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150 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. What is the expected life span of a gerbil?
A. 14-18 months B. 18 months - 2 years C. 3-4 years D. 5-6 years |
C. 3-4 years
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2. What is NOT true of rodents?
A. Largest order of mammals B. Exhibit coprophagy C. Hindgut fermenters D. Predominantly gram-negative gut flora |
D. Predominantly gram-negative gut flora
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3. Which rodent is NOT primarily nocturnal?
A. Hamsters B. Rats C. Mice D. Gerbils E. All of the above are primarily nocturnal |
D. Gerbils
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4. The Harderian gland secretes porpyrin that contributes to what condition in rats?
A. Amyloidosis B. Glaucoma C. Otitis D. Chromodacryorrhea E. Gingivitis |
D. Chromodacryorrhea
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5. Like elephants, deer, and horses, rats do not have:
A. Preputial glands B. Gall bladders C. Pineal glands D. Tricuspid valves E. Adrenal glands |
B. Gall bladders
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6. What is the average gestation length for a female hamster?
A. 15-17 days B. 21-23 days C. 28-30 days D. 31-33 days |
A. 15-17 days
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7. Which is true about ferret reproduction?
A. Ferrets breed seasonally in the fall and winter, e.g., short-day breeders. B. Females are larger than males. C. If a ferret has an ear tattoo, it is an indication that it has been descented but not neutered. D. Female ferrets are induced ovulators. |
D. Female ferrets are induced ovulators.
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8. Gerbils are monogamous and pair for life.
A. True B. False |
true
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9. How can gerbil epileptic seizures be eliminated?
A. Seizures persist for the gerbils' life B. Shorten diurnal-cycle C. Penicillin D. Increase cage size and exercise E. Circle of Willis ligation |
A. Seizures persist for the gerbils' life
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10. A Sprague-Dawley rat has an ulcerated growth on the side of its face. The owners keep the area clean and dry and treat it with antibiotic ointment but it does not heal. What is your primary differential diagnosis?
A. Tooth root abscess B. Cheek pouch impaction with rupture and secondary infection C. Zymbal's gland tumor D. Demodectic mange E. Staphylococcus dermatitis |
C. Zymbal's gland tumor
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11. In which species are intramuscular injections advised?
A. Mice B. Rats C. Gerbils D. Hamsters E. None of the above |
E. None of the above
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12. A newly weaned rat (4 months) is losing weight and failing to thrive. What is the first rule out?
A. Malabsorption syndrome B. Incisor malocclusion C. Antibiotic-induced enteritis D. Weaning depression E. Maternal overgrooming |
B. Incisor malocclusion
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13. Rodent caging should:
A. Provide minimal toys and no hideouts that obstruct visualization of the animal B. Be large enough to provide species specific behavior, movement and postural adjustments C. Be as small as possible to make it easier to catch the the animal and minimize odor and allergens D. Be made of reinforced cardboard to facilitate sanitation by inexpensive cage replacement E. Be made of a rough material that provides a scratching surface for the animal's claws |
B. Be large enough to provide species specific behavior, movement and postural adjustments
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14. Bill is a 4 year old male neutered ferret that presents for stranguria and pollakiuria. At first the owners insist that Bill has been completely healthy until today but on your physical exam you notice that the ferret has alopecia affecting his tail and caudal dorsum. When you ask about the hair loss the owners say, “I didn’t think anything of it. Bill has been fighting with his cagemate, Ted, a lot lately. We figured Ted was pulling Bill’s hair out.” Based on the difficulty urinating, alopecia, and increased aggression you are suspicious of hyperadrenocorticism. Which adrenal hormone is the MOST likely elevated in a ferret with adrenal disease?
A. Estrogen B. Aldosterone C. Cortisol D. Testosterone |
MOST likely elevated in a ferret with adrenal disease?
A. Estrogen |
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15. A right adrenalectomy in ferrets considered more challenging due to proximity of right adrenal to the vena cava.
A. True B. False |
A true
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16. Male mice have five pair of nipples that are present by about eight days of life.
A. True B. False |
B false
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17. Proper restraint of rodent patients is important to:
A. Prevent injury to the animal B. Prevent additional stress to the animal C. Prevent handler injury D. Assist the veterinarian in making an accurate diagnosis E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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18. Syphacia obvelata and Syphacia muris do NOT typically infect:
A. Rats B. Mice C. Hamsters D. Gerbils E. Humans |
E. Humans
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19. Benign fibroadenoma mammary gland tumors occur commonly in what species?
A. Beavers B. Hamsters C. Gerbils D. Rats E. Guinea pigs |
D. Rats
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20. A litter of recently weaned hamsters are presented with diarrhea, perineal staining, dehydration, and lethargy. What is the number one differential diagnosis?
A. Wasting Syndrome B. Epizootic Viral Diarrhea of Infants C. Malocclusion D. Proliferative Ileitis (LAWSONIA) E. Giardiasis |
D. Proliferative Ileitis (LAWSONIA)
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21. Murphy is a 7 year old male neutered ferret who presents for acute onset of green diarrhea and weight loss. Upon gathering some basic history the owner reports that they just added a new 5 month old ferret to the household. Upon hearing this what differential diagnosis should jump to the top of your list?
A. Proliferative ileitis B. Eosinophilic granulomatous disease C. Epizootic catarrhal enteritis D. Inflammatory bowel disease |
C. Epizootic catarrhal enteritis
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22. What is true of Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus (LCMV)?
A. Can cause illness in humans B. Often causes severe disease in hamsters C. Typically causes severe disease in rats D. Mice do not carry or transmit LCMV |
A. Can cause illness in humans
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23. Self-mutilation is common problem in sugar gliders. Which is NOT recommended to prevent/manage this problem?
A. Analgesic and E-collar use during post-operative healing B. Single housing C. Castration D. Reducing stress in the glider’s environment |
B. Single housing
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Female ferrets should be spayed because:
A. Prevents hyperadrenocortiscm B. They have high incidence of uterine adenocarcinoma C. they breed year around and have large litters leading to overpopulation problems D. they can experience potentially fatal estrogen assc bone marrow suppression |
D. they can experience potentially fatal estrogen assc bone marrow suppression
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A 6 year old spayed female ferret is presented for lethargy, dazed appearance, drooling and pawing at the mouth. PE = otherwise unremarkable. Diagnostic you’d run first??
A. BG B. Abdominal US to assess adrenal C. Dental rads D. CT of brain |
A. BG
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26. Diet most appropriate for hedgehog?
A. High protein, low fat cat food B. High protein high fat cat food C. Commercial seed or nut rodent mix D. Ad lib hay and leafy green veggies |
A. High protein, low fat cat food
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Natural diet of sugar gliders?
A. Tree sap or gums and insects B. Nuts and seeds C. Fruit and nectar D. Eucalyptus leaves |
A. Tree sap or gums and insects
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28. Wobbly hedgehog syndrome is characterized by:
A. Unknown Etiology; Progressive paresis/paralysis with vacuolization of the white matter B. Tremors due to hypocalcemia C. Sudden onset of paresis cause by IVDD D. Cerebellar abiotrphy congenital and heritable |
A. Unknown Etiology; Progressive paresis/paralysis with vacuolization of the white matter
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29. Recommended vax for ferrets =/
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K9 Distemper and RABIES ANNUALLY
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30. 1 y/o intact female sugar glider presented for acute onset of hind limb paralysis (vs. progressive and gradual = polio). What is most likely etiology:
A. Path fracture associated with osteodystrophy (Ricketts) and could be trauma B. Polioencephalomalacia C. Se and Vit E deficiency D. Aortic thromboembolism (saddelt thrombus) |
A. Path fracture associated with osteodystrophy (Ricketts) and could be trauma
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31. Which antibiotic is the best choice for treating infections in Mesocricetus auratus (HAMSTERS)?
A. Enrofloxacin (or Tetracycline, TMS ok too) B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin D. Cefazolin |
A. Enrofloxacin (or Tetracycline, TMS ok too)
Cefazolin, MACROLIDES, BETA LACTAMS, CEPHALASPORINS, LINOSAMIDES all disrupt gut flora (b/c they target gram + bugs) |
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32. A 7-month old male hamster requires anesthesia for suturing an everted cheek pouch, what is the LEAST appropriate choice for anesthetizing him?
A. IP ketamine and xylazine B. IM ketamine + xylazine C. IP telazol and xylazine D. All are appropriate |
B. IM ketamine + xylazine (NO IM)
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What is the largest rodent in the world? second?
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Largest = capybara (Hydrochoerus hydrochaeris)
Next is the beaver, porcupine, mara |
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34. A hedgehog owner calls you in a panic. He fed his pet a fish-flavored cat treat and now the hedgehog has frothy saliva and is licking his spines. You instruct the hedgehog’s owner to:
A. Bring the hedgehog in for euthanasia as rabies testing is strongly indicated based on this behavior B. Enjoy the amusing display of unknown significance C. Schedule teeth cleaning for this week as this behavior indicates dental dz D. Bring to clinic immediatelyl to treat its fish allergy |
B. Enjoy the amusing display of unknown significance
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What are the two most likely health concerns of a hedge hog?
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OBESITY AND NEOPLASIA!
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36. What is the length of pregnancy of G-PIGS??
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63 days (average)
Born precocious – ready to “rock n roll” |
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What is the number of toes in the front and back of G-Pigs?
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A. 4 toes in the front, 3 toes in the back
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Kurloff cell (mononuclear leukocyte that is increased during pregnancy) is present in which species?
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g-pigs
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WHAT SPECIES REQUIRE VIT C IN DIET??
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A. G-PIGS – need it EVERYDAY!!
B. NHP (MONKIES) |
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Which of the following species is nocturnal?
A. African greens B. Owl monkeys C. Tamarins D. Rhesus macaques |
B. Owl monkeys
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What is a significant clinical concern in patients with rhabdomyolysis?
A. Ascites B. Life threatening arrhythmias C. Renal failure D. Thrombosis |
C. Renal failure
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In the state of Oregon, when was the cut-off date for new applications for exotic pet ownership of NHPs?
A. January 1, 2002 B. January 1, 2010 C. January 1, 2007 D. January 1, 1992 E. New applications are still being accepted. |
B. January 1, 2010
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What is the most common type of neoplasm in aging macaques?
A. Nephroblastoma B. Malignant melanoma C. Intestinal adenocarcinoma D. Oral squamous cell carcinoma |
C. Intestinal adenocarcinoma
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Name the type of herpesvirus that causes only mild disease in the natural host, but severe disease in aberrant hosts.
A. Betaherpesviruses B. Gammaherpesviruses C. Deltaherpesviruses D. Alphaherpesviruses |
D. Alphaherpesviruses
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What is a risk factor for developing endometriosis?
A. Prior abdominal surgery B. Prior pregnancy C. Prior spontaneous abortion D. Listeriosis |
A. Prior abdominal surgery
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7. Tularemia is a significant zoonotic concern for NHPs. What is the causative agent?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Francisella tularensis C. Herpesvirus tularis D. Mycobacterium tulare |
B. Francisella tularensis
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8. What is a frequent sequela of chronic enteritis in NHPs?
A. Cecal rupture B. Neoplasia C. Amyloidosis D. Peritonitis |
C. Amyloidosis
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9. Which of the following are common opportunistic infections associated with retrovirus infection?
A. Cryptosporidiosis B. Pneumocystosis C. Shigellosis D. All of the above E. A and B only |
E. A and B only
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10. What is the treatment of choice for tuberculosis in NHPs?
A. Penicillin B. Isoniazid C. Treatment is not recommended for NHPs D. Rifampin |
C. Treatment is not recommended for NHPs
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11. Koplick’s spots are associated with which infection?
A. Measles B. Simian Immunodeficiency Virus C. Chickenpox D. Monkeypox |
A. Measles
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12. What predisposing factors are associated with the development of reactive arthritis?
A. Recent enteric or urogenital bacterial infection B. Fed a high protein diet during rapid growth stages C. Trauma D. Aging |
A. Recent enteric or urogenital bacterial infection
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13. Macaques are host to which virus that poses a significant zoonotic concern for humans?
A. Hepatitis B B. Herpes simplex 2 C. Herpesvirus tamarinus D. Macacine herpesvirus B |
D. Macacine herpesvirus B
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14. New World Primates have a dietary requirement for which vitamin?
A. Vitamin D3 B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin B6 D. Vitamin D2 |
A. Vitamin D3
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What is a consequence of hypovitaminosis C?
A. Seizures B. Bone marrow hypoplasia C. Retinopathy D Defective collagen synthesis |
D Defective collagen synthesis
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15. What is the goal of Environmental Enrichment for NHPs?
A. Decrease boredom B. Promote species typical behavior C. Improve dexterity D. Redirect undesirable behaviors |
B. Promote species typical behavior
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16. Which of the following species has a menstrual cycle?
A. Marmosets B. Cynomolgus macaques C. Owl monkeys D. Squirrel monkeys |
B. Cynomolgus macaques
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17. Vitamin C deficiency results in which of the following:
A. Fibrous osteodystrophy B. Defects in collagen synthesis C. Clotting deficiencies D. Hypertension |
B. Defects in collagen synthesis
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18. What are the common causative agents of tuberculosis in NHPs?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis B. Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium bovis C. Mycobacterium leprae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium avium |
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis
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. What is the most likely causative agent for a macaque with severe gingivitis?
A. Shigella B. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus D. Salmonella |
A. Shigella
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20. Self-injurious behavior (SIB) is a complex condition which is believed to have a multifactorial etiology. Which of the following have NOT been correlated with increased risk of this behavior?
A. Rearing in social isolation B. Frequency of clinical and behavioral procedures C. Frequency of relocation (cage changing) D. Amount of time in single housing E. All of these may increase the risk of SIB |
E. All of these may increase the risk of SIB
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21. The Rule of Nines is a tool for quantitating the severity of two different conditions. Which conditions are these?
A. Diarrhea and Alopecia B. Dehydration and Rhabdomyolysis C. Rhabdomyolysis and Alopecia |
C. Rhabdomyolysis and Alopecia
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22. Which of the following is the most frequent cause of death in chimpanzees?
A. Neoplasia B. Diabetes mellitus C. Cardiac disease D. Renal failure |
C. Cardiac disease
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23. Which group of NHPs have estrous cycles?
A. Great Apes B. Lesser Apes C. New World Primates D. Old World Primates |
C. New World Primates
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1. A 6-month-old juvenile budgerigar of unknown sex is presented because it is “throwing up” food. Diet is a mixture of pellets and millet spray, with some mixed fruits and vegetables, and access to a cuttlebone. Physical exam reveals mild to moderate weight loss; body weight is 26 grams (normal is 30-32 grams) and some regurgitated food material is stuck to the feathers on the top of the head. The CBC and serum chemistries are all within normal limits. The choanal Gram stain contains only normal Gram positive flora; the fecal Gram stain contains normal Gram positive flora, but also several very long, thick, rod-shaped organisms that are 3 to 4 times wider and 20 times longer than the bacteria present. These structures are staining Gram positive, but are taking up the stain irregularly. What disease condition is the most likely cause of this bird’s clinical signs?
A. Mycobacteria infection B. Macrorhabdus infection C. Lactobacillis infection |
B. Macrorhabdus infection
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1. A 10-month-old Scarlet macaw is presented for lethargy and regurgitation. The bird seemed to be able to keep down soft foods, like bread and cooked vegetables, but regurgitated seeds and uncooked pasta. The owner also mentioned that the bird seemed quite clumsy, having difficulty remaining perched and having difficulty hanging onto the bars of its cage. Physical exam reveals a thin bird with a subjectively decreased grip strength in the right foot and mild ataxia. The CBC and serum chemistries were within normal limits. Whole body radiographs revealed a large soft tissue density in the cranial left abdomen; oral barium contrast outlined the density to be the stomach. What is the most likely presumptive diagnosis?
A. Mycobacteriosis B. Proventricular Dilatation Disease C. Macrorhabdosis |
B. Proventricular Dilatation Disease
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3. A 6-week-old cockatiel, of unknown sex, is presented by an owner who is finishing out the final stage of hand-feeding of this chick. The presenting complaint is failure to gain weight, slow emptying of the crop and recent regurgitation of hand-feeding formula. Physical examination reveals a dehydrated, thin chick with a doughy crop on palpation. A red rubber feeding tube is passed into the crop and a saline crop wash/aspiration is performed. Numerous ovoid, budding structures, larger than bacteria, but smaller than the smallest coccidian oocyst, are seen on the direct wet mount. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chlamydophilosis B. Macrorhabdosis C. Aspergillosis D. Candidiasis |
D. Candidiasis
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4. An adult male cockatiel is presented for sneezing of 5 days duration. This bird was recently acquired from private party that had several cockatiels housed together. Physical exam reveals a fluffed bird with discharges stuck to the nares and the feathers on the top of the head. The eyelids are moderately swollen and there is a mucoid discharge in the choanal slit. What are the most likely differential diagnoses for this bird’s upper respiratory condition?
A. Bacterial sinusitis/conjunctivitis and aspergillosis B. Bacterial sinusitis/conjunctivitis and herpesviral infection C. Bacterial sinusitis/conjunctivitis and chlamydophilosis |
C. Bacterial sinusitis/conjunctivitis and chlamydophilosis
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5. A 3-year-old female peachface lovebird was presented for feather problems. The bird’s mate also had feather problems and died 2 months ago. The owner thought the female’s feather problems were due to the male picking on her, but the problem continued and worsened even after the male’s death. Physical exam revealed widespread severe feather loss, with feather loss involving the head and down the back of the neck, as well as loss of the body contour feathers. The tail and wing primary feathers were sparse; those present were short and clubbed, with retained keratin sheaths or the shafts are pinched circumferentially. The beak is overgrown with several chips and fissures present at the tip. What is the most likely cause for this bird’s feather problems?
A. Avian polyomavirus infection B. Psittacine circovirus infection C. Avian dermatophyte infection D. Self inflicted |
B. Psittacine circovirus infection
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6. A pair of budgerigars and a canary are presented for necropsy examination. The owner is distraught because the birds appeared perfectly healthy and were singing just 2 hours prior to their deaths. Two of the birds were found dead in their cage. The last one to die, a budgerigar, was observed to be “panting”, with its mouth open, right before it died. Diet was a commercial pelleted ration with fruits/vegetables/whole wheat bread for the budgies, and a granular commercial ration and some home-grown sprouts for the canary. The birds were housed in two separate cages (budgies in one, canary in the other), located in the family room, which communicates with the kitchen across a breakfast bar. External examination reveals well-fleshed birds in excellent plumage condition. Internally, the only abnormality was bright red, edematous lungs present in all three birds. What is the most likely cause of death?
A. Toxic inhalation B. Heavy metal intoxication C. Pacheco’s disease D. Botulinum toxin |
A. Toxic inhalation
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7. All-seed diets w/ high levels of sunflower and safflower seeds, have which of the following nutrient abnormalities:
A. Low in Vitamin A, fat and calcium; high in vitamin D3 and phosphorus. B. Low in Vitamin D3, fat and phosphorus; high in calcium and vitamin A C. Low in Vitamin A, vitamin D3 and calcium; high in phosphorus and fat |
C. Low in Vitamin A, vitamin D3 and calcium; high in phosphorus and fat
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8. The best choice for evaluating the liver function in a psittacine bird is:
A. AST (SGOT) and bile acids B. ALT and LDH C. AST (SGOT) and LDH D. CPK and bile acids |
A. AST (SGOT) and bile acids
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1. What procedure is important to perform every time a bird visits the veterinary clinic, even if only for grooming, such as a wing, beak or nail trim?
A. Perform a fecal Gram stain B. Perform a complete blood count C. Weigh the bird |
C. Weigh the bird
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10. An older Double Yellowhead Amazon parrot has blunted oral papilla and bilateral yellowish swellings at the base of the tongue. What is the underlying problem that is mostly related to these lesions?
A. Hypovitaminosis E B. Candidiasis C. Hypovitaminosis A D. Hypovitaminosis D |
C. Hypovitaminosis A
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11. What is the drug of choice for the treatment of avian chlamydophilosis?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfa B. Doxycycline C. Chlortetracycline D. Enrofloxacin |
B. Doxycycline
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1. What problem affects small adult female psittacine and passerine birds if their diets are deficient in calcium?
A. Egg binding B. Infertility C. Fatty liver D. Gout |
A. Egg binding
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13. A budgerigar of indeterminate age is presented for raised, greyish, crusty lesions around both eyes, over the cere and extending onto the proximal region of the upper beak. What is this bird’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Demodectic mange B. Knemidocoptic mange C. Old age D. Bacterial pyoderma |
B. Knemidocoptic mange
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14. A 6-month-old canary is presented for constant open-mouthed breathing and a faint clicking sound with each breath. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
A. Respiratory acariasis B. Respiratory campylobacteriosis C. Pasteurella multocida D. Respiratory mycobacteriosis |
A. Respiratory acariasis
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15. A one-year-old lutino cockatiel is presented for feather picking. Observation reveals an irritable, apparently pruritic bird constantly “picking” at the wingwebs and dorsal back. Physical examination reveals sparse feathering over the dorsal back and flanks, with generalized flaky, dry skin. Voluminous, grey, “cow-pie” droppings are also noted. What is the most likely diagnosis and the most appropriate diagnostic test associated with that diagnosis?
A. Knemidocoptic mange and skin scraping B. Giardiasis and fresh, direct fecal wet mount C. Aspergillosis, skin impression smear D. Bacterial pyoderm and skin impression smear |
B. Giardiasis and fresh, direct fecal wet mount
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16. A wizard turns you into a Killer Whale. You are now the largest member of what scientific family?
A. Delphinidea B. Mysticeti C. Orcinidea D. Odontoceti |
Delphinidea
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1. Marine fish are __________ to their environment and fight ___________
a. Hyposmotic, overhydration b. Hyposomitic, dehydration c. Hyperosmotic, overhydration d. Isotonic, dehydration |
b. Hyposomitic, dehydration
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2. Freshwater fish are __________ to their environment
a. Hyposmotic b. Hyperosmotic c. Isotonic |
b. Hyperosmotic
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3. Ninety-five percent of the tropical ornamental freshwater fish sold in the United states are:
a. Wild-caught b. Farmed |
b. Farmed
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4. What is NOT a component of a basic health examination
a. Water quality assessment and evaluation of the aquarium or pond system b. Gill biopsy and fin clip c. Observe animals in tank before handling d. Blood sample for serology |
d. Blood sample for serology
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5. The majority of ornamental fish (in total numbers) kept by hobbyists in this country are:
a. Tropical freshwater fish b. Tropical marine fish c. Pond fish (koi and goldfish) d. All of the above |
Tropical freshwater fish
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6. What are the types of water filtration in closed-system aquariums and ponds?
a. Biological, chemical, and redundant filtration b. Chemical, flow-through, recirculation filtration c. Redundant, biological, and recirculation filtration d. Mechanical, chemical, and biological |
d. Mechanical, chemical, and biological
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7. Which state exports the most ornamental fish
a. Florida b. Washington c. Texas d. California |
a. Florida
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8. Fish scales originate from the_________
a. Cuticle b. Hypodermis c. Dermis |
c. Dermis
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9. The majority of tropical marine ornamental fish sold in the US are:
a. Wild-caught b. Farmed |
a. Wild-caught
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10. What is the minimum period of time a new fish or group of fish should be kept in a separate quarantine system before being added to a display tank?
a. No waiting period is necessary b. 90 days c. 60 days d. 30 days |
d. 30 days
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Elevated levels of nitrate in an aquarium suggests that the hobbyist must do what to the tank?
a. Increase the water pH b. Change the water c. Add salt d. Add malachite green |
b. Change the water
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T/F: 12. Oxygen solubility in seawater increases with increase temperature
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False
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T/F: The fish metabolic rate doubles with every 30 degrees Fahrenheit increase in water temperature?
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false
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T/F: Un-ionized (NH3) ammonia is the more toxic form of ammonia in freshwater systems
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true
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How do fish gills and skin respond to irritation?
a. Hyperplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Increased mucus production d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
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16. What is NOT a social factor that may predispose aquarium fish to disease?
a. Intraspecific aggression b. Color variations c. Crowding d. Insufficient number of shelter spaces |
b. Color variations
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17. What is the most common nutritional problem of aquarium fish?
a. Stale food resulting in under eating b. Overfeeding c. Under feeding d. Incorrect supplement balance |
b. Overfeeding
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18. You field a telephone call from a client who is trying to breed convict cichlids but is having little success. He suspects that his fish have some disease. After some discussion you determine that this individual may not be simulating the proper natural environment for this fish. What web resource could you use to get an overview of this species' natural history, environment and reproductive pattern?
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FishBase.org
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1. What factors can induce cannibalism–like behavior in a flock of backyard chickens?
a. Bright lights b. Inadequate feed and water space c. Injuries and external parasites d. Too many roosters e. Not enough fiber in the diet f. Introducing new birds during the daytime g. All of these h. Cannibalism is not a concern in chickens housed outdoors. |
All of these
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1. What is the most important means of spreading Marek’s disease virus?
a. Cannibalism b. Feces c. Nasal exudates d. Feather dander e. B and C f. B and D |
d. Feather dander
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3. Where would you look to find Dermanyssus gallinae in a chicken flock?
a. On the birds at night. b. In cracks in the floor/walls and in between support posts and roosts during the day. c. On the barn cats. d. A and B e. A, B, and C |
d. A and B
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4. What is Bacillary White Diarrhea?
a. Shigella dysenteriae b. Cryptococcus gattii c. Salmonella pullorum d. Salmonella typhi e. Salmonella enteriditis |
c. Salmonella pullorum
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1. What clinical/gross lesions would you expect to see if you suspected either END or AI, high path?
a. Sudden increase in mortality b. Sudden drop in egg production (if in production) c. Acute respiratory/CNS signs d. Severe depression e. Hemorrhagic lesions (esophagus, intestines) on post mortem f. All of the above g. Only A, C, and D h. Only B, D, and E |
f. All of the above
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6. What recommendations would you provide to a client interested in raising baby chicks for backyard production?
a. Appropriate Temperature: i. 95 – 100 F underneath heat source (light bulb, infra-red) light ii. Room available for chicks to move away from the heat b. Medicated Feed: i. Amprolium for Cocci control ii. Fresh feed daily iii. Place feed near and away from heat source iv. Provide enough space so that all chicks can eat c. Water: i. Fresh water daily ii. Room temperature at day one iii. Place between warm and cool area of brooding space iv. 4. Provide enough space so that all chicks can drink d. Litter/Floor Covering: i. Straw of soft wood shavings ii. Keep dry, remove any “caking” material iii. Avoid using a smooth surface to brood chicks on e. Ventilation: i. Avoid drafts f. All of the above g. Only A, C, and E h. Only A, C, and D |
f. All of the above
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7. What are important lesions of Avian Colibacilloisis (CRD)?
a. Perihepatitis b. Pericarditis c. Airsacculitis d. A, B, and C e. A and B f. B and C |
d. A, B, and C
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8. What is the characteristic gross lesion in young chicks and poults with Vitamin E deficiency?
a. Circling b. Star gazing c. Feather loss d. Sudden drop in egg production e. Swollen and hemorrhagic cerebellum |
e. Swollen and hemorrhagic cerebellum
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9. At what age should you vaccinate chickens for Marek’s Disease?
a. One day of age b. One week of age c. In-ovo, at 18 days incubation d. A and C e. B and C f. None of these |
d. A and C
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10. What is the purpose of feeding a “medicated” chick starter to chicks?
a. It contains probiotics for improved digestion during early growth. b. It contains high levels of Vitamin E for improved feather growth. c. It contains Amprolium, which is a Coccidiostat that helps control and prevents clinical signs due to Coccidiosis. d. It contains high levels of calcium for stronger bones and egg production. |
c. It contains Amprolium, which is a Coccidiostat that helps control and prevents clinical signs due to Coccidiosis.
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11. How many breeds of turkeys are there?
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1 but there are a number of different color varieties and strains!
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12. Picture of bird with splayed legs =
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marek's
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1. Infectious Bronchitis occurs in what species?
A. Pigeons B. Turkeys C. Ducks D. Chickens |
D. Chickens
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Coccidiosis is most commonly found in what age birds and in what type of environmental litter conditions?
A. Old, dry litter B. Old, moist litter C. Young, dry litter D. Young, moist litter |
D. Young, moist litter
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1. Coeliotomy incisions in snakes & lizards usually require:
A. An off-midline incision to avoid the ventral median vein beneath the skin B. An everting closure pattern to allow proper wound healing C. An inverting closure pattern to prevent scales from getting torn loose D. A & B E. A & C |
D. A & B
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2. A preoperative surgical prep in an amphibian might include:
A. Clip and scrub with Betadine or Chlorhexidene B. Apply 70% alcohol and briefly ignite with electrocautery device to sterilize the epithelial surface C. Thorough lavage with sterile water D. Scrub off loose skin with wire brush and disinfect with dilute formalin E. Thorough scrub with dilute antibiotic solution |
C. Thorough lavage with sterile water
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3. Fungal infections in amphibians are generally:
A. Extremely rare B. Highly virulent diseases obtained via cohabitation with reptiles C. Not dangerous and often impart a unique and pleasing appearance to the pet D. Hallucinogenic and often result in the animal's death from owners licking the pet excessively E. Opportunistic infections which are often difficult to cure |
E. Opportunistic infections which are often difficult to cure
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4. Heating a reptile or amphibian habitat properly often requires:
A. Accurate thermometer readings in multiple locations in cage B. Temperature readings taken in the “shade” away from the heat source C. A mostly solid enclosed cage if the habitat temperature needs to be well above the room temperature D. All of the above E. A and C |
D. All of the above
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5. Adult amphibians tend to prefer moist conditions and moderate temperatures.
A. False B. True |
B. True
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6. The following statement(s) are true of ascites/edema/anasarca in amphibians:
A. Caused by renal disease B. Caused by cardiac disease C. Caused by dermatologic disease D. Caused by hypoproteinemia E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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7. Osteodystrophy (rickets) in amphibians is usually a result of:
A. Low UV levels resulting in low Vitamin D3 levels B. Too little calcium in the diet and/or too much phosphorous intake C. Feeding commercial pellets without enough powdered supplement D. Too little phosphorous in the diet |
B. Too little calcium in the diet and/or too much phosphorous intake
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8. Treatment of shell infections in turtles often requires:
A. Systemic and topical antibiotics B. Keeping the shell clean and dry, even in semiaquatic species C. Cool temperatures to avoid burns on the damaged shell D. Debridement of necrotic tissue on the shell surface E. A, B & D |
E. A, B & D
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1. Bacterial infections in reptiles and amphibians are:
A. Usually caused by normal flora living in the gut, mouth, or on the skin. B. Mostly opportunistic infections taking advantage of stressed or weakened individuals. C. Sometimes caused by physical wounds D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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10. The following reptile groups have two hemipenes instead of one penis:
A. Turtles & Lizards B. Snakes & Turtles C. Snakes only D. Snakes & Lizards |
D. Snakes & Lizards
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11. Reptile vitamin and mineral supplements such as powders are generally:
A. A good idea and should be used liberally B. Sometimes toxic due to poor formulations C. Easily overdosed and must always be used with caution D. Often unnecessary if the overall diet is well balanced E. B, C, and D |
E. B, C, and D
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1. What is the cause of most disease in captive reptiles?
A. Age related decline in organ function B. Husbandry problems such as poor diet or improper housing C. Predator-prey problems D. Highly contagious viral infections |
B. Husbandry problems such as poor diet or improper housing
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13. The most common zoonotic infection of concern in reptiles is:
A. Mycoplasma B. Salmonella C. Staphylococcus D. Mycobacteria |
B. Salmonella
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14. Thermal burns in reptiles are usually caused by:
A. The animal sitting too close to (or against) a direct heat source B. Heat seeking behaviors that may be increased due to cool cage conditions C. Bathing the pet in excessively hot water D. A & B |
D. A & B
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15. Good dietary items for carnivorous amphibians and lizards might include:
A. Mealworms, waxworms, and raw meat B. Gut loaded crickets, earthworms, and slugs C. Small rodents or whole fish D. B & C |
D. B & C
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1. Being avid sunlight baskers, amphibians have developed tough skin and require strong UV light sources to thrive.
A. False B. True |
A. False
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17. Which statement is true regarding the amphibians' life cycle?
A. Amphibians hatch from ova laid underground, but adults live above ground. B. Amphibian larvae are gilled and live in water, but adults always develop lungs and live on land. C. Amphibian larvae are all gilled and aquatic; most, but not all, adults are land or soil dwellers with lungs. D. Amphibian ova are laid in water. E. C & D |
E. C & D
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1. What are appropriate blood draw sites for chinchillas?
A. Lateral saphenous vein B. Cephalic vein C. Jugular vein D. Auricular vein or artery E. Only A and C |
E. Only A and C
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2. Which species is susceptible to penis obstruction from a fur ring?
A. Rabbits B. Ferrets C. Chinchillas D. All of these species E. None of these species |
C. Chinchillas
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1. Which species has two uterine horns, each with its own cervix?
A. Rabbit B. Hedgehogs C. Chinchillas D. All of these species E. None of these species |
A. Rabbit
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4. Fur-slip is a defense against predators in which species?- Confirmed with Dr. Diggs, I missed this one!
A. Rabbits B. Gerbils C. Chinchillas D. All of these species E. B and C |
e. B and C
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5. Which species is cecotrophic?
A. Rabbit B. Rats C. Chinchillas D. All of these species |
D. All of these species
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6. A condition seen in older unspayed does is:
A. Endometriosis B. Hormonal alopecia C. Continuous estrus D. Uterine adenocarcinoma |
D. Uterine adenocarcinoma
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7. The correct length of tubing to insert for oral gavage in a rabbit is measured from:
A. Incisors to end of sternum (manubrium) B. Nares to elbow, with the rabbit in ventral recumbency C. Front of jaw to first lumbar vertebra D. Opening of mouth to last rib |
D. Opening of mouth to last rib
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1. What are appropriate blood draw sites for rabbits?
A. Lateral saphenous vein B. Cephalic vein C. Jugular vein D. Auricular vein or artery E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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9. Signs of malocclusion in chinchillas include:
A. Slobbers B. Lacrimation C. Otic discharge D. A and B E. A and C |
D. A and B
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10. Signs of enteric pain in chinchillas include:
A. pawing at the abdomen B. Stretching postures C. lacrimation and/or salivation D. frequent defecation |
B. Stretching postures
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11. Use a dust bath to maintain coat cleanliness is important in which species?
A. Rabbits B. Guinea pigs C. Chinchillas D. All of these species E. None of these species |
C. Chinchillas
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12. A ferret showing signs of lethargy, ataxia, sialosis is most likely to have:
A. Encephalitis B. Insulinoma C. Brain tumor D. Rabies E. Distemper |
B. Insulinoma
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13. Which rodent is NOT primarily nocturnal?
A. Hamsters B. Mice C. Gerbils D. Rats E. All of the above are primarily nocturnal |
C. Gerbils
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14. Cecotrophy helps lagomorphs recover nutrients produced in the hind-gut, including:
A. B vitamins B. Calcium C. Vitamin C D. Omega fatty-acids |
A. B vitamins
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15. The female is called a doe and male a buck in which species?
A. Rabbit B. Guinea pigs C. Chinchillas D. All of these species E. None of these species |
A. Rabbit
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16. Fracture or subluxation of a rabbit spine most often occurs at which vertebral site?
A. L2 B. L7 C. CY6 D. C6 |
B. L7
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17. Which species is a spontaneous ovulator?
A. Rabbit B. Hamster C. Chinchillas D. B and C |
D. B and C
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18. Which species has precocial young?
A. Rats B. Rabbits C. All of these species D. Chinchillas |
D. Chinchillas
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19. What is the most common cause of rabbit snuffles?
A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Aeromonas pneumophila C. Pasteurella multocida D. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis |
C. Pasteurella multocida
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20. Which species nurse their offspring just once daily?
A. Rabbit B. Guinea pigs C. Chinchillas D. All of these species E. None of these species |
A. Rabbit
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21. Which species does not have foot-pads?
A. Rabbits B. Guinea pigs C. Chinchillas D. All of these species E. None of these species |
A. Rabbits
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22. New world monkeys and Old world monkeys have a dietary requirement for Vitamin_____. New world monkeys also have a dietary requirement for Vitamin_______.
A. D2, C B. C, D3 C. B6, C D. C, D2 |
B. C, D3
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