trip. - At 1600, both channels remain inoperable.What are the Required TS Actions? A. Continue efforts to restore the affected DG and offsite circuit by 0400 on 7/4.B. Place the unit in Mode 3 by 2200.C. Continue efforts to restore the inoperable Load Shedder and Emergency Load Sequencer by 0400 on 7/4.D. Immediately enter LCO 3.0.3.
B
The following data was recorded while performing STS KJ-005A:Step 5.1.2 Air Pressure PI-3A 645 psig PI-3B 640 psigStep 5.1.5 Time to reach speed 11.3 seconds Frequency 60.1 Hz Voltage 3.88 kVStep 5.1.6 Air pressure PI-3A 575 psig PI-3B 595 psigStep 5.2.10.2 Time to reach load 57 secondsStep 5.2.10.2 Load 6.020 MWWas acceptance criteria satisfied? A. Yes, with a deficiency, KJ-PV-1A did not stroke.B. No, the time to reach 60 Hz is too long.C. Yes, all acceptance criteria were satisfied.D. No, the voltage is too low.
C
At 100% power operation an inadvertent SIS causes a Reactor Trip and LOCA Sequencer actuation and "B" MDAFW Pump fails to start at step 6 because of a faulty contact in the LOCA Sequencer.How would the MDAFP get started? A. Automatically, after the LOCA Sequencer had timed out.B. Automatically, when AMSAC actuates.C. Automatically, if an undervoltage occurs on NB02.D. Manually
D
Which of the following describes the bases for the storage capacity of the fuel oil systems which supply the emergency diesel generators A. The storage will supply a diesel at full load with fuel oil for 7 daysB. The storage will supply a diesel at full load with fuel oil for 24 hoursC. The storage will supply a diesel for 4 1/2 hours, at full loadD. The storage will supply a diesel at full load with fuel oil for 2 days plus a 1 day margin.
A
The capacity of the Emergency Diesel Generator fuel oil storage tank is _________________ for each diesel. The Technical Specification capacity of 85,300 gallons will ensure sufficient fuel for a minimum of ___________ run time at the EDG rated output. A. 100,000 gallons; 7 daysB. 86,000 gallons; 7 daysC. 100,000 gallons; 10 daysD. 86,000 gallons; 10 days
A
The capacity of the Emergency Diesel Generator Fuel Oil Day Tank is ___________ and level is maintained ___________. A. 1000 gal.; automatically by a fuel oil transfer pump.B. 550 gal.; automatically by a gravity flow, level control valve.C. 1000 gal.; automatically by a gravity flow, level control valve.D. 550 gal.; automatically by a fuel oil transfer pump.
D
The Fuel Oil accumulator ___________________ for the Emergency Diesel Engine. A. augments the fuel supplied to the fuel oil injectors during short periods of low fuel demandB. augments the fuel supplied to the fuel injectors during short periods of high fuel demandC. augments the fuel supplied to the fuel oil injectors during long periods of high fuel demandD. provides a back up fuel oil supply in case the shaft driven fuel oil pump fails
B
The function of the Emergency Diesel Generator engine fuel supply accumulator is to ___________________________. A. supply extra fuel during short periods of high demandB. provide a sample point for chemistryC. form a vacuum seal between the injectors and day tankD. supply the engine while the day tank is refilling
A
The Emergency Diesel Engine lubricating oil sump level is maintained by which of the following? A. A lubricating oil makeup pump operated by a level switch.B. Cross-flow makeup from the common Emergency Makeup Tank.C. A solenoid valve from the Auxiliary Lubricating Oil Tank, operated by a level switch from the Lube Oil Level Control Tank.D. Manual fill from lubricating oil drums.
C
The Emergency Diesel Generator engine valve rocker arm lubricating oil is subject to contamination from jacket water and fuel oil.Which of the following is a design feature of the EDG's that keep the crankcase free from these contaminants? A. Rocker arm lubricating oil is supplied from a separate system that does not mix with crankcase oil.B. Rocker arm lubricating oil is passed through a desiccant dryer before return to the crankcase.C. Rocker arm lubricating oil is passed through an integral centrifuge and then returned to the crankcase.D. Rocker arm lubricating oil is passed through a 100 micron filter and then returned to the crankcase.
A
What is the start and stop sequence of the Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) Rocker Arm Lube Oil Pre-Lube Pump? A. Starts when the engine starts and secures after the engine reaches rated speedB. Started with a local pushbutton and secures when system oil pressure reaches 28 psigC. Starts whenever the engine starts and continues to run as long as the engine runsD. Started with a local pushbutton and secures after 5 minutes
D
Select which Emergency Diesel Generator (NE) subsystem removes heat from:* Cylinder Walls* Governor Oil Cooler* Turbo-Charger bearing oil cooler A. Jacket Water Cooling SystemB. Intake AirC. Intercooler SystemD. Lube Oil System
A
In the Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) starting air system, what is the purpose of starting air boost? A. Boost pressure in the starting air system to roll the Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG).B. Opens the fuel racks on the Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) during an engine start.C. Boost pressure in the system when normal starting air pressure is low.D. Aligns air to all the cylinders of the engine to initially roll the Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG).
B
If directed to emergency start an EDG and the situation dictates the one must locally operate the main air start valve, where is the tool designed for this task located? A. In the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel emergency locker.B. The tool is left in position on the valve.C. The tool is an integral part of the valve actuator.D. In the emergency locker located in the EDG room.
D
The Emergency Diesel Generator is protected from crankcase explosion hazard by which of the following? A. Draining the oil after every operation over 100 hours in length.B. Keeping the crankcase completely sealed to preclude oxygen.C. Maintaining a nitrogen blanket in the crankcase.D. Using engine intake air to remove gases with an ejector.
D
Which one of the following sets of conditions will permit the Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG) to continue to run following an emergency start? A. Lube oil press = 57 psig; Jacket Water temp. = 1920FB. Crankcase press. = 8 psig; Engine speed = 514 rpmC. Lube Oil Press = 57 psig; Crankcase press. = 8 psigD. Engine speed = 541 rpm; Jacket Water temp. = 1920F
D
The steam control valve to the Plant Heating System Heat Exchanger will modulate to control water temperature when which condition is satisfied? A. a system flow switch is satisfiedB. outside air temperature is lowC. a system pressure switch is made upD. one of the hot water pumps is running
D
The Boron Heat Tracing System functions to maintain the ______________________________________________. A. temperature of the system sample and instrument lines in the CVCS, in order to prevent condensation.B. boric acid solution in the various components of the system, below the crystallization temperature.C. normal operating range of the boron heat tracing between 175 and 185 degrees F.D. minimum temperature in the piping and valves of the waste processing system containing up to 4.4 weight percent boric acid.
D
A heat trace alarm on an Outside Heat Trace Panel, is actually an indication of what? A. loss of continuityB. low temperatureC. loss of amperageD. low voltage
A
A function of the Site Hydrogen System is to __________________________________________. A. supply hydrogen gas in order to purge out the air from the Main Generator Casing when aligning for shutdown configuration.B. supply hydrogen gas to the Radwaste Waste Gas Recombiner reactor vessel.C. supply hydrogen as a purge gas for Waste Gas Decay Tank releases.D. supply hydrogen as a cover gas for the CVCS Volume Control Tank during normal operations.
D
At what pressure will Main Control Room receive an alarm when the Site Oxygen System active bank supply pressure switch makes up? A. 180 psigB. 300 psigC. 325 psigD. 160 psig
D
A rupture in the hydrogen line in the turbine building was isolated and repaired.What action is necessary to restore hydrogen to the power block? A. Place the reserve bank in service and isolate the main bank.B. Bypass the excess flow check valve until pressure is equalized.C. Align the Main bank for service and bypass the reserve bank.D. Reset the pressure regulator at the skid cabinet.
B
The Carbon Dioxide System is designed to _____________________________________. A. supply the Main Generator Gas System with carbon dioxide to purge the Main Generator casing.B. supply carbon dioxide to the records vaults for fire protection.C. pressurize the seal housings for all electrical containment penetrations.D. provide carbon dioxide to the fire extinguisher fill station.
A
Which component of the Site Carbon Dioxide System changes liquid to a gas for the supply line to the Power Block? A. Ambient Air VaporizerB. Hot Water Bath TankC. Electric Process VaporizerD. High Pressure Orifice
C
The Low Pressure nitrogen is used in the Power Block __________________________________. A. as a backup actuation gas for Main Feedwater Pump Recirculation Valves.B. as a cover gas for the Auxiliary Steam Deaerator Feed Tank.C. in the Main Generator as a coolant during power operations.D. to pressurize the Safety Injection Accumulator Tanks.
A
Which combination of INOPERABLE monitors would prevent a CTMT Purge release?* * GT RE-22, Containment Purge Exhaust Monitor* GT RE-31, Containment Air Supply Monitor* GT RE-32, Containment Air Supply Monitor* GT RE-33, Containment Purge Exhaust Monitor A. GT RE-32 and GT RE-33B. GT RE-31 and GT RE-33C. GT RE-22 and GT RE-33D. GT RE-22 and GT RE-31
C
Which process monitor has an automatic action initiated by its alarm condition? A. GK RE-41 (Access Control)B. GH RE-23 (Waste Gas)C. GE RE-92 (Condenser Off Gas)D. GT RE-21A (Unit Vent)
C
The immediate effect of a large Steam Generator Tube Rupture on the Steam Generator Blowdown System during normal 100% power operation would be that BM RE-25 would initiate an interlock signal to the: A. Service Water to non-regenerative heat exchanger valve to closeB. Blowdown and Sample Process Isolation SignalC. flash tank relief valve to openD. flash tank vapor to condenser valve to open
B
The Nuclear Sampling System Auxiliary Building Sample Station (SJ-143) has a radiation monitor located on _________________________________ and ___________________________________________ to monitor their flow stream for high levels of activity. A. Main Steam; Main FeedwaterB. CVCS - SJ RE 01; SGBS SJ RE 02C. RHR Suction line; RWST Recirculation lineD. Main Condenser Vacuum Exhaust; Main Steam Lines
B
The CVCS Nuclear Sampling System sample line contains a radiation monitor to warn of ___________________________. A. BPA ruptureB. High Boron ConcentrationC. Failed FuelD. Stuck Rod
C
The plant is at 100% power. GE RE-92, Main Condenser Vacuum Pump Vent Radiation Monitor, is showing increased activity.Chemistry has been notified and the leak has been quantified at 25 gpd.What action(s) are appropriate for this condition? A. Minimize flow through the blowdown demineralizers for the most affected Steam Generator.B. Isolate letdown and establish maximum charging flow.C. Commence prompt and controlled shutdown to less than 50% within 1 hour.D. Monitor Steam Generator tube leakage parameters.
D
The plant is at 100% power when GE RE-92, Main Condenser Vacuum Pump Vent Radiation Monitor, indicates increased activity.Chemistry is notified and the leak has been quantified at 100 gpd and steady for 2 hours.What actions must be taken in accordance with OFN BB-07A, STEAM GENERATOR TUBE LEAKAGE? A. Commence a plant shutdown using GEN 00-004, POWER OPERATION.B. Commence a plant shutdown to less than 50% in one hour and stabilize.C. Isolate letdown and establish maximum charging flow to the RCS.D. Trip the Reactor and Stabilize the plant using EMG procedures.
A
The plant is in Mode 5. The Shift chemist comes to the Control Room with CTMT purge release paperwork.Which three monitors MUST be in service in order to perform the CTMT purge without remedial action? A. GT RE-21, GT RE-22, and GT RE-31B. GT RE-21, GT RE-22, and GT RE-33C. GT RE-31, GT RE-32, and GT RE-33D. GT RE-22, GT RE-31, and GT RE-32
A
The plant is in Mode 5. The Shift Chemist comes to the Control Room with CTMT purge release paperwork.Which three monitors must be operable in order to perform a CTMT purge without remedial action?* GT RE-21, Unit Vent Effluent Monitor* GT RE-22, Containment Purge Exhaust Monitor* GT RE-31, Containment Air Supply Monitor* GT RE-32, Containment Air Supply Monitor* GT RE-33, Containment Purge Exhaust Monitor A. GT RE-21, GT RE-31, and GT RE-32B. GT RE-22, GT RE-31, and GT RE-33C. GT RE-21, GT RE-22, and GT RE-32D. GT RE-22, GT RE-32, and GT RE-33
C
The plant is operating at 100% power and Containment pressure is +32" ?P WC. The Shift Chemist provides the Control Room with Containment purge release paperwork to reduce Containment pressure but GT RE-22 and GT RE-33 are inoperable.What action must be taken to perform this release? A. Restore either GT RE-22 or GT RE-33 to operable status.B. Verify monitors GT RE-31 and GT RE-32 operable.C. Take grab samples every 12 hours during the release.D. Restore both GT RE-22 and GT RE-33 to operable status.
A
What actuation can be caused by either a liquid or a gaseous process radiation monitor? A. S/G blowdown and sample isolation.B. CCW surge tank vent and demineralizer make-up valves close.C. Turbine building oily waste discharge isolation valve closes.D. Containment purge isolation on high radiation.
A
The Control Room calls the Radwaste Operator and reports the Auxiliary Steam System radiation monitor FB RE-50 is in alarm.What automatic action takes place when FB RE-50 is in alarm? A. FB PCV-29, Auxiliary Steam Control Valve Closes.B. Starts the Auxiliary Steam Condensate Transfer Pump.C. Closes Auxiliary Steam Condensate Tank outlet valve, FB-V168.D. Starts the Auxiliary Steam Feedwater Pump.
A
Which of the following locations of the SGBS, is monitored by a process radiation monitor? A. Discharge of the SGBS Non-Regenerative Heat ExchangerB. Discharge of the Mixed Bed DemineralizersC. Inlet to the Primary Sample Station, Panel SJ-143D. Discharge to the Main Condenser
A
Which of the following is required in Modes 1, 2, and 3 per Technical Specification 3.3.3, "Post Accident Monitoring (PAM) Instrumentation"? A. Containment Radiation Level (High Range)B. Reactor Seal Table Area Radiation MonitorsC. Spent Fuel Pool Area Radiation MonitorsD. New Fuel Storage Area Radiation Monitors
A
A Gas Decay Tank is being operated in the release mode. When must the release be immediately terminated? A. Radiation monitor RE-22 fails low.B. Radiation monitor RE-10B becomes inoperable.C. The purge on the VCT is isolated during the release.D. A Radwaste building exhaust fan trips and only ONE is left running.
B
The reactor is at 75% power with Containment Air Cooler Condensate flow rate monitoring system out of service. The RO discovers Containment Atmosphere Radiation Monitor, GT RE-31, has a low flow failure.What, if any, is the required action? A. Grab samples must be taken of the Containment atmosphere every 24 hours.B. Containment Purge valves must be maintained closed.C. No action is required.D. Restore GT RE-31 to operable status within 72 hours or be in Hot Standby within six hours and in Cold Shutdown within the following 30 hours.
C
With a normal unit shutdown in progress, Tank THB07A, (Waste Monitor Tank A), is being discharged at 100 gpm IAW the Liquid Release Permit. One Circ Water Pump is secured during load reduction when HB RE-18 (Plant Discharge Line Process Rad Monitor) alarms at its ALERT setpoint unexpectedly.What should the crew do now? A. Reduce the release rate until the alarm is cleared.B. Secure the tank release until Circ Water Pump is restarted.C. Continue the tank release while evaluating the ALERT alarm.D. Terminate the tank release and re-sample.
C
The plant is operating at 100% when a Steam Generator Tube Leak begins. GE RE-92, Condenser Air Removal Rad Monitor, reaches an Alert condition.RCS leak rate calculation indicates leakage increased by 0.4 gpm since it was last performed.What action is required? A. Isolate blowdown from the affected S/G to prevent contamination.B. Commence a plant shutdown.C. Increase blowdown from the affected S/G to reduce radiation levels.D. Slowly close the MSIV on the affected S/G and start a plant shutdown.
B
While performing a discharge from Secondary Liquid Waste Monitor Tank, THF04A, a Process Rad HI HI alarm is received. An investigation determines the alarm is being caused by the discharge.What action is required? A. Verify closed HF RV-45, SLW Plant Discharge Valve.B. Close HF HV-61, SLW Drain Collector Tank Dump Discharge Valve.C. Secure the Secondary Liquid Waste Evaporator.D. Verify closed HB RV-18, Liquid Waste Discharge Isolation Valve.
A
At 100% power, a Process Rad Hi-Hi alarm is received on GE-RE-92, Condenser Air Removal Radiation Monitor.What valves automatically close? A. S/G Blowdown Flash Tank Vent To Atmosphere.B. S/G Sample Containment Isolation.C. S/G Blowdown Containment Isolation.D. S/G Blowdown Discharge Pump Discharge.
C
The Control Building Air Supply process radiation monitor GK RE-04 (gaseous channel) alarmed HiHi causing a CRVIS actuation.Which action would be expected to occur as a result of this actuation? A. Control Room A/C Unit stops.B. Control Building Exhaust Fan starts.C. Control Room Filtration Fan stops.D. Control Room Pressurization Fan starts.
D
What is the response of the Liquid Radwaste System to a HiHi alarm on effluent radiation monitor HB RE-18, Liquid Waste Discharge Radiation Monitor? A. Laundry and Hot Shower Tank pump trips and flow diverts to the Floor and Equipment Drain system.B. Waste Monitor Tank pump trips and the isolation valve closes.C. Liquid waste discharge isolation valve auto closes.D. HB LCV1003A, RCDT Level Control Valve, to RHUT containment isolation valve closes.
C
There is an INCREASING trend on one radiation monitor.What monitor would NOT be an indication of a steam generator tube leak? A. HF RE-95 (Waste Water Treatment Influent)B. GE RE-92 (Condenser Air Removal)C. EG RE-09 (Component Cooling Water Heat Exchanger)D. SJ RE-02 (SG Blowdown)
C
A Gas Decay Tank is being operated in the release mode. When must the release be immediately terminated? A. The purge on the VCT is isolated during the release.B. A Radwaste building exhaust fan trips and only ONE is left running.C. Radiation monitor RE-22 fails low.D. Radiation monitor RE-10B becomes inoperable.
D
What Area Radiation Monitoring System component sends a signal to the electronics circuit where it is processed? A. Remote IndicatorB. NPISC. Local IndicatorD. Detector Assembly
D
What type of detector is used in the Area Radiation Monitoring System? A. ScintillationB. Photovoltaic CrystalC. Geiger-Mueller TubeD. Boron Tri-fluoride
C
What is the function of the Process and Radiation Monitoring System? A. Monitors and trends contamination levels in all areas of the plant.B. Monitors and records the radiation exposure of plant personnel and the general public outside the owner controlled area.C. Indicates, detects, records, and alarms the presence of abnormal or high radiation levels in the power block where personnel may be required to work.D. Monitors, records, alerts, and controls the release of radioactive materials that may be generated.
D
A particulate, iodine, gaseous (PIG) Process Radiation Monitoring System monitor uses _______ to remove iodine from the sample and measures _______ radiation. A. a High Efficiency Particulate Absorption (HEPA) filter; alphaB. a charcoal filter; gammaC. a charcoal filter; neutronD. a High Efficiency Particulate Absorption (HEPA) filter; beta
B
The RM-80 associated with the Process and Effluent Radiation System: A. is a non-safety related central control and display unit.B. is a safety-related remote control and display unit.C. can compute and store the radioactivity level data for the radiation monitor it serves.D. functions as the local radiation alarm and indicating device for the steam line radiation monitors.
C
Which of the following actions will silence an audible alarm for a Process Radiation Monitor which has exceeded its alarm setpoint? A. At RM-23 enter channel number.B. At SP-010 depress "ACK" button.C. At RM-11R depress "SYS ACK" buttonD. At RM-80 depress "Accident Isolate" button.
C
What action(s) occur on a high radiation alarm ("red" on the RM-11R) for Steam Generator sample monitor, SJ RE-02? A. BM HV-65 through 68, Steam Generator Sample Isolation Valves close.B. BM HV-1 through 4 Steam Generator Blowdown Containment Isolation Valves close.C. PBM01A, Steam Generator Blowdown Discharge Pump trips.D. BM FV-56, Steam Generator Blowdown Surge Tank Outlet Valve closes.
B
Which of the following describes the power set up of the Process and Effluent Radiation Monitors? A. SP01, Un-interruptible Power Supply, only supplies power to the Unit Vent Monitor.B. Radiation monitors that are powered from safety related busses transfer to PN07/08 on a loss of off-site power.C. The liquid effluent radiation monitors transfer to PN07/08 on a loss of off-site power.D. Safety related radiation monitors have a safety related power supply.
D
Which of the following events would result in a Containment Atmosphere Radiation Monitor (GT RE-31) alarm? A. RCS leak at the Incore Seal Table.B. PZR Safety Valve seat leakage.C. RCP #1 seal failure.D. Steam Generator Tube Rupture.
A
In accordance with Technical Specification 3.3.7, Control Room Emergency Ventilation System (CREVS) Actuation Instrumentation, Table 3.3.7-1, the required channels operable for the Control Room Radiation Control Room Air intakes is two (2). If the number of OPERABLE channels is one less than MINIMUM, the required action specifies that the operator place one train of Control Room Emergency Ventilation System in the CRVIS mode within 7 days.IF NO channels are OPERABLE, then in one hour: A. place one of the unaffected trains of the Fuel Building Ventilation in the FBIS mode and enter TS 3.7.10, CREVS.B. place both trains in the CRVIS mode.C. ensure the Control Room door is closed and enter TS 3.7.10, CREVS.D. place the affected trains in the CRVIS mode and the unaffected Fuel Building Ventilation Emergency Ventilation in the FBIS mode.
B
The Unit Vent Wide Range Gaseous Monitor (WRGM) uses a (an) _______ type detector to detect medium to high radiation in the Unit Vent gaseous effluent. A. ion chamber, optically coupled to a photo-multiplier tubeB. Sodium Iodine (Thallium doped) scintillator, optically coupled to a photo-multiplier tubeC. Cadmium Telluride (CdTe) solid stateD. beta-phosphor scintillator, optically coupled to a photo-multiplier tube
C
The plant is at 100% power when a Hi-Hi radiation alarm is received on Condenser Air Discharge Monitor (GE-RE-92).What action is necessary to open valves BM HV-5, 6, 7 and 8? A. Reset AFAS M, then open the valves.B. Open the valves. No reset required.C. Reset SGBSIS, then open the valves.D. Reset BSPIS, then open the valves.
B
What is the result of placing the master transfer switch on any remote station of the Supervisory System to LOCAL position? A. It will inhibit the digital data transmission function of the locally-controlled component(s).B. It will disable the local analog and digital functions of the system.C. It will disable selected components from which it collects data for the associated remote station.D. It will disable the local analog function of the system.
A
The purpose of the CWSH standby control panel 1PL14J is to: A. provide additional controls and indication for CWSH equipment that is not available in the Main Control Room.B. prevent inadvertent operation of CWSH equipment during Main Control Board maintenance.C. allow local control of the Circulating Water Pumps and the Service Water Pumps.D. limit the amount of controls and indications that must be processed by the master panel.
C
The Instrument Air Dryer Package is in normal alignment with one train in lead, one train in lag, and both in automatic. The stem for the inlet valve of the tower in the lead train being re-activated, separates from the disk and the valve remains CLOSED.When this tower switches to drying, which of the following will occur? A. The unit will trip due to loss of instrument air pressure.B. The lag train will automatically be placed in drying service because of the "valve switch failure" interlock.C. The lag tain will automatically be placed in drying service because of the resultant low instrument air pressure.D. An operator will have to select the lag train to drying service.
C
The Instrument Air and Service Air Systems are separated by ___________________________________. A. two in-series locked closed manual isolation valves and a check valve.B. a locked closed manual valve on the Instrument Air header and a check valve on the Service Air header.C. a normally locked closed manual valve and an automatic valve that closes on a CIS-A signal.D. an automatic pressure control valve sensing pressure on the Service Air header and a check valve.
D
With the Instrument/Service Air System Atlas-Copco compressor sequence selector switch selected to the C/A/B position, what is the highest pressure at which compressor CKA01B will receive an automatic start signal? A. 114 psigB. 110 psigC. 112 psigD. 115 psig
C
The unit experiences a loss of off-site power, Diesel Generator "A" starts and loads onto NB01; Diesel Generator "B" fails to start.Which one of the Instrument/Service air compressors can be placed in service? A. "A" onlyB. "A & B"C. "A & C"D. "B" only
A
Instrument/Service Air compressors 'A', 'B', and 'C' are available for service. The 'A' air compressor is selected as the lead unit.Instrument air decreases to 100 psig. Which air compressor(s) should be running? A. 'A', 'B', and 'C'B. 'A' and 'B'C. 'A' and 'C'D. 'A' only
A
An Instrument/Service air compressor will automatically shutdown if it runs unloaded for how many minutes? A. 5 minutesB. 10 minutesC. 15 minutesD. 20 minutes
C
Which sets of air operated valves are provided with a nitrogen accumulator as a backup supply? A. Main Steam Control Valves and Main Feedwater Regulating ValvesB. Main Feedwater Regulating Valves and Main Steam Stop ValvesC. Atmospheric Relief Valves (ARV) and Main Feedwater Regulating ValvesD. Combined Intercept Valves and Main Steam Isolation Valves
C
The Instrument/Service Air System is operating normally with the "B" compressor selected in LEAD.System pressure begins decreasing.When will the lag and standby compressors receive their first signal to start? A. 114 psig and 112 psigB. 110 psig and 105 psigC. 120 psig and 116 psigD. 100 psig and 80 psig
A
The Instrument Air System backup accumulators are sized to allow ____ hours of operation with one Steam Generator Atmospheric Relief Valve cycle every _______ minutes and one Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Discharge Valve cycle every ____ minutes. A. 8 / 10 / 20B. 8 / 20 / 10C. 20 / 10 / 4D. 20 / 4 / 10
A
Which of the following statements is correct, regarding the cooling water supply to the Instrument/Service Air Compressors? A. ESW train "B" supplies compressor CKA01BB. Central Chilled water supplies compressor CKA01BC. Central Chilled water supplies compressor CKA01AD. ESW train "B" supplies compressor CKA01C
A
How many Instrument/Service Air compressors are required to be operational in Modes 1 through 3, according to Technical Specifications? A. ThreeB. TwoC. NoneD. One
C
Which one of the following describes how dilution air can be supplied to Containment?Air can be supplied via the: A. Instrument air penetration by closing the service air containment isolation valve (KA V-118) and opening the instrument air containment isolation valve (KA PV-29)B. service air penetration by closing the instrument air containment isolation valve (KA PV-29) and opening the service air containment isolation valve (KA V-118)C. Instrument air penetration by opening the instrument air containment isolation valve (KA PV-29) and opening the dilution air supply (KA HV-30) valve.D. service air penetration by closing the service air containment isolation valve (KA V-118) and opening the dilution air supply valve (KA HV-30).
C
The Instrument/Service Air System Atlas-Copco compressor selector switch (sequencer) (KA HSS-310) has only three possible positions.Which of the following is NOT one of the possible positions for this switch? A. A/B/CB. C/A/BC. B/C/AD. B/A/C
D
The Sullair compressor will trip on which of the following conditions? A. High discharge air pressure - 115 psigB. High Oil Pressure -39 psigC. High Discharge air temperature - 2400F.D. Low Oil pressure - 26 psig
C
Assuming the Instrument Air System is operating normal per procedures, (i.e., Lead Unit Compressor supplying) and a loss of cooling water to the compressor occurs, the lead compressor will trip on: A. low cooling water flowB. low cooling water pressureC. high outlet air temperatureD. excessive vibration
C
The plant is operating with a normal Instrument Air system lineup, when a spurious signal isolates the Component Cooling Water (CCW) system service loop.What is the effect on the Instrument Air system? A. Compressors CKA01A and CKA01B will lose cooling.B. All compressors will lose cooling.C. None of the compressors will lose cooling.D. Compressors CKA01C will lose cooling.
C
The Pressurizer is solid in Mode 5. The B Centrifugal Charging Pump is supplying charging and seal flow and B Residual Heat Removal train is in service for cooling.What is the plant response if instrument air is lost to the Auxiliary Building? A. RCS pressure will decrease initially but pressure would increase as charging fails open raising RCS pressure until a relief valve lifts.B. RCS pressure will increase initially and return to the controlling band due to the backup nitrogen pressure source maintained on the RHR letdown control valve.C. RCS pressure will decrease rapidly isolating charging to the RCS while RHR to CVCS fails open causing maximum letdown flow.D. Reactor Coolant System pressure increases rapidly until the RHR suction relief valves open.
D
The following conditions are given:* The Unit is at 100% power.* An unisolable rupture of the Instrument Air header has occurred.* Assume no operator action; all controller in automatic.* CCP "A" supplying charging flow.Which conditions and associated reason will cause the reactor to trip following this total loss of instrument air? A. The letdown isolation valves will close and the pressurizer will fill up causing a pressurizer high level trip. B. The auxiliary spray will fail open causing a pressurizer low pressure trip.C. The pressurizer spray valves will fail open causing a pressurizer low pressure trip.D. The main feed regulating valves will close causing a steam generator low level trip.
A
Given the following conditions:* Reactor Power 100%* PZR Level 60% slowly increasing* PZR Pressure 2290 psig slowly increasing* Letdown Isolated* Charging 120 gpm and decreasing* S/G Levels 50% and stableWhat has occurred? A. Tavg increased due to inadvertant dilution.B. Spray valves failed closed.C. PZR level instrumentation failed low.D. KA HV-29, Instr Air to Ctmt Iso, failed closed.
D