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272 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Contrast enhancement lasts longest when administering the ultrasound contrast agent by:
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Slow infusion
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Currently in the United States, which of the following contrast agents are available and approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in echocardiography?
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Definity, Optison, Imagent
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Depending on the clinical application, vascular UCAs may be administered via:
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Intravenous infusion
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Evaluation of a patient with known cirrhosis often demonstrates a(n):
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Reduced portal venous flow with an increase in hepatic artery flow
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For a vascular ultrasound contrast agent to be clinically useful, it should:
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a. Be nontoxic
b. Have microbubbles that are small enough to traverse the pulmonary capillary beds c. Be stable enough to provide multiple recirculations d. Have all of the above For a contrast agent to be clinically useful, it should be nontoxic, have microbubbles that are small enough to traverse the pulmonary capillary beds, and be stable enough to provide multiple recirculations. The correct answer is: Have all of the above |
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Hepatic cavernous hemangioma demonstrate peripheral enhancement only during the:
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Arterial phase
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In harmonic-imaging mode, the echoes from the oscillating microbubbles have a:
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High signal-to-noise ratio
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In the early arterial phase, using tissue-specific contrast agents, focal nodular hyperplasia can have a similar appearance to a:
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Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
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Induced acoustic-emission effects are independent of:
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Contrast motion
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Most of the research and development of ultrasound contrast agents (UCAs) has centered on creating agents that can:
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Be administered intravenously
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Several reports have described the contrast-enhanced sonographic appearance of hepatocellular carcinoma as having intense enhancement in the _____________ phase.
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Early arterial
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The detection of flow in the hepatic capillaries is identified in the ___________ phase.
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Late vascular
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The first ultrasound contrast agent to receive FDA approval was used in:
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Echocardiography
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The mechanical index (MI) uses:
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Low acoustic output power
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The microbubble of a first-generation UCA contains which one of the following types of substance?
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Room air
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The microbubbles of tissue-specific UCAs are:
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Taken up by or have an affinity for specific tissues
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The rupture of microbubbles results in random:
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Doppler shifts
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Tissue-specific ultrasound contrast agents can be considered to be:
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Molecular-imaging agents
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To aid in contrast-enhanced imaging equipment, manufacturers have begun to incorporate into their systems:
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Intermittent imaging capabilities
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Ultrasound contrast agents have shown the potential to improve the accuracy of hepatic sonography including:
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a. Enhanced detection of hepatic masses
b. Enhanced characterization of hepatic masses c. Improved detection of intrahepatic and extrahepatic blood flow d. All of the above |
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Vascular ultrasound agents enhance Doppler flow signals by:
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Adding more and better acoustic scatterers to the bloodstream
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When insonating microbubble-based UCAs, the energy present within the acoustic field:
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Can have a detrimental effect on the contrast microbubbles
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When the microbubble is destroyed:
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Contrast enhancement is no longer provided
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When using ultrasound contrast agents, a lesion that gets progressively echogenic over time is most likely:
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Hemangioma
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Which of the following vessels are the first to demonstrate contrast enhancement in the liver?
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Hepatic arteries
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A higher percentage of positive cells is observed in the _____________ of a thyroid mass?
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Small calcifications
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A preprocedural image should document the patient's name and the:
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Time, date, and needle path
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A specific complication of a renal biopsy is:
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Hematuria
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Advantages of using ultrasound guidance include all of the following except:
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Fixed angles when using needle guides
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Biopsies of the spleen carry an increased risk for:
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Hemorrhage
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Contraindications for a biopsy include all of the following except:
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Dehydration
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In a renal parenchymal biopsy, which part of the kidney is typically biopsied?
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Lower pole
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In a renal transplant procedure, which part of the kidney is typically biopsied?
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Upper pole
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In which of the following positions is a patient placed for a thoracentesis?
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Sitting
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Limitations of ultrasound guidance include all of the following except:
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Shorter procedure times
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Postbiopsy complications may include all of the following except:
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Heart failure
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Renal parenchymal biopsies are requested for patients with:
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Proteinuria
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The best way to recognize the tip of the needle with ultrasound is all of the following except:
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The needle tip appears as a hypoechoic area
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The common indication for a biopsy is to:
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Confirm a malignancy in a mass.
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The international normalized ratio (INR) was developed because of the variable results of _________ among laboratories.
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PT
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The most common organ biopsied is:
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Liver
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The national patient safety standards mandate that a "time-out" be performed before beginning any procedure, which means all of the following except the:
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Patient's name is recited by a team member
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The primary advantage of an ultrasound-guided procedure is:
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Provides for continuous real-time visualization of the biopsy needle.
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The role of the cytopathology team is to:
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a. . Ensure enough diagnostic tissue is obtained
b. Increase the percentage of successful biopsies c. Minimize the number of core samples d. Provide all of the above. |
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The test used to evaluate the effects of heparin, aspirin, and antihistamines on the blood-clotting process is:
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PTT
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The wait time after discontinuing the use of aspirin is:
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5 to 7 days
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The _______________ patient position is most commonly used in a prostate biopsy.
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Left lateral decubitus
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What needle gauge is typically used in a fine-needle aspiration?
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20 to 25
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Which one of the following laboratory tests could indicate a liver lesion?
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Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
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Which one of the following types of biopsy uses an automatic spring-loaded device to provide tissue for analysis?
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Core biopsy
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A hernia in the bowel that cannot be reduced is a(n) ______________ hernia.
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Incarcerated
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A hernia with vascular compromise is ________________.
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Strangulated
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A pseudodissection demonstrates which one of the following?
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Turbulent blood flow pattern
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Approximately 70% of aortic dissections occur in the:
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Ascending aorta
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For years, which one of the following techniques has been used as a surgical tool for the diagnosis of hemoperitoneum?
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Peritoneal lavage
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In reproductive-age women, free fluid isolated to the posterior cul-de-sac is likely which one of the following?
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Physiologic
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In the early stages of testicular torsion, the echogenicity of the testis appears _____________.
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Normal
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In the trauma setting, the most common finding of free fluid in the abdomen or pelvis is:
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Hemoperitoneum
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Midepigastric pain radiating to the back is characteristic of:
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Acute pancreatitis
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One of the most common conditions that necessitate emergent surgery is:
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Acute appendicitis
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Paraumbilical hernia occurs more often in which one of the following?
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Female adults
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People go to the emergency department for all of the following frequent reasons except:
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Ear pain
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Posttrauma, the most common location for fluid to accumulate is in the ___________.
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Morison's pouch
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Sonographic findings in acute pancreatitis may include which one of the following?
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Normal-appearing parenchyma
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Sonographic findings of acute cholecystitis include all of the following except:
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Small gallbladder
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Stones as small as _____ millimeters (mm) may be visualized with ultrasound.
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0.5
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The complications of peritoneal lavage include all of the following except:
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Pneumothorax
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The initial survey of a FAST scan is directed to the:
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Pericardium
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The most common cause of acute cholecystitis is:
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Obstruction of the cystic duct
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The most common sonographic finding of a hernia is:
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Peristalsis of the bowel during a Valsalva maneuver
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The sonographic finding in aortic dissection includes all of the following except:
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Laminar blood flow pattern
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The traditional modality of choice for evaluating urolithiasis is:
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Intravenous urography
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Three types of abdominal hernias include all of the following except:
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Carcerated hernia
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Torsion of the spermatic cord occurs as a result of which one of the following?
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Abnormal mobility of the testis
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Which one of the following is nearly always associated with aortic dissection?
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Hypertension
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A cystic formation lateral to the thyroid gland is typically which one of the following?
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Brachial cleft cyst
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A solitary thyroid nodule in the presence of ipsilateral lymphadenopathy suggests which one of the following?
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Malignancy
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A ___________ is a palpable midline mass between the hyoid bone and the isthmus of the thyroid gland.
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Thyroglossal duct cyst
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All of the following structures form neighboring structures for the thyroid gland except the:
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Parotid muscle
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An abnormal lymph node demonstrates which one of the following?
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Round contour
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Approximately 20% of solitary thyroid nodules are ___________.
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a. Cystic
x |
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Common disorders associated with hyperthyroidism include all of the following except:
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Acute thyroiditis
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Hyperfunction of all parathyroid glands with no apparent cause occurs with which one of the following?
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Primary hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands
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Increased vascularity with color Doppler, termed the thyroid inferno, is observed in ___________________.
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Graves' disease
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Sonographically, the normal thyroid gland may be described as having all of the following characteristics except:
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Diffusely homogenous
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The approximate dimensions of the thyroid gland are:
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5 cm length, 2 cm width, 2 cm depth
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The lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by:
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The isthmus
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The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is which one of the following?
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Parathyroid adenoma
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The most common cause of thyroid disorders worldwide is which one of the following?
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Iodine deficiency
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The most common cause of thyroid malignancy is _____________ carcinoma.
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Papillary
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The normal parathyroid glands measure less than _______ millimeters (mm).
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4
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The parathyroid glands lie between the ____________ borders of the ____________ lobes of the thyroid gland.
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Posterior; medial
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The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that affects the:
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Kidneys, bones, and gastrointestinal tract
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The pyramid lobe of the thyroid gland extends from the __________________.
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Superior isthmus
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The thyroid gland consists of ________ lobes:
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Two
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The thyroid is an endocrine gland that regulates metabolic function through the production of all of the following hormones except:
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Thyroliberin
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Usually _____ parathyroid glands exist.
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Four
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Which one of the following sonographic features of a thyroid adenoma is the most common?
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Hypoechoic peripheral halo
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Which one of the following structures lies medial to the left thyroid lobe?
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Larynx
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Which one of the following structures lies posterolateral to the thyroid gland?
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Longus colli muscle
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Neck muscles located anterolateral to the thyroid gland include all of the following except the
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longus colli muscle (LCM)
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The average weight of the thyroid gland is approximately
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25 g.
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The high resolution sonography recommended for evaluation of parathyroid adenomas is
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7.5 to 15 MHz.
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The mathematical method for calculating thyroid volume is based on the ellipsoid formula with a correction factor, which is:
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Length ´ Width ´ Thickness ´ 0.52 for each lobe
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The secretion of triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and calcitonin is regulated by the
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hypothalamus and pituitary gland
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The sonographic appearance of the normal parathyroid glands generally is
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hypoechoic compared with the thyroid gland
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The sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland is uniformly
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echogenic with medium level echoes, similar to the testes and liver
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The superior and inferior parathyroid glands are supplied by the
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separate small branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries and by branches from the longitudinal anastomoses between these vessels
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The superior thyroid artery is a branch of the :
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external carotid artery.
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The thyroid gland is composed of follicles filled with a substance called
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colloid
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The thyroid is an endocrine gland that secretes three hormones, which are
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thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), and calcitonin.
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When ultrasound fails to identify abnormal parathyroid glands preoperatively, and in patients considered for repeat surgery, which test(s) is/are commonly used?
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Scintigraphy, SPECT, and MRI
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Which neck muscle(s) is/are located posterior to the thyroid gland?
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Longus colli muscle
The longus colli muscle lies posterior to the thyroid gland. |
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Which statement is NOT true about imaging of the parathyroid glands?
a. High resolution (7.5 to 15 MHz) linear transducers are routinely used to image abnormal parathyroid glands. b. In a patient with a thick neck, a lower frequency (e.g., a 4 to 8 MHz convex transducer) may be required to enhance acoustic visualization. c. In examinations for inferior parathyroid adenomas, the swallow maneuver briefly elevates the thyroid gland, permitting acoustic access to the most inferior aspect of the gland. d. Sonography routinely is performed on patients with normal calcium levels. |
d. Sonography routinely is performed on patients with normal calcium levels
The most common clinical indication for parathyroid imaging is hypercalcemia. |
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Which statement is NOT true about parathyroid gland physiology?
a. When serum calcium levels are low, PTH raises serum calcium by releasing calcium from the bone and decreasing calcium absorption in the liver. b. The parathyroid glands maintain homeostasis of blood calcium by promoting calcium absorption into the blood and preventing hypocalcemia. c. The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone, also called PTH or parathormone. d. Hypercalcemia (calcium levels greater than 10.2 mg/dl in adults and 10.7 mg/dl in children) is an indication for localizing abnormal parathyroid glands. |
a. When serum calcium levels are low, PTH raises serum calcium by releasing calcium from the bone and decreasing calcium absorption in the liver.
When serum calcium levels are low, parathyroid hormone (PTH) raises serum calcium by releasing calcium from the bone, increasing calcium absorption in the gut, and decreasing renal calcium by decreasing renal phosphate excretion. |
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Which statement is NOT true about the adult thyroid gland?
a. It plays a major role in growth and development and regulates basal metabolism through the synthesis, storage, and secretion of thyroid hormones. b. In cross-section, it is outlined posterolaterally by the CCA and the IJV. c. The isthmus measures approximately 2 to 6 mm in AP diameter. d. The thyroid parenchyma is composed of connective tissue and masses of chief cells. |
d. The thyroid parenchyma is composed of connective tissue and masses of chief cells.
The thyroid parenchyma is composed of follicles, connective tissue, stroma, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics. |
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Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands and parathyroid adenomas?
a. Approximately 35% of parathyroid glands are ectopic b. Ectopic locations for parathyroid glands include the carotid bulb, as well as retroesophageal space, the thymus and perithymic tissues, and within the thyroid gland. c. Current state-of-the-art color flow imaging of parathyroid adenomas demonstrates intraparenchymal hypervascularization in approximately 90% of cases. d. Normal cervical structures, such as the longus colli muscle, esophagus, and small extrathyroidal arteries and veins, can mimic parathyroid adenomas. |
a. Approximately 35% of parathyroid glands are ectopic.
Approximately 15% of parathyroid glands are ectopic. They frequently are found within the thymus or perithymic tissues (10%). Other aberrant locations include the carotid bulb and sheath (1%), the retroesophageal space (1% to 3%), and within the thyroid (1%). |
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Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
a. Most people (about 80%) have four parathyroid glands located in a symmetric position contiguous with the thyroid gland. b. The parathyroid glands generally are situated anterior to the thyroid gland. c. The parathyroid glands may be intrathyroidal. d. Approximately 15% of parathyroid glands are ectopic. |
b. The parathyroid glands generally are situated anterior to the thyroid gland
The parathyroid glands typically are located posterior to the thyroid gland and anterior to the longus colli muscle. |
|
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
a. They generally have a multilobulated shape. b. Ectopic locations include the carotid bulb and retroesophageal, thymus, and intrathyroidal locations. c. Normal parathyroid glands measure approximately 5 to 7 mm in length, 3 to 4 mm in width, and 1 to 2 mm in thickness. d. Approximately 15% to 20% of parathyroid glands are ectopic. |
a. They generally have a multilobulated shape.
The shape of the parathyroid glands varies. They generally are oval, bean shaped, or spherical (83%), or elongated (11%), bilobulated (5%), or multilobulated (1%). |
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Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
a. Normal adult parathyroid glands generally are not seen with sonography. b. The parathyroid glands are situated posterior to the thyroid gland and anterior to the longus colli muscle. c. Normal parathyroid glands almost always can be seen, especially in young patients. d. A prominent longus colli muscle may be mistaken for a parathyroid adenoma. |
c. Normal parathyroid glands almost always can be seen, especially in young patients.
Normal thyroid glands generally are not visualized in adults. They can be seen occasionally in young patients, by using newer high-frequency transducers. |
|
Which statement is NOT true about the parathyroid glands?
a. The typical sonographic appearance of a parathyroid adenoma is an oval, hyperechoic, structure without through transmission. b. Primary hyperparathyroidism is caused by a solitary parathyroid adenoma in 80% to 90% of cases. c. Most people have four parathyroid glands located posterior to the thyroid lobe and anterior to the longus colli muscle. d. The most common indication for parathyroid imaging is hypercalcemia. |
a. The typical sonographic appearance of a parathyroid adenoma is an oval, hyperechoic, structure without through transmission.
A parathyroid adenoma generally appears on ultrasound as a hypoechoic to anechoic, oval or bean-shaped, homogeneous mass that does not demonstrate through transmission. |
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Which statement is NOT true about the size and shape of the thyroid gland?
a. The right lobe often is slightly larger than the left lobe. b. Shorter, obese patients tend to have oval lateral lobes measuring less than 3.5 cm. c. Tall, thin patients have elongated lateral lobes that can measure up to 7 to 8 cm in the longitudinal plane. d. Thyroid gland measurements have a wide range of variability. |
b. Shorter, obese patients tend to have oval lateral lobes measuring less than 3.5 cm.
Shorter, obese patients tend to have oval lateral lobes measuring less than 5 cm. |
|
Which statement is NOT true about the sonographic appearance of the neck muscles and the esophagus?
a. The esophagus appears hypoechoic with an echogenic center representing mucosa. b. The infrahyoid muscles, or strap muscles, are hypoechoic relative to the thyroid gland. c. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is hypoechoic compared with the thyroid gland. d. The longus colli muscle is hyperechoic compared with the thyroid gland. |
d. The longus colli muscle is hyperechoic compared with the thyroid gland.
The neck muscles (infrahyoid, sternocleidomastoid, and longus colli) are hypoechoic relative to the thyroid gland. |
|
Which statement is NOT true about the sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland?
a. It is more echogenic than contiguous muscles and vascular structures. b. It is uniformly echogenic with medium level echoes, similar to the liver and testes. c. Anechoic, 1- to 2-mm tubular structures represent the thyroid arteries and veins. d. It is more uniformly hypoechoic than contiguous muscles and vascular structures. |
d. It is more uniformly hypoechoic than contiguous muscles and vascular structures
The normal thyroid gland appears more echogenic than surrounding muscles and vascular structures. It is uniformly echogenic with medium level echoes, similar to the liver and testes. Anechoic, 1- to 2-mm tubular structures with bright, thin walls represent the thyroid arteries and veins. |
|
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
a. It lies anterior to the trachea. b. It is composed of right and left lobes only. c. A pyramidal lobe is present in approximately 15% to 30% of the population. d. It is composed of right and left lobes connected across the midline by the isthmus. |
b. It is composed of right and left lobes only.
The thyroid gland is composed of right and left lobes connected across the midline by the isthmus. It lies anterior to the trachea, and a pyramidal lobe is present in approximately 15% to 30% of the population. |
|
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
a. It measures approximately 4 to 6 cm in length, 2 to 3 cm in anteroposterior (AP) diameter, and 1.5 to 2 cm in width. b. In cross-section, it is outlined anteriorly by the longus colli muscle and the internal jugular vein. c. The isthmus measures approximately 2 to 6 mm in AP diameter. d. It plays a major role in growth and development and regulates basal metabolism through the synthesis, storage, and secretion of thyroid hormones. |
b. In cross-section, it is outlined anteriorly by the longus colli muscle and the internal jugular vein
The longus colli muscle lies posterior and the internal jugular vein lies lateral to the thyroid lobes. |
|
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
a. Thyroid volumes increase with age and body weight, as well as in patients with acute hepatitis and those living in regions deficient in iodine. b. It is an endocrine gland that secretes triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and calcitonin. c. It is an exocrine gland that secretes triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and iron. d. The normal mean thyroid volume is 18.6 ± 4.5 ml (± SD), which converts to a 18.6-g gland. |
c. It is an exocrine gland that secretes triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and iron.
The thyroid is an endocrine gland that secretes T3, T4, and calcitonin. The normal mean thyroid volume is 18.6 g. A number of factors can increase thyroid volume, including age, body weight, acute hepatitis, and iodine deficiency. |
|
Which statement is NOT true about the thyroid gland?
a. It is connected across the midline by the isthmus. b. It is composed of right and left lobes. c. It lies anterior to the trachea. d. In cross-section, it is outlined posterolaterally by the common carotid artery (CCA) and internal jugular vein (IJV), and anteriorly by the longus colli muscle. |
d. In cross-section, it is outlined posterolaterally by the common carotid artery (CCA) and internal jugular vein (IJV), and anteriorly by the longus colli muscle.
In cross-section, the thyroid gland is outlined posterolaterally by the CCA and the IJV and posteriorly by the LCM. |
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Most parathyroid adenomas appear in the area of an anatomic "triangle" formed by the thyroid gland, longus colli muscle, common carotid artery, and internal jugular vein. ____ T or F
|
True
|
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Patients with secondary hyperparathyroidism develop hypercalcemia. ____ T or F
|
True
|
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The major neurovascular bundle is located posterolateral to the thyroid gland and consists of the common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve. ____ T or F
|
True
|
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The presence of an extrathyroidal artery leading to an abnormal parathyroid gland aids the detection of an otherwise inconspicuous parathyroid adenoma ____ T or F
|
True
|
|
About 60% of semen is composed of
|
alkaline fluid rich in fructose, produced by the seminal vesicles.
|
|
Convoluted seminiferous tubules connect to straight tubules, which empty into the
|
rete testis.
|
|
In an adult, testicular volume is _____, and testicular weight is _____.
|
25 ml; 10 to 15 g
|
|
Spermatozoa exit the testis through the
|
efferent ducts
|
|
Testicular parenchyma on ultrasound is
|
homogeneous
|
|
The epididymis empties into the
|
ductus deferens.
|
|
The epididymis is connected to which portion of the testis?
|
Superior
|
|
The main arterial blood supply of the penis includes the
|
deep artery of the penis, bulbourethral artery, and dorsal artery.
|
|
The median raphe divides the
|
scrotum into two testicles
|
|
The penis is composed of
|
two corpora cavernosa dorsolaterally and one corpus spongiosum midventrally
|
|
The scrotum consists of the
|
testicles, epididymis, and proximal vas deferens
|
|
The testes are classified as
|
exocrine and endocrine glands
|
|
What is the echogenicity of the cavernosal arterial walls?
|
High echogenicity
|
|
What is the echogenicity of the corpora cavernosa?
|
Medium level echoes
|
|
What is the echogenicity of the corpus spongiosum?
|
Medium level echoes
|
|
What is the echogenicity of the epididymis?
|
Medium level echoes
|
|
What is the echogenicity of the mediastinum testis?
|
High echogenicity
|
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What is the echogenicity of the septum penis?
|
High echogenicity
|
|
What is the echogenicity of the spermatic cord?
|
Low level echoes
|
|
What is the echogenicity of the tunica albuginea?
|
High echogenicity
|
|
A clinical history of a vasectomy is associated with:
|
Sperm granulomas
|
|
A common cause of acute scrotal pain in adults is:
|
Epididymo-orchitis Correct
|
|
A hydrocele develops between the:
|
Parietal and visceral layers of the tunica vaginalis
|
|
A linear stripe of variable thickness and echogenicity running through the testis in a craniocaudal direction represents the:
|
Mediastinum testis
|
|
A seminoma of the testicle generally appears on ultrasound as a(n) _____________ mass.
|
Hypoechoic
|
|
A spermatocele is always located in which portion of the epididymis?
|
Head
|
|
Attached at the superior pole of the testis between the epididymis and the testis is which one of the following?
|
Appendix testis
|
|
Common causes of a hydrocele include all of the following except:
|
Microlithiasis
|
|
Compared with the testis, the epididymis typically appears:
|
Hypoechoic
|
|
Epididymo-orchitis most commonly results from a:
|
Bladder infection
|
|
Follow-up examination of patients with microlithiasis is recommended:
|
Annually
|
|
Intratesticular cysts have an association with:
|
Spermatoceles
|
|
Microlithiasis of the testis is associated with a(n):
|
Malignant neoplasm
|
|
Sonographic characteristics of the normal testis include a(n):
|
Homogeneous pattern with medium-level echoes
|
|
The diameter of a varicocele measures more than _____ millimeters (mm).
|
2
|
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The epididymis is located ________________ to the testis.
|
Posterior and superior
|
|
The most common cause of acute scrotal pain in the adolescent is:
|
Testicular torsion
|
|
The primary source of blood flow to the testicles is via the _____________ arteries.
|
Testicular
|
|
The rete testis is located:
|
At the hilum of the testis
|
|
The testes are covered by a fibrous capsule formed by the:
|
Tunica albuginea
|
|
The testes measure:
|
4 cm long, 3 cm in diameter (AP), 3 cm wide
|
|
Tubular ectasia of the rete testis is associated with a(n):
|
Epididymal cyst
|
|
Which one of the following almost always transpires secondary to epididymitis?
|
Orchitis
|
|
Which one of the following facts about an undescended testis is false?
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All undescended testes are found in the inguinal canal
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Which one of the following statements about varicoceles is false?
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Varicoceles are more common on the right side of the scrotum
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The central fissure separates the
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parietal and frontal lobes
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The diencephalon rests superior to the brain stem. It consists of
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the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus
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The fourth ventricle is connected to the third ventricle by the
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aqueduct of Sylvius
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The lateral fissure, or sylvian fissure, separates the
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temporal lobes from the frontal lobes
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The lateral ventricles communicate with the third ventricle through the
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interventricular foramina of Monro
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The structures of the brain stem are
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the pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata.
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The transverse fissure separates the
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cerebrum from the cerebellum
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What is the echogenicity of the bones of the cranial vault?
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Echogenic
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What is the echogenicity of the caudate nucleus?
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Moderately echogenic
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What is the echogenicity of the caudothalamic groove?
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Echogenic
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What is the echogenicity of the cavum septum pellucidum?
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Anechoic
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What is the echogenicity of the cerebral parenchyma?
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Low level echoes
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What is the echogenicity of the choroid plexus?
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Echogenic
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What is the echogenicity of the corpus callosum?
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Hypoechoic
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What is the echogenicity of the fourth and third ventricles?
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Anechoic
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What is the echogenicity of the lateral ventricle?
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Anechoic
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What is the echogenicity of the posterior periventricular white matter?
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Echogenic
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What is the echogenicity of the quadrigeminal plate cistern?
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Hypoechoic
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What is the echogenicity of the sulci and fissures?
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Echogenic
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What is the echogenicity of the sylvian fissure?
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Echogenic
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A mass of special cells located in the atrium of the lateral ventricles is which one of the following?
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Choroid plexus
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A thin, triangular space filled with CSF that lies between the anterior horn of the lateral ventricles is:
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Cavum septi pellucidi
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Acute neonatal brain hemorrhage appears ____________________.
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Echogenic
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Approximately 40% of CSF is produced by which one of the following?
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Choroid plexus
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Bilateral occlusion of the carotid arteries may result in __________________.
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Hydranencephaly
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Convolutions on the surface of the brain are called which one of the following?
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Gyri
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Cyclopia is associated with which one of the following?
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Holoprosencephaly
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Dysgenesis of the fourth ventricle results in which one of the following malformations?
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Dandy-Walker
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Periventricular leukomalacia is defined as which one of the following?
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White matter necrosis
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Sonography of the neonatal brain is evaluated through which one of the following?
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Anterior fontanelle
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The area in which the falx cerebri sits that separates the two cerebral hemispheres is which one of the following?
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Interhemispheric fissure
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The brain coverings are known as which one of the following?
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Meninges
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The junction of the anterior, occipital, and temporal horns is called the ________________.
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Atrium (trigone)
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The largest subarachnoid space demonstrated sonographically is ________________.
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Cistern magnum
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The most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus is which one of the following?
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Aqueductal stenosis
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The most important cause of abnormal neurodevelopment sequelae in premature infants is which one of the following?
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White matter necrosis
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The part of the brain that connects the forebrain and the spinal cord is which one of the following?
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Brainstem
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The periventricular tissue, which may bleed easily before 32 weeks' gestation, is the ____________________.
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Germinal matrix
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The portion of the brain that forms the lateral borders of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles and lies anterior to the lateral ventricles and thalamus is which one of the following?
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Caudate nucleus
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The portion of the brain that lies posterior to the cranial fossa under the tentorium is called which one of the following?
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Cerebellum
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The primary brain vesicle, rhombencephalon, is located in which one of the following?
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Hindbrain
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The two ovoid brain structures located on either side of the third ventricle superior to the brainstem make up the ________________.
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Thalami
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What is the name of the structure that forms between the corpus callosum and the anterior horn or lateral ventricle?
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Septum pellucidum
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Which one of the following is most likely the result of a germinal matrix hemorrhage?
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Subependymal cyst
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Which three mechanisms account for the development of hydrocephalus?
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Outflow obstruction, decreased absorption, and overproduction
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A pitfall in diagnosing appendicitis may be which one of the following?
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Enlarged lymph nodes
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An abdominal ultrasound may be ordered in the neonate when jaundice persists beyond ______________.
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2 weeks
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An overdistended stomach ____________ displaces the pylorus.
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Posteriorly
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Children with intussusception may exhibit the following clinical presentations except:
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Tenderness over McBurney's point
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Hepatoblastoma has been associated with which one of the following?
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Precocious puberty
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis occurs in all of the following patient populations except:
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Most commonly found in female patients
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In older children, the common bile duct should not exceed _____ mm.
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4
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In patients with appendicitis, the outer diameter should measure at least _____ mm.
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6
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Other causes of vomiting in the infant include all of the following except:
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Appendicolith
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Other findings that may indicate appendicitis include all of the following except:
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Meckel diverticulum
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Preparation for a biliary sonographic examination of a 2-year-old child is nothing by mouth (nil per os; NPO) for ____ hours.
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4
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Sonographic characteristics associated with the bowel include all of the following signs except:
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Pseudokidney
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The length of the pediatric gallbladder should not exceed which one of the following?
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Length of the kidney
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The mean portal vein measurement in children younger than 10 years of age is ______ millimeters (mm).
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8.5
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The most common acute abdominal disorder in early childhood is which one of the following?
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Intussusception
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The most common causes of prolonged neonatal jaundice include all of the following except:
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Hepatoblastoma
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The most common type of choledochal cyst is:
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Fusiform dilation of the CBD
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The pylorus muscle connects the ______________ with the duodenum.
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Antrum of the stomach
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Unconjugated bilirubin is elevated in which one of the following percentages of normal-term infants?
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60
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What percentage of liver tumors in children are benign?
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40%
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When bowel prolapses into the distal bowel and is propelled in an antegrade fashion, this condition is known as which one of the following?
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Intussusception
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Which one of the following is considered to be the infantile form of hepatocellular carcinoma?
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Hepatoblastoma
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Which one of the following is the most likely condition to lead to cirrhosis?
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Biliary atresia
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Which one of the following statements about appendicitis is false?
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The appendix is anterior and lateral to the psoas muscle
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Which one of these statements accurately completes the following: Biliary atresia ______________________________.
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Is more common in female patients
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A pelvocaliceal dilation without ureteral dilation is seen with which one of the following conditions?
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Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
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Between which one of the following ranges of age does the incidence of Wilms tumor peak?
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2 to 5 years
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Bilateral renal enlargement is seen with which one of the following conditions?
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Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
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Clinical signs of renal vein thrombosis in the neonate include all of the following except:
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High platelet count
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Conditions in the newborn associated with renal abnormalities include all of the following except:
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Vomiting
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Conditions that may lead to adrenal hemorrhage include all of the following except:
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Hydronephrosis
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Differential considerations for hydronephrosis include all of the following except:
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Renal vein thrombosis
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If the ipsilateral renal is absent or ectopic in location, then the adrenal gland:
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Remains in the renal fossa
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Neuroblastoma is typically a malignant tumor of the _____________________.
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Adrenal gland
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Renal vein thrombosis is more prevalent in infants of _________ mothers.
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Diabetic
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Sonographic findings in adrenal hemorrhage in the neonate include all of the following conditions except:
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Irregular-shaped small gland
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The adrenal medulla in the neonate appears as a(n):
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Echogenic stripe
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The best way to demonstrate the dilated ureter at the ureteropelvic junction is with a ___________ scan.
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Coronal
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The left adrenal gland:
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Extends medial to the kidney
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The most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in the male neonate is which one of the following?
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Posterior urethral valve obstruction
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The normal renal length in the pediatric patient varies with ___________.
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Age
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When empty, the bladder wall thickness should not exceed _____ millimeter (mm).
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5
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Which one of the following conditions is the most common cause of renal cystic disease in the neonate?
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Multicystic dysplastic kidney (MDK) disease
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Which one of the following conditions occurs when the fetus is stressed during a difficult delivery or during a hypoxia insult?
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Adrenal hemorrhage
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Which one of the following genitourinary problems is commonly associated with the prune-belly syndrome?
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Ureteral reflux
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Which one of the following malignant tumors is most frequent in the neonate and infant?
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Wilms tumor
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Which one of the following statements regarding ectopic ureteroceles is incorrect?
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Are more commonly found in male patients
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Which one of the following structures is thin in the neonate with echogenicity similar to or slightly greater than the normal liver parenchyma?
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Cortex
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Which one of the following structures lies at the bases of the medullary pyramids and appears as echogenic structures?
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Arcuate arteries
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Which one of the following structures should not be mistaken for dilated calyces or cysts?
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Medullary pyramids
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