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849 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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SOP 303. Parking Violation Notices will be obtained and signed for in ____.
A. the Personnel Division B. the Training Division C. The officer’s respective division D. The City of Tampa Parking Division |
Answer:
C. The officer’s respective division |
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SOP 303. Upon issuing a Parking Violation Notice, the officer will insert the ____ copy inside the yellow envelope and attach the envelope to the vehicle in a conspicuous place, preferably ____.
A. White (first copy) information / under the windshield wiper B. Yellow (second copy) information / under the windshield wiper C. White (first copy) information / on the exterior of the driver’s door window D. Yellow (second copy) information / on the exterior of the driver’s door window |
Answer:
B. Yellow (second copy) information / under the windshield wiper |
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SOP 303. A parking citation issued on a rotation impound vehicle will be attached to the ____ of the impound report. The owner will receive this copy and the citation when he claims the vehicl
E. A. Yellow, owner copy B. White, original copy C. Yellow, original copy D. White, owner copy |
Answer:
A. Yellow, owner copy |
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SOP 303. The original, first (white) copy of the Parking Violation Notice will be delivered by the officer to ____, where they are accumulated and routed to the Parking Division via Departmental Mai
L. The accumulated copies of Parking Violation Notices will be placed in a mailing envelope and routed to: City Parking Enforcement, Mail Code 375 D. A. the Personnel Division B. the Training Division C. The in-basket of each District D. The City of Tampa Parking Division |
Answer:
C. The in-basket of each District |
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SOP 303. Upon termination of employment of any officer, all unused Parking Violation Notices in the officer’s possession will be turned in to ____, who will return the unused notices to ____ for re-issue/issue to another officer.
A. the armorer / Personnel and Training B. Personnel and Training / the armorer C. the property room / the armorer D. his immediate supervisor / the division storage location |
Answer:
D. his immediate supervisor / the division storage location |
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SOP 303. To request cancellation of a Parking Violation Notice received by Departmental personnel while on official police business, the employee receiving the notice will submit it for cancellation to ____, along with a brief explanation justifying the request.
A. the Chief of Police B. the City of Tampa Parking Division C. the Shift Commander D. his immediate supervisor |
Answer:
D. his immediate supervisor |
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SOP 303. Only those notices received for violation of ____ will be cancelle
D. This does not include those spaces in the vicinity of the downtown headquarters buildin G. A. Handicapped Parking B. a metered parking space C. Loading Unloading zones D. No Parking Zones |
Answer:
B. a metered parking space |
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SOP 303. Upon approval of the immediate supervisor, the Parking Violation Notice and explanation will be properly routed to ____.
A. The Division Commander B. The Shift Commander C. The Chief of Police D. the Supervisor of the Parking Division |
Answer:
A. The Division Commander |
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SOP 303. Upon approval to cancel the Parking Violation Notice by the Division Commander, such Commander will ____ in the space immediately above the number on the main portion of the notic
E. A. sign the Parking Violation Notice B. print the subject officer’s name and rank C. initial the Parking Violation Notice D. write the date and time of the cancellation |
Answer:
C. Initial the Parking Violation Notice |
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SOP 303. Those Parking Violation Notices appropriately approved for cancellation by the Division Commander will be submitted to their respective ____ each Friday prior to 1700 hours.
A. Chief of Police B. Assistant Chief’s Office C. District Office Specialists D. CSOs |
Answer:
B. Assistant Chief’s Office |
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SOP 303. Each Monday, each Assistant Chief will cause a “City of Tampa Parking Meter Violation Report and Request for Cancellation” form to be completed listing those notices received and forward the notices and cancellation form to ____.
A. The Office of the Chief of Police B. The Office of the Director of the Parking Division C. The Office of the Director of Administration D. The Office of the Department of Revenue and Finance |
Answer:
B. The Office of the Director of the Parking Division |
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SOP 303. To request the voiding of a Parking Violation Notice issued by a officer in error, or damaged, the requesting officer will ____, ____ and submit the three parts of the Parking Violation Notice to the ____.
A. Write the word “void” across the face of the notice, secure all three parts of the form together / officer’s immediate supervisor along with an explanation justifying the request B. Write the word “cancel” across the face of the notice, secure all three parts of the form together / Shift Commander along with an explanation justifying the request C. Write the word “void” across the face of the notice, secure all three parts of the form together / officer’s Division Commander along with an explanation justifying the request D. Write the word “cancel” across the face of the notice, secure all three parts of the form together / officer’s immediate supervisor along with an explanation justifying the request |
Answer:
A. Write the word “void” across the face of the notice, secure all three parts of the form together / officer’s immediate supervisor along with an explanation justifying the request |
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SOP 303. The immediate supervisor will cause the three-part form to be routed to ____.
A. The Division Commander B. The Shift Commander C. The Chief of Police D. City Parking Enforcement |
Answer:
D. City Parking Enforcement |
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SOP 305. The ultimate goal of any criminal investigation is ____.
A. the arrest of the offender B. recovery for the victim C. the exoneration of innocent persons just as much as it is the prosecution of guilty persons D. prosecution of the guilty |
Answer:
C. the exoneration of innocent persons just as much as it is the prosecution of guilty persons |
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SOP 305. The initial action taken by the police agency in response to a report of a crime is referred to as the ____.
A. First Response B. Primary investigation C. Initial investigation D. Preliminary investigation |
Answer:
D. Preliminary investigation |
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SOP 305. The Preliminary Investigation attempts to determine ____, ____, ____ and ____.
A. Who witnessed the crime, what happened, who contacted police, and what evidence should be collected B. Who committed the crime, what happened, who witnessed, and what evidence should be collected C. Who committed the crime, what happened, who witnessed, and what time frame has elapsed D. Who committed the crime, what happened, who responded to the scene, and what evidence should be collected |
Answer:
B. Who committed the crime, what happened, who witnessed, and what evidence should be collected |
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SOP 305. During the Preliminary Investigation, the responding officer will ____, ____, ____, and ____.
A. Make observations, conduct interviews, protect the scene and arrange for the collection of evidence B. Make observations, conduct interviews, protect the scene and begin the report C. Make observations, schedule interviews, protect the scene and arrange for the collection of evidence D. Make observations, conduct interviews, protect the scene and supervise other responding officers |
Answer:
A. Make observations, conduct interviews, protect the scene and arrange for the collection of evidence |
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SOP 305. The ____ continues the work initiated during the preliminary investigations.
A. Concluding investigation B. Follow-up investigation C. Secondary investigation D. Supplementary investigation |
Answer:
B. Follow-up investigation |
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SOP 305. Detectives will review all ____ and ____ availabl
E. A. photographs and statements B. Crime trends and media reports C. witnesses and suspects D. Reports and criminal intelligence |
Answer:
D. Reports and criminal intelligence |
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SOP 305. True or False: Detectives will seek additional information and conduct interviews and search warrants.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 305. Detectives will work with ____, ____, ____ and ____ to apprehend and successfully prosecute offenders.
A. Crime analysts, adjoining jurisdictions, the state lab and the state attorney’s office B. Case analysts, involved jurisdictions, the municipal lab and the state attorney’s office C. Criminologists, adjoining jurisdictions, the state lab and the public defender’s office D. Media outlets, adjoining jurisdictions, the state lab and the state attorney’s office |
Answer:
A. Crime analysts, adjoining jurisdictions, the state lab and the state attorney’s office |
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SOP 305. Special Subject Investigations concentrate on particularly sensitive areas of criminal activity such as ____, ____ and ____.
A. political corruption, economic crimes and Vice B. Vice, narcotics and sexual offenses C. Vice, narcotics, and organized crime D. Vice, domestic violence and organized crime |
Answer:
C. Vice, narcotics, and organized crime |
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SOP 305. Criminal Investigations are classified in three broad areas____.
A. preliminary, investigative, follow-up B. basic fact findin G. investigative follow-up, problem solving C. preliminary, follow-up, special subject D. preliminary, follow-up, special interest investigations |
Answer:
C. preliminary, follow-up, special subject |
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SOP 305. While the objective of special subject investigations is the apprehension of criminal offenders, attention is often focused on ____.
A. Building an information bank concerning criminal activity of organized criminal groups B. Building a rapport with Confidential Informants concerning criminal activity of known offenders C. Building an information bank concerning criminal activity of known offenders D. Building an information bank confirming the existence of organized criminal groups |
Answer:
A. Building an information bank concerning criminal activity of organized criminal groups |
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SOP 305. The primary objective in the preliminary investigation is to ____?
A. who is the culprit and how can we catch him B. identify the solvability factors C. verify a crime actually took place and identify the suspect D. who committed the crime and apprehend the criminal |
Answer:
D. who committed the crime and apprehend the criminal |
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SOP 305. The framework for the preliminary investigation consists of all of the following major tasks, except ____.
A. Verification that an offense actually occurred, identification of the victim, location of the crime, and time of occurrence B. Identification of solvability factors C. Planning the progress of the case from initial investigation through to prosecution D. Communication of the circumstances of the crim E. |
Answer:
C. planning the progress of the case from initial investigation through to prosecution |
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SOP 305. After a crime has occurred the preliminary investigator shall direct his or her attention towards identification of ____.
A. Witnesses B. Solvability factors C. Suspects D. the victim |
Answer:
B. Solvability factors |
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SOP 305. By identifying ____ the preliminary investigator can systematically ensure that all-important areas are addressed in a logical manner.
A. known offenders B. solvability factors C. leads D. crime scene locations |
Answer:
B. solvability factors |
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SOP 305. The objective of the solvability factor search, therefore, includes all of the following, except ____.
A. Determine the motive of the offense B. Determine the identity of the criminal offender C. Determine the criminal offender’s location D. Determine whether the case can in fact be successfully closed at the conclusion of the preliminary investigatio N. |
Answer:
A. Determine the motive of the offense |
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SOP 305. If the case cannot be closed at the preliminary phase the solvability factors must then be thoroughly analyze
D. The preliminary investigator must communicate his or her findings to the follow-up investigator. The documentation of the solvability factors in the report shall include all the identifying information, or lack of information, on all of the following, except _____. A. The victim B. The suspect C. witnesses D. stolen property E. the modus operandi F. time of the offense G. physical evidence |
Answer:
F. time of the offense |
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SOP 305. The initial investigator must fully document that all potential ____ have been explored.
A. Crime scenes B. Solvability factors C. Hard drives D. Surveillance Cameras |
Answer:
B. Solvability factors |
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SOP 305. When the preliminary investigation indicates the existence of substantive leads or solvability factors that have not been investigated a ______ investigation is require
D. A. evidence collection B. follow-up C. special subject D. broad |
Answer:
B. follow-up |
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SOP 305. The most important part of the criminal investigation process is the ____.
A. Preliminary investigation B. Follow-up investigation C. Special subject investigation D. Identification of the offender |
Answer:
A. Preliminary investigation |
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SOP 305. The follow-up investigator ascertains whether the preliminary investigation was thoroughly conducted so that ____ will not be overlooke
D. A. statements B. locations C. informants D. Important leads |
Answer:
D. Important leads |
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SOP 305. Once leads have been identified, the criminal investigator shall proceed to follow such leads as far as possible toward ____.
A. Identification of the suspect B. Apprehension of the suspect C. Restitution for the victim D. Closure of the case |
Answer:
B. Apprehension of the suspect |
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SOP 305. As part of the follow-up investigation the investigator compares the case with ____ in the hope of linking together like-crimes.
A. the suspect B. the victim C. other cases which are similar D. unsupported opinions |
Answer:
C. other cases which are similar |
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SOP 305. Since ____ have been found to commit a majority of the serious crimes, the development of similarities in like crimes is an effective way for the investigator to increase the chances of identifying the perpetrator as well as providing pattern and trend analysis.
A. career criminals B. beginning criminals C. elderly criminals D. younger criminals |
Answer:
A. career criminals |
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SOP 305. The final responsibility of the follow-up investigation is ____.
A. The conclusion of the text related to the report B. The preparation of the case for prosecution C. closing the case within the Versadex case management system D. Follow-up with the victim of the offense |
Answer:
B. The preparation of the case for prosecution |
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SOP 305. True or False: In establishing the management system for continuing investigations, the overall goal should be t
O. Increase the number of case investigations of serious crimes that are cleared by prosecutable arrests of the criminals responsible for these crimes. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 305. The objectives of a managed investigation process should include all of the following, except ____.
A. a more effective assignment of case investigations B. improvement of the quality of case investigation and preparation C. the evaluation of results on the basis of investigation outcomes. D. to ensure adequate and timely information concerning case assignments E. the monitoring of the progress of case investigation and making decisions about continuation |
Answer:
D. to ensure adequate and timely information concerning case assignments |
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SOP 305. Case assignments should be managed by the ____ using the case management features in Versadex to ensure adequate and timely information concerning case assignments, and ensure proper review of investigation process.
A. Supervisor B. Officer C. Detective D. Division Commander |
Answer:
A. Supervisor |
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SOP 305. Preliminary Investigations: A supervisor acting in the capacity of Sergeant or above will evaluate all of the following except ____.
A. Solvability factors B. crime patterns C. seriousness of the crime D. clearance rate of the investigator |
Answer:
D. clearance rate of the investigator |
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SOP 305. Preliminary Investigations: The sergeant or above will determine if assigned case will be ____, ____, ____ or ____.
A. Inactivated, Referred to a Latent Investigative Squad, Unfounded, or Closed by arrest B. Activated, Referred to a Latent Investigative Squad, Founded, or Closed by arrest C. Inactivated, Referred to a DLIS Handle, Unfounded, or Closed by Warrant D. Inactivated, Referred to a Latent Investigative Squad, Unfounded, or Exceptionally Cleared |
Answer:
B. Inactivated, Referred to a Latent Investigative Squad, Unfounded, or Closed by arrest |
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SOP 305. Latent Investigations: A supervisor acting in the capacity of latent investigations sergeant or above will evaluate all of the following, except ____, and all available informatio
N. A. Solvability factors B. laboratory results C. fingerprint comparisons D. follow-up investigatory efforts E. seriousness of crime F. cooperation of the victim |
Answer:
F. cooperation of the victim |
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SOP 305. Latent Investigations: A supervisor acting in the capacity of latent investigations sergeant or above will determine if a case will be one of the following, except ____.
A. Inactivated B. Exceptionally cleared, Death of offender, Extradition declined, Victim/witness refuse to cooperate, Juvenile/no custody, or Prosecution declined C. Closed by arrest D. Referred to a cold case investigator E. Closed by Warrant F. Administratively cleared |
Answer:
E. Closed by Warrant |
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SOP 305. The case assignment system in Versadex can be used to ____ and to ____.
A. To evaluate the results of the investigator / determine performance levels through regular workload analysis B. To evaluate the results of investigative activity / determine performance levels through regular workload analysis C. To evaluate the results of investigative activity / determine performance levels through increased workload analysis D. To evaluate the depth of criminal activity / determine performance levels through regular workload analysis |
Answer:
B. To evaluate the results of investigative activity / determine performance levels through regular workload analysis |
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SOP 305. Workload analysis should provide basic information on the ____ of the individual investigator and the overall performance of the unit.
A. Performance B. Tenure C. Rank D. Seniority |
Answer:
A. Performance |
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SOP 305. Criminal investigations are classified into which (3) broad areas?
A. preliminary investigations, follow-up investigations, and special subject investigations B. preliminary investigations, latent investigations, and special subject investigations C. preliminary investigations, latent investigations, and follow-up investigations D. original investigations, follow-up investigations, and special subject investigations. |
Answer:
A. preliminary investigations, follow-up investigations and special subject investigations |
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SOP 305. The basic facts of the crime are obtained during the ___________ investigatio
N. A. original B. latent C. preliminary D. special subject |
Answer:
C. preliminary |
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SOP 305. ____________ investigations concentrate on particularly sensitive areas of criminal activity such as vice, narcotics, and organized crim
E. A. latent B. special subject C. morals D. preliminary |
Answer:
B. special subject |
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SOP 305. The primary objective in the _________ investigation is to determine who committed the crime and apprehend the crimina
L. A. original B. latent C. preliminary D. special subject |
Answer:
C. preliminary |
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SOP 305. The objectives of a managed investigation process should include: (1) a more effective assignment of case investigations / (2) improvement of the quality of case investigation and preparation / (3) the monitoring of the progress of case investigation and making decisions about continuation / and (4) the evaluation of results on the basis of investigation outcomes.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 305.1. The consistent use of the ____ allows the system to capture accurate information on the workload and performance of the Unit. Statistical information is also availabl
E. A. Case Management system B. Caseload Query C. MDT Query D. Case Referral system |
Answer:
A. Case Management system |
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SOP 305.1. The Unit Sergeant actively monitors and reviews the Unit’s ____ and ____ at least ____ a day.
A. Handle queue and V-mail / once B. Work queue and V-mail / twice C. Work queue and V-mail / once D. Handle queue and V-mail / twice |
Answer:
D. Handle queue and V-mail / twice |
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SOP 305.1. ____: “Open” cases that have been sent to the handle for resolutio
N. A. Referred Cases B. Routed Cases C. Queued Cases D. Pending Cases |
Answer:
B. Routed Cases |
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SOP 305.1. _____ – (Indicated by a dash in front of the report number): Cases that must be reviewed to insure sufficient information is present in the report prior to submission for prosecution by the State Attorney Offic
E. A. Routed Cases without an Arrest B. Routed Cases with an Arrest C. Referred Cases without an Arrest D. Referred Cases with an Arrest |
Answer:
B. Routed Cases with an Arrest |
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SOP 305.1. Cases that require additional investigation or have outstanding suspects will be assigned as a ____.
A. Pending B. On-going C. Follow up D. Referred |
Answer:
C. Follow up |
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SOP 305.1. ____ – (Indicated by an asterisk* following the submitting officer’s name: Cases that have been forwarded from another handle with a note attached explaining specific investigative needs
A. Referred Cases with a Case Note B. Routed Cases with a Details Page C. Routed Cases with a Case Note D. Referred Cases with a Details Page |
Answer:
C. Routed Cases with a Case Note |
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SOP 305.1. All other Routed Cases – Cases that require review and evaluation for dispositio
N. If a follow up investigation is justified, a follow up to the case will be adde D. All other Routed cases that are not assigned as a follow up must have the ____ completed by the ____ with the appropriate Internal Status code in the same manner as stated abov E. Once the conclusion block has been changed from “Open” to a “Closed” status code, the case will ____. A. Conclusion Block, Unit Sergeant, be deleted from the queue B. Closure Block, Unit Sergeant, be deleted from the queue C. Conclusion Block, Detective, be deleted from the queue D. Conclusion Block, Unit Sergeant, be retained in the queue |
Answer:
A. Conclusion Block, Unit Sergeant, be deleted from the queue |
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SOP 305.1. ____: Cases with notifications of a change on a case that had been previously routed to the handl
E. Each case must be reviewed to see what occurrence warranted the supplement. A. Additions B. Correlations C. Notations D. Supplements |
Answer:
D. Supplements |
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SOP 305.1. ______: A GO or SC entry that notifies a unit of information of interest or information that affects a unit. There is no ____ attache
D. A. Notation, “Supervisory Responsibility” B. Notifies, “Investigative Responsibility” C. Notifies, “Case Maintenance Responsibility” D. Alert, “Investigative Responsibility” |
Answer:
B. Notifies, “Investigative Responsibility” |
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SOP 305.1. _____: Sent to a queue when another handle or employee has reviewed the GO and determined there is information in the report that could be of interest to another unit
A. GO Notify B. GO Investigate C. IO Notify D. IO Investigate |
Answer:
A. GO Notify |
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SOP 305.1. After reviewing the report, if there is information that a detective(s) needs in the report, it can be sent as a “Notify” to the detective(s) ____ queue
A. “Work Pending” B. “GO Notify” C. “Work to Do” D. “IO Notify” |
Answer:
C. “Work to Do” |
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SOP 305.1. SC Notify – Street checks are reviewed by ____ to determine which unit(s) needs to view the informatio
N. The Unit is responsible for sending the Street Checks to the appropriate handle as a “Notify” (a Street Check cannot be sent as a “Route”). All Street Checks in the handle queue are to be reviewed and forwarded to the appropriate detective(s). A. the Crime Analysis Unit B. the Criminal Intelligence Bureau C. the Sergeant in charge of latent investigations D. the Sergeant in charge of uniformed patrol |
Answer:
A. the Crime Analysis Unit |
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SOP 305.1. Assigned Follow Ups – When a GO is assigned as a follow up to a detective, it is ____ in the Case Management system until the follow up is completed
A. inactive B. pending C. available D. active |
Answer:
D. active |
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SOP 305.1. When the follow up is added to the GO, it adds an entry to the detective’s ____ and an entry in the ____ showing the case is assigne
D. A. “work to do” queue, Handle queue B. V-mail queue, “work to do” queue C. V-mail queue, handle queue D. “Work to do” queue, V-mail queue |
Answer:
A. “work to do” queue, Handle queue |
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SOP 305.1. Assigning Follow Ups – When Routed cases are to be investigated, the ____ is responsible for adding a new follow up to the case for the assigned detective
A. lead detective B. unit Lieutenant C. unit Sergeant D. originating officer |
Answer:
C. unit Sergeant |
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SOP 305.1. All “Routed” (referred) cases will be reviewed and assigned if Case Management principals are met. This includes ____ affecting the status of a case (in other words re-opening inactive cases)
A. Supplemental reports B. Reclassified reports C. General Offense D. Street Checks |
Answer:
A. Supplemental reports |
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SOP 305.1. Cases will be assigned as preferred by the Sergeant (in other words all of the following except ____ et
C.). A. Geographic area B. wheel method C. area of expertise D. Seniority in the unit |
Answer:
D. Seniority in the unit |
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SOP 305.1. Capacity - When adding the follow up, the capacity will be added to meet the needs of the desired follow u
P. Generally the capacity will be a ____. A. “6” (Latent Investigator) B. “6” (Follow-up Investigator) C. “6” (Follow-up/Case Manager) D. “6” (Investigate/Case Manager) |
Answer:
D. “6” (Investigate/Case Manager) |
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SOP 305.1. Days – This field sets the Diary Date field and establishes ____. Although no specific number of days is recommended, it is critical that a consistent “realistic” time frame is entered
A. The time frame for the follow up investigation to be concluded B. The time which has lapsed since the commission of the offense C. The time in which an arrest is required D. The time in which an appearance in court is expected |
Answer:
A. The time frame for the follow up investigation to be concluded |
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SOP 305.1. If too many days are entered, the unit’s resources will be ____ and new incoming cases cannot be assigned
A. Easily managed B. Overly committed C. Evenly distributed D. Successfully allocated |
Answer:
B. Overly committed |
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SOP 305.1. If not enough time is entered, the queue will be quickly overwhelmed with____.
A. Incoming cases B. Outgoing cases C. Overdue cases D. Case Notes |
Answer: Overdue cases
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SOP 305.1. The success in Case Management comes from finding the right balance point that allows all of the following in a consistent fashion, except ____.
A. cases to be assigned B. arrests to be made C. investigations completed D. cases concluded |
Answer:
B. arrests to be made |
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SOP 305.1. True or False: If cases are assigned with no consistency for the diary date, then a standard number of cases per detective cannot be established
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 305.1. Overdue Follow Up – In reviewing assigned follow-ups, special attention must be given to “Overdue” follow ups. To review the overdue follow up, first note the ______.
A. Date that the follow-up was assigned B. Date of last activity on the case C. Date of the initial report D. Date of the last case assigned to the investigator |
Answer:
A. Date that the follow-up was assigned |
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SOP 305.1. Overdue Follow Up – In reviewing assigned follow-ups, special attention must be given to “Overdue” follow ups. After reviewing the overdue follow up, then communicate with the assigned detective to discuss their current caseload and to evaluate the reality of the overdue follow up being ____.
A. Cancelled B. Worked C. Re-assigned D. Extended |
Answer:
B. Worked |
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SOP 305.1. If the follow up can be worked, then the follow up can be modified to allow for ____
A. More “days” to be added to the diary date B. Additional investigators assigned to the case C. Reassignment of the case D. Inactivation of the case |
Answer:
A. More “days” to be added to the diary date |
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SOP 305.1. If the case cannot be worked, the follow up is approved as it is and the conclusion block, internal status is ____
A. Inactive B. Closed by Arrest - Patrol C. Closed by Arrest - Detective D. Administrative Cleared |
Answer:
A. Inactive |
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SOP 305.1. Cases sent as a “notify” will be reviewed and assigned as necessary, if no action needed, it will be ______.
A. Retained in the queue B. Deleted from the queue C. Moved to the top of the queue D. Moved to the bottom of the queue |
Answer:
B. Deleted from the queue |
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SOP 305.1. True or False: If cases do not meet Case Management principles (no workable leads), the Sergeant will keep the case open until leads become available
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False The Sergeant will close the case with the appropriate disposition (in other words Inactive, Administrative, Unfounded, et C.). |
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SOP 305.1. Removing Cases from the Queue – Cases can be removed from the queue in a variety of ways based on ______.
A. The length of time the case had been within the queue B. The investigator assigned to the queue C. The status of the case within the queue D. The type of case within the queue |
Answer:
C. The status of the case within the queue |
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SOP 305.1. “Notify” entries can be ____ or have their ____ changed
A. Removed right from the queue / status B. Removed right from the queue / assigned investigator C. Removed right from the queue of the latent investigation supervisor / status D. Removed right from the queue / diary date |
Answer:
A. Removed right from the queue / status |
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SOP 305.1. Entering a code of “D” in the status change field will ____, while ____ to come through
A. Delay the next entry into the queue / allowing any updates on the case B. Delete the entry from the queue / preventing updates on the case C. Deliver the entry into the queue / allowing any updates on the case D. Delete the entry from the queue / allowing any updates on the case |
Answer:
D. Delete the entry from the queue / allowing any updates on the case |
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SOP 305.1. Entering a code of “X” will ____ and will ____
A. Retain the case within the queue / allow any updates on the case to come back to the queue B. Delete the case from the queue / block any updates on the case from coming back to the queue C. Delete the case from the queue / allow any updates on the case to come back to the queue D. Retain the case within the queue / block any updates on the case from coming back to the queue |
Answer:
B. Delete the case from the queue / block any updates on the case from coming back to the queue |
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SOP 305.1. Upon reviewing a case and determining the case needs to be sent to another handle, it can be ____ from the queue
A. Deleted B. Re-assigned C. Retained D. Re-routed |
Answer:
D. Re-routed |
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SOP 305.1. Reviewing “Submitted” Follow-ups for Approval or Rejection includes a review of ____ and ____ completed by the detective(s)
A. The date of assignment / investigation work B. Text / investigation work C. Text / the date of assignment D. Diary Date / investigation work |
Answer:
B. Text / investigation work |
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SOP 305.1. If further work is required, the case will be ____ and ____ with further instructions.
A. Rejected and sent back to the detective B. Accepted but sent back to the detective C. Rejected and re-assigned D. Reassigned and the date extended |
Answer:
A. Rejected and sent back to the detective |
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SOP 305.1. If the case is complete, the ____ will be checked to ensure the case was closed with the proper disposition
A. Disposition Block B. Referral Block C. Status Block D. Conclusion Block |
Answer:
D. Conclusion Block |
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SOP 305.1. Submitted cases that are complete will be ____ and ____
A. Approved and deleted from the queue B. Approved and retained within the queue C. Held and retained within the queue D. Cancelled and deleted from the queue |
Answer:
A. Approved and deleted from the queue |
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SOP 305.1. It is the latent investigation supervisor’s responsibility to identify and resolve all follow-ups with an ____ status
A. Extended B. Overdue C. Alert D. Elevated |
Answer:
B. Overdue |
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SOP 305.1. Addressing follow-ups with an “Overdue” status entails ____ to ensure training and compliance guidelines.
A. Auditing the detective(s) performance in RMS B. Auditing the detective(s) performance in the MDT C. Auditing the originating officer’s performance in Versadex D. Auditing the detective(s) performance in Versadex |
Answer:
C. Auditing the detective(s) performance in Versadex |
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SOP 305.1. It is the responsibility of the Unit Detective(s) to actively monitor personal ____ queue and ______.
A. Work to Do / V-Mail B. “work to do” queue, Handle queue B. MDT queue, “work to do” queue C. V-mail queue, handle queue |
Answer:
A. “Work to do” queue, V-mail queue |
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SOP 305.1. The “Work to Do” queue is an electronic “In” basket where assigned ____ are kept until complete
D. A. Reports B. Cases C. Follow Ups D. Tasks |
Answer:
C. Follow Ups |
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SOP 305.1. In addition to “Follow Ups”, other case information is sent to the queue as a ____.
A. Notify B. Notation C. Hit D. Query Response |
Answer:
A. Notify |
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SOP 305.1. An entry in the personal “Work to Do” queue with a status of “Notify” indicates information to be ____ by the owner of the queu
E. A. Disregarded B. Reviewed C. Deleted D. Forwarded |
Answer:
B. Reviewed |
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SOP 305.1. True or False: An assigned follow up appears in the “Work to Do” queue with information on who assigned the follow up and when it is due to be completed (diary dat
E.) A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 305.1. An “Open” follow up will show a status of “Unknown” and will remain in the queue until ____
A. Denied B. Approved C. Referred D. Re-assigned |
Answer:
B. Approved |
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SOP 305.1. True or False: The Follow up is the only place to enter information regarding the investigation to the G
O. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 305.1. It is the responsibility of the detective with the last open follow up to complete the ____ on the cas
E. A. Disposition Block B. Referral Block C. Status Block D. Conclusion Block |
Answer:
D. Conclusion Block |
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SOP 305.1. When the ____ is completed, the appropriate status will be given to the case (in other words closed by arrest)
A. Disposition Block B. Referral Block C. Status Block D. Conclusion Block |
Answer:
D. Conclusion Block |
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SOP 305.1. Diligent effort will be made to complete cases prior to the assigned ____.
A. Referral Date B. Diary Date C. Re-assignment Date D. Conclusion Date |
Answer:
B. Diary Date |
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SOP 305.1. Cases will be submitted back to unit handle for the ____ approval once completed and a conclusion block has been added
A. Division Commander’s B. Shift Commander’s C. Sergeant’s D. Lead Detective’s |
Answer:
C. Sergeant’s |
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SOP 305.1. Once the follow up is approved, the case will be deleted from the ____ queue and the individual’s ____ queue
A. Work to Do / V-Mail B. Handle, “Work to do” C. MDT queue, “work to do” queue D. V-mail queue, handle queue |
Answer:
B. Handle, “Work to do” |
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SOP 305.1. In reference to Versadex Case Management, the Unit Sergeant reviews the Units Handle Queue and V-Mail at least ____.
A. twice a week B. twice a day C. once a day D. once a week |
Answer:
B. twice a day |
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SOP 305.1. Entries will automatically delete once a Sergeant has ____.
A. Approved the work B. Rejected the work C. Re-assigned the work D. Extended the Diary Date of the work |
Answer:
A. Approved the work |
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SOP 306. During a police shooting, who will set up a check in post and where?
A. The Homicide Detective on the scene / immediately adjacent to, but outside of the crime scene B. The Homicide Sergeant on the scene / immediately adjacent to, but outside of the crime scene C. The field supervisor on the scene / immediately adjacent to, but outside of the crime scene D. The field supervisor on the scene / immediately adjacent to and inside of the crime scene |
Answer:
C. The field supervisor on the scene / immediately adjacent to, but outside of the crime scene |
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SOP 306. What is the purpose of the check-in post?
A. To ensure that the crime scene is not disturbed any more than is absolutely necessary B. To ensure that the crime scene is fully manned C. To ensure that the crime scene is not penetrated by the media D. To ensure that the crime scene is not penetrated by the immediate family of the victim(s) |
Answer:
A. To ensure that the crime scene is not disturbed any more than is absolutely necessary |
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SOP 306. Who will assume responsibility for the overall investigation?
A. Criminal Investigations Division Captain B. Criminal Investigations Division Detective C. Criminal Investigations Division Lieutenant D. Criminal Investigations Division Major |
Answer:
A. Criminal Investigations Division Captain |
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SOP 306. Who investigates accidental discharges resulting in no injury and shootings of dangerous or badly injured animals?
A. Internal Affairs B. Homicide Squad Shooting Team C. Both A & B D. The direction of the Division Commander |
Answer:
A. Internal Affairs |
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SOP 306. True or False: Officers involved in a police shooting will not be expected to provide information as to their involvement in the incident.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 306. Who investigates all police shootings in which the officer fires at a person or a person is injured by police gun fir
E. A. Internal affairs B. Homicide Squad Shoot Team C. Both A & B D. The direction of the Division Commander |
Answer:
C. Both A & B |
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SOP 306. Incidents in which an officer is fired upon, but does not return fire will be investigated by__?
A. Homicide Squad Shooting Team B. Internal Affairs Bureau C. Both A & B D. the direction of the Division Commander |
Answer:
A. Homicide Squad Shooting Team |
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SOP 306. All of the following include key items of information will personnel involved in the incident relay to the Communications Section, except ____.
A. Their unit number B. Their location C. Whether the shots resulted in the death of, or injury to, any person D. The number of shots fired by police, if possible to estimate E. Any medical attention required F. Shots fired by civilian or police G. Description and direction of flight of any wanted person |
Answer:
D. The number of shots fired by police, if possible to estimate |
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SOP 306. Who is responsible upon receipt of information that an officer is involved in the discharge of a firearm to immediately notify the affected shift commander, mark all tapes, and retain written notes in Communication pertaining to the incident?
A. Frequency Dispatcher B. Emergency Service Provider C. Departments Legal Advisor D. Communication Section Supervisor |
Answer:
D. Communication Section Supervisor |
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SOP 306. A shift commander will respond to the scene and then ensure that a ____ is dispatched to the scen
E. A. sergeant B. corporal C. captain D. major |
Answer:
A. sergeant |
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SOP 306. The shift commander will notify Communications to contact and confirm notifications to all of the following entities, with the exception of ____.
A. The division/district commander B. the Criminal Investigations Division captain C. the Internal Affairs Bureau captain D. the public information coordinator E. the department’s legal advisor F. the PBA G. CISD Team H. the Medical Examiner’s Office |
Answer:
H. the Medical Examiner’s Office |
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SOP 306. In the event of any injury involving any person in a police shooting the ___ will notify the SAO, and if a fatality is involved, the medical examiner.
A. Division Commander B. Homicide Sergeant C. Internal Affairs Captain D. Criminal Investigations Division Captain |
Answer:
D. Criminal Investigations Division CaptainTrue or False: Officers actually involved in the shooting will be relieved of all duties upon the arrival of other police units and they will not be assigned any tasks pertaining to the preliminary or latent investigation of the incident. A. True B. False |
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SOP 306. Where will a log be maintained of all personnel who enter the perimeter of the shooting scene?
A. The check-out post B. The perimeter post C. The log-in post D. The check-in post |
Answer:
D. The check-in post |
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SOP 306. Upon arrival at a police shooting who is responsible to set up the perimeter, secure witnesses, and secure the scene?
A. Shift Commander B. Homicide Division C. Homicide Division/Internal affairs Bureau D. Uniform Officers |
Answer:
D. Uniform Officers |
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SOP 306. At the scene of a police shooting who will assume responsibility for the overall investigation?
A. Internal Affairs Captain B. Division Commander where the offence took place C. Criminal Investigations Division Commander D. Criminal Investigations Division Captain |
Answer:
D. Criminal Investigations Division Captain |
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SOP 306. Who will assume responsibility for the administrative portion of the investigation?
A. Internal Affairs Captain B. Division Commander where the offence took place C. Criminal Investigations Division Commander D. Criminal Investigations Division Captain |
Answer:
A. Internal Affairs Captain |
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SOP 306. Upon request, the affected personnel will surrender any weapons fired in this incident to whom?
A. Internal Affairs Captain B. Division Commander where the offence took place C. Criminal Investigations Division Commander D. The investigating bureau personnel |
Answer:
D. The investigating bureau personnel |
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SOP 306. At the completion of a shoot team investigation who submits all material relevant to the investigation to the SAO, for determination and compliance of law?
A. Major Bureau Crimes Commander B. Homicide Sergeant C. Division Commander D. Assigned Investigative Detective |
Answer:
B. Homicide Sergeant |
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SOP 306. The ____ will report to the scene after ensuring that the ____ and sufficient detectives have been notified and are en route to the scen
E. A. Internal Affairs Captain / Homicide sergeant B. Division Commander where the offence took place / Criminal Investigations Division captain C. Criminal Investigations Division Commander / Homicide sergeant D. Criminal Investigations Division captain / Homicide sergeant |
Answer:
D. Criminal Investigations Division captain / Homicide sergeant |
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SOP 306. The weapon of the affected personnel will not be surrendered until a replacement firearm is provided unless what?
A. the officer is being detained or is deemed unfit to have a weapon as a result of this incident B. the officer is being arrested or is deemed unfit to have a weapon as a result of this incident C. the officer is being suspended or is deemed unfit to have a weapon as a result of this incident D. the officer is being relieved of duty or is deemed unfit to have a weapon as a result of this incident |
Answer:
B. the officer is being arrested or is deemed unfit to have a weapon as a result of this incident |
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SOP 306. In cases where the Internal Affairs Bureau assumes responsibility for the investigation, the weapon will be surrendered to ____.
A. The assigned investigator B. Major Bureau Crimes Commander C. Homicide Sergeant D. Division Commander |
Answer:
A. The assigned investigator |
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SOP 306. The officer will return to ____ as soon as practica
L. A. Their assigned District B. The Homicide Bureau C. The Internal Affairs Bureau D. Headquarters |
Answer:
D. Headquarters |
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SOP 306. During the investigation of an incident where a police officer has discharged his or her firearm and the officer is suspected of committing a criminal violation, the officer will be advised of ____ prior to any questionin
G. A. his or her Garrity rights B. his or her PBA rights C. his or her constitutional rights (Miranda warnings) D. his or her Civil Service rights |
Answer:
C. his or her constitutional rights (Miranda warnings) |
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SOP 306. True or False: In the event the discharge of a firearm occurred outside the city, a shift commander will ensure that the agency having jurisdiction has been notified as well as the Criminal Investigations Division, Internal Affairs Bureau captains and others as previously outline
D. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 306. The administrative investigation conducted by the Internal Affairs Bureau, which incorporates the shooting team investigation, will be submitted though the subject officer’s chain of command to the ____, for determination of compliance with department policy.
A. Chief of police B. Major Bureau Crimes Commander C. Homicide Sergeant D. Division Commander |
Answer:
A. Chief of police |
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SOP 306. In the event of an obvious accidental discharge of a firearm with no injuries who shall be dispatched to the scene to evaluate the incident and initiate appropriate actio
N. A. the officer’s immediate supervisor B. Major Crimes Bureau Captain C. Shift Commander for the Division the officer is assigned D. Internal Affairs investigator |
Answer:
A. the officer’s immediate supervisor |
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SOP 306. In the event of an obvious unintentional discharge of a firearm with no injuries, the ____ will be immediately notified to conduct an on-scene investigation, as well as others noted in paragraph 2C, as necessary.
A. Internal Affairs Bureau captain B. The assigned investigator C. Major Bureau Crimes Commander D. Homicide Sergeant |
Answer:
A. Internal Affairs Bureau captain |
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SOP 306. In the event an officer discharges his or her firearm to kill a dangerous or badly injured animal, the ____ will be immediately notified to conduct an on-scene investigation, as well as others noted in paragraph C, as necessary.
A. Internal Affairs Bureau captain B. The assigned investigator C. Major Bureau Crimes Commander D. Homicide Sergeant |
Answer:
A. Internal Affairs Bureau captain |
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SOP 307. The act of taking custody of another, under legal authority, for the purpose of holding or detaining to answer a criminal charge defines what action?
A. An Arrest B. A Detention C. A Seizure D. An Indictment |
Answer:
A. An Arrest |
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SOP 307. A law enforcement officer may arrest a person without a warrant when, ___. Which Crime Fits?
A. Loitering and Prowling B. Carrying a Concealed Weapon C. Possession of Marijuana under 20 grams D. All of the Above |
Answer:
D. All of the Above |
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SOP 307. True or False: Entry into private structures of persons not named in the warrant is not permitted solely on the basis of the arrest warrant.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307. A positive response to a computer inquiry as to whether a person is wanted by any agency is called a ____.
A. Hit B. Confirmation C. Notification D. Teletype |
Answer:
A. Hit |
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SOP 307. That knowledge or information acquired by a law enforcement officer which would lead a reasonable and prudent person to believe that a crime has been, is being, or is about to be committed and that the person to be arrested, committed, is committing, or attempting to commit the crim
E. A. Reasonable Suspicion B. Probable Cause C. Beyond a Reasonable Doubt D. Circumstantial Evidence |
Answer:
B. Probable Cause |
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SOP 307. Probable Cause Pick-up: An order, request, or communication authorizing an arrest on the basis of what two documents?
A. A Criminal Report Affidavit filed with the Office of the Public Defender and recorded by the Clerk of the Circuit Court with a capias pending number / or A Criminal Report Affidavit completed by a Tampa Police Department Officer and held in the Tampa Police “Capias Pending” fil E. B. A Criminal Report Affidavit filed with the Office of the State Attorney and recorded by the Clerk of the Circuit Court with a capias pending number / or A Criminal Report Affidavit completed by a Hillsborough County Sheriffs Office Deputy and held in the Tampa Police “Capias Pending” fil E. C. A Criminal Report Affidavit filed with the Office of the State Attorney and recorded by the Clerk of the Circuit Court with a capias pending number / or A Criminal Report Affidavit completed by a Tampa Police Department Officer and held in the Tampa Police “Capias Pending” fil E. D. A Criminal Report Affidavit filed with the Office of the State Attorney and recorded by a Judge with a capias pending number / or A Criminal Report Affidavit completed by a Tampa Police Department Officer and held in the Tampa Police “Capias Pending” fil E. |
Answer:
C. A Criminal Report Affidavit filed with the Office of the State Attorney and recorded by the Clerk of the Circuit Court with a capias pending number / or A Criminal Report Affidavit completed by a Tampa Police Department Officer and held in the Tampa Police “Capias Pending” fil E. |
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SOP 307. To execute an arrest, an officer must cause the person to be arrested to be informed of what all of the following details, except ____.
A. the fact of arrest B. the officer’s authority C. the severity of the offense (in other words misdemeanor or felony) D. the reason for the arrest |
Answer:
C. the severity of the offense (in other words misdemeanor or felony) |
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SOP 307. True or False: The touching of the person is necessary to complete the arrest.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False It is not necessary |
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SOP 307. A police officer usually causes the arrested person to be informed of the officer’s authority by the display of ____ and ____.
A. the gun and badge B. the police I. D. card and badge C. the uniform and affidavit D. the uniform and badge |
Answer:
D. the uniform and badge |
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SOP 307. True or False: Officers not in uniform should display their badge and identification card indicting their authority as well as announcing their authority as soon as practicabl
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307. Notice for the cause of the arrest need not ordinarily be given until ____.
A. before custody has been taken B. after custody has been taken C. after Miranda warnings are given D. after transport to booking |
Answer:
B. after custody has been taken |
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SOP 307. As soon as practicable after taking custody, the arresting officer should inform the arrestee of ____.
A. the severity (in misdemeanor or felony) of the offense for which the arrest was made B. the statute number of the offense for which the arrest was made C. the offense for which the arrest was made D. the facts of the investigation into the offense for which the arrest was made |
Answer:
C. the offense for which the arrest was made |
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SOP 307. An order issued by the court authorizing that a child be taken into custody and be delivered either directly to the court or to a detention facility is known as what?
A. A Juvenile Administrative Pick-up Order: B. An Adult Administrative Pick-up Order: C. A Juvenile Capias D. A Juvenile Arrest Warrant |
Answer:
A. A Juvenile Administrative Pick-up Order: |
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SOP 307. How is an Arrest Capias defined?
A. An order of arrest signed by the Judge upon the order of a Clerk of the Circuit Court or after the State Attorney’s Office has filed the caus E. B. An order of arrest signed by the Clerk of the Circuit Court upon the order of a judge or after the Public Defender’s Office has filed the caus E. C. An order of arrest signed by the Clerk of the Circuit Court upon the order of a judge or after the State Attorney’s Office has filed the caus E. D. An order of arrest signed by the Clerk of the Circuit Court upon the order of a judge or after a private attorney has filed the caus E. |
Answer:
C. An order of arrest signed by the Clerk of the Circuit Court upon the order of a judge or after the State Attorney’s Office has filed the caus E. |
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SOP 307. True or False: A capias is treated in the same manner as an arrest warrant.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307. How is an Arrest Warrant defined?
A. An order of arrest signed by a clerk B. An order of arrest signed by a judge C. An order of arrest signed by a public defender D. An order of arrest signed by an Assistant State Attorney |
Answer:
B. An order of arrest signed by a judge |
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SOP 307. How is a fugitive defined?
A. Any person charged in another state with treason, a felony, or another crime who has fled from justice and is found in this stat E. B. Any person charged in this state with treason, a felony, or another crime who has fled from justice and is found in this stat E. C. Any person charged in another state with treason, a felony, or another crime who has fled from justice and is found in another stat E. D. Any person charged in this state with treason, a felony, or another crime who has fled from justice and is found in another stat E. |
Answer:
A. Any person charged in another state with treason, a felony, or another crime who has fled from justice and is found in this stat E. |
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SOP 307. TRUE OR FALSE – Officers may arrest individuals charged with criminal mischief or a graffiti-related offense when the offense is not committed in their presenc
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307. TRUE OR FALSE – Officers may arrest individuals for all misdemeanors not committed in their presenc
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 307. Delay in giving prompt notice of cause for arrest is permitted when what circumstance is present?
A. when the officer reasonably believes that giving such notice would be inconvenient B. when the officer reasonably believes that giving such notice would expose the department to civil liability C. when the officer reasonably believes that giving such notice would delay the booking process D. when the officer reasonably believes that giving such notice would be dangerous or would imperil the making of the arrest |
Answer:
D. when the officer reasonably believes that giving such notice would be dangerous or would imperil the making of the arrest |
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SOP 307. Arrests will only be made by ____ to include ____.
A. sworn law enforcement personnel / CSOs B. sworn law enforcement personnel / reserve officers C. sworn law enforcement personnel / Civilian Ride-alongs D. sworn law enforcement personnel / former police officers no longer employed |
Answer:
B. sworn law enforcement personnel / reserve officers |
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SOP 307. Presently in effect, TPD has an interlocal agreement with HCSO that permits TPD officers to make arrests within Hillsborough County when investigating crimes which ____.
A. occurred within Tampa City limits B. occurred within Hillsborough County limits C. occurred within State of Florida limits D. occurred within the tri-county area |
Answer:
A. occurred within Tampa City limits |
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SOP 307. True or False: Officers in fresh pursuit of a person reasonably suspected to have committed a felony, misdemeanor, a violation of FLORIDA STATUTE Chapter 316, or a city ordinance, do not have statutory authority to arrest such person outside the city limits.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False, they do under Florida Statute 901.25 |
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SOP 307. If an arrest is made in this state by an officer outside the county within which his jurisdiction lies, he shall immediately notify ____.
A. the judge in charge of the jurisdiction in which the arrest is made B. the officer in charge of the jurisdiction in which the arrest is made C. the state attorney in charge of the jurisdiction in which the arrest is made D. the public defender in charge of the jurisdiction in which the arrest is made |
Answer:
B. the officer in charge of the jurisdiction in which the arrest is made |
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SOP 307. Such officer shall, along with the officer making the arrest, take the person so arrested before a county court judge or other committing magistrate of ____ without unnecessary delay.
A. the county in which the offense occurred B. the city in which the arrest was made C. the county in which the arrest was made D. the city in which the offense occurred |
Answer:
C. the county in which the arrest was made |
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SOP 307. Most of MacDill Air Force Base is not within Tampa City limits and upon that portion of the base, ____ has exclusive jurisdictio
N. A. military police B. the Tampa Police C. the Hillsborough County Sheriff’s Office D. the FBI |
Answer:
A. military police |
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SOP 307. A substantial area south of the northern perimeter fence line of MacDill Air Force Base, including all of ____, lies within the city limits of Tamp
A. Tampa Police have concurrent jurisdiction on this portion of the base A. the MacDill Avenue Guard House B. the Dale Mabry Commissary C. the Dale Mabry and Interbay intersection D. the Dale Mabry Guard House |
Answer:
D. the Dale Mabry Guard House |
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SOP 307. Tampa officers have jurisdiction to arrest persons detained by military police at or near the ____.
A. the MacDill Avenue Guard House B. the Dale Mabry Commissary C. the Dale Mabry and Interbay intersection D. the Dale Mabry Guard House |
Answer:
D. the Dale Mabry Guard House |
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SOP 307. An officer involved in fresh pursuit must either ____ and solicit the assistance of the Air Force Police in gaining custody of the suspect or have a TPD dispatcher contact the base by telephone and inform the base of the pursuit and seek approval for continuation onto the bas
E. A. stop at the entrance gate B. proceed through the entrance gate C. divert around the entrance gate D. leave an officer at the entrance gate |
Answer:
A. stop at the entrance gate |
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SOP 307. MacDill now has the ability to monitor our operational talk groups and should be contacted via ____ if possible – not telephone because this form of conversation is recorded and attached with the in-progress request.
A. radio B. teletype C. e-mail D. courier |
Answer:
A. Radio |
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SOP 307. Pursuant to FLORIDA STATUTE §901.15(1991), a law enforcement officer may arrest a person without a warrant under which of the following circumstances?
A. The officer has probable cause to believe the person committed a felony. B. A criminal violation of Chapter 316 has been committed by the person in the presence of the officer. C. The officer has knowledge of a valid arrest warrant issued for the person although the warrant is held by another officer or agency. D. All of the above |
Answer:
D. All of the above |
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SOP 307. An officer may make a warrantless arrest for all of the following Misdemeanor offenses, except ____.
A. Carrying Concealed Weapon B. Loitering or prowling C. Theft from a public lodging or food service establishment D. Possession of marijuana under 20 grams E. Retail or farm theft F. Criminal offenses connected with a traffic accident after investigation at the scene G. Willful violation of an injunction H. petit theft I. Domestic Violence or Dating Violence Offenses or Child Abuse J. Trespass on school grounds K. Disorderly conduct on the premises of a public lodging or food service establishment when the conduct creates a threat to the life or safety of the person or others L. Any battery upon another person M. Stalking N. Violation of a safety zone, security zone, regulated navigation area, or naval vessel protection zone O. An act of criminal mischief or a graffiti-related offense P. Violation of a safety zone, security zone, regulated navigation area, or naval vessel protection zon E. |
Answer:
H. petit theft |
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SOP 307. Officers may not arrest for other misdemeanors not occurring in the officer’s presence without a warrant. Such misdemeanors should be submitted to the State Attorney for issuance of an arrest warrant by means of a ____ or, in the case of juveniles, a ____.
A. misdemeanor complaint / request for prosecution / B. request for prosecution / misdemeanor warrant C. request for prosecution / misdemeanor complaint D. request for pick-up / misdemeanor complaint |
Answer:
C. request for prosecution / misdemeanor complaint |
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SOP 307. True or False: Possession of a firearm or ammunition except an on-duty law enforcement officer is an applicable probable cause misdemeanor arrest under violation of an injunctio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307. Privilege from arrest means that one who has such a privilege may have the arrest ____.
A. cancelled B. immediately conducted C. set aside D. forgiven |
Answer:
C. set aside |
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SOP 307. The privilege does not prevent an officer from making an arrest, which is otherwise lega
L. The arrest remains valid until such time as it is ____. A. cancelled B. forgiven C. conducted D. voided |
Answer:
D. voided |
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SOP 307. Privilege from arrest cannot be claimed when the offense involves all of the following offenses, except ____.
A. treason B. a misdemeanor C. a felony D. a breach of peace |
Answer:
B. a misdemeanor |
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SOP 307. All inquiries regarding the extradition of a fugitive from the department’s jurisdiction from out-of-state agencies will be referred to the ____.
A. Warrant Section of the State Attorney’s Office B. Warrant Section of the Hillsborough County Sheriff’s Office C. Warrant Section of the Public Defender’s Office D. Warrant Section of the Tampa Police Department |
Answer:
B. Warrant Section of the Hillsborough County Sheriff’s Office |
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SOP 307. To whom does privilege from arrest extend?
A. Members of the US Senate and House of Representatives during their attendance at Legislative sessions and while traveling to and from them, Members of the Florida State Legislature at all times B. Members of the US Senate and House of Representatives at all time, Members of the Florida State Legislature during their attendance at Legislative sessions and while traveling to and from them C. Members of the US Senate and House of Representatives at during their attendance at Legislative sessions and while traveling to and from them, Members of the Florida State Legislature during their attendance at Legislative sessions and while traveling to and from them D. Members of the Florida Senate and House of Representatives at all time, Members of the Florida State Legislature during their attendance at Legislative sessions and while traveling to and from them |
Answer:
B. Members of the US Senate and House of Representatives at all time, Members of the Florida State Legislature during their attendance at Legislative sessions and while traveling to and from them |
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SOP 307. _____________________: A means used to refer misdemeanor law violations committed by an adult defendant to the State Attorney’s Office for prosecutio
N. In these cases neither a physical arrest nor the issuance of a notice to appear is affecte D. A. Notice-to-Appear: B. Probable Cause Pick-up: C. Request for Prosecution: D. Misdemeanor Complaint: |
Answer:
C. Request for Prosecution: |
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SOP 307. To execute an arrest, an officer must cause the person to be arrested to beinformed of the fact of arrest, of the officer’s authority, and of the reason forthe arrest. The touching of the person is necessary to complete the arrest.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 307. Tampa Police Officers do not have the authority to investigate any offense which occurs on MacDill Air Force bas
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307. Privilege from arrest extends to members of the US Senate and Florida State Legislature at all times and to members of the House of Representatives during their attendance at Legislative sessions and while traveling to and from them
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 307. A means to refer a juvenile to the Department of Juvenile Justice when there is sufficient probable cause to support a misdemeanor law violation and the officer elects not to effect the arrest.
A. Probable Cause Arrest B. Notice to Appear C. Request for Prosecution D. Misdemeanor Complaint |
Answer:
D. Misdemeanor Complaint |
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SOP 307.1. Foreign nationals are afforded the same rights under the United States Constitution as are afforded US citizens.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.1. Because of treaty arrangements, special treatment is given to foreign nationals regarding the notification of their ____ and ____ when one is arrested or detained for any reaso
N. A. embassies or attaches B. attaches or consulates C. embassies and consulates D. consulates or bases |
Answer:
C. embassies and consulates |
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SOP 307.1. Inquiry should promptly be made to ____ in any case where an individual claims immunity and cannot present satisfactory identification or in any case where the officer has reason to believe that invalid identification is being presente
D. A. The Department of State B. The Department of Government Affairs C. The Foreign Consulate Office D. The Department of the Interior |
Answer:
A. The Department of State |
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SOP 307.1. According to FLORIDA STATUTE §901.26, whenever a citizen of any nation to which the US extends diplomatic recognition is arrested or detained for any reason, the __________________shall immediately notify the nearest consul or other officer of the nation concerned or, if unknown, the Embassy in Washington,
D. C., of the nation concerne D. A. officer who makes the arrest or detention B. affected supervisor C. affected shift commander D. communication’s supervisor |
Answer:
A. officer who makes the arrest or detention |
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SOP 307.1. Foreign Consular Officers have a treaty right to visit their arrested/detained countrymen unless the arrestee/detainee objects to these visits.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.1. Diplomatic Inquiries: After normal business hours, all inquiries should be made to which of the following?
A. Command center of the Bureau of Diplomatic Security, Department of State B. US Department of State, Operations Center C. Foreign Embassy Desk, US Department of State D. A and B E. A and C |
Answer:
D. A and B |
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SOP 307.1. The ____ has been supplied with a list of embassies and their telephone numbers.
A. Communications Section supervisor B. Shift Commander of each district C. Division Commander of each district D. Criminal Intelligence Bureau |
Answer:
A. Communications Section supervisor |
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SOP 307.1. An attempt should be made to contact someone using the Communications Section’s numbers first. If no one can be contacted at an embassy of the numbers listed, which of the following resources should be contacted?
A. During normal business hours, call the Diplomatic Security Office, after normal business hours, call the Assistant to the Legal Advisor for Consular Affairs B. During normal business hours, call the Legal Advisor for Consular Affairs, after normal business hours, call the Embassy Security Office C. During normal business hours, call the Assistant to the Legal Advisor for Consular Affairs, after normal business hours, call the Diplomatic Security Office D. During normal business hours, call the Assistant to the Legal Advisor for Embassy Affairs, after normal business hours, call the Diplomatic Security Attache |
Answer:
C. During normal business hours, call the Assistant to the Legal Advisor for Consular Affairs, after normal business hours, call the Diplomatic Security Office |
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SOP 307.2. In cases where the criminal report affidavit also serves as the Tampa Police Department report, where is the grid number located on the affidavit?
A. The bottom right corner of the affidavit B. The upper left corner of the affidavit C. The upper right corner of the affidavit D. The bottom left corner of the affidavit |
Answer:
C. The upper right corner of the affidavit |
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SOP 307.2. What is the time frame for submitting a request for prosecution to the State Attorney’s Office?
A. Between 10 and 21 days B. Between 10 and 30 days C. Between 5 and 21 days D. Between 30 and 60 days |
Answer:
A. Between 10 and 21 days |
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SOP 307.2. According to FLORIDA STATUTE 230.335, law enforcement is required to report within how many hours, the name and address of any school employee arrested on a felony charge to the appropriate school superintendent?
A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours |
Answer:
C. 48 hours |
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SOP 307.2. How will an officer comply with the 48 hour notification and how will their supervisor ensure this?
A. 1. The officer will note the school district’s superintendent on the report, 2. The editing supervisor shall route a copy of the report to the appropriate superintendent of schools by making a notation in the forwarding section of the incident report B. 1. The officer will note the school district’s location on the report, 2. The editing supervisor shall route a copy of the report to the appropriate superintendent of schools by making a notation in the “copies” section of the incident report C. 1. The sergeant will note the school district’s location on the report, 2. The sergeant shall also route a copy of the report to the appropriate superintendent of schools by making a notation in the “copies” section of the incident report D. 1. The officer will note the school district’s location on the report, 2. The editing supervisor shall route a copy of the report to the appropriate school district by making a notation in the “copies” section of the incident report |
Answer:
B. 1. The officer will note the school district’s location on the report, 2. The editing supervisor shall route a copy of the report to the appropriate superintendent of schools by making a notation in the “copies” section of the incident report |
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SOP 307.2. True or False: In cases where probable cause exists without immediate victim identification of a suspect, officers may attempt street identificatio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False They will not. |
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SOP 307.2. In cases where probable cause depends upon the victim identification, and there is a reasonable amount of time between the crime and the apprehension (within ____ hours normally), officers will attempt to take the victim to the suspect’s locatio
N. If this is impractical, the suspect may be taken to the scene of the crime but only with ____. A. 1 / the suspect’s permission B. 2 / the suspect’s permission C. 4 / the immediate supervisor’s permission D. 4 / the suspect’s permission |
Answer:
D. Four / the suspect’s permission |
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SOP 307.2. While engaged in attempting to identify and properly charge criminal suspects, officers must pursue with equal vigor leads and information which tend to establish a suspect’s ____.
A. Innocence B. Guilt C. Motives D. Associates |
Answer:
A. Innocence |
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SOP 307.2. If, during the course of the investigation, an officer discovers evidence which shows there is no longer probable cause to believe a suspect committed a crime, the officer will release the person and transport him ____.
A. to central booking B. to his place of residence C. back to the original point of detention D. to a location of his or her choosing |
Answer:
C. back to the original point of detention |
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SOP 307.2. Authority is granted under FLORIDA STATUTE §901.151 to stop and detain a person if an officer has ______________ that the person has committed, is committing, or is about to commit a crim
E. A. probable cause B. reasonable suspicion C. suspicion D. knowledge |
Answer:
B. reasonable suspicion |
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SOP 307.2. If the officer reasonably believes the detained individual may be armed with a dangerous weapon, the individual may be searched (pat down) only to the extent necessary to ____.
A. disclose the presence of any and all contraband B. disclose the presence of such weapon C. disclose the presence of suspicious substances D. disclose the presence of evidence particular to the crime being investigated |
Answer:
B. disclose the presence of such weapon |
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SOP 307.2. True or False: Any weapon located during a pat down may be seized, but may not be the sole basis of an arrest.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False It can be the sole basis. |
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SOP 307.2. True or False: If the officer retrieves from the suspect something which felt like it might be a weapon but instead is actually evidence of a crime (in other words, a crack pip
E. the item may be seized, but may not be the basis of criminal prosecutio N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False It may be the basis for prosecutio N. |
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SOP 307.2. True or False: If during the frisk for weapons the officer feels something which he immediately knows is evidence of a crime or illegal to possess (in other words rock cocaine) but is not a weapon, the item may be seized and may be the basis of a criminal prosecutio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.2. As a general rule, the arresting officer should avoid confining an arrested subject in a police vehicle for ____.
A. an unreasonable period of time B. one hour C. two hours D. three hours |
Answer:
A. an unreasonable period of time |
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SOP 307.2. Every effort will be made to release a person arrested for ____ or____ on his own recognizanc
E. A. a felony law violation or a violation of a misdemeanor B. a property crimes law violation or a violation of a city ordinance C. a violent crimes law violation or a violation of a city ordinance D. a misdemeanor law violation or a violation of a city ordinance |
Answer:
D. a misdemeanor law violation or a violation of a city ordinance |
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SOP 307.2. During the investigation of a misdemeanor law violation or a violation of a city ordinance, physical arrest may be made if at least one of all of the following criteria is met, with the exception of ____.
A. The accused fails or refuses to sufficiently identify himself or supply the required information B. The accused refuses to sign the notice-to-appear C. The officer has reason to believe that the continued liberty of the accused constitutes an unreasonable risk of bodily injury to himself or others, in other words, misdemeanors involving violence or threats of violence where the officer believes the crime will continue or become more serious if the defendant is not removed from the scene D. The accused has no ties to Hillsborough County (in other words, residences, employment) to assure his appearance in court E. The officer has a suspicion the accused may be wanted in any jurisdiction F. It appears that the accused has previously failed to respond to a notice or summons or has violated the conditions of any pretrial release program G. The accused can contact a subject who can attest to his or her local residency H. The arrest is for a prostitution-related offense I. The arrest is for DUI J. The accused indicates an intention to continue the activity, which resulted in the arrest K. Other circumstances exist which, in the opinion of the arresting officer and his supervisor would make a release on recognizance inappropriat E. |
Answer:
G. The accused can contact a subject who can attest to his or her local residency |
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SOP 307.2. The physical arrest of a person charged with a misdemeanor law violation or a violation of a city ordinance may be approved by any of the following, except ____.
A. a sergeant B. a corporal/detective acting in the capacity of a sergeant C. a higher authority D. an officer acting in the capacity of a corporal or higher |
Answer:
D. an officer acting in the capacity of a corporal or higher |
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SOP 307.2. In those cases where a defendant is to be released on his own recognizance, the officer will obtain the defendant’s ____ prior to his releas
E. A. left thumbprint B. right thumbprint C. right index finger D. left index finger |
Answer:
B. right thumbprint |
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SOP 307.2. On a criminal report affidavit, the thumbprint will be placed on the back of the ____ copy (Clerk of the Court) of the affidavit in the appropriate bloc
K. A. white B. yellow C. blue D. pink |
Answer:
A. white |
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SOP 307.2. If for some reason the right thumbprint cannot be obtained, the officer will print another finger and ____.
A. note the time of the lifted print B. note the date of the lifted print C. identify the print taken D. describe the reason for the discrepancy |
Answer:
C. identify the print taken |
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SOP 307.2. In any case where an offense is prohibited by both Florida statue and City ordinance the arresting officer shall charge the defendant under ____, with the exception of _____ that that provide for mandatory imprisonment or fin
E. A. State Statue / Ordinances B. State Statue / State Statues C. Ordinances / State Statues D. Ordinances / Ordinances |
Answer:
A. State Statue / Ordinances |
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SOP 307.2. In physical arrest cases, the affidavit shall be signed in the space designated for a notary by the approving supervisor to indicate approval of the incarceratio
N. The approving supervisor will be anyone with the rank of a ____ or above, or ____. A. sergeant or above, or person designated as acting sergeant B. corporal or above, or person designated as acting corporal C. lieutenant or above, or person designated as acting lieutenant D. captain or above, or person designated as acting captain |
Answer:
A. sergeant or above, or person designated as acting sergeant |
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SOP 307.2. If an officer effects an arrest on a juvenile for an active warrant for Traffic Violation of Probation, the officer will ___. Which statement is False?
A. complete a criminal report affidavit B. A report number will be obtained as the affidavit will serve as the report. If a report is written, it will be titled "Assist Other Jurisdiction" C. the DJJ and the juveniles parents will be notified D. Juvenile transported to DCF intake |
Answer:
D. Juvenile transported to DCF intake |
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SOP 307.2. Both Felony and Misdemeanor Worthless Check cases will be referred directly to ___.
A. Economic Crimes Unit B. District Detective Division C. Major Crimes Bureau D. State Attorney's Office |
Answer:
D. State Attorney's Office |
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SOP 307.2. If the supervisor does not have a notary commission, the words ____ will appear ____ his signatur
E. A. Police Officer, below B. Law Enforcement Officer, above C. Law Enforcement Officer, below D. Sergeant or Acting Sergeant, below |
Answer:
C. Law Enforcement Officer, below |
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SOP 307.2. Officers need not originate a separate offense report when charging an individual with a misdemeanor if which of the following criteria are met?
A. The report/arrest does not meet the criteria for mandatory referral as per the Report Writing Referral Guide B. The report would have been cleared by arrest C. The report would have been exceptionally cleared D. A and B E. A and C |
Answer:
D. A and B |
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SOP 307.2. True or False: Officers will obtain a police report number for each misdemeanor arrest regardless of the completion of a separate offense report.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True The report number will be placed in the space provided on the affidavit, as the yellow copy of the criminal report affidavit will be imaged and submitted to the Records Section for filin G. |
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SOP 307.2. True or False: Having an address for the defendant is not necessary in order for a Request for Prosecution to be complete
D. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False An address for the accused is require D. |
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SOP 307.2. True or False: In domestic violence cases where an arrest cannot be made, and the officer has completed a CRA for Direct File, the case will be retained at the district leve
L. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False The report will be referre D. |
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SOP 307.2. In cases based upon a probable cause pick-up, the arresting officer will retrieve all copies of the criminal report affidavit, which were used as the basis for the pickup from the ____ located at the Communications Center (Pick-up Desk).
A. Warrant Pending File B. Capias Pending File C. CRA Pending File D. Pickup Pending File |
Answer:
B. Capias Pending File |
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SOP 307.2. An effort will be made to release persons charged with misdemeanor traffic law violations, with the exception of ____, on their own recognizanc
E. A. Reckless Driving B. Careless Driving C. DWLS D. Driving Under the Influence (DUI) |
Answer:
D. Driving Under the Influence (DUI) |
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SOP 307.2. Persons charged with DUI will be physically arreste
D. The only exception will be a person who has been ____ or as otherwise approved by a supervisor. A. killed B. previously charged C. hospitalized D. injured |
Answer:
C. hospitalized |
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SOP 307.2. True or False: When addressing a felony traffic law violation, the defendant will be given a copy of the citation packet.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False They will not b E. |
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SOP 307.2. Juveniles arrested for a felony traffic offense will be entered into the juvenile justice system by charging the child using a ____.
A. criminal report affidavit B. juvenile referral C. TRIP report D. JAC referral |
Answer:
A. criminal report affidavit |
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SOP 307.2. Juveniles charged with a felony traffic offense will also be issued a traffic citation for the offens
E. The citation will be attached to the criminal report affidavit and routed to the ____ located in each district for delivery to the ____. A copy of the citation will follow normal routing and will be listed on the transmittal for M. A. adult affidavit basket / SAO B. juvenile affidavit basket / SAO C. juvenile affidavit basket / Public Defender D. SAO basket / SAO |
Answer:
B. juvenile affidavit basket / SAO |
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SOP 307.2. If an officer effects an arrest on a juvenile for an active warrant for a “Traffic” Violation of Probation, a ____ will be complete
D. A. adult citation B. juvenile citation C. criminal report affidavit D. adjudication report |
Answer:
C. criminal report affidavit |
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SOP 307.2. If an officer effects an arrest on a juvenile for an active warrant for a “Traffic” Violation of Probation, the ____ as well as the ____, will be notified of the arrest.
A. Department of Corrections (DOC) / juvenile’s parents or legal guardian B. Public Defender’s Office / juvenile’s parents or legal guardian C. State Attorney’s Office / juvenile’s parents or legal guardian D. Department of Juvenile Justice (DJJ) / juvenile’s parents or legal guardian |
Answer:
D. Department of Juvenile Justice (DJJ) / juvenile’s parents or legal guardian |
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SOP 307.2. If an officer effects an arrest on a juvenile for an active warrant for a “Traffic” Violation of Probation, the juvenile will be transported to ____.
A. Central Booking B. JAC C. W.T. Edwards D. Detention West |
Answer:
A. Central Booking |
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SOP 307.2. If an officer effects an arrest on a juvenile for an active warrant for a “Traffic” Violation of Probation, a report number will be obtained and titled ____.
A. Juvenile Criminal Traffic B. Traffic Warrant C. Juvenile Warrant - Referral D. Assist Other Jurisdiction |
Answer:
D. Assist Other Jurisdiction |
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SOP 307.2. During an adult misdemeanor arrest, the affidavit will accompany the defendant to jail and the ____ copy of the affidavit will be filed in the Records Sectio
N. A. white B. pink C. blue D. canary |
Answer:
D. Canary |
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SOP 307.2. During an adult misdemeanor arrest, the reverse side of the ____ copy will be completed prior to releasing the defendant to Central Bookin
G. A. pink (booking) copy B. yellow copy C. blue copy D. goldenrod copy |
Answer:
A. pink (booking) copy |
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SOP 307.2. During an adult Notice-to-Appear, the affidavit, excluding the ____ copy, will be placed in the appropriate division basket and routed to the ____.
A. Goldenrod Copy / Hillsborough County Court House B. Canary Copy / Clerk of the Circuit Court C. Canary Copy / Clerk of the County Court D. White Copy / Hillsborough County Sheriff Office |
Answer:
B. Canary Copy / Clerk of the Circuit Court |
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SOP 307.2. During an adult Notice-to-Appear, the canary copy will be routed to ____ for filin
G. A. The SAO B. The office of the Public Defender C. the Records Section D. The office of the Clerk of the Court |
Answer:
C. the Records Section |
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SOP 307.2. During an adult Notice-to-Appear, the pink copy will be retained by the appropriate division from which it will be forwarded to the ____.
A. Hillsborough County Sheriff’s Office Warrant Section B. Hillsborough County Sheriff’s Office Jail Division C. Hillsborough County Sheriff’s Office Identification Division D. Hillsborough County Sheriff’s Office Court Clerk Division |
Answer:
C. Hillsborough County Sheriff’s Office Identification Division |
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SOP 307.2. During an adult Felony arrest, all copies of the criminal report affidavit, minus the ____ copy, will accompany the arrested subject to the Hillsborough County Central Bookin
G. A. canary B. goldenrod C. blue D. pink |
Answer:
A. Canary |
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SOP 307.2. During an adult Felony arrest, the ____ copy will be routed to the Records Section for filin
G. A. canary B. goldenrod C. blue D. pink |
Answer:
A. Canary |
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SOP 307.2. During a Juvenile arrest, the white (court) copy and the green (SAO) copy will be routed to the ____.
A. FDLE Lab B. Records Section C. SAO Office D. Forensic Investigations Unit |
Answer:
D. Forensic Investigations Unit |
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SOP 307.2. During a Juvenile arrest, the ____ copy will be routed to the Records Section for filin
G. A. canary B. goldenrod C. blue D. pink |
Answer:
A. canary |
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SOP 307.2. During a Juvenile arrest, when the juvenile is detained by The Department of Juvenile Justice (DJJ), the ____ copy will serve as the copy for the Juvenile Assessment Center (JAC) and the ____ copy may be destroye
D. A. canary / goldenrod B. goldenrod / blue C. blue / pink D. pink / goldenrod |
Answer:
D. Pink copy / goldenrod copy |
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SOP 307.2. The JAC generates a daily report of the arrests. The report is given to the superintendent via the ____ at the Hillsborough County School Boar
D. A. SRO supervisor B. Chief of Security office C. SRO officer D. Administrative Assistant |
Answer:
B. Chief of Security office |
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SOP 307.2. If a person refused to sign a non-criminal infraction citation what action will the officer tak
E. A. Issue another citation for refusal to sign and release the defendant on a Notice to appear B. Get a supervisor to intervene C. Place violator under arrest, issue an additional citation for refusal to sign and take to booking D. Complete a direct file affidavit and send it to the State Attorney’s Office for prosecution |
Answer:
C. Place violator under arrest, issue an additional citation for refusal to sign and take to booking |
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SOP 307.2. In felony traffic law violations a citation and a criminal report affidavit will be complete
D. The defendant will be given the yellow copy of the citatio N. A. true B. false |
Answer:
B. false |
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SOP 307.2. In cases where the defendant is released on his own recognizance (notice to appear), the affidavit will be placed in the appropriate division basket and routed to the ____, excluding the canary copy.
A. records section B. Clerk of the Circuit Court C. Clerk of the County Court D. Detective Division |
Answer:
B. Clerk of the Circuit Court |
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SOP 307.2. According to FLORIDA STATUTE §230.335, law enforcement is required to report, within ___ hours, the name and address of any school employee arrested on a felony charge to the appropriate _______________________.
A. 24 / assistant school superintendent B. 48 / assistant school superintendent C. 24 / school superintendent D. 48 / school superintendent |
Answer:
D. 48 / school superintendent |
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SOP 307.2. For which criminal charge(s) must this notification be made?
A. Felony charges or misdemeanor charges involving child abuse or criminal mischief B. Felony charges or misdemeanor charges involving child abuse or child neglect C. Felony charges or misdemeanor charges involving child abuse or drug possession D. Felony charges or misdemeanor charges involving domestic violence or drug possession |
Answer:
C. Felony charges or misdemeanor charges involving child abuse or drug possession |
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SOP 307.2. Felony probable cause arrest cases / active in-house pick-up / no warrant or capias issued: (which of the following is incorrect)?
A. Obtain the criminal report affidavit from the Records Section, canceling the pick-up with the pick-up desk cler K. B. The arresting officer shall complete a new criminal report affidavit and all copies for each charging officer. C. The arresting officer shall place a (X) in the block marked “probable cause”, in the type of arrest are A. D. all the above are correct |
Answer:
D. all the above are correct |
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SOP 307.3. An officer may enter a suspect’s dwelling for the purpose of effecting a lawful arrest under certain circumstances when the officer ____ the person to be arrested is within the dwellin
G. A. thinks B. assumes C. reasonably believes D. is mostly sure |
Answer:
C. reasonably believes |
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SOP 307.3. The anticipated arrest is based upon probable cause developed or obtained as a result of a recent ____ and the circumstances of the crime or character of the suspect make it impractical to first obtain an arrest warrant (such as, an on-scene investigation has revealed that a felony law violation has just occurred, and the suspect has fled into his dwelling). Entry based upon the authority of this section will require _______________ approva
L. A. Felony / Shift Commander B. Felony - Supervisory C. Misdemeanor - Owners D. Felony - Search warrant |
Answer:
B. Felony - Supervisory |
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SOP 307.3. True or False: An officer may enter a suspect’s dwelling for the purpose of effecting a lawful arrest when the anticipated arrest is based upon an arrest warrant or capias.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP307.3. When may an officer not enter a suspects dwelling to effect a lawful arrest?
A. When in fresh pursuit of a person who has committed a misdemeanor offense B. To effect an arrest for a recent felony when getting a warrant is impractical (exigent circumstances) C. To affect an arrest based on an arrest warrant or capias D. To prevent or terminate the commission of a serious crime |
Answer:
A. When in fresh pursuit of a person who has committed a misdemeanor offense |
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SOP 307.3. Entry of a dwelling to effect an arrest: True or False: If entry is refused, an officer may forcibly enter the dwelling providing one or more of the aforementioned criteria are met.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.3. When may an officer not enter a suspects dwelling to effect a lawful arrest?
A. When in fresh pursuit of a person who has committed a misdemeanor offense B. To effect an arrest for a recent felony when getting a warrant is impractical (exigent circumstances) C. To affect an arrest based on an arrest warrant or capias D. To prevent or terminate the commission of a serious crime |
Answer:
A. When in fresh pursuit of a person who has committed a misdemeanor offense |
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SOP 307.3. If convicted as an Armed Career Criminal, the offender shall be sentenced to imprisonment for not less than____ years and a fine of no more than ____ with no probation or parol
E. A. 10/ $30, 000 B. 15/ $25,000 C. 20/ $25, 000 D. 25/ $30, 000 |
Answer:
B. 15/ $25,000 |
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SOP 307.3. To enter a dwelling of someone other than the person to be arrested, permission must be granted from the owner or person in charge of the residence or a search warrant must be obtained or there must be emergency circumstances.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.3. An officer may enter a suspect’s dwelling for the purpose of effecting a lawful arrest when an officer is in ____ of a person suspected of committing a ____ law violatio
N. A. delayed pursuit / felony B. fresh pursuit / misdemeanor C. fresh pursuit / felony D. delayed pursuit / misdemeanor |
Answer:
C. fresh pursuit / felony |
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SOP 307.3. An officer may enter a suspect’s dwelling for the purpose of effecting a lawful arrest when entry is necessary to prevent or terminate the commission of ____.
A. a property crime B. a crime against persons C. a misdemeanor D. a serious crime |
Answer:
D. a serious crime |
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SOP 307.3. An officer may enter a suspect’s dwelling for the purpose of effecting a lawful arrest when consent to enter is granted by ____.
A. the landlord B. a resident C. a neighbor D. an immediate family member not living within the home |
Answer:
B. a resident |
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SOP 307.3. Officers must announce all of the following things prior to entering a dwelling, except ____.
A. they must announce their authority B. they must state their purpose C. they must cite the law believed to have been broken D. they must make a demand for admission |
Answer:
C. they must cite the law believed to have been broken |
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SOP 307.3. The requirement of announcement and demand is not necessary if the officer reasonably believes any of the following circumstances is or could take place, except ____.
A. danger to life or limb B. physical impediments to entry exist C. the person to be arrested is attempting to destroy evidence D. the person to be arrested is attempting to flee |
Answer:
B. physical impediments to entry exist |
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SOP 307.3. To enter the dwelling of someone other than the person to be arrested, permission from the ____ or ____ or a search warrant (listing the person to be arrested as the object of the search must be obtained unless emergency or exigent circumstances exist. owner or person in charge of the residence
A. owner / person in charge of the residence B. the landlord / person in charge of the residence C. a resident / person in charge of the residence D. a neighbor / person in charge of the residence |
Answer:
A. owner / person in charge of the residence |
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SOP 307.3. Officers must always announce their authority, state their purpose, and make a demand for admission prior to entering a dwellin
G. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 307.4. In the case of____ the US Supreme court outlined a procedure for advising suspects of their rights granted under Constitution prior to any custodial interrogation by law enforcement officers.
A. Illinois vs Escobedo B. Miranda vs Arizona C. Gideon vs Wainwright D. Mapp vs Ohio |
Answer:
B. Miranda vs Arizona |
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SOP 307.4. True or False: An officer must advise a suspect of his or her constitutional rights prior to questioning a suspect about a crim
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.4. The Miranda advisory is specifically required in all of the following instances, except ____.
A. When a suspect is arrested (but only if you intend to question the suspect) B. When a suspect refuses to speak to police and no interview is conducted C. When questioning passes from the fact finding process to a point where the suspect is led to believe, as a reasonable person, that he has been deprived of his freedom of action, in other words, when the person believes he is not free to leave D. Anytime the subject is a suspect to a DUI offense |
Answer:
B. When a suspect refuses to speak to police and no interview is conducted |
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SOP 307.4. Except for questioning a suspect about the DUI itself, Miranda should also be given prior to any requests that are part of traditional field sobriety tests such as ____.
A. counting B. reciting the alphabet C. Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN) D. A and B E. A and C |
Answer:
D. A and B |
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SOP 307.4. True or False: Physical DUI tests can be given without Mirand
A. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.4. Miranda warnings not required during all of the following instances, except ____.
A. During the typical traffic stop B. When a person approaches an officer and states that he wishes to confess to a crime in the absence of questioning C. During a general interviewing to determine the basic facts surrounding a crime, or during other general interviewing of citizens as part of the fact-finding process D. During stop and frisk situations where there is insufficient probable cause to effect an arrest E. When an officer does not wish to question a suspect or arrestee F. When a suspect is being interviewed in relation to a criminal traffic offense |
Answer:
F. When a suspect is being interviewed in relation to a criminal traffic offense |
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SOP 307.4. When a person approaches an officer and states that he wishes to confess to a crime in the absence of questioning , once ____ has been established, warnings must be given prior to any questioning by the officer if the person is not free to leav
E. A. probable cause B. reasonable suspicion C. suspicion D. knowledge |
Answer:
A. Probable cause |
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SOP 307.4. At what point during an investigation should a person be Mirandized?
A. When the general investigation focuses on several suspects B. When the general investigation focuses on a particular suspect, but not to the extent that the suspect is not free to leave the area C. When the general investigation focuses on a particular suspect to the extent that the suspect is not free to leave the area D. When the general investigation has not yet focused on a particular suspect |
Answer:
C. When the general investigation focuses on a particular suspect to the extent that the suspect is not free to leave the area |
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SOP 307.4. What method should officers use in advising persons of their rights?
A. memory B. a copy of the Miranda v. Arizona case brief C. The sworn statement form D. something you heard once on TV |
Answer:
C. The sworn statement form |
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SOP 307.4. After advising the suspect of his or her rights, what should you be sure to ask the suspect and make note of?
A. Whether the suspect is under the influence of alcohol B. Whether the suspect is under the influence of drugs C. Whether the suspect can read or write D. Whether he or she understood his or her rights |
Answer:
D. Whether he or she understood his or her rights |
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SOP 307.4. Officers must advise a suspect of his rights prior to each ____.
A. casual conversation B. voluntary confession, absent any questioning C. transportation to booking D. custodial interrogation |
Answer:
D. custodial interrogation |
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SOP 307.4. If a suspect indicates in any manner and at any time during custodial questioning, that he wishes to consult with an attorney, the interrogation will ____.
A. continue despite the request B. cease C. take place approx. 30-45 minutes later D. resume upon the introduction of a secondary interrogator |
Answer:
B. cease |
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SOP 307.4. Once a suspect has invoked his right to have counsel present during interrogation, officers will not attempt to interrogate the suspect again unless the suspect ____.
A. himself initiates contact with police B. is facing felony charges C. is facing 1st degree misdemeanor charges D. is a suspect in a violent crime or disappearance |
Answer:
A. himself initiates contact with police |
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SOP 307.4. Whenever possible, officers should advise suspects by use of a printed form (TPD 310) and obtain the suspect’s ____ on the for
M. A. thumbprint B. signature C. DNA D. Date-of-Birth |
Answer:
B. signature |
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SOP 307.4. When not possible or practical, it is not essential that a written waiver be obtaine
D. The officer should be prepared to testify in court that the suspect ____ to questioning after being advised and that the suspect ____ his rights. A. relented / was read B. voluntarily submitted / understood C. agreed / was provided a copy of D. voluntarily submitted / was told about |
Answer:
B. voluntarily submitted / understood |
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SOP 307.4. Miranda warnings must be advised when ____.
A. When a suspect is arrested B. Anytime the subject is a suspect to a DUI offense C. When a person approaches an officer and states that he wishes to confess to a crime in the absence of questioning D. During stop and frisk situations where there is insufficient probable cause to effect an arrest |
Answer:
B. Anytime the subject is a suspect to a DUI offense |
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SOP 307.4. True or False: An officer must advise a suspect of his or her constitutional rights prior to each separate interrogatio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.5. Officers will use all available resources to ensure the ____ of any person arrested or confine
D. A. age B. sex C. mental capacity D. correct identification |
Answer:
D. correct identification |
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SOP 307.5. The decision of whether to arrest the victim of a crime on an active warrant will be made by ____.
A. a corporal or higher authority B. a sergeant or higher authority C. a shift commander or higher authority D. a captain or higher authority |
Answer:
C. a shift commander or higher authority |
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SOP 307.5. In deciding whether to arrest the victim of a crime on an active warrant, consideration will be given to the ____ balanced against ____.
A. age of the victim / the nature of the crime specified in the warrant B. degree of injury or mental trauma suffered by the victim / the date of the crime specified in the warrant C. degree of injury or mental trauma suffered by the victim / the jurisdiction of the crime specified in the warrant D. degree of injury or mental trauma suffered by the victim / the nature of the crime specified in the warrant |
Answer:
D. degree of injury or mental trauma suffered by the victim / the nature of the crime specified in the warrant |
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SOP 307.5. In deciding whether to arrest the victim of a crime on an active warrant, consideration will be given to the ____ of the warrant.
A. age B. jurisdiction C. class of the warrant (misdemeanor vs. felony) D. victim |
Answer:
A. age |
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SOP 307.5. In deciding whether to arrest the victim of a crime on an active warrant, consideration will be given to the victim’s ______.
A. family members present B. criminal history (especially prior failure to appear) C. bond amount D. crime |
Answer:
B. criminal history (especially prior failure to appear) |
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SOP 307.5. In deciding whether to arrest the victim of a crime on an active warrant, consideration will be given to the potential for ____ if the arrest is not mad
E. A. additional crime B. flight C. victim outrage D. prosecution delay |
Answer:
A. additional crime |
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SOP 307.5. True or False: In deciding whether to arrest the victim of a crime on an active warrant, consideration will be given to the likelihood that the victim can be located at a later tim
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.5. True or False: The fact that the outstanding warrant is for a felony offense may be a controlling factor.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False It is not a controlling factor |
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SOP 307.5. As a general guideline, the victim of a crime involving serious personal injury or mental trauma will not typically be arrested on a warrant involving all of the following offenses, except _______.
A. a traffic offense B. a crime against persons C. a misdemeanor offense D. a felony property crime |
Answer:
B. a crime against persons |
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SOP 307.5. True or False: The same consideration for suspended warrant arrest will be given to close family members of the victim who may also be traumatized by the injury to the victi
M. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.5. A request from another law enforcement agency to arrest a person shall operate only as a request to locate if the request does not provide sufficient ____ for the arrest or information that a warrant or capias has been issue
D. A. reasonable suspicion B. probable cause C. due cause D. evidence |
Answer:
B. probable cause |
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SOP 307.5. Arrests will not be made for other jurisdictions without a valid arrest warrant or capias number unless the provided information is specific enough to establish ____ for the arrest and the crime is so recent that no arrest warrant could have been obtaine
D. A. reasonable suspicion B. probable cause C. due cause D. evidence |
Answer:
B. probable cause |
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SOP 307.5. Authority is granted under state statute to stop and detain a person if an officer has ____ that the person has committed, is committing, or is about to commit a crim
E. A. reasonable suspicion B. probable cause C. due cause D. just cause |
Answer:
A. reasonable suspicion |
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SOP 307.5. Reasonable suspicion exists when a person or vehicle fits the ____ of a suspect or suspect vehicle in a recent law violatio
N. A. general description B. basic description C. detailed description D. make if vehicle, age if person |
Answer:
C. detailed description |
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SOP 307.5. True or False: An arrest can be made if the suspect is discovered within the city limits of Tampa even if the crime occurred in another jurisdictio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.5. When a person has been detained based upon an FCIC/NCIC “hit”, what must the officer ensure?
A. That the “hit” has been confirmed by district personnel B. That the “hit” has been confirmed by communications C. That the “hit” has been confirmed by MDT D. That the “hit” has been confirmed by the suspect’s admission(s) |
Answer:
B. That the “hit” has been confirmed by communications |
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SOP 307.5. What will communications do to confirm an out-of-county warrant?
A. Communications will call the wanting agency confirming the existence of a warrant or capias B. Communications will send a teletype to the wanting agency confirming the existence of a warrant or capias C. Communications will send a courier to the wanting agency confirming the existence of a warrant or capias D. Communications will send an e-mail to the wanting agency confirming the existence of a warrant or capias |
Answer:
B. Communications will send a teletype to the wanting agency confirming the existence of a warrant or capias |
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SOP 307.5. What will an officer do if the confirmation cannot be made?
A. If the confirmation cannot be made, the person will be arrested B. If the confirmation cannot be made, the person will be detained until confirmation can be made C. If the confirmation cannot be made, the person will be transported to central booking D. If the confirmation cannot be made, the person will be released |
Answer:
D. If the confirmation cannot be made, the person will be released |
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SOP 307.5. If the wanting agency does not respond within a reasonable time, how can we reach the agency for confirmation?
A. The officer may contact the agency via telephone B. The officer may contact the agency via courier C. The officer may contact the agency via departmental page D. The officer may contact the agency via BOLO |
Answer:
A. The officer may contact the agency via telephone |
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SOP 307.5. All of the following information is required on the CRA for a warrant/capias, except ____
A. That the arrest was based upon a warrant or capias B. The severity in degrees, of the charge giving rise to the warrant C. The charge D. The warrant or capias number E. The name of the wanting agency F. The method of identification |
Answer:
B. The severity in degrees, of the charge giving rise to the warrant |
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SOP 307.5. What portion of the CRA serves as the police report?
A. The white copy of the CRA B. The blue copy of the CRA C. The yellow copy of the CRA D. The goldenrod copy of the CRA |
Answer:
C. The yellow copy of the CRA |
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SOP 307.5. What pieces of information should go on the CRA regarding confirmation in a Hillsborough County case?
A. The communication operator’s number B. The time of confirmation C. The number of the Judicial District D. A and C E. A and B |
Answer:
E. A and B |
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SOP 307.5. If an officer has to confirm a warrant or capias over the phone, from an out-of-county jurisdiction, all of the following information should go on the CRA, except ____.
A. The agency’s ORI number B. The agency C. The person who verified the “hit” D. Time of confirmation E. Telephone number of the agency |
Answer:
A. The agency’s ORI number |
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SOP 307.5. What is recommended to be attached to the CRA and any subsequent report?
A. The agency’s ORI number B. The agency C. The person who verified the “hit” D. A copy of the computer generated “hit” |
Answer:
D. A copy of the computer generated “hit” |
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SOP 307.5. If an officer originates a separate incident report, what should he or she title it?
A. An “assist other jurisdiction” report B. An “warrants” report C. An “information - warrant” report D. An “assist other agency” report |
Answer:
A. An “assist other jurisdiction” report |
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SOP 307.5. If an out-of-state warrant is valid and verified, but extradition cannot be confirmed, what will an officer do?
A. the person will be detained until extradition can be arranged B. the person will be transported to central booking, where he or she will be processed and released C. the person will be released D. The arrest will be made and a criminal report affidavit will be completed listing the offense as “fugitiv E.” |
Answer:
D. The arrest will be made and a criminal report affidavit will be completed listing the offense as “fugitiv E.” |
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SOP 307.5. What is the applicable statute number in an out-of-state warrant case, and what does this statute cover?
A. 941.07 / “arrest without a warrant” B. 941.14 / “arrest with cause” C. 941.63 / “arrest without a warrant” D. 941.14 / “arrest with a warrant” |
Answer:
B. 941.14 / “arrest without a warrant” |
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SOP 307.5. Where are questions regarding extradition referred?
A. To HCSO B. To FDOC C. To DOJJ D. To the TPD teletype handle |
Answer:
A. To HCSO |
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SOP 307.5. If an officer elects to originate a separate offense report in an out-of-state warrant case, what should he or she title the report?
A. fugitive B. absconder C. at large D. assist other jurisdiction |
Answer:
A. fugitive |
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SOP 307.5. If a juvenile is arrested on a “traffic” V.
O. P. warrant, to whom are they released? A. Central booking B. JAC C. FDOC D. FDLE |
Answer:
A. Central booking |
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SOP 307.5. A copy of the computer generated “hit” can be obtained and attached to the ____ and ____.
A. affidavit and the street check B. street check and the report C. affidavit and the report D. affidavit and the departmental intel bulletin |
Answer:
C. affidavit and the report |
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SOP 307.5. Juveniles arrested based upon “traffic” Violation of Probation warrants only will be arrested and released to Central Booking after the Criminal Report Affidavit is complete
D. All other warrants or administrative pick-up arrests will be released to the ____. A. Juvenile Assessment Center (JAC) B. HRS C. FDOC D. FDLE |
Answer:
A. Juvenile Assessment Center (JAC) |
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SOP 307.5. Before an officer may arrest, probable cause must be established through the officer’s own observations or through statements of witness or other law enforcement officers.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.5. Officers are not required to originate a separate offense report when arresting a person based on a warrant or capias. The yellow copy of the affidavit will serve as the Tampa Police Department report.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.5. Multiple warrants and/or capiases originating from one county may not be placed on one affidavit, including a combination of traffic and criminal charges.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 307.5. A warrant/capias number can be included on the same affidavit as an on-scene or probable cause arrest.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 307.5. If there are warrants/capiases on the subject originating from different counties, then separate affidavits must be file
D. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.5. Juvenile: Juveniles arrested based upon “traffic” Violation of Probation warrants only will be arrested and released to ______________ after the Criminal Report Affidavit is complete
D. A. Juvenile Assessment Center B. Central Booking C. Their Parent(s) D. W.T. Edwards |
Answer:
B. Central Booking |
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SOP 307.6. If a computer generated “hit” is received regarding a military deserter or one who is reported Absent Without Leave, verify it by telephoning one of the Military service representatives:
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.6. If the “hit” is not confirmed as being active by one of the military service representatives, ______________________________ on the military warrant.
A. hold the suspect in custody until confirmation can be made B. take no further action to apprehend the subject C. book the subject and advise HCSO of the failure to confirm D. take possession of the subject and release him to MacDill Air Force |
Answer:
B. take no further action to apprehend the subject |
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SOP 307.6. If the “hit” is active, complete a Criminal Report Affidavit listing the offense as ___________________.
A. Fugitive B. Assist other Jurisdiction C. Deserter or AWOL D. Military Prisoner |
Answer:
C. Deserter or AWOL |
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SOP 307.6. The words ____ will be placed in the space provided for the statute number.
A. Deserter or AWOL B. Military Prisoner C. Military Fugitive D. Administrative Pick-up |
Answer:
D. Administrative Pick-up |
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SOP 307.6. When listing the person who verified the “hit”, what is important to note about them?
A. Their name and rank in the military B. Their branch of service C. Their Commanding Officer D. The base to which they are assigned |
Answer:
A. Their name and rank in the military |
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SOP 307.6. If an officer initiates an offense report, what should he or she title it?
A. “military deserter” or “military AWOL” followed by their rank in the military, in other words, “military deserter – Sergeant First Class.” B. “military deserter” or “military AWOL” followed by the base to which they are assigned, in other words, “military deserter – Macdill AF B.” C. “military deserter” or “military AWOL” followed by the branch of service, in other words, “military deserter – US Army.” D. “military deserter” or “military AWOL” followed by the name of their Commanding Officer, in other words, “military deserter – CO J. Do E.” |
Answer:
C. “military deserter” or “military AWOL” followed by the branch of service, in other words, “military deserter – US Army.” |
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SOP 307.6. When arresting a person for being a Military Deserter or AWOL, which of the following is true?
A. The person is to be taken to either central booking or turned over to the Security Police at Macdill AFB (Dale Mabry Gate only) and with prior notification to the Security Polic E. B. The Florida Statute number will reflect “Administrative Pick-up”. The charge block shall reflect “Military Desertion or Absence Without Leave (AWOL)” and the branch of service wanting the subject. C. The FBI shall be notified along with the Macdill AFB Security Police who will respond and take custody of the prisoner. D. The Florida Statute number block is left blan K. The charge block shall reflect “Military Desertion or Absence Without Leave (AWOL)” and the name and rank of the person confirming the warrant. |
Answer:
B. The Florida Statute number will reflect “Administrative Pick-up”. The charge block shall reflect “Military Desertion or Absence Without Leave (AWOL)” and the branch of service wanting the subject. |
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SOP 307.6. Military Desertion or Absence Without Leave (AWOL) of Personnel of the Armed Forces: (which is not correct)?
A. The Florida Statute number block shall reflect “Administrative Pick-up”. The charge block shall reflect “Military Desertion or Absence Without Leave (AWOL)” and the branch of service wanting the subject. B. All copies of the criminal report affidavit except the canary copy will accompany the accused to Central Bookin G. If a copy of the “hit” or flyer is available, attach it to the affidavit. C. If a copy of the hit is not available, list the name and rank of the person who confirmed the warrant on the affidavit in the same manner as an officer would complete an affidavit for a warrant or capias. D. The defendant may be immediately turned over to Military Police at Macdill AF B. |
Answer:
D. The defendant may be immediately turned over to Military Police at Macdill AF B. |
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SOP 307.6. It is not necessary that the officer originate an offense report / however, a report number will be obtained regardless.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.6. If the officer does originate an offense report, it will be entitled “Military Deserter” or “Military AWOL” followed by the branch of service, in other words, “Military Deserter – US Army.”
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.7. What is the purpose for identifying career criminals?
A. To target cases which meet the criteria for standard prosecution B. To target cases which meet the criteria for delayed prosecution C. To target cases which meet the criteria for enhanced prosecution D. To target cases which meet the criteria for deferred prosecution |
Answer:
C. To target cases which meet the criteria for enhanced prosecution |
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SOP 307.7. What of the following policy or policies dictate these enhanced prosecution penalties?
A. The Federal Armed Career Criminal Code B. Florida State Statutes C. The Federal Repeat Career Criminal Code D. The Florida Armed Career Criminal Code E. A and D F. A and B |
Answer:
F. A and B |
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SOP 307.7. Criminal Justice studies have revealed that approximately ___ percent of the criminals (habitual offenders) commit approximately ____ percent of all violent crimes.
A. 20 / 80 B. 6 / 70 C. 10 / 70 D. 25 / 75 |
Answer:
B. 6/70 |
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SOP 307.7. When habitual offenders are targeted for enhanced prosecution techniques and receive long term prison confinement, a ____ will be the result.
A. significant increase in crime B. minor reduction in crime C. minor increase in crime D. significant reduction in crime |
Answer:
D. significant reduction in crime |
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SOP 307.7. The law enforcement officer represents the ____ in the successful prosecution of habitual offenders.
A. first vital link B. second vital link C. third vital link D. fourth vital link |
Answer:
A. first vital link |
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SOP 307.7. The federal criminal code defines a “federal armed career criminal” as an individual who is a convicted felon in manual or constructive possession of ____ and has ____ convictions by any court for violent felonies, serious drug offenses, or both, committed on separate occasions from one another.
A. a firearm / three or more B. a firearm or ammunition / one or more C. a firearm or ammunition / three or more D. ammunition / one or more |
Answer:
C. a firearm or ammunition / three or more |
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SOP 307.7. To constitute a “violent felony” defined by the Federal Criminal Code, what is the minimum imprisonment term?
A. Any crime punishable by imprisonment for a term up to one year B. Any crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year C. Any crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding two years D. Any crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding up to 6 months |
Answer:
B. Any crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year |
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SOP 307.7. With relation to juvenile offenses, what must a juvenile have used in the commission of the crime and what term of punishment must the offense carry?
A. Any act of juvenile delinquency involving the use or carrying of a firearm, knife, or destructive device / An offense that would be punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year if committed by an adult B. Any act of juvenile delinquency involving the use or carrying of a destructive device / An offense that would be punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding 6 months if committed by an adult C. Any act of juvenile delinquency involving the use or carrying of a firearm or knife / An offense that would be punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year if committed by an adult D. Any act of juvenile delinquency involving the use or carrying of a firearm, knife, or destructive device / An offense that would be punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding two years if committed by an adult |
Answer:
A. Any act of juvenile delinquency involving the use or carrying of a firearm, knife, or destructive device / An offense that would be punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year if committed by an adult |
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SOP 307.7. What force is also required to have been used during this “Violent felony”?
A. the use or threatened use of physical force against the person of another B. the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against the person of another C. the attempted use or threatened use of physical force against the person of another D. the threatened use of physical force against the person of another |
Answer:
B. An element, the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against the person of another |
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SOP 307.7. All of the following crimes are specifically included in the “violent Felony” category with the exception of ____.
A. Kidnapping B. Burglary C. Arson D. Extortion |
Answer:
A. Kidnapping |
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SOP 307.7. The use of what type of weapon is specifically mentioned in the definition?
A. Explosives B. Knives C. Guns D. Blunt Instruments |
Answer:
A. Explosives |
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SOP 307.7. As it pertains to armed career criminals, the term "conviction" includes a finding that a person has committed an act of juvenile delinquency involving a violent felony.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.7. Which of the following crimes are not offenses used in determination of a violent career criminal?
A. Aggravated Child Abuse B. Aggravated Stalking C. Trafficking and delivery of Cocaine D. Lewd, Lascivious or indecent conduct |
Answer:
C. Trafficking and delivery of Cocaine |
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SOP 307.7. What kind of conduct also represents “violent felony” conduct?
A. Conduct that represents a serious potential risk of physical injury to another B. Conduct that represents a minor potential risk of physical injury to another C. Conduct that represents a serious potential risk of psychological injury to another D. Conduct that represents a serious potential risk of physical injury to the suspect |
Answer:
A. Conduct that represents a serious potential risk of physical injury to another |
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SOP 307.7. The term “conviction” includes a finding that a person has committed an act of juvenile delinquency involving a ____.
A. violent misdemeanor B. felony C. violent felony D. misdemeanor |
Answer:
C. violent felony |
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SOP 307.7. If convicted in Federal Court as an “Armed Career Criminal,” the offender shall be sentenced to imprisonment for not less than ____ years, and a fine of no more than ____, with no probation or parol
E. A. 5 / $10,000 B. 10 / $5,000 C. 15 / $25,000 D. 25 to life / $15,000 |
Answer:
C. 15 / $25,000 |
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SOP 307.7. True or False: These criminals will eventually be eligible for parole or probatio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 307.7. Violent Career Criminals includes which all of the following offender types, except ____.
A. Habitual Felony Offenders B. Habitual Violent Felony Offenders C. Three-Time Violent Felony Offenders D. Multiple Violent Felony Offenders |
Answer:
D. Multiple Violent Felony Offenders |
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SOP 307.7. To be classified as a “Habitual Felony Offender”, the defendant may have previously been convicted of any combination of ____ in this state or other qualified offenses.
A. one or more felonies B. two or more felonies C. two or more misdemeanors D. one or more misdemeanors |
Answer:
B. two or more felonies |
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SOP 307.7. A subject can be classified as a “Habitual Felony Offender”, if the felony for which the defendant is to be sentenced was committed while the defendant was serving ____ that is imposed as a result of ____.
A. a court-ordered or lawfully imposed supervision / a prior conviction for a felony or other qualified offense B. a prison sentence or other sentence / a prior conviction for a felony or other qualified offense C. a prison sentence or other sentence, or court-ordered or lawfully imposed supervision / a prior conviction for a misdemeanor or other qualified offense D. a prison sentence or other sentence, or court-ordered or lawfully imposed supervision / a prior conviction for a felony or other qualified offense |
Answer:
D. a prison sentence or other sentence, or court-ordered or lawfully imposed supervision / a prior conviction for a felony or other qualified offense |
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SOP 307.7. Habitual Felony Offender (FLORIDA STATUTE §775.084): A defendant for whom the court may impose an extended term of imprisonment as set forth in this section if the court finds that the defendant has previously been convicted of any combination of two or more felonies in this state, or other qualified offenses, and the felony for which the defendant is to be sentenced was committed within ____ years of the date of conviction of the last prior felony, or other qualified offense, of which he or she was convicted, or otherwise, from a prison sentence or other commitment imposed as a result of a prior conviction for a felony or other qualified offense, whichever is later.
A. 3 B. 5 C. 2 D. 10 |
Answer:
B. 5 |
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SOP 307.7. Habitual Felony Offender: The felony for which the defendant is to be sentenced, and one of the two prior felony convictions, cannot be related to ____.
A. the purchase or the possession of a controlled substance B. the purchase or the possession of a firearm C. the purchase or the possession of a stolen vehicle D. the purchase or the possession of ammunition |
Answer:
A. the purchase or the possession of a controlled substance |
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SOP 307.7. Habitual Felony Offender: The defendant has not received ____ for any felony or other qualified offense that is necessary for the operation of this paragrap
H. A. community service B. a pardon C. probation D. a deferred sentence |
Answer:
B. a pardon |
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SOP 307.7. Habitual Felony Offender: Habitual Felony Offender: A conviction of a felony or other qualified offense necessary to the operation of this paragraph has not have been ____ in any post-conviction proceedin
G. A. set aside B. cancelled C. overturned D. continued |
Answer:
A. set aside |
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SOP 307.7. A subject can be classified as a “Habitual Violent Felony Offender”, if the felony for which the defendant is to be sentenced was committed while the defendant was serving ____ that is imposed as a result of ____.
A. a court-ordered or lawfully imposed supervision / a prior conviction for a felony or other qualified offense B. a prison sentence or other sentence / a prior conviction for a felony or other qualified offense C. a prison sentence or other sentence, or court-ordered or lawfully imposed supervision / a prior conviction for a misdemeanor or other qualified offense D. a prison sentence or other sentence, or court-ordered or lawfully imposed supervision / a prior conviction for a felony or other qualified offense |
Answer:
D. a prison sentence or other sentence, or court-ordered or lawfully imposed supervision / a prior conviction for a felony or other qualified offense |
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SOP 307.7. A subject can be classified as a “Habitual Violent Felony Offender”, if the felony for which the defendant is to be sentenced was committed within ____ of the date of the conviction of the defendant’s last prior felony or other qualified offense, or the defendant’s release from a prison sentence, probation, community control, control release, conditional release, parole or court-ordered or lawfully imposed supervision or other sentence that is imposed as a result of a prior convictions for a felony or other qualified offense, whichever is later.
A. one year B. two years C. five years D. ten years |
Answer:
C. five years |
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SOP 307.7. A subject can be classified as a “Three-Time Violent Felony Offender”, if the defendant has previously been convicted as an adult ____ of a felony, or an attempt to commit a felony, and two or more of such convictions were for committing, or attempting to commit, any of the offenses pertaining to the Habitual Violent Felony requirements.
A. one or more times B. two or more times C. three or more times D. four or more times |
Answer:
B. two or more times |
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SOP 307.7. A subject can be classified as a “Violent Career Criminal”, if the defendant has previously been convicted as an adult ____ times for a qualified offense in this stat
E. A. one or more B. two or more C. three or more D. four or more |
Answer:
C. three or more |
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SOP 307.7. A subject can have been convicted of any of the following offenses in order to be classified as a “Violent Career Criminal”, except ____.
A. Any forcible felony B. Battery C. Aggravated stalking D. Aggravated child abuse E. Aggravated abuse of an elderly person or disabled Adult |
Answer:
B. Battery |
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SOP 307.7. A subject can have been convicted of any of the following offenses in order to be classified as a “Violent Career Criminal”, except ____.
A. Lewd or lascivious battery, lewd or lascivious molestation, lewd or lascivious conduct, or lewd or lascivious exhibition B. Escape C. Introduction of Contraband into a Controlled Facility D. A felony violation of chapter 790 involving the use or possession of a firearm |
Answer:
C. Introduction of Contraband into a Controlled Facility |
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SOP 307.7. A subject can be classified as a “Violent Career Criminal”, if the defendant has been incarcerated in ____.
A. a county jail or a state prison B. a state prison or a work-release camp C. a work-release camp or a federal prison D. a state prison or a federal prison |
Answer:
D. a state prison or a federal prison |
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SOP 307.7. A subject can be classified as a “Violent Career Criminal”, if the primary felony offense was committed on or after ____.
A. October 1, 1995 B. October 1, 1990 C. October 1, 1989 D. October 1, 1980 |
Answer:
A. October 1, 1995 |
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SOP 307.7. True or False: For the purposes of these classifications, the placing of a person on probation or community control without an adjudication of guilt shall be treated as a prior convictio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.7. True or False: Whenever an officer is investigating any type of offense involving a firearm, ammunition or weapon, which does not meet referral guidelines, the investigating officer will submit the evidence utilizing proper handling techniques.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.7. If necessary, the investigating officer will submit a request to the ____ to have the firearm, ammunition or weapon processed for latent fingerprints and comparison of identifiable fingerprint(s) to any known suspect(s).
A. Forensic Investigations Unit B. Armorer C. Chief of Police D. Division Commander |
Answer:
A. Forensic Investigations Unit |
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SOP 307.7. If the investigation meets referral guidelines, it will be the responsibility of the ____ to have the weapon processed by the Forensic Investigations Unit for latent fingerprints and comparison of identifiable fingerprint(s) to any known suspect(s).
A. Assigned detective B. Forensic Investigations Unit C. Armorer D. Chief of Police |
Answer:
A. Assigned detective |
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SOP 307.7. Any time contact is made with an individual who has been designated a CareerCriminal, the officer will complete the required ____.
A. report B. field interview C. BOLO D. B and C E. A and B |
Answer:
E. A and B |
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SOP 307.7. True or False: As time permits, street units will conduct checks on Career Criminals living within their assigned work zones to ensure the offenders are in complianc
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.7. The ____ shall be responsible for maintenance of a file and current list of Career Criminals who reside within the City of Tampa limits.
A. Criminal Investigations Division B. Criminal Tracking Unit C. Strategic Enforcement Bureau D. District Latent Investigations Squad |
Answer:
B. Criminal Tracking Unit |
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SOP 307.7. True or False: The Criminal Tracking Unit shall be responsible for assisting the prosecuting attorney in all phases of case preparation and prosecutio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 307.7. Case Tracking and Inter-Agency Coordination: The _____________ shall be responsible for: Criminal history research and the development of a case file on those defendants who meet the criteria as habitual offenders.
A. State Attorney Office B. Homicide Bureau C. Pick Up Desk D. Career Criminal Unit |
Answer:
D. Career Criminal Unit |
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SOP 307.7. The Criminal Tracking Unit will ensure that the prosecutor is not forced into a ____ due to a deficiency in the case, which was caused by or could have been corrected by the Tampa Police Department.
A. plea bargaining agreement B. guilty plea C. not guilty plea D. no contest plea |
Answer:
A. plea bargaining agreement |
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SOP 307.7. The Criminal Tracking Unit will hold regular meetings with a representative from ____.
A. the Hillsborough County State Attorney’s Office B. the Hillsborough County Sheriff’s Office C. each Uniform District D. the United States Marshall’s Office |
Answer:
A. the Hillsborough County State Attorney’s Office |
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SOP 307.7. The Criminal Tracking Unit will create a ____ for each Career Criminal in the Tampa Police Department Versadex system which will alert officers or dispatchers when they run the name of a Career Criminal through the syste
M. A. notice B. memo C. BOLO D. flag |
Answer:
D. flag |
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SOP 307.7. All of the following are the elements of the definition of a “qualified offense”, except ____.
A. Any offense substantially similar in elements and penalties from any other jurisdiction to this one B. The offense was punishable under the law of such jurisdiction at the time of its commission by the defendant by death or imprisonment exceeding one year C. The offense was punishable under the law of such jurisdiction at the time of its commission by the defendant by death or imprisonment exceeding six months D. A and C |
Answer:
C. The offense was punishable under the law of such jurisdiction at the time of its commission by the defendant by death or imprisonment exceeding one year |
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SOP 307.7. During investigation of what offenses should an officer be aware concerning career criminal implications?
A. Any type of offense involving a firearm B. Any type of offense involving a firearm, ammunition, or weapon C. Any type of offense involving a firearm or weapon D. Any type of offense involving a firearm or ammunition |
Answer:
B. Any type of offense involving a firearm, ammunition, or weapon |
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SOP 309. Sexual predators and offenders often rely on secrecy and the ability to blend into the community in order to select victims.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 309. The status of sexual predators will be checked through FDLE on a ______ basis by the SPIN coordinator.
A. weekly B. monthly C. bi-weekly D. daily |
Answer:
D. daily |
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SOP 309. Once verification has been made, the coordinator will conduct community notification by causing a reverse 911 message to be sent to all listed telephone numbers within an approximately ____ radius of the predator’s address.
A. 1 mile B. 2 mile C. ½ mile D. 3 mile |
Answer:
A. 1 mile |
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SOP 309. As of October 1, 1998, Florida Statues §775.21(6)(f) and §943.0435(3) require that all sexual predators and offenders who are not incarcerated, within _______ hours of initial registration, register in person with DHSMV to obtain valid and updated identification in the form of a driver’s license or identification car
D. A. 24 B. 36 C. 48 D. 72 |
Answer:
C. 48 |
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SOP 309. Which act gives law enforcement the responsibility of accessing and sharing critical information about sexual predators and offenders?
A. The Law Enforcement Safety Information Act B. The FDLE Safety Information Act C. The Public Safety Information Act D. The Public Information Act of 2001 |
Answer:
C. The Public Safety Information Act |
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SOP 309. A ____ is an individual who is found by a court to meet the criteria set out in FLORIDA STATUTE § 775.21(4) upon issuance of a written court order designating the individual as suc
H. A. Sexual Predator B. Sexual Offender C. Habitual Predator D. Habitual Sexual Offender |
Answer:
A. Sexual Predator |
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SOP 309. A ____ is any person convicted of one or more of the sexual offenses in FLORIDA STATUTE §943.0435, but who has not been designated by a Florida Court as a sexual predator.
A. Sexual Predator B. Sexual Offender C. Habitual Predator D. Habitual Sexual Offender |
Answer:
B. Sexual Offender |
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SOP 309. Who checks the status of sexual predators, where do they check and how often?
A. 1. The SPIN coordinator / 2. They check through FDLE and / 3. On a daily basis B. 1. The SPAN coordinator / 2. They check through FDOC and / 3. On a monthly basis C. 1. The SPIN coordinator / 2. They check through FDLE and / 3. On a monthly basis D. 1. The SPIN coordinator / 2. They check through DOJJ and / 3. On a daily basis |
Answer:
A. 1. The SPIN coordinator / 2. They check through FDLE and / 3. On a daily basis |
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SOP 309. It is the responsibility of the ____ to conduct all latent investigations regarding violation of sexual predator or offender registration and/or parole and probation requirements.
A. DLIS Sergeant B. SPIN coordinator C. patrol officer of the assigned zone D. Sex Crimes Division Sergeant |
Answer:
B. SPIN coordinator |
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SOP 309. Because these offenses will many times be the result of an additional crime, the coordinator will be notified upon the arrest of any ____ in order to assist the arresting officer with any additional potential charges.
A. sexual predator B. sexual offender C. sex crimes suspect D. B and C E. A and B |
Answer:
E. A and B |
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SOP 309. To ensure that accurate records are kept, the ____ will act as the liaison between the Tampa Police Department, and all other law enforcement agencies.
A. SPIN coordinator B. Division Commander C. Shift commander D. Assigned latent investigator |
Answer:
A. SPIN coordinator |
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SOP 309. Each day, the coordinator will check the ____ to verify the status of predators that reside within the city.
A. FDLE Internet web site B. FDOC Internet web site C. incoming teletypes D. Groupwise e-mail system E. B and C F. A and C |
Answer:
F. A and C |
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SOP 309. If new information becomes available, the coordinator will verify the information by contacting the ____, and/or the ____ if applicabl
E. A. Department of Corrections / Department of Juvenile Justice B. Florida Department of Law Enforcement / Department of Juvenile Justice C. Department of Corrections / Florida Department of Law Enforcement D. Department of Corrections / FBI National Crime Information Center (NCIC) |
Answer:
C. Department of Corrections / Florida Department of Law Enforcement |
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SOP 309. When the Tampa Police Department is notified by FDLE that a sexual predator has moved into the City limits, the coordinator will verify the ____ and ____ of the sexual predator.
A. the listed address and status B. the listed address and date of birth C. the date of birth and social security number D. the date of birth and confirmed contact number |
Answer:
A. the listed address and status |
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SOP 309. Once verification has been made, the coordinator will conduct community notification by causing a reverse 911 message to be sent to all listed telephone numbers within an approximately ____ radius of the predator’s address.
A. 1,000 ft. B. one mile C. two miles D. five |
Answer:
B. one mile |
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SOP 309. All officers are encouraged to become familiar with the sexual offenders and predators who reside within the city limits, especially those ____.
A. in their assigned district B. in their assigned sector C. in their assigned zones D. registered as such with DHSMV |
Answer:
C. in their assigned zones |
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SOP 309. A list of all sexual predators’ and offenders’ names and addresses will be forwarded by ____ to the respective districts for zone officer review and knowledg
E. A. the SPIN coordinator B. FDLE C. FDOC D. the assigned latent investigator |
Answer:
A. SPIN coordinator |
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SOP 309. When an officer comes in contact with such an individual, the ____ will alert the officer to the status of the offender.
A. Hotsheet B. RMS response C. FCIC/NCIC response D. Coplink response |
Answer:
C. FCIC/NCIC response |
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SOP 309. The officer will complete a ____ documenting the circumstances of the encounter.
A. Report B. Street Check C. Hotsheet D. Standard Pickup Order |
Answer:
B. Street Check |
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SOP 309. Who will be responsible for conducting the initial verification contact of sexual predators and offenders who live in their assigned district?
A. Crime Prevention officers B. SPIN coordinator C. Shift commander D. Assigned latent investigator |
Answer:
A. Crime Prevention officers |
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SOP 309. Additionally, Crime Prevention officers will conduct a minimum of one (1) check ____ on sexual predators and one (1) check ____ on sexual offenders.
A. Quarterly / Annually B. Annually / Quarterly C. Weekly / Monthly D. Monthly / Weekly |
Answer:
A. Quarterly / Annually |
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SOP 309. When assigned a verification contact, the officer will respond to the address of the sexual predator or offender and conduct a thorough interview. The meeting will be recorded via a Street Check/Field, to document the individual’s personal information, and any changes that may occur. The officer will select ____ for the type and reason of the contact when completing the street check for
M. A. Street Check - Sexual Offender B. Street Check - Suspicious Activity C. Sexual Predator/Offender D. Offender Verification Alert |
Answer:
C. Sexual Predator/Offender |
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SOP 309. If it is determined that the sexual predator or offender has absconded, (house abandoned/officer determines subject no longer lives at registration address), the officer will ____. The officer will document the facts of the contact that will support the belief that the predator or offender no longer lives at that address.
A. complete a Street Check under the offender’s name, listing the offender’s address as “absconded” B. complete a Street Check under the offender’s name, listing the offender’s address as “AWOL” C. complete a Street Check under the offender’s name, listing the offender’s address as “pending” D. complete a Street Check under the offender’s name, listing the offender’s address as “at large” |
Answer:
D. complete a Street Check under the offender’s name, listing the offender’s address as “at large” |
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SOP 309. Florida Statues require that all sexual predators and offenders initially register with their local sheriff’s office within ____ following releas
E. A. 24 hrs B. 48 hrs C. 72 hrs D. 30 days |
Answer:
B. 48 hrs |
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SOP 309. Florida Statues require that all sexual predators and offenders within ____ of initial registration, register in person with DHSMV to obtain a valid and updated identification in the form of a driver’s license or identification car
D. A. 24 hrs B. 48 hrs C. 72 hrs D. 30 days |
Answer:
B. 48 hrs |
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SOP 309. Failure to maintain, acquire, or renew a driver’s license or identification card / or failure to comply with registration requirements is either a ____ or ____ depending on specific circumstances.
A. a third degree felony or second degree felony B. a first degree felony or second degree felony C. a first degree misdemeanor or second degree felony D. a first degree misdemeanor or second degree misdemeanor |
Answer:
A. a third degree felony or second degree felony |
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SOP 309. Both the ____ and ____ information should reflect the sexual predator/offender fla
G. A. FCIC/NCIC / DHSMV B. FDOC / FDLE C. FDLE / DHSMV D. FDOC / DHSMV |
Answer:
A. FCIC/NCIC / DHSMV |
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SOP 309. True or False: If the official records do not match, and the officer cannot verify the sexual offender status of the subject, the subject should be placed under arrest.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False The officer should complete a detailed street check or information report on the subject only. |
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SOP 309. If the official records do not match, and the officer cannot verify the sexual offender status of the subject, the street check or information report will be routed to the ____ for investigatio
N. A. DLIS Supervisor B. Assigned Latent Investigator C. Sex Crimes Detective D. SPIN coordinator |
Answer:
D. SPIN coordinator |
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SOP 309. If the sexual offender or predator flag is shown on both FCIC/NCIC and DHSMV, the officer should then determine whether ____.
A. there are children in the immediate vicinity B. there are children living with the subject C. the registered address is the current address where the subject resides D. there is an operational telephone in working order at the place of residence |
Answer:
C. the registered address is the current address where the subject resides |
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SOP 309. If the officer finds that the offender or predator has moved from the registered address, and is in violation of the 48 hour registration requirement, then the officer should ____.
A. detain the subject for Failure to Register, using 775.21 for predators or 943.0435 for offenders B. arrest the subject for Failure to Register, using 775.21 for predators or 943.0435 for offenders. C. complete a Direct File against the subject for Failure to Register, using 775.21 for predators or 943.0435 for offenders. D. complete a Request for Prosecution against the subject for Failure to Register, using 775.21 for predators or 943.0435 for offenders. |
Answer:
B. arrest the subject for Failure to Register, using 775.21 for predators or 943.0435 for offenders. |
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SOP 309. Upon arresting a subject for Failure to Register, officers will seize the subject’s ____ and book it into evidenc
E. A. utility bill B. social security card C. cell phone D. driver’s license |
Answer:
D. driver’s license |
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SOP 309. True or False: If the predator/offender verbally indicates that they have moved from the registered address, the officer should make every attempt to obtain additional corroborating evidence to substantiate the fact that the offender has move
D. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 309. True or False: Such evidence that they have moved from the registered address would be other documents or identification showing a different address, a signed statement, or possibly another unit responding to the address for confirmation, if practica
L. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 310. Which of the following component of a hate crime offense is correct?
A. A hate crime is any committed criminal act against another person B. A hate crime is any attempted criminal act against another person’s property. C. A hate crime is any committed criminal act against another person’s property D. A hate crime is any committed or attempted criminal act against another person or another person’s property |
Answer:
D. A hate crime is any committed or attempted criminal act against another person or another person’s property |
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SOP 310. Which of the following is the key to hate crime classification?
A. Location of the offense B. Activity of the victim C. Activity of the perpetrator D. Primary motivation of the perpetrator |
Answer:
D. Primary motivation of the perpetrator |
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SOP 310. A hate crime is defined as any committed or attempted criminal act against another person or another person’s property motivated by hatred toward the victim based on any of the following victim characteristics, except ____.
A. race B. color C. ancestry D. political affiliation E. ethnicity F. religion G. sexual orientation H. national origin I. mental or physical disability J. advanced age of the victim |
Answer:
D. political affiliation |
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SOP 310. Mental or physical disability is defined in relation to hate crimes as a condition of physical or mental incapacitation due to a developmental disability, organic brain damage, or mental illness, and has ____ that restrict the victim’s ability to perform the normal activities of daily livin
G. A. one or more physical or mental limitations B. two or more physical limitations C. two or more mental limitations D. two or more physical or mental limitations |
Answer:
A. one or more physical or mental limitations |
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SOP 310. Advanced age means that the victim is older than ____ years of ag
E. A. 60 B. 55 C. 65 D. 70 |
Answer:
C. 65 |
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SOP 310. What of the following key elements must exist and be documented in order to charge someone with a hate crime?
A. That the defendant perceived, knew, or had reasonable grounds to know or perceive that the victim was within the class delineated in this section B. The primary motivation for the offense was simply the perpetrator’s prejudice or hatred of the victim because of the victim’s perceived race, religion, ethnicity, or sexual orientation C. That an element of the motivation for the offense was simply the perpetrator’s prejudice or hatred of the victim because of the victim’s perceived race, religion, ethnicity, or sexual orientation D. A and C E. A and B |
Answer:
E. A and B |
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SOP 310. How will an officer title an offense involving a hate crime?
A. By listing the primary offense last and "Hate Crime" parenthetically befor E. For example: Hate Crime (Battery) B. By listing the primary offense first and "Hate Crime" parenthetically thereafter. For example: Battery (Hate Crime) C. By listing the primary offense first, followed by "Hate Crime", both separated by hyphe N. For example: Battery - Hate Crime D. By listing the primary offense last, followed by "Hate Crime", both separated by hyphe N. For example: Hate Crime - Battery |
Answer:
B. By listing the primary offense first and "Hate Crime" parenthetically thereafter. For example: Battery (Hate Crime) |
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SOP 310. To which departmental entity should a copy of a hate crime report be referred and for what purpose?
A. To the Criminal Intelligence Bureau / For any latent investigation in regards to the defendant’s possible affiliation with extremist groups B. To the Gang Unit / For any latent investigation in regards to the defendant’s possible affiliation with gang activity C. To the applicable district’s Crime Analyst / For any latent investigation in regards to the defendant’s possible link to like crimes D. To the Criminal Intelligence Bureau / For any latent investigation in regards to the defendant’s possible affiliation with organized crime |
Answer:
A. To the Criminal Intelligence Bureau / For any latent investigation in regards to the defendant’s possible affiliation with extremist groups |
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SOP 310. True or False: If the criminal act was motivated simply by the perpetrator’s prejudice or hatred of the victim because of the victim’s perceived race, religion, ethnicity, or sexual orientation, the criminal act qualifies as a hate crim
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 310. True or False: If the primary motivation for the offense is something else, for example, monetary gain, the offense is not a hate crim
E. This would apply even if individuals of different races (et C.) are involved in the incident or demeaning slurs are spoken during the commission of the offens E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 310. If graffiti or tattoos are noted and support a link to the suspect’s prejudicial nature or group affiliation, they should be ____.
A. photographed at police headquarters B. photographed at the scene C. documented in the report D. compared to other known suspects |
Answer:
B. photographed at the scene |
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SOP 310. Who will be responsible for reporting hate crimes to the Florida Department of Law Enforcement as set out by FLORIDA STATUTE §877.19, Hate Crimes Reporting Act?
A. the applicable Shift Commander B. Records C. The Criminal Intelligence Bureau D. The appropriate Division Commander |
Answer:
B. records |
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SOP 312. Which of the following structure(s) can K-9 Teams be utilized for in a search?
A. Structures believed to be burglarized B. Structures utilized by misdemeanor or felony suspects to escape police apprehension C. Structures utilized by felony suspects to escape police apprehension D. A and B E. A and C |
Answer:
E. A and C |
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SOP 312. Deployment of K-9 teams for crowd control in situations of civil disorder may not be conducted without the specific authority of whom?
A. The Chief of Police or a designee possessing at least the rank of captain B. The Chief of Police or a designee possessing at least the rank of sergeant C. The Chief of Police or a designee possessing at least the rank of lieutenant D. The Chief of Police or a designee possessing at least the rank of major |
Answer:
A. The Chief of Police or a designee possessing at least the rank of captain |
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SOP 312. Which of the following statements are not true regarding K-9 teams?
A. The primary objective of the K-9 unit is to enhance public relations B. The K-9 team will be used to search structures believed to be burglarized by a felony suspect C. Utilizing the K-9 team to search a structure minimizes the probability of an officer being injured D. K-9 teams will normally be utilized for felony investigations and locate lost/missing persons, except under special circumstances |
Answer:
A. The primary objective of the K-9 unit is to enhance public relations |
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SOP 312. What is the minimum amount of hours that K-9 teams shall train a week?
A. 2 hours per week B. 6 hours per week C. a sufficient amount D. 12 hours per week |
Answer:
C. a sufficient amount |
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SOP 312. The ____ shall be responsible for developing and implementing the weekly training curriculu
M. A. Assistant Chief of Police or designee B. Special Operations Commander supervisor or designee C. K-9 supervisor or designee D. SOD supervisor or designee |
Answer:
C. K-9 supervisor or designee |
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SOP 312. A K-9 master trainer is a person who?
A. member for five years, certified K-9 instructor, has trained or assisted in training at least (5) K-9 teams to pass FDLE Certification B. member for four years, certified K-9 instructor, has trained or assisted in training at least (4) K-9 teams C. 10 year member of TPD, 5 years as a team member, has trained (5) K-9 teams D. FDLE certified as master trainer, 5 years on the team, 5 team practices on narcotic identification |
Answer:
A. member for five years, certified K-9 instructor, has trained or assisted in training at least (5) K-9 teams to pass FDLE Certification |
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SOP 312. What are the only two tracking purposes for which a K-9 will be utilized?
A. For misdemeanor investigations and to locate missing/lost persons B. For felony investigations and to locate cadavers C. For felony investigations and to locate missing/lost persons D. For misdemeanor or felony investigations and to locate missing/lost persons |
Answer:
C. For felony investigations and to locate missing/lost persons |
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SOP 312. Who is responsible in contacting the bloodhound handler when the amber alert has been initiated?
A. Squad Sergeant B. Major Crimes Sergeant C. Sex Crimes Sergeant D. Radio Supervisor |
Answer:
C. Sex Crimes Sergeant |
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SOP 312. K-9 teams must engage in sufficient on going training on a ___ basis as to maintain the state standards, and must be able to demonstrate these standards at least ___, or any time requested by K-9 Supervisor.
A. monthly/ annually B. quarterly/ annually C. weekly/ annually D. weekly/ quarterly |
Answer:
D. weekly/ quarterly |
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SOP 312. What is the main reason cited in the material for utilizing a k-9 team to search a structure?
A. It minimizes the probability of officer fatigue B. It minimizes the probability of losing a suspect C. It minimizes the probability of an officer being injured D. It minimizes the probability of a lengthy search |
Answer:
C. It minimizes the probability of an officer being injured |
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SOP 312. Why should a patrol unit not search a structure if a k-9 team is responding?
A. An officer may inadvertently contaminate the suspect’s scent making it more difficult to use the k-9 for trackin G. B. An officer may inadvertently startle the suspect into firing upon police C. An officer may inadvertently startle the suspect into fleeing the scene D. An officer may inadvertently contaminate the suspect’s latent fingerprints |
Answer:
A. An officer may inadvertently contaminate the suspect’s scent making it more difficult to use the k-9 for tracking |
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SOP 312. What should patrol officers do prior to a k-9 search?
A. Secure the interior of the building B. Secure the perimeter of the neighborhood C. Search the building for the suspect D. Secure the perimeter of the building |
Answer:
D. Secure the perimeter of the building |
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SOP 312. What should a k-9 officer do prior to a search?
A. Be reasonably certain that the structure to be searched is clear of innocent persons B. Utilize patrol to search the interior of the structure C. Afford the violator the opportunity to surrender by giving a verbal announcement D. A and B E. A and C |
Answer:
E. A and C |
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SOP 312. In which scenario(s) is the verbal warning not necessary?
A. In situations of fresh pursuit B. In a situation where felony charges exist C. Where a suspect reasonably believed to be armed may pose an additional threat to the officer or k-9 because of the warning D. A and C E. B and C |
Answer:
D. A and C |
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SOP 312. According to the material, a k-9 is allowed to be used as means of protection in all of the following ways, except ____.
A. To expedite the capture of the suspect B. To protect the handler C. To protect other police officers D. To protect other persons from injury or death |
Answer:
A. To expedite the capture of the suspect |
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SOP 312. K-9 teams shall voluntarily (without dispatch) respond to any of the following calls, except ____.
A. During all felony crimes in-progress within their assigned areas B. To assist patrol units in potentially violent situations C. To assist patrol units during incidents of civil disorder D. None of the Above |
Answer:
C. To assist patrol units during incidents of civil disorder |
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SOP 312. Which of the following are generally the only entities to assign a k-9 team as a primary investigative unit?
A. A k-9 supervisor or a shift commander B. A k-9 supervisor or a Communications Supervisor C. A k-9 supervisor or a Division Commander D. A Shift Commander or a Communications Supervisor |
Answer:
A. A k-9 supervisor or a shift commander |
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SOP 312. EOD canines are to be deployed at the request of whom?
A. Any EOD technician B. The EOD commander C. The Shift Commander D. A and B E. B and C |
Answer:
D. A and B |
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SOP 312.
E. O. D. K-9 units may be deployed to search nonspecific threats such as special events when deployment is for ____. A. pre-emptive security measures B. known threats C. alleged suspicious activity D. pre-determined targets |
Answer:
A. pre-emptive security measures |
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SOP 312. True or False: In order to achieve maximum effectiveness of a k-9 team, responding units will evaluate the need for a k-9 team at the earliest possible time, and call for k-9 assistance without delay.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 312. In order to achieve maximum effectiveness of a k-9 team, responding units will avoid ____ the area to be searche
D. A. securing B. contaminating C. removing patrons from D. removing suspects from |
Answer:
B. contaminating |
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SOP 312. If police personnel or others have entered a search area or structure prior to the k-9 team’s arrival, officers shall ensure that all personnel are ____ prior to the k-9 searc
H. The nature of the scene contamination shall be described to the k-9 officer. A. searched B. detained C. debriefed D. cleared from the area |
Answer:
D. cleared from the area |
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SOP 312. In order to achieve maximum effectiveness of a k-9 team, responding units will ____ any area or structure to be searched by a k-9 tea
M. A. evacuate B. vacate C. maintain a perimeter of D. saturate |
Answer:
C. maintain a perimeter of |
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SOP 312. Area perimeters involving several field units shall be coordinated by ____.
A. a squad supervisor B. a shift commander C. a division commander D. a communications supervisor |
Answer:
A. a squad supervisor |
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SOP 312. Officers on perimeter assignment will not permit anyone to ____ until the search has been completed, or unless advised otherwise by the ranking officer at the scen
E. A. enter the search area B. observe the search area C. exit the search area D. speak to others about |
Answer:
A. enter the search area |
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SOP 312. When a k-9 team enters a structure or search area, another officer(s) may be assigned to accompany the team, at the discretion of the ____. The officer’s responsibility will be to ____.
A. k-9 supervisor / provide instructions to the k-9 team B. k-9 officer / provide cover to the k-9 team C. k-9 supervisor / provide cover to the k-9 team D. officer’s immediate supervisor / provide cover to the k-9 team |
Answer:
B. k-9 officer / provide cover to the k-9 team |
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SOP 312. To which entity will the k-9 supervisor route a copy of all apprehension documentation?
A. the Special Support Division commander B. the applicable district’s Division Commander C. the office of the Assistant Chief of Police D. the internal affairs bureau |
Answer:
D. the internal affairs bureau |
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SOP 312. True or False: The primary goal of the K-9 Unit is to enhance the police department’s objectives in providing quality law enforcement service to the community.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 312. Police K-9 teams are valuable tools in accomplishing law enforcement objective(s) of ____.
A. Criminal apprehension B. search and seizure C. supporting the patrol division D. A and B |
Answer:
D. A and B |
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SOP 312. True or False: The police K-9 have a diminished role concerning officer safety in hazardous field situations.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 312. EOD Detector K-9: A specially trained K-9 used to search for ____.
A. drug currency B. drugs C. cadavers D. explosive ordinances or devices |
Answer:
D. explosive ordinances or devices |
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SOP 312. Narcotic Detector K-9: A specially trained K-9 used to search for ____.
A. drug currency B. specific narcotics C. cadavers D. explosive ordinances or devices |
Answer:
B. specific narcotics |
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SOP 312. Bloodhound: A specially trained K-9 that is used to locate ____.
A. criminal subjects B. criminal and noncriminal subjects C. missing children D. missing adults |
Answer:
B. criminal and noncriminal subjects |
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SOP 312. The Tampa Police Department K-9 Unit shall be supervised by a ____.
A. police corporal B. police sergeant C. police lieutenant D. police captain |
Answer:
B. police sergeant |
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SOP 312. The Tampa Police Department K-9 Unit shall be an organizational unit of the ____, with citywide responsibilities.
A. Special Support Division B. Special Operations Division C. Criminal Investigations Division D. Patrol Division |
Answer:
A. Special Support Division |
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SOP 312. The K-9 Unit Sergeant shall complete or have completed the ____ hour basic K-9 schoo
L. A. 120 B. 240 C. 360 D. 480 |
Answer:
D. 480 |
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SOP 312. The K-9 Corporal will have completed the basic 480 hour K-9 school and be a certified ____.
A. CJSTC K-9 master B. CJSTC K-9 instructor C. CJSTC K-9 expert D. CJSTC K-9 supervisor |
Answer:
B. CJSTC K-9 instructor |
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SOP 312. True or False: The corporal will function as the unit supervisor for all personnel assigned to the K-9 Unit in the absence of the K-9 Sergeant.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 312. A Master Trainer is a member of the K-9 unit for a minimum of ____.
A. one year B. two years C. three years D. five years |
Answer:
D. five years |
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SOP 312. True or False: A Master Trainer shall be an active CJSTC certified K-9 instructor.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 312. A Master Trainer shall have trained or assisted in training at least ____ K-9 teams to pass FDLE certification standards.
A. one B. two C. three D. five |
Answer:
D. five |
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SOP 312. True or False: The bloodhound may be utilized for criminal applications only.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False The bloodhound may be utilized for both criminal and non-criminal applications |
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SOP 312. The deployment criteria for non-criminal events will be any situation that dictates the use of the bloodhound to locate persons that are believed to be any of the following to include Amber alerts, except ____.
A. lost B. missing C. endangered D. runaway |
Answer:
D. runaway |
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SOP 312. The ____ will contact the bloodhound handler when Amber alert is initiated or if the person is an adult and believed to be missing or endangered and meets the criteria for deployment.
A. K9 Corporal B. K9 Sergeant C. K9 Lieutenant D. K9 Captain |
Answer:
B. K9 Sergeant |
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SOP 312. The bloodhound may also be utilized to track ____ criminal suspects.
A. felony B. misdemeanor C. misdemeanor or felony D. absconded |
Answer:
A. felony |
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SOP 312. In situation where the bloodhound is utilized to track violent felony suspect(s) a ____ will also be deployed for handler protection when availabl
E. This team will be deployed due to the normally non-aggressive behavior of the bloodhoun D. A. single purpose K-9 team B. duo purpose K-9 team C. TRT member D. patrol carbine-trained officer |
Answer:
B. duo purpose K-9 team |
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SOP 312. True or False: The bloodhound teams may occasionally be called upon to assist in misdemeanor investigations.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 312. An example of a qualified misdemeanor response would be a suspect’s flight from officers while investigating a suspicious person call within an area experiencing a ____.
A. misdemeanor crime pattern B. crime pattern involving violent crime C. crime pattern involving property crime D. felony crime pattern |
Answer:
D. felony crime pattern |
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SOP 312. True or False: The handler will utilize extreme caution in an attempt to minimize the possibility of contact between the bloodhound and the suspect.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 312. All misdemeanor searches will be approved by the ____ or in their absence a supervisor possessing the rank of a ____ or abov
E. A. K-9 Corporal / lieutenant B. K-9 Corporal / captain C. K-9 Sergeant / captain D. K-9 Sergeant / lieutenant |
Answer:
D. K-9 Sergeant / lieutenant |
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SOP 312. All area searches will be conducted ____ unless the search area is completely surrounded by a restrictive barrier, such as, a fence or an open area of sufficient size to reasonably ensure that the K-9 will not encounter citizens or perimeter units.
A. on-lead B. off-lead C. on-lead or off-lead at the discretion of the K-9 Sergeant D. on-lead or off-lead at the discretion of the K-9 Lieutenant |
Answer:
A. on-lead |
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SOP 312. The bloodhound will normally be utilized for ____ applications.
A. non-criminal B. criminal or non-criminal C. adult D. juvenile |
Answer:
A. non-criminal |
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SOP 312. An officer may inadvertently contaminate the suspect’s ____ making it more difficult to use the K-9 for trackin
G. A. fingerprints B. scent C. footprints D. tire tracks |
Answer:
B. scent |
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SOP 312. The K-9 officer’s announcement will be given in a loud and clear voice at the ____.
A. perimeter of the crime scene B. team’s entry point C. perimeter of the structure D. rear entry/exit of the structure |
Answer:
B. team’s entry point |
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SOP 312. The utilization of a K-9 must be ____ where lesser force could not reasonably accomplish the arrest.
A. lethal force B. progressive force C. regressive force D. minimal force |
Answer:
B. progressive force |
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SOP 312. The K-9 may be utilized to protect the handler, other police officers, and other persons from ____.
A. injury B. death C. fatigue D. debris E. A and B |
Answer:
E. A and B |
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SOP 312. True or False: K-9 teams may be utilized to search and seize evidence when all legal requirements for such searches and seizures have been met.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 312. A supervisor shall consult with ____ prior to directing the tactical use of the K-9.
A. the K-9 officer B. K9 Corporal C. K9 Sergeant D. K9 Lieutenant |
Answer:
A. the K-9 officer |
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SOP 312. Instances in which the capabilities of the K-9 is a significant consideration in the success of a task shall be guided by the opinion of the ____ or ____, if available, as to the ability of the K-9 to perform the required assignment.
A. K-9 officer or K-9 supervisor B. K9 Corporal C. K9 Sergeant D. K9 Lieutenant |
Answer:
A. K-9 officer or K-9 supervisor |
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SOP 312. True or False: K-9 teams shall be deployed at specific times and locations that provide optimal and uniform response throughout the city.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 312. Dispatch to particular in-progress calls should be made in conjunction with ____.
A. the zone or area unit(s) B. K9 Corporal C. K9 Sergeant D. K9 Lieutenant |
Answer:
A. the zone or area unit(s) |
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SOP 312. True or False: EOD K-9 units may be deployed to search nonspecific threats such as special events when deployment is for pre-emptive security measures.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 312. True or False: When EOD K-9 units are deployed to search nonspecific threats such as special events when deployment is for pre-emptive security measures, these searches will require the presence of an EOD technicia
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False They do not require the presence of an EOD technician |
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SOP 312. An EOD K-9 unit may also be deployed at the request of the ____ or ____.
A. EOD commander or any EOD technician B. EOD technician only C. K9 Corporal D. K9 Sergeant |
Answer:
A. EOD commander or any EOD technician |
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SOP 312. ____ will be dispatched in conjunction with all EOD K-9 calls for assistance outside of the city limits of Tamp
A. A. EOD technician(s) B. An EOD commander C. K9 Corporal D. K9 Sergeant |
Answer:
A. EOD technician(s) |
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SOP 312. The ____ shall notify the EOD commander and the K-9 supervisor of any requests for an EOD K-9.
A. An EOD commander B. K9 Corporal C. K9 Sergeant D. Communications Bureau supervisor |
Answer:
D. Communications Bureau supervisor |
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SOP 312. The ____ shall determine which EOD K-9 is to be dispatched to any EOD call or request.
A. EOD commander B. Communications Bureau supervisor C. Division Commander D. K-9 supervisor |
Answer:
D. K-9 supervisor |
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SOP 312. True or False: Nothing in this section is to prohibit an EOD technician from accompanying any EOD K-9 team while conducting a search, whether a specific threat or a sweep for pre-emptive security measures.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 312. Requests for assistance from outside agencies shall be forwarded to ____.
A. the K-9 supervisor B. EOD commander C. Communications Bureau supervisor D. Division Commander |
Answer:
A. the k-9 supervisor |
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SOP 312. Emergency requests for assistance from outside agencies shall be forwarded to ____ in the absence of the K-9 supervisor.
A. a district shift commander B. an EOD commander C. a Communications Bureau supervisor D. the Division Commander |
Answer:
A. a district shift commander |
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SOP 312. The ____ shall be completed prior to the deployment of any new K-9 officer.
A. city approved K-9 course B. state approved K-9 course C. agency approved K-9 course D. state approved EOD course |
Answer:
B. state approved K-9 course |
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SOP 312. Requests for K-9 demonstrations and exhibitions shall be forwarded to, and coordinated by, the ____ or designe
E. A. K-9 supervisor B. EOD technician C. EOD commander D. Special Support Division Commander |
Answer:
A. K-9 supervisor |
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SOP 312. Demonstrations and exhibitions shall be limited to locations within ____ unless specifically authorized by the Special Support Division Commander.
A. the City of Tampa B. Hillsborough County C. Hillsborough County and adjoining counties D. A and C |
Answer:
B. Hillsborough County |
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SOP 312. K-9 officers shall not engage in impromptu demonstrations of ____ unless individually authorized by the K-9 supervisor.
A. K-9 searches B. K-9 drug detection C. K-9 leads D. K-9 apprehension abilities |
Answer:
D. K-9 apprehension abilities |
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SOP 312. True or False: K-9 officers, regardless of assignment, shall immediately notify the K-9 supervisor of all K-9 bites or injuries whether on or off-duty, regardless of the location of the incident.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 312. The K-9 supervisor shall notify ____ of all injuries or unusual events concerning a K-9 situatio
N. A. the affected shift commander B. K-9 chain of command C. the affected division commander D. A and B E. B and C |
Answer:
D. A and B |
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SOP 312. K-9 officers shall complete their required departmental documentation concerning K-9 bite or injury prior to ____.
A. the next tour of duty B. the end of the week in which the incident occurred C. the end of the month in which the incident occurred D. securing from their tour of duty |
Answer:
D. securing from their tour of duty |
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SOP 312. The K-9 supervisor shall route a copy of all K-9 apprehensions resulting in injury caused by the K-9, to ____.
A. the Internal Affairs Bureau B. the district shift commander C. the EOD commander D. the Division Commander |
Answer:
A. the Internal Affairs Bureau |
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SOP 313. The __________ has jurisdiction over cases in which a child is alleged to have committed a violation of law, a felony traffic offense, or is dependent.
A. County Court B. Circuit Court C. Federal Court D. Criminal Court |
Answer:
B. Circuit Court |
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SOP 313. Children alleged to be dependent will be released to Detention Screenin
G. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 313. The ____ has jurisdiction over all traffic cases except those punishable as felonies. A traffic citation will be utilized as the charging instrument in these cases.
A. County Court B. Circuit Court C. Federal Court D. Criminal Court |
Answer:
A. County Court |
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SOP 313. Child: Means any unmarried person under the age of ____alleged to be dependent, in need of services, or any married or unmarried person who is charged with a violation of law occurring prior to the time that person reached the age of ____ years.
A. 21 / 21 B. 17 / 18 C. 18 / 18 D. 18 / 21 |
Answer:
C. 18 /18 |
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SOP 313. Generally, children under ___ years of age will not be arrested and processed for any criminal act.
A. 13 B. 8 C. 12 D. 10 |
Answer:
B. 8 |
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SOP 313. Should a situation arise wherein the investigating officer feels an exception should be made, he or she shall, through the proper chain of command, consult with ______________________.
A. their supervisor B. the state attorney’s office C. a Juvenile Assessment Center Supervisor D. the shift or bureau commander |
Answer:
D. the shift or bureau commander |
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SOP 313. The _____________ shall consider the totality of the circumstances and make the decision as to whether or not an arrest will be mad
E. A. Officer B. State Attorney C. On2-scene Supervisor D. Shift or bureau commander |
Answer:
D. Shift or bureau commander |
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SOP 313. When a child under 8 years-old is suspected of a criminal offense, the child shall be listed as a suspect in the report and the case shall be referred to whom? Also, who will that entity consult with?
A. DLIS / DCF and the State Attorney B. Criminal Investigations Division / DCF and the State Attorney C. Criminal Investigations Division / State Attorney D. Child Abuse Sex Crimes unit / DCF |
Answer:
B. Criminal Investigations Division / DCF and the State Attorney |
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SOP 313. ____ Means a situation in which a parent who, while being financially able, makes no provisions for the child’s support and makes no effort to communicate with the child for a period of time sufficient to indicate a willful rejection of parental obligations.
A. Neglect: B. Child Abuse or Neglect: C. Abandoned: D. Child Cruelty: |
Answer:
C. Abandoned: |
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SOP 313. Juvenile Arbitration Program: Is a program which is designed for children who commit ____ to be dealt with in a speedy and informal manner at the community or neighborhood leve
L. A. misdemeanor offenses B. felony offenses C. misdemeanors and certain first degree felony offenses D. misdemeanors and certain third degree felony offenses |
Answer:
D. misdemeanors and certain third degree felony |
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SOP 313. During an interrogation of a juvenile who is accused of a violation of the law, how many police officers will be generally be present?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
Answer:
B. 2 |
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SOP 313. TRUE OR FALSE – Law enforcement does not play any role in determining the detention of a child committing a violation of law.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 313. TRUE OR FALSE – A juvenile charged with an active warrant for felony traffic VOP will be delivered to the Juvenile Assessment Center.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False They will be delivered to central bookin G. |
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SOP 313. When can a juvenile be transported in a police vehicle with an adult?
A. Only when the juvenile and adult know each other B. Only when the juvenile and adult are related to one another C. Only when the juvenile and adult are involved as perpetrators in the same offense D. Only when the juvenile and adult both agree to the transport |
Answer:
C. Only when the juvenile and adult are involved as perpetrators in the same offense |
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SOP 313. Chapters 39 and 984, Florida Statutes, also known as the ____, govern the handling and treatment of juveniles.
A. Florida Juvenile Justice Act B. Florida Juvenile Act C. Florida Justice Act D. Florida Juvenile Justice Program |
Answer:
A. Florida Juvenile Justice Act |
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SOP 313. Among the many provisions of Chapter 39 is the option which allows police officers to deliver a child alleged to be dependent to ____.
A. DCF B. the Child Protective Investigative Unit. C. JAC D. Central Booking |
Answer:
B. the Child Protective Investigative Unit |
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SOP 313. Children alleged to be delinquent, who meet the criteria for detention established in FLORIDA STATUTE §39.044, may be released to ____.
A. DCF B. the Child Protective Investigative Unit. C. JAC D. Detention Screening |
Answer:
D. Detention Screening |
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SOP 313. True or False: Children alleged to be dependent may be released to Detention Screenin
G. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False They will not be released to detention screening |
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SOP 313. Any child requiring medical treatment will be ____ prior to delivery to Detention Screenin
G. A. observed B. counseled C. treated D. released |
Answer:
C. treated |
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SOP 313. The ____ is responsible for virtually all state sponsored health and social service programs.
A. Florida Department of Children and Families (DCF) B. DOJJ C. JAC D. FDOC |
Answer:
A. Florida Department of Children and Families (DCF) |
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SOP 313. DCF maintains a records system, which includes the names of all children that have been referred to that agency from any sourc
E. Information is available to all officers by calling ____. A. DOJJ B. JAC C. FDOC D. DCF Detention Screening |
Answer:
D. DCF Detention Screening |
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SOP 313. A personal history record, which contains all entries for which a juvenile is fingerprinted and photographed, is maintained within the ____.
A. Forensic Investigations Unit B. Juvenile Justice database C. MRE D. MDT |
Answer:
A. Forensic Investigations Unit |
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SOP 313. A ____ means a child who has been abandoned, abused, or neglected by his or her parents or other custodians / is suffering from illness or injury, or is in immediate danger from his or her surroundings and that his or her removal is necessary to protect the chil
D. A. dependent child B. child in need of referral C. child in crisis D. delinquent child |
Answer:
A. dependent child |
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SOP 313. A ____ means a child or the family of a child for whom there is no pending departmental investigation in an allegation or suspicion of abuse, neglect, or abandonment / no pending referral alleging the child is delinquent / and no current supervision by the State for an adjudication of dependency or delinquency.
A. dependent child or family B. child or family in crisis C. delinquent child or family D. Child in Need of Services or Family in Need of Services |
Answer:
D. Child in Need of Services or Family in Need of Services |
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SOP 313. In order to be defined as a Child in Need of Services, or Family in Need of Services, the court must also find that the child is exhibiting any of the following behaviors, except ____.
A. Persistently runs away from his or her parents or legal custodians despite reasonable efforts of the child, the parents or legal custodians, and appropriate agencies to remedy the conditions contributing to the behavior B. Is habitually truant from school, while subject to compulsory school attendance, despite reasonable efforts to remedy the situation pursuant to FLORIDA STATUTE §232.19, and through voluntary participation by the child’s parents or legal custodians and by the child in family mediation, services, and treatment offered by the department C. Persistently runs away from his or her parents or legal custodians in the absence of any reasonable efforts of the child, the parents or legal custodians, and appropriate agencies to remedy the conditions contributing to the behavior D. Persistently disobeys the reasonable and lawful demands of the child’s parents or legal custodians, and is beyond their control despite efforts by the child’s parents or legal custodians and appropriate agencies to remedy the conditions contributing to the behavior. Reasonable efforts may include such things as good faith participation in family or individual counselin G. |
Answer:
C. Persistently runs away from his or her parents or legal custodians in the absence of any reasonable efforts of the child, the parents or legal custodians, and appropriate agencies to remedy the conditions contributing to the behavior |
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SOP 313. Child Abuse or Neglect means harm or threatened harm to a child’s physical ormental health or welfare by ___ of the parents or other person responsible for the child’s welfar
E. A. acts B. omissions C. intentions D. A and C E. A and B |
Answer:
E. A and B |
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SOP 313. Neglect occurs when a parent or other legal custodian deprives a child of, orallows a child to be deprived of any of the following, except ____.
A. food B. education C. clothing D. shelter E. medical treatment |
Answer:
B. education |
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SOP 313. Neglect occurs when a parent or other legal custodian allows a child to live in an environment when such deprivation or environment causes the child’s ____ health to be significantly impaired or to be in danger of being significantly impaire
D. A. physical health B. mental health C. emotional health D. all of the above |
Answer:
D. all of the above |
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SOP 313. ____ means a situation in which a parent who, while being financially able, makes no provisions for the child’s support and makes no effort to communicate with the child for a period of time sufficient to indicate a willful rejection of parental obligations.
A. Abused B. Abandoned C. Neglected D. Disowned |
Answer:
B. Abandoned |
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SOP 313. Taken into Custody means the status of a child when ____ is attained by a person authorized by law, pending the child’s release, detention, placement, or other disposition as authorized by law.
A. Permanent custody of a child B. Temporary physical control over the child C. the arrest of a child D. Permanent physical control over the child |
Answer:
B. Temporary physical control over the child |
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SOP 313. In order to be eligible for arbitration, ____ must agree to arbitratio
N. A. The child B. The child and his or her parents or guardian C. The child’s parents or guardians D. DCF |
Answer:
B. The child and his or her parents or guardian |
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SOP 313. ____ will set whatever sanctions and/or restitution deemed suitable to impress upon the child the seriousness of the offens
E. A. DCF B. The arbitrator C. The parents D. DOJJ |
Answer:
B. The arbitrator |
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SOP 313. Detention Screening is a service provided by ____ for the processing of juveniles taken into custody for a delinquent act that meets the detention criteria established in FLORIDA STATUTE §39.044.
A. the Juvenile Assessment Center (JAC) B. the DOJJ C. the arbitrator D. DCF |
Answer:
A. the Juvenile Assessment Center (JAC) |
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SOP 313. Detention Screening is staffed by the Hillsborough County Sheriff’s Office in the ____ located at the Juvenile Assessment Center.
A. Secure Centralized Juvenile Facility B. Secure Adolescent Facility C. Centralized Adolescent Facility D. Secure Centralized Adolescent Facility |
Answer:
D. Secure Centralized Adolescent Facility |
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SOP 313. The ____ is a service provided by DCF for the processing of dependency cases where it is believed that a child has been abandoned, abused, or neglected, is suffering from illness or injury or is in immediate danger from his surroundings.
A. Child Investigative Unit B. Child Protection Investigative Unit C. Adolescent Protection Investigative Unit D. Child Protection Unit |
Answer:
B. Child Protection Investigative Unit |
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SOP 313. This unit provides emergency shelter to dependent children except for ____.
A. abuse cases B. neglect cases C. abandonment cases D. runaways |
Answer:
D. runaways |
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SOP 313. When emergency shelter is required, the investigating officer must first contact ____ to determine proper placement of the chil
D. A. the JAC B. HCSO C. the DOJJ D. the Child Protection Investigative Unit |
Answer:
D. Child Protection Investigative Unit |
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SOP 313. Should a situation arise wherein the investigating officer feels an exception should be made to the minimum age standard for arrest, generally, ____ years of age, he or she shall, through the proper chain of command, consult with the ____.
A. 8 / shift or bureau commander B. 10 / shift or bureau commander C. 8 / state attorney’s office D. 12 / shift or bureau commander |
Answer:
A. 8 / shift or bureau commander |
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SOP 313. ____ shall consider the totality of the circumstances and make the decision as to whether or not an arrest will be mad
E. A. the SAO B. DCF C. Child Protective Services D. the shift or bureau commander |
Answer:
D. the shift or bureau commander |
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SOP 313. True or False: Juvenile records shall be open for public disclosure and/or inspectio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False Juvenile records shall not be open for public disclosure and/or inspection |
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SOP 313. True or False: Juvenile records will be made available to other law enforcement agencies, DCF, the State Attorney’s Office, the courts, the child, the parents or legal guardian of the child, the child’s attorney, or other persons authorized by court order.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 313. True or False: All juvenile traffic records shall be exempt from inspection and publicatio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False They shall be open to inspection and publication in the same manner as adult traffic violations |
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SOP 313. True or False: A report will be originated if a child is alleged to have committed a violation of law, regardless of the disposition of the cas
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 313. A report will be originated if a child is alleged to be the victim of ____.
A. child abuse B. neglect C. neither A nor B D. A and B |
Answer:
D. A and B |
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SOP 313. True or False: A report need not be originated if a child is taken into custody for another jurisdictio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 313. True or False: A report will be originated if a child is alleged to be dependent, particularly in those cases in which the complaint is truancy or lack of contro
L. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 313. Incidents of truancy will be referred directly to ____.
A. DCF B. TRIP C. the school principal or the dean D. none of the above |
Answer:
C. the school principal or the dean |
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SOP 313. Complaints received from parents that their child is a persistent truant will be referred directly to ____.
A. DCF B. TRIP C. the school principal or the dean D. none of the above |
Answer:
A. DCF |
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SOP 313. Complaints received from parents or legal guardians that their child is ungovernable and persistently disobeys reasonable and lawful demands will be referred directly to ____.
A. DCF B. TRIP C. the school principal or the dean D. none of the above |
Answer:
A. DCF |
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SOP 313. This department will investigate reports of ____ from the Hillsborough Regional Detention Center or any detention facility located within the city limits, operated by HCSO and/or DC
F. A. abuse B. neglect C. escape D. abandonment |
Answer:
C. escape |
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SOP 313. Escape from any secure detention facility or a restrictiveness level of ___ or above by a child held for delinquent acts or violations of law is a third degree felony under FLORIDA STATUTE §39.061.
A. V B. IV C. VI D. III |
Answer:
C. VI (6) |
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SOP 313. True or False: Any child who escapes while temporarily away from a detention facility, such as, court, psychological evaluation, or medical treatment will be considered to have escaped from the facility.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 313. True or False: Dependent children who leave detention will be charged with a crime and reported as runaways.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False They will not be charged with a crime but will be treated as runaways. |
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SOP 313. The department will accept reports on ____ and ____ from DCF emergency shelters and foster homes. Children placed in this type facility, even though the placement may be court ordered, are dependent and are not on any level of detention status.
A. missing or runaway children B. abuse C. neglect D. abandonment |
Answer:
A. missing or runaway children |
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SOP 313. True or False: Child and Family Counseling and Residential Program is a DCF facility and is operated as a program of the Hillsborough County Department of Children’s Services.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False It is not a DCF program |
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SOP 313. This department will accept runaway reports from parents, legal guardians, or DCF caseworkers of children who run away from the Child and Family Counseling and Residential Program provided the child or either parent is ____.
A. dependent B. in need of referral C. in crisis D. a resident of the City of Tampa |
Answer:
D. a resident of the City of Tampa |
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SOP 313. True or False: Reports will not be accepted from the Department of Children’s Services childcare workers.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 313. In a case of out-of-city runaways who leave Child and Family, the Department of Children’s Services personnel will be advised to contact the child’s parents or legal guardians who in turn should report the child runaway to ____.
A. their local law enforcement agency B. CFS C. HKI D. the child’s parent or legal guardian |
Answer:
A. their local law enforcement agency |
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SOP 313. True or False: This department will accept runaway reports from parents, legal guardians, or DCF caseworkers of children who run away while being confined to a hospita
L. A. True B. False |
Answer: A True
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SOP 313. True or False: Reports of children who run away while being confined to a hospital may be accepted from hospital personne
L. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False Reports will not be accepted from hospital personnel |
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SOP 313. As a matter of routine, when a member of the Tampa Police Department takes a juvenile into custody for a violation of the law and an interrogation occurs, the investigating officer will make a reasonable effort to confer with ____ as soon as practica
L. A. DCF B. Child Protective Services C. the juvenile’s parent or legal guardian D. DOJJ |
Answer:
C. the juvenile’s parent or legal guardian |
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SOP 313. While it would be ideal to have a parent present during interrogation of a juvenile, appellate courts have held that admissibility of statements made by juveniles during interrogation depends upon all of the following factors, except ____.
A. A Miranda warning was properly given B. The parent was present during the interview C. The child understood the warning D. He or she waived his or her rights and made the statement freely, voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently |
Answer:
B. The parent was present during the interview |
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SOP 313. Generally, there will be no more than one subject and ____ police officers in the interview room during an interview. If circumstances warrant, additional officers may sit in on the interrogatio
N. A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 |
Answer:
B. 2 |
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SOP 313. Like adults, juveniles must be given the full Miranda Warning and will be requested to ____ if rights are waive
D. A. inform his parents B. sign the waiver statement C. inform his attorney D. inform the judge |
Answer:
B. sign the waiver statement |
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SOP 313. Because the state will have the burden of proving the waiver was knowingly and voluntarily made, special efforts should be made, preferably ____, to explain the rights to the juvenile in custody.
A. in writing B. verbally C. on tape D. in the presence of witnesses |
Answer:
C. on tape |
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SOP 313. Custodial interrogations of juveniles will not be conducted by detectives at the suspect’s school without approval of the ____.
A. shift commander B. division commander C. principal D. assistant principal, or his designee E. A or B F. C or D |
Answer:
F. C or D |
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SOP 313. A juvenile will be referred to the Clerk of the Circuit Court by means of ____ where there is sufficient probable cause to support a misdemeanor law violation and the officer cannot effect an arrest under Chapter 901.45.
A. a physical arrest B. a Notice to Appear C. A Direct File D. a Misdemeanor Complaint |
Answer:
D. a Misdemeanor Complaint |
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SOP 313. True or False: Parents or legal guardians need not be notified that the child is being referred to DCF on a Misdemeanor Complaint.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False Parents or legal guardians should be notified |
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SOP 313. Misdemeanor Complaint: If the parents are notified of the referral and there is no latent investigation required, the case should be ____ by the originating divisio
N. A. cleared by arrest B. cleared by warrant C. administratively cleared D. exceptionally cleared |
Answer:
D. exceptionally cleared |
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SOP 313. If the parents cannot be notified, or latent investigation is required, the case should be referred to ____.
A. the Criminal Investigations Division B. the SAO C. DOJJ D. DCF |
Answer:
A. the Criminal Investigations Division |
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SOP 313. True or False: Once convicted and sentenced as an adult, the child is thereafter treated as an adult for any subsequent violations of Florida law (with limited exceptions).
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 313. Officers taking juveniles into custody for committing a violation of law will call the ____ in order to determine the child’s present status as either a juvenile or an adult.
A. DOJJ B. DCF C. FDOC D. Detention Screening office |
Answer:
D. Detention Screening office |
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SOP 313. If the Detention Screening office is in possession of a copy of the record that reflects the child has been previously convicted and sentenced as an adult, the officer will do all of the following steps, except ____.
A. obtain a copy of the record B. confirm the record via criminal history report C. attach the copy to a criminal affidavit D. book the child into Central Bookin G. |
Answer:
B. confirm the record via criminal history report |
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SOP 313. In those cases where the State Attorney’s Office files a direct information on a juvenile as an adult and a capias is issued, the child will be booked into ____.
A. WT Edwards B. JAC C. Central Booking D. DCF |
Answer:
C. Central Booking |
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SOP 313. Interview and/or Arrest Within a School: When conducting an investigation within a school, or if it becomes necessary to interview or arrest a student at a school, the investigating officer shall always notify the school principal, dean, or other appropriate person in charg
E. In schools where Resource Officers are assigned, the investigating officer will make an effort to contact the Resource Officer and coordinate the investigation through the SR O. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 313. A juvenile will not be transported in a police vehicle or other vehicle which contains an adult prisoner for any reaso
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 313. By federal law, juveniles must at all times be totally separated (both sight and sound) from adult prisoners except when the juvenile and adult are involved as perpetrators in the same offens
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 313.1. Unless extenuating circumstances prohibit, any juvenile in custody of this Department who is suffering from a physical injury or illness shall be taken to ________________ for treatment.
A. the nearest hospital B. Tampa General Hospital C. Saint Joseph’s Hospital D. University Community Hospital |
Answer:
B. Tampa General Hospital |
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SOP 313.1. The only statutory responsibility vested in the Tampa Police Department for emergency treatment of a child suffering from an emotional disorder is the __________________.
A. Marchman Act B. Juvenile Emotional Act (JAT) C. Baker Act D. Carpenter Act |
Answer:
C. Baker Act |
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SOP 313.1. Any juvenile taken into custody by the Department that appears to be heavily under the influence of alcoholic beverages, or to be suffering from a drug overdose, will be considered as suffering from a physical illness and shall be taken to ________________ for treatment.
A. the nearest hospital B. Hillsborough County Crisis Center C. JAC D. TGH |
Answer:
D. TGH |
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SOP 313.2. If the violation of law for which the child has been taken into custody would be a felony, had it been committed by adult, the original record of the child's fingerprints must be submitted to____?
A. The Hillsborough County Sheriff’s Office Detention Juvenile Intake B. the FBI C. The Juvenile Assessment Center D. The Florida Department of Law Enforcement |
Answer:
D. The Florida Department of Law Enforcement |
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SOP 313.3. A juvenile who has committed a felony offense may be diverted with the approval of a ____ when all of the prerequisite criteria are met.
A. supervisor with the rank of sergeant or higher B. supervisor with the rank of sergeant or higher C. representative of the State Attorney's Office D. supervisor with the rank of lieutenant or higher |
Answer:
D. supervisor with the rank of lieutenant or higher |
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SOP 313.3. An arresting officer’s _________ may approve diversion of a juvenile who has committed a misdemeanor law violatio
N. A. Division Commander B. Shift Commander C. Supervisor D. Sergeant |
Answer:
C. Supervisor |
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SOP 313.4. A juvenile civil citation can ____ be issued to a subject who has been arrested on a_________.
A. Not/felony B. sometimes/felony C. always/on all misdemeanors D. not/theft under $300.00 |
Answer:
A. Not/felony |
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SOP 313.4. The juvenile's parent or legal guardian must agree with the interventio
N. They will be notified of the allegations immediately and sign the citation within ____ hours. A. 24 B.72 C.48 D. they do not have to sign the citatio N. |
Answer:
C.48 |
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SOP 313.4. In the event the juvenile does not complete the pre-arrest diversion program the ___________ will notify the supervisor of the originating officer who in turn will write a supplement, re-title the original offence and submit a __________ to the SA
O. A. shift commander/misdemeanor complaint B. SAO/ failure to complete diversion report C. SAO/misdemeanor complaint D. Juvenile Diversion Officer/misdemeanor complaint |
Answer:
D. Juvenile Diversion Officer/misdemeanor complaint |
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SOP 313.6. If the marriage is dissolved and neither the mother nor the father is awarded custody of the child by the courts, _____________ act as natural guardian of the chil
D. A. the mother will B. the father will C. neither shall D. a relative may |
Answer:
C. neither shall |
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SOP 313.6. Custody Orders: When retaking a child on the power of custody papers only, the officers must be certain they are dealing with the most recent custody order filed in the case before removing a child from the custody of the other party. Deal with all of the following proving materials, except ____.
A. originals B. certified copies of orders C. photostatic copies D. B and C |
Answer:
C. photostatic copies |
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SOP 313.6. Whoever without lawful authority, knowingly or recklessly takes or entices any child ___ years of age or under, or any incompetent person from the custody of his parents, guardian, or other lawful custodian commits the offense of interference with custody and shall be guilty of_____.
A. Seventeen / First Degree Misdemeanor B. Eighteen / First Degree Misdemeanor C. Seventeen / Third Degree Felony D. Eighteen / Third Degree Felony |
Answer:
C. Seventeen / Third Degree Felony |
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SOP 313.6. If legal custody has been determined and a person not having legal custody has fled with the child contrary to Florida State Statue, pick-up orders will be placed on _____.
A. the suspect B. the child C. the suspect with a notification referring to the child D. the suspect and the child |
Answer:
D. the suspect and the child |
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SOP 313.6. On requests that come from outside Hillsborough County it is mandatory that the person requesting the retake of a child register with the __________________ and have an emergency hearing scheduled with the judg
E. A. Clerk of the Circuit Court B. Clerk of the County Court C. Hillsborough County Sheriff Office D. City of Tampa Police Department |
Answer:
A. Clerk of the Circuit Court |
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SOP 313.6. Except where the safety of the child is immediately in question, officers should endeavor to stay out of custody disputes involving the interpretation of court orders.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 313.6. All cases in which legal custody cannot be determined or any pick-up orders were placed will be referred to the ___________________________.
A. State Attorney’s Office B. Criminal Investigations Division C. Affected District Detective Unit D. Clerk of the Circuit Court |
Answer:
B. Criminal Investigations Division |
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SOP 313.7. Acute cases are defined, for these purposes, as those wherein the latest alleged incident occurred within ____ hours of the report.
A. 72 B. 48 C. 24 D. 36 |
Answer:
A. 72 |
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SOP 313.7. Injuries resulting from sexual abuse, in other words, sexual organs will not be photographed except in homicide cases.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 313.7. Abused children who are in need of emergency medical care will be taken to ____.
A. the nearest practical treatment facility B. Tampa General Hospital C. University Community Hospital D. Saint Joseph’s Hospital |
Answer:
A. the nearest practical treatment facility |
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SOP 313.7. The Sex Crimes/Child Abuse Squad supervisor will be notified in all child death cases.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 313.7. The Sex Crimes/Child Abuse Squad supervisor will be notified in all child death cases, except ____.
A. where a Medical Examiner will sign the death certificate B. where a parent will sign the death certificate C. where a physician will sign the death certificate D. when the Medical Examiner declines to respond to the scene |
Answer:
C. where a physician will sign the death certificate |
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SOP 313.7. Physically abused children who are in need of non-emergency medical treatment will be taken to ____________ for assessment and treatment during normal business hours, Monday through Friday, 0800 to 1700.
A. Tampa General Hospital B. The Child Protection Team C. Memorial Hospital D. Crisis Center of Tampa Bay |
Answer:
B. The Child Protection Team |
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SOP 313.8. When a juvenile is arrested on the strength of a pickup order or teletype from an out-of-state agency, for a law violation, the arresting officer shall: (Do all the following except)
A. Follow department procedure in verifying if the hit or pickup order is still vali D. B. Document the circumstances on an Incident Report, listing the juvenile as out-of-state warrant. C. Complete and have notarized a Criminal Report Affidavit. D. The titled offense shall reflect the charge of fugitiv E. The issuing agency will be listed as the victim and complaining witness in the spaces provide D. |
Answer:
B. Document the circumstances on an Incident Report, listing juvenile as out-of-state warrant. |
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SOP 313.8. When a juvenile is taken into custody on the strength of a pick-up order placed by the DCF, unless the pick-up order has a specific charge, and the order is valid, the officer will complete a criminal report affidavit listing the offense as ____.
A. Administrative Pick-up (DCF) B. Administrative Order C. DCF Pick-up order D. Child in need of services |
Answer:
A. Administrative Pick-up (DCF) |
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SOP 313.8. When a juvenile is taken into custody as a runaway from another jurisdiction, the officer shall: (Do all the following except)
A. Document the circumstances on an Incident Report. B. The offense line of the report shall reflect the charge of runaway. C. The issuing agency will be listed as the victim and the complaining witness if the names of the parents cannot be obtaine D. D. When the juvenile cannot be released to the parents or guardian, a copy of the available documentation, such as, teletype, computer response, will be delivered with the juvenile to the Juvenile Assessment Center (JAC) |
Answer:
D. When the juvenile cannot be released to the parents or guardian, a copy of the available documentation, such as, teletype, computer response, will be delivered with the juvenile to the Juvenile Assessment Center (JAC) |
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SOP 313.9. The Truancy Reduction and Intervention Program (TRIP) focuses on those students, age ____, who fall within the ages of compulsory school attendanc
E. A. 5-16 B. 5-15 C. 6-16 D. 6-15 |
Answer:
D. 6-15 |
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SOP 314. On Sexual Battery Investigations the investigating officer will: (Which is not correct?)
A. Utilize the canine unit for tracking purposes when feasible B. Notify the Field Supervisor of the crime C. Issue temporary alerts and pick-ups as necessary D. Advise the shift commander of the details of the case |
Answer:
D. Advise the shift commander of the details of the case |
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SOP 314. ____: A report detailing pertinent facts about offenses of a sexual natur
E. It will document certain facts contained in reports to include suspects’ information, suspect vehicle information, location, and method of operatio N. A. Sex Crimes Report B. Sex Crimes Matrix C. Monthly Sex Crimes Analysis D. Sex Crimes Summary |
Answer:
B. Sex Crimes Matrix |
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SOP 314. All acute victims, both male and female, ___ years of age or older are examined by the Hillsborough County Crisis Center Nurse Examiners. Non-acute cases of males or females __ years of age or older are also done by nurse examiners.
A. 12 / 17 B. 13 / 17 C. 12 / 18 D. 13 / 18 |
Answer:
D. 13 / 18 |
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SOP 314. On Sexual Battery Investigations, the on-scene supervisor will: (Which is not correct?)
A. Obtain the details of the crime from the investigating officer B. Contact the shift commander and inform him/her of the facts surrounding the investigation C. Determine if the sex crimes sergeant is to be notified D. Be responsible for the supervision of the investigation |
Answer:
C. Determine if the sex crimes sergeant is to be notified |
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SOP 314. Sexual Battery Investigations: ____ will make the final determination on the utilization of resources based on information provided by the shift commander and the on-scene supervisor.
A. The Division Commander B. The Major Crimes Captain C. The Sex Crimes Supervisor D. The Criminal Investigative Division Commander |
Answer:
C. The Sex Crimes Supervisor |
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SOP 314. Sex Crimes Summary: A report supplied to the affected ___________ of sex crimes that are occurring with frequency in their respective districts.
A. district shift commanders B. district commanders C. division commanders D. squad commanders |
Answer:
A. district shift commanders |
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SOP 314.1. Assault Detail File Case: A ________ or holding file system utilized for those cases that are referred for latent investigation involving the Assault Victim Instruction for
M. A. twenty-day "tickler" B. thirty-day "stand by" C. twenty-day "stand by" D. thirty-day "tickler" |
Answer:
D. thirty-day "tickler" |
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SOP 314.1. The General Offense Report will reflect the issuance of the Assault Victim Instruction form on the last line of the "case summary" section by the officer typing "_________".
A. Assault Form 596 issued B. Assault Victims form left with victim C. Assault Victim issued D. Assault Form 569 issued |
Answer:
A. Assault Form 596 issued |
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SOP 314.1. The Assault Victim Instruction form should only be issued to the complainants of assaults as follows: (Which is not correct?)
A. cases of improper display of dangerous weapons/firearms B. misdemeanor assault C. Robbery D. misdemeanor battery |
Answer:
C. Robbery |
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SOP 314.1. Assault Investigations: Cases that have no leads will be retained and the Assault Victim Instruction form will be issued to the complainant.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 314.1. Assault Investigations: In cases involving serious injuries or if the victim is incapacitated due to the injury, the Assault Victim Instruction form will still be utilized, and the case will be referred per current referral guidelines.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 314.1. The investigative aide will purge the Assault Detail Case File of those cases in which complainants did not contact the Assault Detail Desk within ____ days.
A. 20 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60 |
Answer:
B. 30 |
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SOP 314.1. The Assault Victim Instruction form should only be issued to the complainants of all of the following types of assaults, except ____.
A. Shooting or throwing deadly missiles into occupied vehicles or dwellings B. Misdemeanor assault C. Improper display of dangerous weapons/firearms D. Misdemeanor battery |
Answer:
A. Shooting or throwing deadly missiles into occupied vehicles or dwellings |
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SOP 314.1. In reference to Misdemeanor Battery Investigations: Officers will attempt to obtain sufficient information about the suspect for the completion of the "Request for Prosecution by Complainant". When that form is utilized the Assault Victim Instruction form is still to be utilized and the case should be referre
D. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 314.2. Florida Statute §921.0024 provides an enhanced penalty for domestic violence crimes committed in the presence of a household member who is under the age of years ol
D. A. 12 B. 18 C. 16 D. 13 |
Answer:
C. 16 |
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SOP 314.2. True or False: A Complaint Withdrawal will not be accepted in domestic violence cases.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 314.2. ________ is a learned, coercive pattern of behavior used to control a victi
M. A. Coercion B. Domestic abuse C. Domestic coercion D. Domestic violence |
Answer:
D. Domestic violence |
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SOP 314.2. If a child witnesses a domestic violence, ______ must be notifie
D. A. CFS B. Supervisor C. HKI D. HRS |
Answer:
A. CFS |
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SOP 314.2. Officers ______ take digital photographs of the victim, offender, crime scenes, et
C., at every domestic violence incident regardless of the extent of injury and/or damag E. A. can B. may C. may not D. must |
Answer:
D. must |
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SOP 314.2. Public Records Exemption Form: Florida Public Records Law allows for certain information to be exempt from disclosure for up to ____ years.
A. two B. three C. four D. five |
Answer:
D. five |
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SOP 314.2. To be eligible for the Public Records Exemption you must have been a victim of the following crimes: (Which is not correct?)
A. sexual battery B. domestic violence C. harassment D. robbery |
Answer:
D. robbery |
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SOP 314.2. To be eligible for the Public Records Exemption you must have been a victim of the following crimes: (Which is not correct?)
A. sexual battery B. domestic violence C. harassment D. battery |
Answer:
D. battery |
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SOP 314.2. In reference Domestic Violence Investigations: Officers ____ the victim complete the Public Records Exemption Forms, and if issued it will be noted in the report.
A. may have B. will have C. could have D. will suggest |
Answer:
B. will have |
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SOP 314.2. In reference to Domestic Violence Investigations: The _________ shall forward the affidavit and copies of all written statements to the Family Violence Unit, Domestic Violenc
E. The copy will be appropriately marked if it was imaged or not. A. officer B. supervisor C. administrative CSO D. records |
Answer:
A. officer |
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SOP 314.2. If the allegation of domestic violence is a misdemeanor, and the suspect is known but unavailable for lawful arrest, the officer shall complete a ____.
A. Criminal Report Affidavit for direct file B. Request for Prosecution C. Affidavit if Felony, Request for Prosecution if Misdemeanor D. Request Affidavit Form |
Answer:
A. Criminal Report Affidavit for direct file |
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SOP 314.3. Services available through the Victim Advocate Program include: (Which is not correct?)
A. Providing crisis intervention for the victim B. Assisting in emergency needs of the victims such as food, shelter, and clothing C. Assisting in the return of property no longer needed as evidence D. Assisting the department with death notification services for employees, their families, and the publi C. E. All are correct |
Answer:
E. All are correct |
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SOP 314.3. The _____ shall determine whether utilization of the advocate (victims advocate) is appropriate based upon the type of the crime and the needs of the victi
M. A. officer B. street supervisor C. shift commander D. on duty detective |
Answer:
B. street supervisor |
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SOP 314.3. All requests for victim advocates shall be made via the ______, which maintains a 24-hour call out schedul
E. A. Shift commander B. District CSO C. Communication Section D. pick-up desk |
Answer:
C. Communication Section |
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SOP 314.4. Injunctions issued by courts of other states, the District of Columbia, US Territories, or reservations are valid and enforceable in F
L. No court proceeding in FL is necessary. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. True |
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SOP 314.4. Domestic or Repeat Violence Injunctions: A temporary injunction may be issued by the court without a hearing and is in effect for a maximum of ______ days unless extended by the court.
A. ten B. fifteen C. twenty D. thirty |
Answer:
B. fifteen |
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SOP 314.4. Injunction for Protection Against Repeat Violence: Is an injunction issued by the court to any person who has been the victim of at least two incidents of violenc
E. One on the incidents must have occurred within the last _____. A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D. 2 years |
Answer:
A. 6 months |
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SOP 314.4. A violation of the provisions of an injunction against repeat violence (pending it meets the criminal criteri
A. is a _____. A. misdemeanor of the third degree B. misdemeanor of the second degree C. misdemeanor of the first degree D. felony of the third degree |
Answer:
C. misdemeanor of the first degree |
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SOP 314.4. Once the injunction has been served, the officer will notify HCSO Communications Center, ________.
A. immediately B. as soon as practical C. prior to the end of the shift D. within one hour |
Answer:
A. immediately |
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SOP 314.5. Injunctions on employees: When a temporary or final injunction has expired or has been recalled by the court, the officer shall notify ____, and provide a copy of the court document terminating the injunctio
N. A. his division commander and the Internal Affairs Bureau B. his Supervisor and his division commander C. his supervisor and the internal Affairs Bureau D. his division commander and the legal department |
Answer:
C. his supervisor and the internal Affairs Bureau |
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SOP 314.5. The federal Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994 includes a Violence Against Women section, which address domestic violenc
E. It prohibits the possession of a firearm or ammunition by any person subject to a temporary domestic violence injunctio N. This provision includes law enforcement officers. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 314.5. Upon being served with a temporary (ex parte) injunction for protection against domestic violence or notice of hearing, an employee shall notify his ____ on the next work day and provide a copy of the court papers.
A. division commander B. shift commander C. lieutenant D. supervisor |
Answer:
D. supervisor |
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SOP 314.5. Injunctions on employees: A copy of the injunction will be forwarded by the supervisor or shift commander to the Internal Affairs Bureau and the ____.
A. Chief's Office B. Asst. Chief's Office C. Division Commander D. Police Legal Advisor |
Answer:
D. Police Legal Advisor |
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SOP 314.5. Officers subject to a final injunction for protection against domestic violence may possess a firearm and ammunition only while on duty or working an approved extra-duty assignment, unless the injunction specifically provides otherwis
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 314.5. If, in the opinion of the Police Legal Advisor, the injunction qualifies as a final injunction, the employee must divest himself of all firearms and ammunitio
N. Department owned firearms and ammunition will be turned over to the Property Roo M. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 316. If a US Treasury check or a State of Florida check has been forged, the officer will contact _______ for review.
A. his/her supervisor or the shift commander B. the duty detective or his/her immediate supervisor C. the Postal Inspector's Office D. his/her supervisor and the Postal Inspector's Office |
Answer:
B. the duty detective or his/her immediate supervisor |
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SOP 316. This department does not handle complaints of "stop payment" checks.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. False |
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SOP 316. True or False: All check cases involving "Stop Payment" or "Forgery" shall continue to be investigated by this department.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 316. The original forgery affidavit will be _________.
A. imaged and sent to records for retention B. forwarded to the detective C. sent to records D. placed into evidence |
Answer:
D. placed into evidence |
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SOP 316.1. Embezzlement cases where a business has suffered a loss of at least _______, and where the suspect was in a position of financial trust, shall be referred to the Economic Crimes Unit.
A. $30,000 B. $3,000 C. $300 D. $30 |
Answer:
C. $300.00 |
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SOP 316.1. Burglary / Theft Offenses: In those cases where identity, checks, or credit cards are stolen and no leads exist, the cases should be inactivate
D. If the owner of the property determines that someone used any of those items within a ______ period the cases should be referred to the District Latent Investigative Squad for investigatio N. If used after this period the cases should be referred to the Economic Crimes Unit. A. 24-hour B. 48-hour C. 72-hour D. one week |
Answer:
B. 48-hour |
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SOP 316.1. In regards to Seizure of computer equipment: It is not necessary to photograph the wires just the equipment before touching it.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 317. If "Unit 50" cannot respond within a ________ period, the officer shall transport the person to the Crisis Center.
A. 20 minute B. 30 minute C. 45 minute D. 60 minute |
Answer:
B. 30 minute |
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SOP 317. The original Baker Act form will be imaged into the report and marked as confidentia
L. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 317. Persons arrested on felony charges shall be transported to Central Booking at the Orient Road Jai
L. If they meet the Baker Act Criteria, the arresting officer shall notify _________. A. his/her supervisor B. booking clerk C. detention deputy D. Hillsborough County Crisis Center |
Answer:
D. Hillsborough County Crisis Center |
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SOP 317. A _____ may enter an ex parte order stating that a person appears to meet the criteria for involuntary examinatio
N. _______ executes all ex parte orders in Hillsborough County. A. County or Circuit Judge / HCSO B. County of Circuit Judge / All LEOs C. County Judge / HCSO D. Circuit Judge / HCSO |
Answer:
D. Circuit Judge / HCSO |
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SOP 317. When an officer finds it necessary to take a person into custody under the Marchman Act, the nearest relative of a juvenile must be notified by the officer, as must the nearest relative of an adult.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 317. Any officer who acts in good faith in compliance with the provisions of the Baker Act is immune from _________ for his actions in connection with the admission of a patient to a facility.
A. civil liability B. criminal liability C. civil or criminal liability D. arrest |
Answer:
C. civil or criminal liability |
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SOP 319. It is the responsibility of __________ to handle gas drive off calls.
A. the officer on the street who gets the call B. district delayed crimes unit C. no report is taken, it is a write off for the business D. any CSO on the street |
Answer:
B. district delayed crimes unit |
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SOP 319. A conviction for a gas drive off should result in a standard _______ penalty plus______.
A. misdemeanor/ 100 community service hours B. misdemeanor/ 250 community service hours C. misdemeanor/a DL suspension D. notice to appear/ $250.00 fine |
Answer:
C. misdemeanor/a DL suspension |
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SOP 320. Mechanic's Liens (Motor Vehicle Repairs): If the bond matches the amount owed and the company refuses to relinquish the vehicle, the refusing party can be subject to arrest for a __________.
A. third degree misdemeanor B. second degree misdemeanor C. first degree misdemeanor D. third degree felony |
Answer:
B. second degree misdemeanor |
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SOP 320. Mechanic's Liens (Motor Vehicle Repairs): The officer should remind the repair shop that he has to file his lien with the Hillsborough Court per Chapter 559.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 320. Mechanic's Liens: When arrests become necessary, it will be the policy of the Tampa Police Department to issue a "Notice To Appear" whenever possibl
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 320. In regards to Mechanic's Liens (Motor Vehicle Repairs): In a dispute the officer can refer the owner to the Hillsborough County Courthouse to post bon
D. They must bring a repair invoice along with identification, cash or cashier’s check, and pay a ____ filing fe E. A. $5.00 B. The appropriate C. $10.00 D. $15.00 |
Answer:
B. The appropriate |
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SOP 322. The following impounds are for rotation impounds (Which is not correct?)
A. impounded for excessive unpaid parking tickets B. Possible stolen vehicles C. impounded for parking violations D. vehicles of arrested persons |
Answer:
A. impounded for excessive unpaid parking tickets |
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SOP 322. Who has supervisory control of wreckers at crash scenes?
A. Hillsborough County Public Transportation Commission B. The Tampa Police Department C. The vehicle owner D. Investigating officers |
Answer:
D. Investigating officers |
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SOP 322. During the impound inventory process only items of value exceeding _____ need to be listed on the impound report.
A. $10 B. $20 C. $25 D. $30 |
Answer:
A. $10 |
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SOP 322. In a case wherein wrecker or storage fees are to be waived as a result of error directly attributable to the police department, the _________ will initiate the request for waiver.
A. originating officer B. officer' immediate supervisor C. shift commander D. commander of the concerned division |
Answer:
D. commander of the concerned division |
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SOP 322. Police Impounds: What copy of the impound will be left at the impound lot with the evidence technician?
A. white B. yellow C. pink D. canary |
Answer:
B. yellow |
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SOP 322. If a police unit is towed, the officer will direct a memo to _________, describing the problem with the vehicl
E. The wrecker bill will be attached to the mem O. A. his/her supervisor B. the shift commander C. the division commander D. the vehicle coordinator |
Answer:
D. the vehicle coordinator |
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SOP 322. If a vehicle is being impounded as a red tagged vehicle, the officer will notify the City of Tampa Parking Divisio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 322. All vehicles that under Police Impound will be taken to ________.
A. TPD Impound Lot. B. rotation impound company's lot (unless a hold for forfeiture in initiated) C. rotation impound company's lot (unless the vehicle is evidence of a felony crime) D. all the above are correct. |
Answer:
A. TPD Impound Lot. |
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SOP 322. Rotation Impound: The term “police impound” will be used for vehicles that are transported to a rotation wrecker company storage lot.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 322. Evidence or lost property other than vehicles that require a wrecker will be transported to the impound lot.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 322. Officers are strictly prohibited from recommending the services of a particular wrecker company.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 322. If the owner of a vehicle arrives at the scene while his/her vehicle is in the process of being impounded, the officer will release the vehicle to the owner unless unusual circumstances dictate otherwis
E. If the wrecker has hooked up to the vehicle, the owner will be required to pay a negotiable fee (amounting to no more than ___the standard fee), or the wrecker operator, at his/her option, may elect to go back on top of the rotation list and thereby waive any fe E. A. ¼ B. ¾ C. ½ D. 2/3 |
Answer:
C. ½ |
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SOP 322. Officers will impound vehicles from private property at the request of the property owner.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 322. Vehicles impounded by the City of Tampa Parking Department, Enforcement Division that shows excessive unpaid parking tickets will be stored at ______.
A. A secured lot at the Parking Division B. A private lot C. TPD impound lot D. the location found with a boot securing a wheel |
Answer:
C. TPD impound lot |
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SOP 322. When communications is contacted for a wrecker on a police impound, the Com-Tech will be advised of the type of hold(s) on the vehicle and _________.
A. the reason for the hold B. the name of the approving supervisor C. the status of the investigation D. the payroll number of the approving supervisor |
Answer:
B. the name of the approving supervisor |
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SOP 322.2. Rental Property and Theft From Inventory: Jurisdiction is determined by _________.
A. where the contract was signed B. where payment was made C. where the lessee originally took possession D. where the lessee was intending to return the property |
Answer:
C. where the lessee originally took possession |
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SOP 322.2. Before taking a rental vehicle theft report in DCIU, the complainant must be able to positively identify the suspect by (Which of the following is not correct?)
A. document the suspect's weight B. document the suspect's height C. document the suspect's DL or ID number D. make a photocopy of the DL or ID E. All are correct |
Answer:
E. All are correct |
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SOP 322.2. Failing to return rental vehicles and/or other rental property are normally violations of a civil contract, absent statutory relie
F. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 322.2. It is the responsibility of any officer learning of a complaint of failure to return rental property or vehicles, or fraudulent rental, to ____.
A. originate a criminal report B. refer the complainant to the Delayed Crimes Investigations Unit C. refer the complainant to the State Attorney’s Office D. originate an information report |
Answer:
B. refer the complainant to the Delayed Crimes Investigations Unit |
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SOP 323. Recovery of stolen vehicles: It is the responsibility of the ___________ to ensure that the originating agency is advised of the recovery, suspect information, and storage location of the vehicl
E. A. teletype operator B. latent investigator C. recovering officer D. officer's supervisor |
Answer:
C. recovering officer |
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SOP 323.2. Stolen Vehicles or Stolen Tag Reports Involving Relationships: The officer will list the vehicle in the "Entities" portion of the report as "Family/Relation" and not as stole
N. A stolen vehicle detail page should still be complete D. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 323.2. Stolen Vehicles involving relationships (FM/R): Under extenuating circumstances that are to be documented, a _______ or higher may authorize placing a pickup for the vehicle or ta
G. Such circumstances include danger to anyone or the involvement of additional severe offenses. If a pickup is placed, the report should be titled as ______ and referred to the Auto Theft Squad for latent investigatio N. A. Sergeant / Information (pickup placed) B. Sergeant / Grand Theft Auto C. Lieutenant / Information (pickup placed) D. Lieutenant / Grand Theft Auto |
Answer:
D. Lieutenant / Grand Theft Auto |
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SOP 323.2. All stolen vehicle or stolen tag reports involving relationships cases will be referre
D. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 323.2. In regards to Motor vehicle traded for drugs: The vehicle is subject to forfeiture and notation will be made for such forfeiture for the recovering officer.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 333. When reporting runaways: Group type homes, such as "Haynes Group Home" and "ACTS", can report multiple runaways at a time by telephon
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 333. Amber Alert: The child must be under ______ years of ag
E. A. 18 B. 17 C. 14 D. 13 |
Answer:
A. 18 |
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SOP 333. Generally, the Major Crimes Bureau will make the determination of the recommendation of an Amber Alert, but in extreme cases the street supervisor or the _________ can telephone FDLE and get the alert activate
D. A. lieutenant B. shift commander C. radio supervisor D. on scene detective |
Answer:
C. radio supervisor |
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SOP 333. If the child is not located, the ________ will determine the duration of the searc
H. A. on scene supervisor B. lieutenant C. Criminal Investigation Division D. Criminal Intelligence Bureau |
Answer:
C. Criminal Investigation Division |
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SOP 333. A pickup will be placed for the missing child as soon as possible, consistent with the available facts. The pickup will be entered into FCIC/NCIC, transmitted to all law enforcement agencies in the country and placed on the hot sheet for a ______ perio
D. A. 24 hour B. 36 hour C. 48 hour D. 72 hour |
Answer:
A. 24 hour |
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SOP 333. There will be _______ period required for missing person reports.
A. a 24 hour B. a 48 hour C. no waiting D. a 72 hour |
Answer:
C. no waiting |
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SOP 333. When an adult subject is located, and a violation of law is not involved, and the subject is of sound mind, the location and status of the adult subject will be revealed to the person making the report without the subject's permissio
N. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 333. Lost or Missing Children Generally, the Major Crimes Bureau will make the determination of the recommendation of an AMBER ALERT, but in extreme cases the street supervisor or the radio supervisor can telephone FDLE and get the alert activate
D. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 333. If the child is not located, the _________________will determine the duration of the searc
H. A. affected Division Commander B. on-scene supervisor C. originating officer D. Criminal Investigations Division |
Answer:
D. Criminal Investigations Division |
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SOP 333. Amber Alert can be used when a child has runaway or is the subject of a custody disput
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 333. A pickup will be placed for the missing child as soon as possible, consistent with the available facts. The pickup will be entered into FCIC/NCIC, transmitted to all law enforcement agencies in the county and placed on the hot sheet for a ___ hour perio
D. A. 24 B. 48 C. 72 D. 36 |
Answer:
A. 24 |
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SOP 333. Amber Alert: ____________ does have the final determination in whether an AMBER ALERT will be issue
D. A. CID Commander B. MCB Family Violence Sergeant C. FDLE D. Chief of Police |
Answer:
C. FDLE |
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SOP 333.3. The officer will contact the _____________ to alert them to call and activate “A Child Is Missing Alert (ACIM)” after getting approval from a patrol supervisor.
A.CIB B. Communications Supervisor C. PIO D. Shift Commander |
Answer:
B. Communications Supervisor |
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SOP 333.3. In order for a senior citizen to be listed in ACIM, they must be ___ years old and must suffer from ______, _______ or some other irreversible deterioration of intellectual faculties.
A. 60 / Alzheimers, dementia B. 65 /Alzheimers, dementia C. no age limit on the elderly/no medical problems D. there is no alerts on the elderly |
Answer:
B. 65 /Alzheimers, dementia |
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SOP 333.3. When the alert is given, the suggested times to call are ____ to________.
A. 0700 to 10:30 PM B. 0600 to 11:30 PM C. 0500 to 10:00 PM D. no suggested times to call |
Answer:
A. 0700 to 10:30 PM |
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SOP 333.3. A _____________ report will be faxed from “A Child Is Missing” to the ___________.
A. Located juvenile/PIO for the news media B. Case Follow-Up/Communication Bureau C. Case Follow-Up/DLIS SGT D. Located juvenile/DLIS/SGT |
Answer:
B. Case Follow-Up/Communication Bureau |
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SOP 337. A vehicle can be seized if it is used for racing by a person within ___ years of the date of the prior conviction for racing, if the person racing the vehicle is the owner of the vehicl
E. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 |
Answer:
D. 5 |
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SOP 337. If the yellow copy is not given to all parties, you are to have it sent via certified mail through the property room prior to the end of the shift. In any case, it must be provided to the claimant(s) within ___ days.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
Answer:
D. 5 |
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SOP 337. The impound/seizure officer's supervisor will, after approval of the officer's report, cause a complete copy of the Incident Report (including any impound report) to be delivered to the Forfeiture Unit within _____ calendar days following the seizur
E. A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 |
Answer:
D. 7 |
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SOP 337. The terms seizure and forfeiture are not synonymous.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 337. The impound/seizure officer's supervisor will, after approval of the officer's report, cause a complete copy of the Incident Report (including any impound report) to be delivered to the Forfeiture Unit within ______calendar days following the seizur
E. A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10 |
Answer:
C. 7 |
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SOP 338. Seizure of computer equipment: It is not necessary to photograph the wires just the equipment before touching it.
A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 339. No evidence seized in a capital or life felony offense, whether solved or unsolved, will be authorized for disposal unless reviewed and approved by
A. the State Attorney's Office B. a supervisor from the appropriate latent bureau or division C. the detective assigned to the latent investigation D. the State Attorney's Office and the latent investigator |
Answer:
B. a supervisor from the appropriate latent bureau or division |
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SOP 339. When property is placed at the districts, the courier will review the forms, packages, and labeling prior to transporting the property to the property roo
M. Any discrepancies will be brought to the attention of the ________. A. entering officer B. officer's supervisor C. Detective Sergeant D. District Shift Commander |
Answer:
D. District Shift Commander |
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SOP 339. All firearms that require processing, for evidentiary value (fingerprints), will be ____.
A. packaged and placed into evidence with a request for processing B. taken to the FIU and processed, prior to packaging C. marked for processing after packaging D. processed by FDLE at a later date |
Answer:
B. taken to the FIU and processed, prior to packaging |
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SOP 339. All narcotics, cash and valuable jewelry entered at the Property Room or Impound Lot will be placed in a secure drop box by the receiving evidence technician immediately upon receipt. The drop will be witnessed by ________.
A. another employee B. another evidence technician C. the entering employee D. the evidence technician supervisor |
Answer:
C. the entering employee |
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SOP 339. All firearms will be packaged in gun boxes. All magazines, scopes, extra barrels, holsters, slings, and other miscellaneous firearm will be packaged separate of the firear
M. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 339. No evidence seized in a capital or life felony offense, whether solved or unsolved, will be authorized for disposal unless reviewed and approved by a ___________.
A. street supervisor B. shift commander C. division commander D. supervisor from the appropriate latent bureau |
Answer:
D. supervisor from the appropriate latent bureau |
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SOP 339. Title to unclaimed lost property which is found on public property is vested to the finder ____ days from the date delivered to the department, provided the notice requirements FS 705.103 are met.
A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90 |
Answer:
D. 90 |
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SOP 339. Deceased Property: The authorization for the release of deceased property is the responsibility of the _________.
A. Originating Officer B. Criminal Investigations Division C. Criminal Intelligence Division D. assigned detective's supervisor |
Answer:
B. Criminal Investigations Division |
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SOP 339. Property checked out for court will be returned to the Property Room ________.
A. the same day B. within 24 hours C. by the next work day D. as soon as practical |
Answer:
A. the same day |
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SOP 339. Final disposition of found, recovered, or evidentiary property is accomplished as soon as practical but in no case shall disposition be delayed in excess of _____ after legal requirements have been met.
A. 30 days B. 90 days C. 6 months D. 1 year |
Answer:
C. 6 months |
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SOP 339. Disposition of evidence associated with arrests requires prior approval from the _________________.
A. Division Commander responsible for the originating investigation B. Division Commander responsible for the latent investigation C. State Attorney’s Office D. Originating Officer |
Answer:
C. State Attorney’s Office |
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SOP 339. All narcotics, cash and valuable jewelry entered at the Property Room or Impound Lot will be placed in a secure drop box by the receiving evidence technician immediately upon receipt. The drop will be witnessed by ________.
A. another employee B. another evidence technician C. the entering employee D. the evidence technician supervisor |
Answer:
C. the entering employee |
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SOP 339.1. Drug paraphernalia must be packaged with the associated narcoti
C. A. True B. False |
Answer:
B. False |
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SOP 339.1. When more than ____ grams of marijuana are confiscated, the entire amount, up to ____ grams, will be entered into the Property Section as one packag
E. A. 20 / 50 B. 28 / 50 C. 20 / 28 D. 28 / 40 |
Answer:
B. 20 / 50 |
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SOP 339.1. If more than ___ grams of marijuana are confiscated, ____ grams shall be separated and placed in the Property Section in one packag
E. A. 28 / 50 B. 50 / 28 C. 20 / 50 D. 50 / 20 |
Answer:
B. 50 / 28 |
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SOP 339.1. If more than one deck or hit is confiscated, ____ packets will be placed in the Property Section in one package for laboratory analysis, and the remainder will be entered in a separate package for court proceedings.
A. one B. two C. three D. four |
Answer:
B. two |
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SOP 339.1. In the event of a bulk narcotic confiscation, the entire amount will be placed into the Property Section in one packag
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 339.1. Narcotics seized which are in powder form and weigh a ______ or more will be sent to the state laboratory for qualitative testin
G. A. pound B. kilo C. 32 ounces D. 100 grams |
Answer:
A. pound |
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SOP 339.1. When transporting narcotics weighing ________ or more, the evidence specialist will arrange for police escort for security assistanc
E. A. one pound B. one hundred grams C. one kilogram D. one hundred kilograms |
Answer:
C. One kilogram |
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SOP 339.2. High Valued Currency: The amount of currency that will be subject to inner vault storage will be currency in amounts received for a single entry, or multiple amounts received for a single incident, of ____ or mor
E. A. $1,000.00 B. $3,000.00 C. $5,000.00 D. $10,000.00 |
Answer:
C. $5,000.00 |
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SOP 339.2. High Value Narcotics is the amount of narcotics subject to the inner vault storage shall be single entry of _______ or more of cocaine or heroi
N. A. one pound B. 32 ounces C. 5 kilogram D. 1 kilogram |
Answer:
D. 1 kilogram |
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SOP 339.2. When items which are defined as high valued currency or narcotics are stored for short periods, not to exceed ___ hours, they will be stored in the walk-in-saf
E. A. 24 B. 36 C. 48 D. 72 |
Answer:
D. 72 |
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SOP 339.2. When it is necessary to open the inner vault to enter or remove items, the ESS will call the Office of Chief Accountant, Revenue Finance Department, and arrange for a representative to meet at the Property Section to unlock the combination lock and witness ________ of the items.
A. entry B. removal C. disposal D. both A and B are correct |
Answer:
D. both A and B are correct |
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SOP 339.2. When officers receive a subpoena that requires an item from the inner vault, they will submit in advance, a copy of the subpoena and a Temporary Release form to the ESS At least _____ is needed to schedule a vault openin
G. A. 24 hours B. one work day C. 72 hours D. three work days |
Answer:
B. one work day |
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SOP 349. Under the implied consent law, two breathalyzer tests must be given within _______.
A. 2 minutes B. 5 minutes C. 7 minutes D. 10 minutes |
Answer:
B. 5 minutes |
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SOP 349. The blood kit has a ______ shelf life and can be kept in a police vehicle without the weather affecting it.
A. 20 month B. 21 month C. 40 month D. 41 month |
Answer:
D. 41 month |
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SOP 349.1. The administrative CSO shall complete the “Florida DUI Traffic Citation Transmittal” form and shall forward the Administrative Suspension Package to the DHSMV Bureau of Administrative Review within ____ days of the arrest.
A.10 B. 7 C. 6 D. 5 |
Answer:
D. 5 |
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SOP 349.1. DUI suspensions: The administrative CSO shall either mail, within ____ days of the arrest, or cause to be delivered within ____ days to the local Driver Improvement officer.
A. 2 /5 B. 3 / 7 C. 5 / 7 D. 5 / 10 |
Answer:
D. 5 / 10 |
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SOP 366. Complaint Withdrawal: Prior to having the form signed, the investigator will contact his ______ who, after hearing the facts of the case, will approve or disapprove of the use of the for
M. A. supervisor B. lieutenant C. shift commander D. sergeant |
Answer:
A. supervisor |
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SOP 371. ____ shall mean all arrests not requiring the use of Central Breath Testin
G. A. Controlled Booking B. Forward Booking C. Straight Booking D. Direct Booking |
Answer:
C. Straight Booking |
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SOP 371. No officer shall perform or arrange for a strip search without obtaining the written authorization of _______.
A. his supervisor B. his shift commander C. his division or bureau commander D. his assistant chie F. |
Answer:
A. his supervisor |
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SOP 371. "Frisk" is the _______ search of any person whom an officer has stopped, or temporarily detained, pursuant to Florida Statute 901.151.
A. temporary B. complete C. pat down D. limited |
Answer:
D. limited |
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SOP 371. The searching of body cavities of either male or female prisoners ________ conducted by Tampa police officers.
A. will be B. will not be C. will be monitored D. will not be monitored |
Answer:
B. will not be |
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SOP 371. A search will be conducted each time a different officer ________ .
A. interviews a prisoner B. monitors a prisoner C. transports a prisoner D. takes custody of a prisoner |
Answer:
D. takes custody of a prisoner |
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SOP 371. Under no circumstances will the transporting officer engage in any pursuit while in custody of a prisoner.
A. Except in an officer down situation B. Except to save the life of a citizen and/or officer C. Except as directed by his supervisor D. There is no exception |
Answer:
D. There is no exception |
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SOP 371. Should a prisoner escape from the transporting officer, the officer will do all of the following, except ____.
A. Notify police communications B. Notify the shift commander C. Request additional officers D. Complete an Escape Report |
Answer:
B. Notify the shift commander |
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SOP 371. There are three methods of speed cuffing, which is not?
A. Standing B. Kneeling C. Prone D. Combat |
Answer:
B. Kneeling |
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SOP 371.1. It is the policy of the Tampa Police Department that arrested juveniles under the age of ____ years will not be handcuffe
D. A. 12 B. 8 C. 13 D. 11 |
Answer:
C. 13 |
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SOP 371.1. The ____ technique is used for low risk, compliance subjects.
A. Standing technique B. Combat technique C. Prone technique D. Horizontal technique |
Answer:
A. standing technique |
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SOP 371.1. The ____ technique is used for high risk, non-compliance subjects.
A. Standing technique B. Combat technique C. Prone technique D. Horizontal technique |
Answer:
C. Prone technique |
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SOP 371.1. The ____ technique is used for those situations, which require speed as an integral part of officer safety for immediate control of the subject.
A. Standing technique B. Combat technique C. Prone technique D. Horizontal technique |
Answer:
B. Combat technique |
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SOP 371.1. In all restraining situations, the prisoner will be placed ____, if at all possibl
E. A. Chest down B. Chest up C. On their side D. Face down butt up |
Answer:
B. chest up |
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SOP 371.1. While applying the nylon rope leg restraint, the handcuffed prisoner will be positioned with their chest _____.
A. up B. down C. forward D. rear |
Answer:
B. down |
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SOP 371.1. The accepted Tampa Police Department leg restraints are a ____ foot long nylon rope with a loop at one end and a knot at the other en
D. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 |
Answer:
B. 4 |
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SOP 371.1. Once the restraint (leg restraint) is applied, the prisoner will be placed chest____.
A. up B. down C. forward D. rear |
Answer:
A. up |
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SOP 371.1. With supervisory approval, normal restraint techniques may be altered as necessary to include all of the following, EXCEPT ____.
A. Using flex cuffs B. Using two sets of handcuffs C. Handcuffing in front of the susject D. Un-cuffing the suspect |
Answer:
D. Un-cuffing the suspect |
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SOP 371.1. Whenever possible, transport (a handcuffed subject) in an ________, or side-prone positio
N. A. upright, chest up B. upright, chest down C. upright, chest left D. upright, chest right |
Answer:
A. upright, chest up |
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SOP 371.1. The accepted Tampa Police Department leg restraints are a ____ foot long nylon rope with a loop at one end and a knot at the other en
D. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 |
Answer:
B. 4 |
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SOP 371.2. A highly active criminal can be brought to ______ for finger printing before being processe
D. A. Central Booking B. Police Headquarters C. Morgan Street Jai L. D. none of the above |
Answer:
B. Police Headquarters |
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SOP 372. The maximum period of time that a detainee may be held in a secure interview room is ____ hrs
A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 |
Answer:
B. 2 |
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SOP 372. In regard to secure interview rooms: Prisoners will be deprived of ____ prior to being placed in the cells in order to facilitate the discovery of and weapons.
A. belts and bandannas B. belts and shoes C. belts, shoes, and bandannas D. belts, shoes, bandannas and jewelry |
Answer:
D. belts, shoes, bandannas and jewelry |
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SOP 372. The decision to have the detainee handcuffed and/or restrained with a leg-restraining device while in the interview room shall be at the discretion of _____.
A. the officer B. the officer's supervisor C. the latent investigator D. the shift commander |
Answer:
A. the officer |
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SOP 372. Male and female detainees shall not be detained in the same secure interview room ___________.
A. unless both are charged in the same incident B. unless both are juveniles and charged in the same incident C. unless both are adults and charged in the same incident D. as stated, no exceptions |
Answer:
D. as stated, no exceptions |
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SOP 372. Detainees shall not be handcuffed, or otherwise secured, to any fixed objects within the room ____.
A. unless they show violent tendencies B. unless they seem to be suicidal C. unless they strike ot threaten to strike their heads against the wall D. as stated, no exceptions |
Answer:
D. as stated, no exceptions |
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SOP 372. Training of secure interview room - It shall be the responsibility of ______ to periodically review this procedure with their subordinates and ensure compliance through visual observation of officers utilizing the facilities.
A. each supervisor B. the shift commander C. each sector commander D. each division commander |
Answer:
A. each supervisor |
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SOP 380. Florida statute allows a vehicle which is disabled or in a condition improper to be driven as a result of mechanical failure or accident to be parked on the shoulder of a limited access facility for a period not to exceed hours.
A. 24 B. 6 C. 48 D. 72 |
Answer:
B. 6 |
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SOP 380. Service Tag will be attached to the department's copy (white) of the Impound Report. These will be maintained in the Property Section for a period of not less than _____.
A. three years B. two years C. six months D. ninety days |
Answer:
B. two years |
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SOP 380. City Ordinance Section 19-56(e) grants concurrent jurisdiction to the Tampa Police Department and the Division of Neighborhood Improvement of the Department of Business & Community Services to remove a dismantled or inoperative vehicle which has been parked upon private or public property for over a ____ hour period, enclosed buildings or licensed businesses are exempte
D. A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 72 |
Answer:
D. 72 |
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SOP 380. If an unattended vehicle is an immediate safety hazard or impedes normal traffic, the vehicle ________
A. may be police impounded B. will be cited C. owner will be arrested D. may be rotation impounded |
Answer:
D. may be rotation impounded |
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SOP 380. The parking citation will be attached to the ______of the Impound Report. The Service Tag will be attached to the ____ of the Impound Report.
A. owner's copy (white), department's copy (white) B. owner's copy (yellow), department's copy (white) C. owner's copy (white), department's copy (yellow) D. owner's copy (yellow), department's copy (yellow) |
Answer:
B. owner's copy (yellow), department's copy (white) |
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SOP 380. In the event an officer needs to testify in court, he may obtain the copy of the Impound Report and the Service Tag from ___________.
A. the Records Section B. the Pickup Desk at Communications Section C. the Evidence Control Section D. the Administrative CSO assigned to the assigned District |
Answer:
C. the Evidence Control Section |
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SOP 382. A ____ disaster will likely exceed local capabilities and require a broad range of state and federal assistanc
E. A. Catastrophic Disaster B. Minor Disaster C. Major Disaster D. Federal Disaster |
Answer:
C. Major Disaster |
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SOP 382. Any emergency which prevents response to calls for service, cannot be controlled by all on-duty personnel, requires the recall of off-duty personnel, and causes the activation of Alpha/Bravo shifts is known as a ____ emergency.
A. Phase III B. Phase I C. Phase IV D. Phase II |
Answer:
A. Phase III |
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SOP 382. ______: Planning activities that address how to increase available resources for an effective response in the event of an emergency.
A. Mitigation B. Preparedness C. Response D. Recovery |
Answer:
B. Preparedness |
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SOP 382. ________: Any emergency, which curtails immediate response to calls for service, and requires the utilization of personnel from all districts situational contro
L. A. Phase II B. Phase III C. Phase IV D. Phase I |
Answer:
A. Phase I |
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SOP 382. When a field command post is required, all of the following factors should be considered in selecting a site location, except ____.
A. Accessibility to responding personnel B. Communications capabilities (telephones, radios, television, microwave) / C. Restroom facilities. D. Helicopter landing capability |
Answer:
D. Helicopter landing capability |
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SOP 382. _________ : Activities, which actually eliminate or reduce the likelihood of occurrence or effects of an emergency.
A. Mitigation B. Preparedness C. Response D. Recovery |
Answer:
A. Mitigation |
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SOP 382. The final phase of emergency management is ____.
A. Mitigation B. Preparedness C. Response D. Recovery |
Answer:
D. Recovery |
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SOP 382. Any natural, technological, or civil emergency that causes damag
E. A. Catastrophe B. Emergency C. Disaster D. Hazard |
Answer:
C. Disaster |
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SOP 382. A dangerous event or circumstance that may potentially lead to an emergency or disaster.
A. Catastrophe B. Major Disaster C. Minor Disaster D. Hazard |
Answer:
D. Hazard |
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SOP 382. Any occurrence, or threat thereof which results or may result in substantial injury or harm to the population or substantial damage to or loss of property.
A. Catastrophe B. Emergency C. Disaster D. Hazard |
Answer:
B. Emergency |
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SOP 382. Designed to provide rapid, organized and disciplined response to civil disorder, crowd control or other situations.
A. MIRT Team B. Specialty squad such as SAC and/or QUAD C. Field Force Concept D. TRT |
Answer:
C. Field Force Concept |
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SOP 382. The Mutual Aid Plan is administered by __________.
A. Hillsborough County Emergency Planning and Operations B. Florida Department of Law Enforcement C. Federal Emergency Management Agency D. Homeland Security |
Answer:
B. Florida Department of Law Enforcement |
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SOP 382. When an officer becomes aware of an emergency, he will _________.
A. request the Communications to dispatch the nearest supervisor to the scen E. B. notify the shift commander and advise him of the details of the scen E. C. secure the scene and request more units for traffic control D. faint |
Answer:
A. request the Communications to dispatch the nearest supervisor to the scen E. |
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SOP 382. Phase I emergency is initiated by _____________.
A. On-scene supervisor B. Shift commander of affected district C. Division commander of affected district D. Assistant Chief |
Answer:
B. Shift commander of affected district |
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SOP 382. Phase II is initiated by ________.
A. a division commander B. a shift commander C. a deputy chief D. the chief of police |
Answer:
C. a deputy chief |
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SOP 382. Phase III is initiated by _______.
A. a division commander B. a deputy chief or higher authority C. chief of police D. the 2mayor |
Answer:
B. a deputy chief or higher authority |
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SOP 382. Phase IV is initiated by ___________.
A. a deputy chief B. the chief of police C. the mayor D. the governor |
Answer:
B. the chief of police |
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SOP 382. When a Field Command Post is required, the following factors should be considered except.
A. fueling stations B. accessibility to responding personnel C. strategical location D. restroom facilities |
Answer:
A. fueling stations |
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SOP 382. When staging areas are required, the following factors should be considered except
A. Interstate access B. fencing C. area size D. access to media |
Answer:
A. Interstate access |
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SOP 382. Platoons shall be comprised of ____ to ____ Field Force Squads.
A. two, four B. three, four C. three, five D. three, six |
Answer:
D. three, six |
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SOP 382. ___________________, located at 2711
E. Hanna Avenue, serves as a valuable resource for the Tampa Police Department. A. The Communications Section B. The Hillsborough County Emergency Operations Center (EOC) C. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) D. Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) |
Answer:
B. The Hillsborough County Emergency Operations Center (EOC) |
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SOP 382. Definition: A disaster that will require massive state and federal assistance, including immediate military involvement.
A. Minor Disaster B. Major Disaster C. Catastrophic Disaster D. Hazardous Disaster |
Answer:
C. Catastrophic Disaster |
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SOP 382. Definition: A disaster that will likely exceed local capabilities and require a broad range of state and federal assistanc
E. A. Minor Disaster B. Major Disaster C. Catastrophic Disaster D. Hazardous Disaster |
Answer:
B. Major Disaster |
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SOP 382. Definition: A disaster that is likely to be within the response capabilities of local government and to result in only a minimal need for state or federal assistanc
E. A. Minor Disaster B. Major Disaster C. Catastrophic Disaster D. Hazardous Disaster |
Answer:
A. Minor Disaster |
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SOP 382. Definition: An emergency caused by a natural event, including, but not limited to, a hurricane, storm, flood, or drought or earthquak
E. A. Minor Emergency B. Major Emergency C. Man-Made Emergency D. Natural Emergency |
Answer:
D. Natural Emergency |
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SOP 382. Definition: An emergency caused by an action against persons or society including, but not limited to, enemy attack, sabotage, terrorism, civil unrest, or other action impairing the orderly administration of government.
A. Man-Made Emergency B. Major Riot C. Minor Riot D. Domestic Turmoil |
Answer:
A. Man-Made Emergency |
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SOP 382.1. A statement issued by the National Hurricane Center concerning the status of tropical storms and hurricanes.
A. Advisory B. Bulletin C. Watch D. Warning |
Answer:
A. Advisory |
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SOP 382.1. A public release from the National Hurricane Center during periods between advisories, announcing the latest details.
A. Statement B. Bulletin C. Watch D. Warning |
Answer:
B. Bulletin |
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SOP 382.1. A statement by the National Hurricane Center that a hurricane is near and that attention should be give
N. A. Hurricane Advisory B. Hurricane Bulletin C. Hurricane Watch D. Hurricane Warning |
Answer:
C. Hurricane Watch |
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SOP 382.1. A statement by the National Hurricane Center that hurricane conditions are considered imminent and may began within the next 24 hours.
A. Hurricane Advisory B. Hurricane Bulletin C. Hurricane Watch D. Hurricane Warning |
Answer:
D. Hurricane Warning |
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SOP 382.1. Storm surge is determined by the utilization of _____ models.
A. FDLE B. FDOT C. FEMA D. SLOSH |
Answer:
D. SLOSH |
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SOP 382.1. Once a decision has been made concerning an evacuation, the ________________ will assume two primary responsibilities: (1) “door-to-door” or “neighborhood” notifications of residents of evacuation zones, and (2) relocation of their vehicles to a non-flood zone sit
E. A. Criminal Investigations Division B. Administrative Division C. Uniform Officers D. Shift Commander |
Answer:
A. Criminal Investigations Division |
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SOP 382.1. The ___________________ is responsible to establish traffic posts at major arterial intersections and routes, which are anticipated to have the greatest volume of evacuating traffi
C. A. District One Division Commander B. District Two Division Commander C. District Three Division Commander D. Criminal Investigations Division |
Answer:
B. District Two Division Commander |
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SOP 382.2. ICS stands for ____.
A. Incident Control System B. Incident Control Strategy C. Incident Command System D. Incident Command Strategy |
Answer:
C. Incident Command System |
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SOP 382.2. The investigation of civilian crashes are the responsibility of ____.
A. Federal Aviation Association B. National Transportation Safety Board C. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) D. Homeland Security |
Answer:
B. National Transportation Safety Board |
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SOP 382.2. In fatality commercial airline crashes, _____ has sole responsibility for releasing names and notifying the next-of-ki
N. A. the airlines B. FAA with the detective division C. NTSB D. FAA with the TPD Public Information Office |
Answer:
A. the airlines |
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SOP 382.2. The investigation of airline crashes involving military aircraft will be conducted by ____.
A. FBI and /or CIA B. Homeland Security C. the US Military D. jointly between the FAA and the NTSB |
Answer:
C. the US Military |
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SOP 382.2. All suspected arson cases that do not involve a companion crime will be originated and investigated by the Fire Marshall's Offic
E. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 382.2. _____ will be notified of all suspected hazardous materials incidents that come to the attention of the Tampa Police Department.
A. The Tampa Fire Department B. The Tampa Police Department Bomb Squad supervisor C. The affected division commander D. The local Homeland Security agent and/or CIB |
Answer:
A. The Tampa Fire Department |
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SOP 382.2. Which of the following is correct?
A. TPD will have primary responsibility at crime scene and crashes, which involve rescue operations B. TPD will have primary responsibility at crime scene and crashes, which DO NOT involve rescue operations C. TPD will have primary responsibility at crime scene and any crashes within Hillsborough County D. TPD will not investigative civil traffic crashes |
Answer:
B. TPD will have primary responsibility at crime scene and crashes, which DO NOT involve rescue operations |
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SOP 382.2. A ___________ will respond and assume the command of police operations at the scene of all major aircraft crashes.
A. CIB B. Assistant Chief C. Shift Commander D. IA |
Answer:
C. Shift Commander |
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SOP 382.2. The investigation of civilian crashes is the responsibility of ______.
A. TPD Aviation supervisor B. NTSB-National Transportation Safety Board C. both TPD and the NTSB D. TIA and NTSB |
Answer:
B. NTSB-National Transportation Safety Board |
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SOP 382.2. For a fire the inner perimeter is maintained by ___________ and the outer perimeter is maintained by______.A TPD and TFR
B. TFR and TPD C. TPD and TPD D. TFR and TFR |
Answer:
B. TFR and TPD |
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SOP 382.2. All suspected arson cases that do not involve a companion crime (homicide, burglary, auto theft, etc) will be originated by the ______ a TPD report ____ be require
D.A Fire Marshall/ WILL B. Fire Marshall/ WILL NOT C. adverse Detective/ WILL D. adverse Detective WILL NOT |
Answer:
B. Fire Marshall/ WILL NOT |
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SOP 382.3. ______________ may authorize the suspension of normal documentation procedures, other than arrest affidavits, during a major demonstration or civil disorder situatio
N. A. MIRT leaders, specialist, or other supervisors B. Shift Commanders C. Division/bureau commanders D. The Chief of Police |
Answer:
A. MIRT leaders, specialist, or other supervisors |
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SOP 382.3. A large group of individuals gathered in a public location engaging in actual, attempted, or threatened criminal acts.
A. Civil Disorder B. Civil Demonstration C. Mass Disorder D. Mass Demonstration |
Answer:
A. Civil Disorder |
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SOP 382.3. A large group of individuals gathered in a public location for the purpose of exercising constitutional assembly and speech rights in conformance with applicable statutes and ordinances.
A. Civil Disorder B. Civil Demonstration C. Mass Disorder D. Mass Demonstration |
Answer:
D. Mass Demonstration |
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SOP 382.4. All officers participating in a tactical operation involving a barricaded person will be directed to utilize a radio frequency designated by the _______.
A. On-scene Supervisor B. Shift Commander C. TRT Supervisor D. Communications Section Supervisor |
Answer:
D. Communications Section Supervisor |
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SOP 382.4. In the case of a barricaded subject the shift commander will be notified and in turn notify _____________ and _____________, as needed on every tactical response tram call out.
A. The major and the asst chief of operations B. The major and the media C. The major and the legal advisor D. The major and the on scene supervisor |
Answer:
C. The major and the legal advisor |
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SOP 382.4. There will be ___ hostage negotiators assigned to establish communications with the barricaded subject.
A. 1 B. 2 C. at least 3 D. 4 |
Answer:
B. 2 |
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SOP 382.4. True or False: During a barricaded situation the Fire Rescue Tactical Paramedics will be calle
D. A. True B. False |
Answer:
A. True |
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SOP 382.5. Experience shows that the majority of all bomb threats are ____.
A. Real B. Decoys C. Acts of Terrorism D. Hoaxes |
Answer:
D. Hoaxes |
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SOP 382.5. Experience shows that ______ of all bomb threats are hoaxes / however, there is always the possibility that the threat might be authentic and, accordingly, appropriate action must be taken on a case-by-case basis.
A. 90 % B. 95% C. 96% D. the majority |
Answer:
D. the majority |
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SOP 382.5. The on-scene supervisor will: Order a mandatory evacuation or shelter/cover in place of all persons who are located within ____ of the device, this includes pedestrian and vehicle traffi
C. The evacuation area should be an area that has been searched in the event of placement of secondary devices. A. 150’ B. 200’ C. 300’ D. 400’ |
Answer:
C. 300’ |
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SOP 382.5. In regard to bomb threats: The ____ will decide whether to notify and utilize K-9 teams for the searc
H. A. EOD Supervisor on scene B. the Supervisor on scene C. the shift commander D. the ranking TRT officer on scene |
Answer:
A. EOD Supervisor on scene |
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SOP 382.6. The ____________ assigned to ____________ is designated as the person in charge of headquarters until such time as he is relieved of the responsibility by a member of____________.
A. shift commander/ D1/Tampa Fire Rescue B. downtown SGT/ D3/Tampa Fire Rescue C. shift commander/D3/Executive Staff D. downtown SGT/ D3/ Executive Staff |
Answer:
C. shift commander/D3/Executive Staff |
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SOP 382.6. If the designated person determines a total evacuation is necessary, he will notify ___________ and____________.
A. All of the Executive staff and the commander of CIB B. All of the Executive staff and IA C. All the Executive staff and news media for a a news release D. all the above |
Answer:
A. All of the Executive staff and the commander of CIB |
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SOP 382.6. If an evacuation is necessary personnel shall proceed to a location _______ feet away from the buildin
G. A. 500 B. 300 C. at least 6 blocks D. 800 |
Answer:
B. 300 |
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SOP 382.7. The Tampa Arson Task Force will be activated for these specialized investigations upon review and approval of the ________________and the Fire Marsha
L. A. Criminal Investigations Division Commander B. Chief of Police C. Fire Chief D. Fire Marshall |
Answer:
A. Criminal Investigations Division Commander |
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SOP 385. Physician Attended Death: Florida State Statutes define a physician attended death as that of a person confined to a health care provider who had seen and was attended by a physician in the last _________.
A. 30 days B. six months C. 60 days D. year |
Answer:
A. 30 days |
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SOP 385. Per 406.11, the Medical Examiner shall be notified on all deaths when a person dies in the state, except ____.
A. by criminal abortion B. in police custody C. hospice patient D. by accident |
Answer:
C. hospice patient |
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SOP 385. All cases that are referred to the ME will be referred to _________.
A. PIO B. DLIS C. Homicide D. All of the above |
Answer:
C. Homicide |
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SOP 385. Natural death cases will not be referred unless ______ or __________.
A. they are suspicious or strange in nature B. they are unusual or odd in character C. next of kin not located or property has bee removed for safe keeping D. the next of kin cannot agree or the items have been stolen |
Answer:
C. next of kin not located or property has bee removed for safe keeping |
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SOP 386. During a Priority One response, it is the department's goal to strive for an arrival time of____ minutes from time of dispatch to the arrival of the first unit.
A. five B. seven C. eight D. eight to twelve |
Answer:
C. eight |
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SOP 386. Definition: When a police vehicle comes into contact with another vehicle, object, or person as a direct result of the intentional actions of the officer.
A. Traffic Incident B. Traffic Crash C. Traffic Accident D. Incident |
Answer:
D. Incident |
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|
SOP 386. Definition: The act of following a motor vehicle at a coordinated speed to determine the followed vehicle’s actual speed in violation of the posted speed limit.
A. Stalking B. Pacing C. Following D. Measuring |
Answer:
B. Pacing |
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|
SOP 386. Definition: The intentional act of using a police vehicle to physically force a fleeing vehicle from a course of travel in order to stop it.
A. Ramming B. Roadblock C. Precision Immobilization Technique D. Rolling Roadblock |
Answer:
C. Precision Immobilization Technique |
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|
SOP 386. Priority Two: The response goal for priority two calls is _____minutes from the time of dispatch to the arrival of the first unit.
A. six B. eight C. ten D. twelve |
Answer:
D. twelve |
|
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SOP 386. Definition: The chase of a vehicle by a law enforcement vehicle when the driver of the subject vehicle clearly exhibits intent to avoid arrest by using a vehicle to fle
E. A. Pace B. Tactical following C. Pursuit D. PIT |
Answer:
C. Pursuit |
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SOP 386. Definition: That driving of an expeditious nature which relates to the effort made in a police vehicle to proceed to the location of an emergency, in a manner consistent with the provisions of FLORIDA STATUTE§ 316.072.
A. Response Driving B. Pursuit Driving C. Tactical Driving D. Fast Driving |
Answer:
A. Response Driving |
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SOP 386. Definition: The intentional act of using police vehicles to physically force a fleeing vehicle to slow down to a stop and then prevent the driver from exiting out the driver’s door.
A. Roadblock B. Rolling Roadblock C. PIT D. Pursuit Driving |
Answer:
B. Rolling Roadblock |
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SOP 386. In regard to Emergency Vehicle Operation: Officers shall advise the dispatcher if they are responding to call in ______.
A. priority one mode B. priority two mode C. priority three mode D. priority one or two mode |
Answer:
D. priority one or two mode |
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SOP 386. Officers _____ provide emergency escorts for private vehicles.
A. will (after payment is made to extra-duty office) B. arrange and C. may D. will not |
Answer:
D. will not |
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SOP 386. _____ a term used to describe the non-use of the siren or emergency lights by a police vehicle responding to a call that requires a quick response tim
E. A. silent run B. priority three response C. non-pursuit response D. TRD |
Answer:
A. silent run |
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SOP 386. Pursuits may be initiated only when the officer reasonably believes that someone in the pursued vehicle has committed or attempted to commit any of the following: Except.
A. DUI B. Burglary C. Auto Theft D. Felony Firearm Offenses |
Answer:
A. DUI |
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SOP 386. Upon initiation of a pursuit, normally only the initiating police vehicle (referred to as the primary vehicle) and up to ____ back-up vehicles (secondary vehicles) will be necessary.
A. two B. three C. four D. five |
Answer:
A. two |
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SOP 386. The following vehicles shall not engage in pursuit, except ____.
A. marked unit with an intern B. utility vehicles C. patrol wagons D. unmarked vehicles |
Answer:
D. unmarked vehicles |
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SOP 386. A pursuit shall be terminated if it appears to be headed towards ______.
A. an active school zone B. the downtown business district C. a low income housing area D. the city limits |
Answer:
A. an active school zone |
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SOP 386. Stationary roadblocks shall not be used to stop or attempt to stop fleeing vehicles except in situations where deadly force would be appropriate and only with supervisory approval of a _____ or higher ran
K. A. field supervisor B. shift commander C. lieutenant D. captain |
Answer:
C. lieutenant |
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SOP 386. Officers with a minimum of ____ years experience with the Tampa Police Department are eligible for training in the PIT maneuver.
A. two B. three C. four D. one |
Answer:
D. one |
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SOP 386. PIT can be used on the following incidents except ____.
A. Burglary B. Auto Theft C. Felony Firearm violations D. DUI |
Answer:
D. DUI |
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SOP 386. It is not considered a pursuit if the police officer___________ and __________.
A. immediately deactivates the emergency equipment and changes course and notifies communications of their actions B. follows at a lower rate of speed and tells the dispatcher of the lower speed C. turns off the emergency lights and follows closely D. None of the above |
Answer:
A. immediately deactivates the emergency equipment and changes course and notifies communications of their actions |
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SOP 386. When initiating a pursuit normally, how many cars will be necessary?
A. one primary and 3 back up units B. any number C. one primary and one back up unit D. one primary and two back up units |
Answer:
D. one primary and two back up units. |
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SOP 386. The intentional act of using law enforcement vehicles to physically force a suspect to slow or stop and prevent the driver from exiting the vehicle is known as ____.
A. A rolling road block B. A box in technique C. A pit man maneuver D. A hit and stop |
Answer:
A. A rolling road block |
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SOP 386. The intentional act to physically alter the suspect’s path of travel in order to stop it is known as __________.
A. A rolling road block B. A box in technique C. A pit maneuver D. A hit and stop |
Answer:
C. A pit maneuver |
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SOP 386. The ultimate responsibility of continuing or terminating a pursuit rests with_________.
A. the aviation unit B. the pursing officer C. the supervisor D. the shift commander |
Answer:
C. the supervisor |
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SOP 386.1. Authorized Pursuit Vehicles will include: _________________.
A. Motorcycles B. Patrol Wagons C. K9 unit D. Unmarked vehicles |
Answer:
D. Unmarked vehicles |
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SOP 386.2. The rolling roadblock should not be used when:
A. the vehicle is a SUV B. The occupants of the suspect vehicle are believed to be arme D. C. The vehicle is in motion D. None of the above |
Answer:
B. The occupants of the suspect vehicle are believed to be arme D. |
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SOP 386.2. Speed of suspect vehicle, except in the most egregious of circumstances, the PIT will not be used at speeds exceeding _____________ miles per hour.
A. 50 B. 40 C. 60 D. 45 |
Answer:
A. 50 |
