Small Animal Medicine I Final Exam

Front 1

are dogs or cats more susceptible to leptospirosis?

Back 1

dogs > cats

Front 2

which are the five most common serovar of Leptospira that infect small animals?

Back 2

canicola, grippotyphosa, ponoma, autumnalis, bratislava

Front 3

which species of Leptospira is non-pathogenic and what species is pathogenic?

Back 3

- non: L. biflexa
- pathogenic: L. interrogans

Front 4

what are some typical signalments for dogs at risk for leptospirosis?

Back 4

- intact males
- herding, working, and gun dog breeds

Front 5

what are three types of reservoir hosts for leptospirosis?

Back 5

1. agricultural animals
2. wildlife
3. "urban friends" (rodents)

Front 6

when in the year do leptospirosis outbreaks typically occur?

Back 6

summer an early fall

Front 7

what weather conditions are associated with leptospirosis outbreaks?

Back 7

- high levels of rainfall
- stagnant water

Front 8

what four syndromes are associated with acute/subacute leptospirosis?

Back 8

1. ARF (Oliguria or polyuria) → CRF (50%)
2. combination of ARF and acute hepatic disease
3. acute hepatic disease → chronic active hepatitis?
4. hemorrhagic syndrome

Front 9

which organs are most affected by leptospirosis?

Back 9

liver and kidney

Front 10

pathogenesis of leptospirosis:
- routes of transmission
- sites of replication
- what is the body's response to this replication site?

Back 10

- urine: penetrates mucous membranes or abraded skin; venereal, placental, ingestion of tissues
- replication in the VASCULAR ENDOTHELIUM → liver, kidneys, muscles
- replication in the vascular endothelium initiates coagulation

Front 11

what are four general clinical/historical signs of leptospirosis?

Back 11

1. FEVER
2. anorexia
3. depression
4. lethargy

Front 12

what are five GI clinical signs of leptospirosis?

Back 12

1. VOMITING
2. DIARRHEA
3. abdominal
4. hepatomegaly
5. icterus - mild to moderate

Front 13

what are three renal signs of leptospirosis?

Back 13

1. changes in urine volume (anuria, oliguria, polyuria)
2. discolored urine (blood, bilirubin)
3. painful, enlarged kidneys

Front 14

besides liver and kidney, what are five other organ systems affected by leptospirosis, and what are clinical signs associated with them?

Back 14

1. Respiratory: cough, respiratory distress, edema
2. Muscles - myalgia
3. Eye: anterior uveitis (red eye)
4. CNS - meningeal pain
5. Blood vessels: petechial hemorrhages of the mucous membranes

Front 15

what is the major, general pathologic lesion caused by leptospirosis?

Back 15

VASCULAR INJURY

Front 16

what are some specific CBC findings of leptospirosis?

Back 16

leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, anemia

Front 17

what are some specific blood chemistry/enzyme findings of leptospirosis?

Back 17

- increased liver enzymes (SAP)
- increased bilirubin
- renal and pre-renal azotemia
- increased CK

Front 18

what is what are two UA findings of leptospirosis?

Back 18

1. isosthenuria
2. inflammatory urine sediment

Front 19

what are the two main serological tests to diagnose leptospirosis?

Back 19

- microscopic agglutination test (MAT)
- Rising titers

Front 20

what are two disadvantages of using the microscopic agglutination test (MAT) to diagnose leptospirosis?

Back 20

1. detects serogroup, but not individual serovar
2. does not detect naturally infected versus infected animals

Front 21

titer for leptospirosis:
- what is a typical titer after vaccination and how long does it last?
- what is considered a positive titer?
- what is the best way to diagnose via titers?

Back 21

- titers usually < 1:400 after vaccination and do not persist > 3 months
- >1:800 in one sample (1:3200*) is a positive test
- 4x rise in titer for acute and convalescent animals

Front 22

what are four techniques to diagnose leptospirosis?

Back 22

1. serology (microscopic agglutination test or rising titers)
2. culture the urine
3. PCR on blood and urine (IDEXX)
4. histopathology & silver stains

Front 23

PCR on blood and urine to diagnose leptospirosis:
- comment on extent of scientific research
- specificity
- sensitivity

Back 23

- only 1 published report on use
- number of false positives
- positive on blood early (high specificity)

Front 24

what are the two basic ways in which leptospirosis is treated?

Back 24

1. fluids
2. antibiotics

Front 25

comment on why you should be careful with fluid therapy in a patient with leptospirosis.

Back 25

don't overload the patient because they have compromised renal function (e.g. oliguric). They could get pulmonary edema.

Front 26

what are two functions of antibiotics in the treatment of leptospirosis, and what are the antibiotics associated with each?

Back 26

1. eliminate bacteremia: penicillin/ampicillin
2. eliminate carrier state: DOXYCYCLINE, macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin)

Front 27

vaccination for leptospirosis:
- efficacy
- how does it offer protection from serovars not in the vaccine?
- duration
- schedule
- types

Back 27

- up to 30% of dogs have no response to the vaccine
- there is some cross-protection from the same SEROGROUP
- short duration of 1 year (15 months)
- give 2-3 vaccines in series
- SUBUNIT, killed (inactivated whole), recombinant

Front 28

zoonotic potential for leptospirosis:
- who is at most risk?
- how do you disinfect?
- what about other animals in the client's household?

Back 28

- hospital personnel are at most risk
- use Povidine or bleach, don't use sprays or flush
- post-antibiotics recommended for other dogs in the household FOR 14 DAYS.

Front 29

which serovar of Leptospira has only been found in dogs?

Back 29

canicola

Front 30

what causes RMSF?

Back 30

Rickettsia rickettsii

Front 31

what are three vectors that harbor R. rickettsii?

Back 31

- Dermacentor variabilis - Wood
- Dermacentor andersoni - Dog
- Amblyomma americanum - Lone Star Tick

Front 32

what are the wildlife reservoirs for RMSF?

Back 32

wild rodents, rabbits, hares

Front 33

what is the seroprevalence of RMSF in dogs?

Back 33

14-15%

Front 34

how is RMSF transmitted
- in ticks?
- to dogs?
- how long must the tick be attached?

Back 34

- transovarian in ticks
- tick bites in the dog
- 3-6 hours of attachment to transmit R. rickettsii

Front 35

what months does RMSF occur most often?

Back 35

April - September

Front 36

what is the major pathological lesion of RMSF that causes disease?

Back 36

endothelial cell replication and damage

Front 37

what are six target organ systems for RMSF and the clinical signs associated with each?

Back 37

1. respiratory: tachypnea, dyspnea
2. musculoskeletal: myalgia, arthralgia
3. lymphatics: mild lymphadenopathy
4. eye: conjunctivitis, scleral injection, uveitis
5. vasculature: ecchymosis, edema
6. CNS: vestibular signs, cervical pain, seizures

Front 38

what are CBC findings of RMSF?

Back 38

- LEUKOCYTOSIS (NEUTROPHILIA)
- THROMBOCYTOPENIA
- mild anemia

Front 39

what are four blood chemistry findings of RMSF?

Back 39

- ↓TP due to hypoalbuminemia
- ↑ALT
- ↑SAP
- azotemia

Front 40

what is found in a UA in a dog with RMSF?

Back 40

inflammatory sediment

Front 41

what are two major clinical signs of RMSF and what is found in samples of sites of these clinical signs?

Back 41

1. polyarthritis: mild NON-SEPTIC purulent exudate
2. CNS: increased protein, neutrophilic pleocytosis

Front 42

besides Rickettsia rickettsii infection, what else should be considered when diagnosing and treating RMSF?

Back 42

co-infective organisms

Front 43

what are five diagnostics signs and tests used for RMSF?

Back 43

1. clinical signs and lab findings
2. serology
3. Direct FA
4. IHC
5. PCR

Front 44

serology in diagnosing RMSF:
- what is a positive titer?
- what serological result will happen with acute and convalescent infections?
- what can cause a false-positive for R. rickettsii?

Back 44

- one titer > 1:512 - 1:1024 with IFA is positive
- 4x rise in titer in acute and convalescent animals
- assay cross-reacts with other members of the "Spotted Fever Group"

Front 45

what are four antibiotics used to treat RMSF?

Back 45

1. tetracycline
2. doxycycline
3. chloramphenicol
4. enrofloxacin

Front 46

what is the treatment protocol for RMSF?

Back 46

- tetracycline, doxycycline, chloramphenicol, or enrofloxacin
- duration: 10-14 days
- supportive care

Front 47

RMSF:
- prognosis with treatment
- recurrence
- control

Back 47

- good to excellent prognosis with treatment
- permanent lifelong immunity
- tick control

Front 48

hemobartonella is caused by what type of bacteria?

Back 48

hemotropic mycoplasmas

Front 49

are dogs or cats more susceptible to hemobartonella?

Back 49

cats > dogs

Front 50

what are the two old taxonomic names for hemotropic mycoplasmas?

Back 50

1. Hemobartonella felis
2. Hemobartonella canis

Front 51

what are the five agents (new species names) that cause hemobartonellosis in dogs and cats?

Back 51

1. Mycoplasma haemofelis-most pathogenic
2. Mycoplasma haemominutum (more common*)
3. Mycoplasma turicensis
4. Mycoplasma haemocanis
5. Mycoplasma haematoparvum

Front 52

what is the most pathogenic hemotropic mycoplasma? What is the most common?

Back 52

- Mycoplasma haemofelis-most pathogenic
- Mycoplasma haemominutum (more common*)

Front 53

what are the vectors for hemotropic mycoplasmas?

Back 53

fleas and possibly ticks

Front 54

what are four ways that hemotropic mycoplasma are transmitted?

Back 54

1. oral
2. IV (from blood)
3. IP (from blood)
4. transplacental

Front 55

what are six risk factors for cats acquiring hemotropic mycoplasma infection?

Back 55

1. outdoors
2. males
3. stress
4. concurrent FeLV
5. concurrent FIV
6. abscesses

Front 56

signalment for hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection:
- sex
- breed
- age

Back 56

- males
- DSH
- young animals

Front 57

what time of year does hemotropic mycoplasma infection occur most frequently?

Back 57

spring

Front 58

what are four clinical manifestations of hemobartonella/hemotropic mycoplasma infection?

Back 58

1. asymptomatic
2. acute
3. chronic
4. carrier state

Front 59

what are three general clinical signs of acute hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection?

Back 59

1. fever
2. weight loss
3. regenerative anemia

Front 60

what are five clinical signs, found on PE and lab, associated with the extravascular hemolytic disease associated with hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection?

Back 60

1. regenerative anemia
2. positive Coombs' test
3. splenomegaly
4. icterus
5. bilirubinuria

Front 61

characterize the anemia of chronic hemobartonellosis (hemotropic mycoplasma)

Back 61

- anemia of chronic disease, usually associated with secondary infection

Front 62

what are seven differential diagnoses for hemobartonella (hemotrophic mycoplasma) infection in the cat?

Back 62

1. FeLV
2. FIV
3. FIP
4. Cytauxzoon
5. Heinz Body Anemia
6. PK Deficiency
7. Occult GI Hemorrhage

Front 63

canine hemobartonella (hemotrophic mycoplasma) infection:
- presentation
- CBC findings
- what three secondary diseases could be present?
- what surgical procedure predisposes them?

Back 63

- usually asymptomatic
- they may have regenerative anemia
- secondary diseases: ehrlichia, babesia, bartonella
- at risk post-splenectomy

Front 64

what are three basic ways to diagnose hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection?

Back 64

1. demonstration of organism
2. PCR (Heska Labs, U Illinois)
3. Response to treatment

Front 65

demonstration of organism to diagnose hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection:
- what technique
- sample collected where?
- sensitivity

Back 65

- peripheral blood smear
- fresh capillary blood from the ear veins is best
- poor yield, high numbers of false-negatives

Front 66

what are five basic ways to treat and prevent hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection?

Back 66

1. supportive - fluids, blood
2. antibacterials (doxycycline and enrofloxacin preferred)
3. glucocorticoids
4. control ectoparasites
5. neuter

Front 67

what are four antibacterials used to treat hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection?

Back 67

1. DOXYCYCLINE
2. ENROFLOXACIN
3. tetracycline
4. CHPC (Chloromycetin; chloramphenicol)

Front 68

when are hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) carrier states established? How do you prevent iatrogenic transmission?

Back 68

- carrier state established post-infection and post-treatment
- screen feline blood donors

Front 69

what animals are susceptible to cytauxzoonosis?

Back 69

Domestic cats and wild Felidae

Front 70

what agent causes cytauxzoonosis?

Back 70

Cytauxzoon felis

Front 71

what type of organism is Cytauxzoon felis?

Back 71

intraerythrotic parasite

Front 72

where do Cytauxzoon felis schizonts reside in the tissues?

Back 72

in macrophages

Front 73

in what months is cytauxzoonosis most prevalent?

Back 73

April - September

Front 74

what is the vector for cytauxzoonosis?

Back 74

Dermacentor variabilis ticks

Front 75

what is the life cycle of Cytauxzoon?

Back 75

1. Dermacentor tick bites cat
2. sporozoites enter mononuclear cells of BVs
3. they replicate into schizonts
4. cell ruptures
5. merozoites enter the RBCs
6. tick bites cat

Front 76

cytauxzoonosis:
- onset timeframe
- three general clinical signs

Back 76

- acute onset of
1. fever
2. pale mucous membranes
3. respiratory distress

Front 77

on palpation or radiography, what would you see with cytauxzoonosis?

Back 77

hepatosplenomegaly

Front 78

what are CBC findings of cytauxzoonosis?

Back 78

1. THROMBOCYTOPENIA
2. NEUTROPENIA
3. anemia

Front 79

what are two lab results (besides CBC) of cytauxzoonosis?

Back 79

1. icterus from extravascular hemolysis
2. coagulation disorder - ↑bleeding

Front 80

what are three ways to diagnose cytauxzoonosis?

Back 80

1. demonstration of organism from a fresh blood smear
2. compatible clinical/laboratory findings
3. PCR of whole blood in EDTA - IDEXX Lab; 1-3 day turnaround; ~$35

Front 81

what does Cytauxzoon look like on a blood smear?

Back 81

half-empty, half-full organisms in the RBCs

Front 82

what do hemotrophic mycoplasmas look like on a blood smear?

Back 82

round, basophilic "dots" on the outside of RBCs

Front 83

what are six DDx for cytauxzoonosis?

Back 83

1. FEVER
2. Thrombocytopenia
3. Respiratory Distress - Pulmonary
4. Anemia (NR or Mild regenerative)
5. Splenomegaly/Hepatomegaly
6. icterus (Hepatic)

Front 84

what are four basic ways to treat and prevent cytauxzoonosis?

Back 84

1. supportive care
2. anti-protozoals
3. antibiotics
4. vector control

Front 85

what are three aspects of supportive care for cytauxzoonosis?

Back 85

1. fluids
2. blood transfusions
3. heparin therapy

Front 86

what are six anti-protozoals/antibiotics used to treat cytauxzoonosis?

Back 86

1. AZITHROMYCIN
2. ATOVAQUONE
3. imidocarb
4. diminazene
5. fluoroquinolone antibiotics
6. doxycycline

Front 87

what are four Ehrlichia and Anaplasma species that infect dogs? Which of the four infect cats? Which ticks are responsible for spreading each?

Back 87

1. E. canis (dogs and cats): R. sanguineus and D. variabilis ticks
2. E. chaffeenis (dog): A. americanum and D. variabilis ticks
3. E. erwingii (dog): A. americanum
4. A. phagocytophilum (dogs, cats): Ixodes scapularis, pacificus, and ricinus
5. A. platys (dog): R. sanguineus

Front 88

what is the common name for the:
- American Dog Tick?
- Deer Tick?
- Lone Star Tick?
- Brown Dog Tick?

Back 88

- Dermacentor variabilis
- Ixodes scapularis
- Amblyomma americanum
- Rhipicephalus sanguineus

Front 89

what is the Genus and species name for:
- Dermacentor variabilis?
- Ixodes scapularis?
- Amblyomma americanum?
- Rhipicephalus sanguineus?

Back 89

- American Dog Tick
- Deer Tick
- Lone Star Tick
- Brown Dog Tick

Front 90

what is the pathogenesis of ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis from tick bite → chronic phase. Comment on length of time.

Back 90

1. tick bits salivary secretions
2. multiplication in macrophages
3. may have a 1-3 week incubation period
4. acute phase: 2-4 weeks
5. subclinical phase: unknown
6. chronic phase: bone marrow dysfunction

Front 91

clinical manifestations of ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis:
- anaplasmosis?
- ehrlichiosis?

Back 91

- anaplasmosis: acute, asymptomatic
- ehrlichiosis: acute to chronic, asymptomatic

Front 92

are dogs or cats more predisposed to ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis?

Back 92

dogs > cats

Front 93

what are four things that determine the severity of clinical manifestations of ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis?

Back 93

1. species and strain of organism
2. co-infecting agents
3. stage of disease
4. other disease processes

Front 94

what are seven other parasites/bacteria that have been to co-infect with ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis?

Back 94

1. Babesiosis
2. Borreliosis
3. Anaplasmosis
4. Bartonellosis
5. Rickettsia spp.
6. Hepatozoonosis
7. Mycoplasma

Front 95

what species of parasite cause canine hepatozoonosis?

Back 95

1. Hepatozoon canis***
2. Hepatozoon americanum

Front 96

what vector transmits hepatozoonosis?

Back 96

Amblyomma maculatum

Front 97

how is Hepatozoonosis transmitted?

Back 97

Ingestion of Amblyomma maculatum ticks and ingestion of prey infected with these ticks

Front 98

what is the common name for Amblyomma maculatum?

Back 98

Gulf Coast tick

Front 99

where is hepatozoonosis particularly prevalent in the US?

Back 99

Gulf Coast states

Front 100

what are 7 clinical signs of hepatozoonosis?

Back 100

1. Fever–Acute & Chronic
2. Inappetence–Acute & Chronic
3. DIARRHEA (Acute)
4. Weight loss
5. Muscle pain/atrophy
6. Lameness/bone pain
7. Ocular discharge

Front 101

what are CBC findings of hepatozoonosis?

Back 101

1. non-regenerative anemia (ACD)
2. mild to extreme leukocytosis

Front 102

what will hepatozoonosis reveal on blood chemistry profile?

Back 102

hypoalbuminemia

Front 103

how does hepatozoonosis manifest in the kidney?

Back 103

1. protein losing nephropathy
2. renal failure

Front 104

what are three ways to diagnose hepatozoonosis?

Back 104

1. demonstrate organism (blood - buffy coat; muscle biopsy)
2. PCR of blood (Auburn U.)
3. ELISA serology (OSU)

Front 105

what drugs are indicated for use during the acute stage of hepatozoonosis? How long do you use them?

Back 105

TMPS/Clindamycin/Pyrimethamine (use for 14 days)

Front 106

what drug is used to prevent relapses of hepatozoonosis?

Back 106

Decoquinate

Front 107

what drugs are used for treatment of hepatozoonosis in the:
- acute stage?
- to prevent relapses?
- other anti-protozoals
- other drugs
- prevention

Back 107

- TMPS/clindamycin/pyrimethamine
- decoquinate
- ponazuril (Marquis™), toltrazuril
- anti-inflammatories
- tick control: adulticide/repellant

Front 108

what is the most common agent that causes Lyme disease?

Back 108

Borrelia burgdorferi sensu stricto

Front 109

what are intermediate hosts for canine borreliosis?

Back 109

Deer, birds, small mammals (mouse, rat, rabbit)

Front 110

what are vectors for borreliosis?

Back 110

Ixodes scapularis (east), I. pacificus (west)

Front 111

what are three geographical locations in the US with the highest incidence of canine borreliosis?

Back 111

1. Mid-Atlantic coast
2. upper Midwest
3. Pacific Northwest

Front 112

what is the pathogenesis of canine borreliosis starting from the tick bite?

Back 112

1. tick bite (attachment for at least 48 hours)
2. multiplication of the spirochete in the skin
3. dissemination/replication (through TISSUES or via blood) to Joints, Kidney, heart, and CNS**
4. persistence in extracellular tissues

Front 113

what are the major target organ systems in canine borreliosis and what are the clinical signs associated with each?

Back 113

1. Joints (mono- to polyarthropathy): pain on palpation, joint effusion, lameness
2. Kidney: acute progressive renal failure: proteinuria, glomerulonephritis
3. Cardiac: heart block, syncope, tachyarrhythmias

Front 114

what are three general clinical signs that accompany the joint, renal, and cardiac signs of canine borreliosis?

Back 114

1. fever
2. anorexia
3. lymphadenopathy

Front 115

what severity of disease manifestations are found for canine borreliosis?

Back 115

ASYMPTOMATIC, ACUTE, and possibly chronic

Front 116

what will a joint fluid smear look like with canine borreliosis?

Back 116

purulent

Front 117

dogs predisposed to immune complex glomerulonephritis with canine borreliosis:
- age
- two breeds

Back 117

- younger dogs
- Labradors and Golden Retrievers

Front 118

immune complex glomerulonephritis associated with canine borreliosis:
- what type of glomerulonephritis?
- other renal damage (2)
- what immune proteins are involved in the complex formation?

Back 118

- membranoproliferative GN
- tubulare necrosis and interstitial inflammation
- subendothelial IgG, IgM, and C3 involved in complex formation

Front 119

what are seven ways to diagnose canine borreliosis?

Back 119

1. Compatible history, geographic area
2. Compatible clinical manifestations
3. Positive C6 test (SNAP 4DX)
4. Positive ELISA C6 Quantitative Test
5. Multiplex Assay (ELISA/WB Combo)***
6. Western Blot - Immunoblot/Whole cell ELISA
7. Response to Treatment

Front 120

what are four antibiotics used to treat canine borreliosis and what is the duration of treatment?

Back 120

- amoxicillin, doxycycline, ceftriaxone, azithromycin
- duration: 30 days

Front 121

how do you treat arthropathy in canine borreliosis?

Back 121

anti-inflammatories

Front 122

how do you manage renal failure in canine borreliosis?

Back 122

- Diet Change, ACE Inhibitors, phosphate binders
- Immunosuppressive therapy (glucocorticoids,
cyclophosphamide, mycophenolate)

Front 123

what are three basic ways to prevent canine borreliosis?

Back 123

1. Tick Repellents - Permethrins/amitraz
2. Tick Patrols – daily removals
3. Vaccination

Front 124

canine borreliosis vaccination:
- core or non-core?
- which animals should receive it?
- what should you do before vaccinating?
- when should you start vaccinating?
- how often do you give boosters?

Back 124

- non-core vaccine
- assess the animal's risk (e.g. geographic location, activity) to determine if vaccination is necessary
- negative C6 test before vaccination (i.e. dog is not already infected)
- start early (puppies)
- booster yearly

Front 125

what species are susceptible to Leishmaniasis?

Back 125

dogs and cats

Front 126

what agent causes Leishmaniasis?

Back 126

Leishmania infantum

Front 127

what are two vectors for Leishmaniasis?

Back 127

1. Phlebotomus spp. (sand fly)
2. Lutzomyia spp (sand fly)

Front 128

how is Leishmaniasis transmitted?

Back 128

direct contact or maternal

Front 129

what severity of disease manifestations are found for Leishmaniasis?

Back 129

asymptomatic and CHRONIC

Front 130

what are 9 clinical signs of chronic Leishmaniasis?

Back 130

1. Wt. Loss
2. Lymphadenopathy,
3. Abdominal Distension
4. Hepatosplenomegaly
5. Polyarthritis
6. Uveitis
7. Polyuria/Polydipsia
8. Seborrheic Skin
9. Draining Skin Lesions

Front 131

what are CBC findings of Leishmaniasis?

Back 131

1. anemia of chronic disease
2. thrombocytopenia

Front 132

what will you find on blood chemistry and UA with Leishmaniasis?

Back 132

- hyperproteinemia (↑ gamma-globulins)
- renal azotemia
- proteinuria

Front 133

what are two target organ systems with Leishmaniasis and what lesions are associated with them?

Back 133

1. kidney: renal failure (azotemia); glomerulonephropathy (proteinuria)
2. joints: suppurative polyarthritis

Front 134

what are the two basic ways to diagnose Leishmaniasis?

Back 134

1. demonstration of organism
2. serology/PCR

Front 135

what are three ways to demonstrate the organism in diagnosing Leishmaniasis?

Back 135

1. imprints from skin lesions
2. lymph node/splenic/bone marrow aspirates
3. joint taps

Front 136

serology/PCR in Leishmaniasis:
- method and positive titer
- what tissues would you culture?

Back 136

- IFA: titer > 1:64
- culture lymph node, bone marrow, blood

Front 137

why might you not treat Leishmaniasis?

Back 137

because the drugs are very toxic

Front 138

what are three drugs used to treat Leishmaniasis?

Back 138

1. antimony compounds
2. allopurinol with antimony
3. liposomal Amphotericin B

Front 139

how is Leishmaniasis prevented?

Back 139

insect/vector control

Front 140

what is the characteristic cytological appearance of Leishmaniasis?

Back 140

amastigotes of Leishmania infantum

Front 141

in a kennel, what is the minimum distance you want between facing cages?

Back 141

4 feet

Front 142

kennel climate control
- temperature
- humidity (advantages of high and low)

Back 142

- Temperature - 64-84 degrees Fahrenheit
- Humidity – 30-50% (higher advantageous for URI tx, lower advantageous for disease control)

Front 143

how much air circulation should you have in a kennel?

Back 143

Minimum of 10-12 air exchanges per hour; 20 is better

Front 144

what are quaternary ammonium disinfectants effective and ineffective against?

Back 144

- Effective against gram negative and gram positive bacteria (better against positive), enveloped viruses, and Giardia cysts
- Do NOT kill unenveloped viruses (Parvovirus, Panleukopenia), fungal spores (Microsporum), bacterial spores, Pseudomonas, or Cryptosporidium

Front 145

what is sodium hypochlorite effective and ineffective against?

Back 145

- Effective against all viruses (including nonenveloped), bacteria, bacterial spores and Microsporum spores
- No activity against Cryptosporidium

Front 146

what are peroxymonosulfate disinfectants effective and ineffective against?

Back 146

Effective against bacteria, viruses, bacterial and Microsporum spores and ± Cryptosporidium

Front 147

what is the best disinfectant with concurrent organic debris?

Back 147

peroxymonosulfate

Front 148

introducing new dogs to a kennel:
- quarantine length
- preventative measures
- what do you do with whelping bitches?
- what do you do with puppies?

Back 148

- Quarantine 14-28 days (28 days is better)
- Vaccinate when first arrives (or before)
- Isolate whelping bitches
- Isolate puppies until 2 weeks after fully vaccinated

Front 149

introducing new cats to a kennel:
- quarantine length
- preventative measures
- what do you do with cats with URI?
- how do you separate them?
- what do you do with kittens?

Back 149

- Quarantine 28 days
- Vaccinate when first arrives (or before)
- Do not introduce cats with history of recurrent Upper Respiratory Infections
- Separate according to age and breeding status
- Keep kittens isolated from main group until 2 weeks after final vaccine

Front 150

what are six aspects of preventative veterinary care at kennels?

Back 150

1. Physical Examination
2. Vaccines
3. Parasite Control
4. Spay/Neuter or Breeding/Parturition
5. Grooming needs
6. Health Issues: Periodontal disease, FeLV or FIV positive, osteoarthritis

Front 151

generally, when do neonatal vaccines begin, and how often are they repeated?

Back 151

Normally begin vaccines at 6-8 weeks and repeat at 3-4 week intervals

Front 152

in high-exposure environments, how early can you vaccinate (and route of admin) for:
- parvo?
- feline panleukopenia?
- feline herpes?
- feline calicivirus
- canine ITB?

Back 152

- parvo: 5 weeks with MLV
- 4 weeks for feline panleukopenia (may cause cerebellar hypoplasia)
- 8-10 days for feline herpes IN
- 8-10 days for feline calicivirus IN
- 3 weeks for canine ITB IN

Front 153

vaccinating in in high-exposure environments:
- frequency of vaccinations
- route of administration
- type of vaccine

Back 153

- q2 weeks rather than 3 or 4
- use route that provides fastest immunity (e.g. IN versus parenteral)
- use most efficacious vaccines (e.g. MLV/recombinant vs. killed)

Front 154

what are six recommended vaccines for dogs in a shelter?

Back 154

1. Canine Distemper Virus
2. Canine Parvovirus
3. Canine Adenovirus – 2
4. Bordetella
5. Parainfluenza
6. Rabies (+/- in shelter environment)

Front 155

what are six vaccinations NOT recommended for shelter dogs (except under special circumstances)?

Back 155

1. Canine Influenza
2. Lyme
3. Leptospirosis
4. Canine Adenovirus-1
5. Corona Virus
6. Giardia

Front 156

canine parvo:
- envelope
- transmission
- what do you do with pregnant bitches and neonates?
- what do you do with new animals?

Back 156

- Nonenveloped, stable virus
- Fomites and feco-oral contact
- Quarantine mom prior to delivery and pups until vaccinated
- Quarantine and vaccinate new animals immediately

Front 157

canine parvo vaccine
- best type
- how early can you give it?
- schedule

Back 157

- Use MLV (killed less effective)
- May vaccinate as early as 5-6 weeks (in outbreak, may vaccinate at 4 weeks)
- Repeat every 2-3 weeks until 16 weeks of age (in outbreak, q. 2 weeks)

Front 158

canine parvo:
- what do you do with infected dogs? How long will they shed?
- what do you do with asymptomatic unvaccinated animals?
- what diagnostic do you use to detect it?
- how do you disinfect?

Back 158

- Isolate infected dogs, will shed virus 4 weeks (possibly for 6 wks.) and use strict biosecurity measures
- Asymptomatic carriers exist, quarantine any non-vaccinated or incompletely vaccinated animal for at least 28 days
- May consider performing PCR for Parvo for new animals to determine if shedding virus in feces
- Disinfect - bleach, potassium peroxymonosulfate, steam cleaning

Front 159

canine distemper:
- comment on shedding
- stability of virus
- when do you normally start vaccinating?
- in an outbreak, how early can you vaccinate and how often do you give boosters?

Back 159

- Most virus shedding 1-2 weeks post acute infection in secretions; can shed up to 90 days
- Virus not stable in the environment at ambient temps and susceptible to disinfectants
- Vaccine ideally begun at 6 weeks of age
- In face of outbreak, vaccine may be administered as early as 2-3 weeks and repeated q. 2 weeks

Front 160

what causes canine infectious hepatitis?

Back 160

canine adenovirus-1

Front 161

what is the canine adenovirus vaccine?

Back 161

CAV-2 MLV

Front 162

canine adenovirus:
- environmental stability
- how do you disinfect?
- reservoir host
- when do you vaccinate?

Back 162

- Resistant to environmental inactivation
- Resistant to chemical inactivation – best iodine, phenol and sodium hydroxide or steam cleaning
- Wild canids are reservoir
- Vaccinate at 6-8 weeks, earlier in case of outbreak

Front 163

what are side-effects of the CAV-1 vaccine (which is no longer used).

Back 163

Anterior uveitis, persistent shedding of vaccine virus, interstitial nephritis

Front 164

what are the primary pathogens in the canine ITB complex? What is the route of administration for the vaccines?

Back 164

1. Canine Parainfluenza: IN
2. CAV-2: IN
3. Bordetella bronchiseptica: IN or parenteral

Front 165

canine ITB:
- route of transmission
- susceptibility to disinfectants

Back 165

- Very contagious oronasal contact, aerosolized droplets; fomites have limited role
- Susceptible to most disinfectants

Front 166

canine ITB intranasal vaccination for Bordatella and parainfluenza:
- comment on age and vaccination schedule
- how long does it take to establish immunity?
- how early can you use these vaccines?

Back 166

- dogs > 16 weeks: one vaccine; dogs < 16 weeks: two vaccines
- some immunity within 72 hours
- may vaccinate as early as 3 weeks

Front 167

canine ITB:
- in highly infected areas, how often do you vaccinate?
- what do you do with the premises if there is an outbreak?

Back 167

- In highly infected areas, vaccine q. 6 -9 months is recommended
- If outbreak occurs, may have to depopulate area for 2 weeks

Front 168

canine herpes virus:
- presentation in adults
- what happens if bitch get infected while pregnant?
- how is the virus spread?

Back 168

- Asymptomatic infection in adults then immune
- When bitch gets infection while pregnant or near parturition, becomes a fatal multi-systemic illness for the pups 1-3 weeks old
- Virus spread by contact, aerosol, and fomites

Front 169

canine herpes virus:
- how is the virus shed?
- how does the virus affect multiparous bitches?

Back 169

- Exposure due to passage through birth canal of infected bitch, maternal nasal secretions, infected littermates, other dogs in environment
- First Litters most often affected; subsequent litters protected by MDA

Front 170

canine herpes virus
- type of vaccine
- how do you prevent puppies from being born with an agonizing death due to this virus?

Back 170

- no vaccine
- check the antibody titer of the female before she is bred!

Front 171

whelping with canine herpes virus in kennels with enzootic disease:
- when do you provide serum for immunity?
- what do you do if the bitch got no titer?
- what environment do you provide for the pups?

Back 171

- give serum to pups < 3 days old
- isolate the bitch and pups if she has no titer
- keep the pups warn (101-103 °F) to make the virus less stable

Front 172

canine brucellosis:
- three major routes of transmission
- clinical signs
- type of vaccine

Back 172

1. Transmission by oropharyngeal or conjunctival contact from vaginal discharge, aborted fetuses, placental tissues, urine
2. Seminal fluid may spread it venereally
3. Carrier dogs also shed
- Clinical signs include reproductive disturbances (abortions, conception failures)
- No vaccine

Front 173

what is the screening test for canine brucellosis?

Back 173

ME-RSAT test

Front 174

canine brucellosis:
- who should be screened by the ME-RSAT test?
- how often should you test in infected kennels?
- how often should you test in non-infected kennels?
- what clinical signs of the male dog are suspect and should be tested?
- what is the protocol for testing new arrivals?
- if a dog leaves the kennel, what should you do?
- if a dog is returned to the kennel, what should you do?

Back 174

- All BREEDING dogs, both male and female
- Test monthly in infected kennels
- Test annually in non-infected kennels
- Test infertile males or those with testicular abnormalities
- New arrivals: test twice 30 days apart prior to adding to main kennel area
- Test before dog ships
- Re-test dogs returning to kennel

Front 175

what should you do if a kennel is positive for brucellosis?
- with the confirmed positives?
- with the property?

Back 175

- Eliminate confirmed positives
- If kept, neuter and antimicrobial treatment
- Disinfect property (susceptible to all disinfectants)

Front 176

brucellosis:
- disinfecting
- comment on zoonosis

Back 176

- susceptible to all disinfectants
- Mild zoonotic disease (small animal usually not a problem vs. large animals)

Front 177

canine influenza virus:
- transmission
- disinfecting
- clinical signs
- vaccine and efficacy

Back 177

- Direct transmission – oronasal
- Fragile virus, easily inactivated
- clinical signs: Rapidly advancing viral pneumonia but not always fatal
- Vaccine available: Does not prevent infection or shedding; Mitigates clinical signs

Front 178

what are the four recommended vaccines for the kennel cat?

Back 178

- Panleukopenia
- Herpes Virus
- Calici Virus
- Rabies (only in long-term shelter situation)

Front 179

what are the two "occasionally recommended" vaccines for the kennel cat?

Back 179

- Chlamydophila
- Bordetella

Front 180

what are the four vaccines for the kennel cat that are NOT recommended?

Back 180

- Feline leukemia virus
- FIV
- Giardia
- FIP

Front 181

feline herpes and calici virus:
- transmission
- stability in the environment
- what is a major source of infection?

Back 181

- Transmission via oronasal, conjunctival secretions, ± fomites
- Labile in environment, <24 hours
- Latent carriers can be source of infection

Front 182

feline herpes and calici virus vaccination:
- when do you give to queens?
- what type of vaccine do you give while the queen is pregnant?

Back 182

- Booster queens BEFORE mating
- Use inactivated vaccines while pregnant

Front 183

feline herpes and calici virus parenteral vaccine:
- how young do you give to kittens?
- kitten vaccination schedule
- how often do you booster in a high-risk situation?

Back 183

- Kittens as early as 6 weeks
- Repeat every 3-4 weeks until 14-16 weeks of age
- Repeat every 2 weeks in high risk situation

Front 184

feline herpes and calici virus MLV intranasal vaccine:
- pro and con
- when can you give to kittens in an outbreak?
- when is the vaccine normally given to kittens?
- vaccine schedule for kittens

Back 184

- Provides faster immunity (with a price) – some cats may get sick from the vaccine (very stressed cats)
- May immunize kittens at 8-10 days in outbreak, usually done at 3 weeks of age
- Repeat every 3 weeks until 12 weeks of age

Front 185

feline herpes and calici virus procedure in a shelter outbreak:
- what do you do with the kittens?
- what do you do with infected animals?
- what do you do with queens that produced infected kittens?
- what about suckling kittens?

Back 185

- Quarantine kittens until fully vaccinated
- Remove infected animals from colony
- Remove queens which produce infected kittens
- Consider early weaning and removal from queen

Front 186

feline Chlamydiophila
- transmission
- disinfection
- how is it kept enzootic?
- when do you vaccine?
- how early can you give the kitten the vaccine?

Back 186

- Transmission is through direct contact
- Labile and easily inactivated
- Asymptomatic carriers
- Vaccine: Noncore; Consider in enzootic cattery; Administer as early at time of admission
- vaccinate as early as 9 weeks

Front 187

feline Bordatella:
- where does it live in the cat?
- when does it cause disease?
- when is vaccination indicated?
- if you are going to vaccinate, by which route do you give it and when?

Back 187

- May be present in nasopharynx of healthy cats
- May cause respiratory disease or be part of complex particularly with overcrowded, stressful conditions, with high exposure, and in young animals
- Vaccine for catteries or shelters with endemic disease may be indicated but is not generally recommended
- IN vaccine at time of admission

Front 188

FeLV:
- transmission
- environmental stability

Back 188

- Transmission via saliva or nasal secretions from prolonged intimate contact; kittens most susceptible
- Extremely labile virus – fomites do not play a role in transmission

Front 189

what are the testing methods, interpretation of positive tests, and protocol for FeLV in a shelter?

Back 189

- ELISA and IFA
- If positive on ELISA, retest in 6 and 16 weeks
- If positive on both, not likely to seroconvert but possible
- Retest any new cat upon presentation, then repeat in 30 days

Front 190

FeLV vaccination in a shelter:
- if cats are isolated from each other
- if they are group housed

Back 190

- Not recommended if cats are isolated
- Recommended if group housed

Front 191

FIV:
- transmission
- procedure for new/returning cats

Back 191

- Transmission through bite wounds
- Test and quarantine new arrivals or returning cats. Consider retesting in 30 days after initial test.

Front 192

FIV Testing:
- what does ELISA test for? What other test do you use and why?
- how do you test suckling kittens?
- what do you do with positive kittens?

Back 192

- ELISA – detects Antibodies; confirm with IFA
'- MDA may be detected by ELISA
'- Retest positive kittens at 6 months of age

Front 193

FIV vaccine:
- what does it protect against?
- why is this vaccine not recommended for individually housed cats?
- is it a core vaccine?

Back 193

- Good preventable fraction against one strain; Not efficacious against all FIV strains
- Currently test is ANTIBODY test and once vaccinated will always test positive
- Not recommended as core because of these limitations

Front 194

FIP
- causative agent
- etiopathogenesis

Back 194

- Caused by ubiquitous coronavirus
- Non-mutated virus invades enterocytes and is shed in feces
- Mutated virus replicates in macrophages and causes systemic illness

Front 195

what are some factors contributing to FIP outbreaks?

Back 195

1. virulent strain of coronavirus
2. exposure to high load
3. age at exposure
4. genetic risk

Front 196

FIP testing:
- what does the test detect?
- how do you interpret a positive test?

Back 196

- Antibody
- Tests for exposure only

Front 197

FIP epidemiology:
- in multi-cat households, what % of coronavirus infected cats will develop FIP?
- what % of cats in single-cat households test positive?
- what % of cats in catteries test positive?

Back 197

- In multiple cat households, 5% of infected cats will develop FIP
- 50% of cats in single cat households
- 90% of cats in catteries exposed

Front 198

FIP prevention in shelters:
- what do you do with new FIP-positive cats with known disease or with positive titers?
- how long should new cats be quarantined?
- what if a queen is seropositive?

Back 198

- Do not bring in cats from cattery with known disease or positive titers
- Quarantine – 30 days
- If queen seropositive, wean kittens early and remove them from mom so as to reduce exposure

Front 199

what are six ways to reduce the exposure of cats to fecal material to prevent FIP?

Back 199

1. one litter tray per cat
2. Scoop trays daily
3. Disinfect trays weekly
4. Place litter trays away from food
5. Clean litter from around pans
6. Clip perineal area on long haired cats

Front 200

FIP prevention:
- what should be the maximum number of cats per household or area?
- what is the optimal way to house cats?

Back 200

- Limit number of cats to 8-10 per household or area
- In catteries, house cats individually
- House cats together with equal serologic tests

Front 201

FIP control:
- when should kittens be tested?
- benefit of vaccination

Back 201

- Exposed kittens may not seroconvert to 10 weeks of age, so don’t test sooner
- Vaccine – slight benefit if has negative titer - controversial

Front 202

which Leptospira serovar is not part of the 4-way vaccine?

Back 202

hardjo

Front 203

what are the two most common Leptospira serovars in dogs?

Back 203

grippotyphosa, pomona

Front 204

what is in a 4DX SNAP test?

Back 204

Antibody: Lyme, Anaplasma, Ehrlichia
Antigen: Heartworm

Front 205

what is a relatively good empirical, broad spectrum (G+, G-, aerobe, anaerobe) antibiotic combination for sepsis, severe infection, or an infection in an unknown location?

Back 205

fluoroquinolone + ampicillin

Front 206

what five antibiotics pass the intact BBB?

Back 206

1. trimethoprim
2. chloramphenicol
3. sulfonamides
4. metronidazole
5. doxycycline

Front 207

what four antibiotics that don't normally pass the BBB, do pass if the BBB is damaged?

Back 207

1. penicillins
2. some cephalosporins (3rd gen)
3. fluoroquinolones
4. tetracyclines

Front 208

which four antibiotics are always poor for the CNS?

Back 208

1. 1st gen cephalosporins
2. aminoglycosides
3. clindamycin
4. erythromycin

Front 209

what is the pH of prostatic fluid? What chemical properties of an antibiotic favor distribution into the prostate?

Back 209

- acidic
- alkaline and/or lipid soluble are the best, especially with chronic prostatitis

Front 210

what are five antibiotics that are good for chronic prostatitis?

Back 210

1. TMS
2. chloramphenicol
3. quinolones
4. macrolides
5. doxycycline

Front 211

comment on antibiotic use in acute prostatitis

Back 211

in acute prostatitis, you may be able to use antibiotics that are otherwise good for UTI

Front 212

which antibiotic that distributes to the skin is poor for staph infections?

Back 212

penicillins

Front 213

what are five antibiotics that are good for infections in the integument?

Back 213

1. cephalosporins
2. macrolides
3. potentiated penicillins (Clavamox)
4. TMS
5. Cefpodoxime (3rd gen oral cephalosporin)

Front 214

what are four antibiotics that are good for UTI?

Back 214

1. penicillins (amoxicillin excellent for staph)
2. quinolones
3. tetracycline (good for Pseudomonas)
4. cephalosporins

Front 215

what is a good antibiotic for Staph UTI?

Back 215

penicillins

Front 216

what is a good antibiotic for Pseudomonas UTI?

Back 216

tetracycline

Front 217

what chemical characteristics of an antibiotic are good for lung and airways?

Back 217

lipophilicity and low MW

Front 218

what are five good antibiotics for the lung and airways?

Back 218

1. trimethoprim
2. clindamycin
3. fluoroquinolones
4. erythromycin
5. doxycycline

Front 219

besides the MW and lipophilicity of an antibiotic, what else is important for an antibiotics to be good at treating a lung infection?

Back 219

the susceptibility of the organism present

Front 220

what type of bacteria infect the liver and bile?

Back 220

- G+ and G-
- sometimes anaerobes from the gut

Front 221

antibiotics for liver and bile:
- good combo
- what else may be good?
- what is best for anaerobes?
- which penetrates ischemic tissue the best?

Back 221

- fluoroquinolone and ampicillin
- aminoglycoside could replace quinolone
- metronidazole or clindamycin may be better for anaerobes than penicillin
- metronidazole may penetrate ischemic tissue better

Front 222

what is the worst antibiotics for abscesses?

Back 222

sulfonamides (but nothing is really good for abscesses)

Front 223

what is required of an antibiotic for staph infections of bone? What are two examples?

Back 223

- must use β-lactamase resistant antibiotic
- Clavamox
- Cephalosporin

Front 224

what are four antibiotics good for anaerobes?

Back 224

1. penicillins
2. TMS
3. metronidazole
4. clindamycin

Front 225

what is the main side-effect of aminoglycosides?

Back 225

nephrotoxicity

Front 226

what are two side-effects of enrofloxacin?

Back 226

1. cartilage growth defects in young dogs
2. blindness in cats

Front 227

what are two side-effects of sulfonamides?

Back 227

1. K-sicca (usually reversible)
2. blood dyscrasias

Front 228

what are two side-effects of metronidazole?

Back 228

1. nervous signs
2. hysteria

Front 229

what are two side-effects of chloramphenicol?

Back 229

1. aplastic anemia in humans (not dose dependent)
2. gastritis in cats

Front 230

what are two side-effects of tetracycline?

Back 230

1. fever in cats
2. stains teeth of young animals

Front 231

what are two antibiotics that can cause esophageal strictures?

Back 231

1. doxycycline
2. clindamycin in cats

Front 232

what are four aspects of the patient with an infection that will affect the route of administration?

Back 232

1. severity of infection (e.g. sepsis: IV)
2. location of infection (e.g. endocarditis: IV; hepatoencephalopathy: oral)
3. concurrent conditions (e.g. vomiting, diarrhea)
4. condition of patient (e.g. comatose)

Front 233

how do you lower the cost of antibiotic dosing?

Back 233

- use a less expensive a/b that IS EFFECTIVE
- don't compromise dose or frequency of administration for cost

Front 234

generally, what is the MINIMUM days that an antibiotic should be administered?

Back 234

5-7 days

Front 235

how long is the duration of antibiotic therapy for the following conditions:
- pyelonephritis?
- cystitis in females?
- cystitis/prostatitis in males?
- pyoderma?
- bone infection?

Back 235

- pyelonephritis: 6-8 weeks
- cystitis in females: 1-2 weeks
- cystitis/prostatitis in males: 4-6 weeks
- pyoderma: 6-12 weeks
- bone infection: 3-6 weeks

Front 236

when do you switch antibiotics?

Back 236

if not effective in 2-4 days

Front 237

what should you do if your initial antibiotic treatment didn't work, you switched to another drug, and it still didn't work?

Back 237

culture & sensitivity

Front 238

what do you do if your antibiotics are not working and culture came up negative?

Back 238

consider bacteria may not be the cause of disease

Front 239

when is prophylactic antibiotic use generally considered to be acceptable

Back 239

- "dirty" procedures:
- dental
- urinary tract procedures

Front 240

how long do you give prophylactic antibiotics? What is a notable exception?

Back 240

- usually short-term
- exception: recurrent UTI (controversial)

Front 241

where on the body are dogs usually bitten by snakes?

Back 241

- 80% on head
- 20% on legs

Front 242

where on the body are cats usually bitten by snakes?

Back 242

- 44% on front legs
- 35% on head
- 21% on body (shoulder/thorax)

Front 243

what are the three functions of snake venom?

Back 243

1. immobilize prey
2. pre-digest prey
3. defense

Front 244

what four types of enzymes are in snake venom?

Back 244

1. metalloproteinases
2. kininogenase
3. hyaluronidase
4. phospholipases

Front 245

what is a common site of clinical signs of peptide-based snake venoms?

Back 245

neuro

Front 246

what is the function of hyaluronidase in snake venom?

Back 246

increases spreading

Front 247

what are four effects of phospholipase in snake venom?

Back 247

1. disrupts membranes
2. uncouples phosphorylation
3. affects/inhibits cellular respiration
4. release of inflammatory mediators

Front 248

what are five effects of metalloproteinases in snake venom?

Back 248

1. myonecrosis
2. skin necrosis
3. hemorrhage
4. inflammation
5. digests ECM matrix proteins

Front 249

what are three effects of kininogenase in snake venom?

Back 249

1. bradykinins, potent vasodilators
2. stimulate production of prostaglandins
3. this promotes further vasodilation

Front 250

what type of coagulation defects does pit viper venom cause?

Back 250

a direct venom effect, not consumptive

Front 251

what are the target organ systems of the polypeptides in pit viper venom?

Back 251

1. cardiovascular
2. respiratory

Front 252

what are five hemodynamic clinical signs of pit viper envenomation? (one is dog specific and one is cat specific)

Back 252

1. DOG - splanchnic blood pooling
2. CAT - pulmonary blood pooling
3. edema
4. hypotension
5. shock

Front 253

what are 8 factors affecting the severity of a snake bite?

Back 253

1. Time of year
2. Age of snake (younger → more venom)
3. Time since last strike
4. Offensive vs. defensive strike (offensive → more venom)
5. Victim size
6. Location of bite
7. Time since bite
8. Activity of victim after bite (ideally, they should keep still)

Front 254

what are six clinical presentations of an animal bitten by a pit viper?

Back 254

1. puncture wounds
2. severe local swelling
3. pain
4. ecchymoses and discoloration at site
5. hypotension
6. shock

Front 255

what four lab tests do you want done with a pit viper bite?

Back 255

1. CBC
2. chem + CK
3. platelet count
4. coagulation profile

Front 256

how do you monitor the progression of a snake bite? (3)

Back 256

1. measure severity score
2. repeat in 6 hours
3. measure circumference of site above, below, and at site of bite

Front 257

what are four lab abnormalities associated with a pit viper bite?

Back 257

1. thrombocytopenia
2. severely elevated CK in the 1st 12 hours (indicates severity of envenomation)
3. hemoglobinuria
4. myoglobinuria

Front 258

what are four steps in treating pit viper bite wounds?

Back 258

1. immobilize
2. gently cleanse wounds
3. diphenhydramine for sedation (SC or IV)
4. IV fluids to combat shock and minimize pigment nephrosis

Front 259

pit viper antivenin:
- cost
- acceptance in the vet world
- procedure

Back 259

- expensive
- controversial
- do ID test first, treat even if positive, give slowly in diluted fluids

Front 260

what are four indications for the use of antivenin in pit viper bites?

Back 260

1. rapid progression of swelling
2. severe coagulopathy
3. neuromuscular toxicity
4. shock

Front 261

what medications besides antivenin may be indicated in severe pit viper bites?

Back 261

quinolone antibiotics

Front 262

what is the prognosis of pit viper bites

Back 262

most recover

Front 263

what is the primary type of toxin in elapids (coral snakes)

Back 263

neurotoxin that blocks the NMJ

Front 264

coral snake bites:
- appearance of wounds
- onset of clinical signs
- how does it kill?

Back 264

- very small puncture wounds
- onset: 30 min - 18 hours (mean 170 min)
- brainstem paralysis → respiratory collapse

Front 265

what are 8 clinical signs of a coral snake bite?

Back 265

1. Agitation
2. Ptosis
3. Dysphagia
4. Ptyalism
5. Vomiting
6. Aspiration pneumonia
7. Flaccid quadriplegia
8. Ventricular arrhythmias

Front 266

what are three lab abnormalities of a coral snake bite?

Back 266

1. mild to marked CK elevation
2. hemoglobinuria
3. hemolytic anemia

Front 267

what does an EMG look like for a coral snake bite?

Back 267

reduced M waves associated with neuromuscular blockade

Front 268

comment on antivenin for coral snake bites

Back 268

1. not available in the US
2. Australian Elapid antivenin is ineffective
3. not effective for the Sonoran coral snake

Front 269

what are six steps in treating a coral snake bite?

Back 269

1. ventilatory support
2. IV lidocaine for ventricular arrhythmias
3. general supportive care
4. IV fluids
5. nutritional support
6. neostigmine??

Front 270

what is the prognosis of coral snake bites

Back 270

most recover

Front 271

what antibiotic can cause hysteria?

Back 271

metronidazole

Front 272

what antibiotic can cause gastritis in cats?

Back 272

chloramphenicol

Front 273

what antibiotic can cause fever in cats?

Back 273

tetracycline

Front 274

which antibiotics are nephrotoxic?

Back 274

aminoglycosides

Front 275

which antibiotics can cause blindness in cats?

Back 275

enrofloxacin

Front 276

which antibiotics can cause keratoconjunctivitis sicca?

Back 276

sulfonamides