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105 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are some reasons for a kidney transplant?
1. ESRD from DM
2. HTN
3. Glomerulonephritis
What are some reasons for a liver transplant?
ESLD from noncholestatic cirrhosis (Hep B or C, alcoholic cirrhosis, cryptogenic cirrhosis, autoimmune hepatitis)
What are some reasons for a heart transplant?
NYHA class III or IV sx from idiopathic cardiomyopathy or ischemic heart disease
Who cannot receive a transplant?
1. Any condition leaving pt too unstable to survive surgery
2. Malignancy within last 5 years
3. Active alcohol or substance abuse
4. Recurrence of Hep C after liver transplant
5. Active infection
6. Severe pulmonary HTN (for a heart)
7. Elderly patients or those with HIV will be transplanted in some centers but not others
Who cannot donate?
ABSOLUTE EXCLUSIONS:
1. HIV positive
2. Active cancer
3. Systemic infection

(no upper or lower age limit)
When waiting for a kidney transplant, what type of treatment should pt receive?
Dialysis
When waiting for a heart transplant, what treatment can be used?
Left ventricular assist device (L-VAD)

-can live about 2 years with this
When waiting for a liver transplant, are there treatment options?
Only investigational options - hepatocyte transplantation, artificial liver support
True or False: Native kidneys are usually removed during a transplant.
FALSE. Most often native kidney is not removed, so patient has 3 kidneys have transplant.
What is the IMMEDIATE benefit of a kidney transplant?
Normalization of GFR
What are the LONG-TERM benefits of a kidney transplant?
Resolution of problems caused by chronic renal failure such as Ca/Phos imbalance, anemia, lipids, etc...
What is the treatment for delayed graft function?
Dialysis within 7 days of transplantation (primary cause is ATN)
Which organ is the least immunogenic?
Liver
What are 3 consequences of liver transplant?
1. post-op fluid, electrolyte and nutritional abnormalities
2. Changes in serum proteins, metabolism/elimination, etc
3. Biliary tract dysfunction (altered absorption of fat and fat-soluble drugs)
After a heart transplant, the heart is denervated which means:
1. the patient will NOT experience angina
2. HR will NOT increase acutely in response to hypotension or exercise
What is coronary arterial vasculopathy (CAV)?
A result of heart transplant; an autoimmune reaction in which the lumen gets thicker.
Why is HTN a consequence of heart transplant?
Due to high levels of catecholamines and systemic vascular resistance
What test is done annually following a heart transplant?
Right-heart cath (can be risky)
How is organ rejection diagnosed?
Biopsy of organ
What are the 3 types of organ rejection?
1. Hyperacute
2. Acute
3. Chronic
What are the characteristics of HYPERACUTE rejection and how is it treated?
Occurs IMMEDIATELY due to ABO mismatch (wrong blood type - should never happen!)

Tmt: Supportive care and retransplantation
What are the characteristics of ACUTE rejection (when does it occur, how and what are the symptoms) and how it is treated?
When: Most commonly occurs in the first few months but can occur anytime
How: Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes infiltrate graft and destroy healthy cells
Symptoms: Pain over graft site, lethargy, fever
Tmt: Reversible within 1-3 days if treated (high levels of immunosuppressants)
What occurs in CHRONIC rejection and is there treatment?
Persistent perivascular and interstitial inflammation
(occurs over time due to the effects of being "foreign", meds and other disease states that overcome the transplanted organ)

NOT currently reversible and results in loss of allograft
What is the approach to immunosuppression?
1. Balance
-Prevent rejection vs. ADEs of therapy
2. Multi-drug approach
-Complex pathways causing rejection
-Allows lower doses of each drug to minimize adverse effects
What is given at the time of transplant or during an episode of acute rejection?
High level of immunosuppression
What are the 2 strategies for induction therapy?
1. All patients
2. High risk patients only: previous transplants, multiple pregnancies, non-Caucasian
Which polyclonal antibody is an equine anti-thymocyte globulin?
ATG (ATGAM) - recommend skin test first
Which polyclonal antibody is a rabbit anti-thymocyte globulin and it is more or less immunogenic?
RATG (Thymoglobulin) - LESS immunogenic
What is the black box warning for ATG and RATG?
1. Physicians must be EXPERIENCED in immunosuppressive therapy

2. Pts receiving these meds should be treated in adequately EQUIPPED FACILITIES
What are the ADEs of ATG and RATG?
1. Infusion-associated reactions
2. Cytokine release syndrome (CRS)
3. Anaphylaxis
4. Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
5. Infections
6. Malignancy
7. Serum sickness (more with ATG)
What symptoms are associated with infusion-related reactions and how can these be reduced?
Sx: Fever, chills/rigors, dyspnea, n/v/d, HoTNor HTN, malaise, rash, HA

Prophylaxis: Pre-medicate with APAP, diphenhydramine, corticosteroids
-Reduce rate of infusion
What are the symptoms of cytokine release syndrome (CRS)?
Cardiorespiratory dysfunction - HoTN, ARDS, MI, tachycardia, pulmonary edema, and/or DEATH
What are the characteristics and treatment of serum sickness?
Sx: fever, rash, arthralgia, myalgia
- 5-15 days after tmt

Tmt: Manage with corticosteroids
When should administration of additional medication be withheld?
Systemic reaction of generalized rash, dyspnea, tachycardia, HoTN, or anaphylaxis

(Recommend skin test before ATG)
What are the IL-2 Receptor Antagonists?
1. Basiliximab (Simulect) - chimeric monoclonal antibody
-higher affinity
2. Daclizumab (Zenapax) - humanized monoclonal antibody
-less immunogenic
True or False: ADEs of basiliximab and daclizumab significantly differ from placebo.
FALSE: similar to placebo - includes malignancy and infection, hypersensitivity and CRS
What is the name of a murine monoclonal antibody?
Muromonab-CD 3 (OKT3)
What is the black box warning associated with OKT3 and what precautionary measures should be taken?
Anaphylaxis
-monitor fluid status prior to and during admin
-pre-tx with methylprednisolone to minimize cytokine release syndrome
What are contradictions to OKT3?
1. Hypersensitivity to this or any other product of murine origin
2. Anti-mouse antibody titers >/= 1:1,000
3. Decompensated HF or fluid overload
4. Uncontrolled HTN
5. Hx of or predisposition to seizures
6. Pregnant or breastfeeding
What are the ADEs of OKT3?
1. Anaphylaxis, esp on re-treatment
-can only get once
2. Cytokine release syndrome
-methylprednisolone for prevention
3. CNS
-seizures, encephalopathy, cerebral edema, aseptic, meningitis, HA
4. Infection and malignancy
What is the black box warning/ADEs of alemtuzumab (Campath)?
1. Pancytopenia/marrow hypoplasia, etc
2. Serious infusion rxns
3. Serious bacterial, viral, fungal, and protozoan infections
What are the goals of maintenance therapy?
To prevent acute and chronic rejection and minimize drug toxicity

(Most drugs used for maintenance like calcineurin inhibitors and corticosteroids can be used at high doses for acute rejection)
What are the calcineurin inhibitors?
1. Cyclosporine (Sandimmune, Gengraf, Neoral)
2. Tacrolimus/FK506 (Prograf)
True or False: Sandimmune is interchangeable with Gengraf or Neoral.
FALSE. Sandimmune is the standard cyclosporine formulation and Gengraf and Neoral are modified/microemulsion formations - these are NOT interchangeable.
Which cyclosporine formulation (standard or modified) has a decreased AUC and Cmax and a longer half-life?
Standard (Sandimmune)
True or False: Hypersensitivity to Cremophor EL (polyoxyethylated castor oil) is a contraindication to cyclosporine injection.
TRUE.
True or False: Pts who have had rxns to IV cyclosporine CANNOT receive cyclosporine capsules or oral solution.
FALSE. Pts with rxn to IV cyclosporine have received capsules or oral solution without incident.
What is the contraindication to tacrolimus injection?
Hypersensitivity to HCO-60 (polyoxyl 60 hydrogenated castor oil)
What are the black box warnings associated with calcineurin inhibitors?
1. Only experienced physicians/adequate facilities
2. Standard - admin w/ corticosteroids
3. Modified - may be admin w/ other suppressive agents in kidney, liver, and heart transplants
4. Modified - inc bioavailability compared to standard; troughs will be higher
5. Monitoring drug levels recommended
What are the adverse effects common to both calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine and tacrolimus)?
1. Hepatotoxicity
2. Increased K+
3. Hyperglycemia
4. Hyperlipidemia
5. HTN
6. Infections- new & reactivation
7. Malignancy
8. Nephrotoxicity
9. Neurotoxicity - tremor, HA, PN
What are the adverse effects unique to cyclosporine?
1. Acne
2. Gingival hyperplasia
3. Hirsutism

"HAG"
What are the adverse effects unique to tacrolimus?
1. Alopecia
2. Diarrhea, nausea
3. DECREASED Mg***
4. Pruritis
True or False: Acute nephrotoxicity caused by calcineurin inhibitors is dose dependent and reversible.
TRUE
True or False: Chronic nephrotoxicity caused by calcineurin inhibitors is reversible.
FALSE
What is needed to differentiate between renal toxicity and kidney rejection in patients taking calcineurin inhibitors?
Biopsy - 20% of patients will have both
What are the causes of acute nephrotoxicity in patients taking calcineurin inhibitors?
1. renal vasoconstriction
2. decreased renal blood flow
3. decreased GFR
4. increased Na+ re-absorption in proximal tubules
What are the causes of chronic nephrotoxicity in patients taking calcineurin inhibitors?
HTN and DMI
Calcineurin inhibitors are substrates of: ___ & _-__ and inhibitors of ___.
-substrates of 3A4 & P-gp
-inhibitors of 3A4
(caution HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors)
Some things that may INCREASE the concentration of calcineurin inhibitors:
Antifungals, antibiotics, methylprednisolone, grape fruit juice
Something that may DECREASE concentration of calcineurin inhibitors:
St. John's Wort
True or False: Calcineurin inhibitors can be taken without regard to meals.
FALSE. Calcineurin inhibitors must be taken consistently with regard to meal.
How should tacrolimus be taken with regard to antacids/positive cations?
Separate by 2 hours
What should be avoided with calcineurin inhibitors?
1. Live vaccines
2. Other drugs causing increased K+
3. Other nephrotoxic drugs
What are some drugs that may potentiate renal dysfunction?
Antibiotics, antifungals, naproxen
What are the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors?
1. Sirolimus (Rapamune)
2. Everolimus (Zortress)
True or False: Different assays used for monitoring Sirolimus are interchangeable.
FALSE. Chromatographic and immunoassay methods may yield different concentration levels.
What is the BBW for mTOR inhibitors?
1. Only experienced physicians/adequate facilities
2. Increased risk of infection and malignancies
3. NOT recommended in liver or lung
4. Decreased dose of cyclosporine with everolimus to decrease renal dysfunction
5. Increased risk of kidney arterial and venous thrombosis resulting in graft loss with everolimus
What are the adverse reactions mTOR inhibitors?
1. Anemia/thrombocytopenia
2. Angioedema
3. Arthralgia
4. Delayed wound healing/dehiscence
5. Fluid accumulation
6. Hypercholesterolemia/triglyceridemia
7. HTN
8. Infections
9. Interstitial lung disease
10.Malignancy
11. Nephrotoxicity
What adverse effects are unique to everolimus?
1. Kidney thrombosis
2. Male infertility
mTOR inhibitors are metabolized by: ___ & ___
3A4 & P-gp (consistent with CIs)
How should mTOR inhibitors be taken with regard to cyclosporine (inhibits 3A4 & P-gp)?
Sirolimus: take 4 hours AFTER cyclosporine

Everolimus: Take SAME TIME as cyclosporine

Caution w/ dose adjustments
True or False: mTOR inhibitors can be taken without regard to meals.
FALSE - should be taken consistently with regard to meals
True or False: grapefruit juice can increase levels of mTOR.
TRUE
True or False: Live vaccines can be given in patients taking mTOR inhibitors.
FALSE - avoid intranasal influenza, measles, mumps, rubella, oral polio, BCG, yellow fever, varicella, TY21a typhoid vaccines, etc
Mycophenolic Acid (MPA) is part of what class of drugs?
Antimetabolites
What are the 2 mycophenolic acid drugs?
1. Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) (Cellcept)
2. Mycophenolate sodium - delayed release (Myfortic)
What are the black box warnings for mycophenolic acid?
1.Only experienced physicians/adequate facilities
2. Females of childbearing potential must use contraception: use during pregnancy associated with increased risk of pregnancy loss and congenital malformations (use 2 forms of BC)
What are the adverse effects associated with MPAs?
1. GI - abdominal pain, n/v/d
-split dosing if needed
2. Infection
3. Malignancy/lymphoma
4. Neutropenia; also anemia & thrombocytopenia
5. Pure Red Cell Aplasia
What testing should be done to monitor for neutropenia associated with MPA?
CBC weekly during 1st month, twice monthly in the 2nd & 3rd months, then monthly through 1st year
True or False: MPA should be taken with food.
FALSE - but take regular release with food if severe GI upset
Why should cholestyramine be avoided with MPA?
Decreased AUC because of decreased enterohepatic recirculation
How should MPA be taken with regard to antacids/phosphate binders/Al/Mg/Fe?
Antacids/phosphate binders/Al/Mg/Fe should be administered 2 hours AFTER MPA
What is the interaction between MPA and oral contraceptives?
Decreased blood levels of hormones
What can happen if MPA and acyclovir/ganciclovir are administered together?
Concentrations of both can be increased; should be cautioned in renal impairment (can cause acute renal failure)
True or False: Live attenuated vaccines can be given to patients taking MPA.
FALSE
True or False: MPA delayed-release is pH dependent.
TRUE - tab does not release MPA when pH < 5, but is soluble in neutral pH
Azathioprine (6-MP) is part of what drug class?
Antimetabolites
What are the black box warnings for 6-MP?
1. Increased risk of neoplasia
2. Mutagenic potential
3. Hematologic toxicities
What are the adverse effects of 6-MP?
1.GI - severe n/v
-divide dose, give with food
2. Hepatotoxicity
3. Infection
4. Leukopenia, macrocytic anemia, pancytopenia, thrombocytopenia
5. Malignancy
6. Pregnancy category D
What are the drug interactions associated with 6-MP?
1. xanthine oxidase inhibitors - allopurinol
-decrease azathioprine 1/4 to 1/3 of normal dose
2. avoid live vaccines
What are the corticosteroids?
Methylprednisolone and prednisone
What are the adverse effects of corticosteroids?
1. Adrenal suppression/insufficiency
2. Cataracts/glaucoma
3. Fat redistribution
4. Hyperglycemia
5. HTN
6. Immunosuppression
7. Impaired wound healing
8. Infection
9. Muscular atrophy
10. Na+/H2O rentention
11. Osteoporosis
12. Peptic ulcers
13. Psych effects
14. Stunted growth
15. Thinning of the skin
16. Weight gain
What are the complications of preventing rejection?
1. HTN
2. Hyperlipidemia
3. DM
4. Infection
5. CMV
6. Malignancy
What are some reasons that preventing rejection causes HTN?
-CIs, mTORs, steroids, & impaired kidney graft function
What can be given to transplant patients who experience HTN?
All meds are effective, but some avoid ACE/ARB in renal transplant due to the potential for nephrotoxicity
What can cause hyperlipidemia in transplant patients?
CIs and mTORs
What are some treatment options for patients who experience hyperlipidemia after transplant?
-Statins and diet are treatment of choice
(Pravastatin often preferred because it is not metabolized by 3A4)
-Separate bild acid-binding resins by at least 2 hours
(completely avoid with MPA)
What can cause DM in transplant patients?
CIs and steroids
What should be used to treat DM in transplant patients?
-Meds that aren't affected by changes in renal function (prefer glyburide)
What are the sources of infection associated with transplant?
-Donor-derived
-Recipient-derived
-Nosocomial
What should be given to prevent infection in transplant patients?
Vaccines (get before transmission)
What types of infection are associated with transplants?
1. Bacterial infections
-urinary tract, wounds, vascular assess sites
2. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
-ganciclovir/valganciclovir
3. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
-acyclovir/valacyclovir
4.Pneumocystis carinii/jiroveci
-bactrim
5. BK virus
-reduce immunosuppression
6. Hepatitis B&C
What causes CMV in transplant patients?
Comes from herpes virus group
(associated with increased mortality and acute and chronic rejection)
What is the universal vs. preemptive therapy for CMV?
-immediately after transplant for 100+ days
-monitoring for CMV viremia
What are some characteristics of malignancy in transplant patients?
1. decreased acute rejection and increased patient survival -> increased lifetime exposure to immunosuppression
2. most common cause of death in the 6-10 years post-transplant
3. skin cancers are most common
4. high prevalence of lymphomas
5. post-transplantation lymphoproliferative disorders (PTLD)