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276 Cards in this Set

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are dogs or cats more susceptible to leptospirosis?
dogs > cats
which are the five most common serovar of Leptospira that infect small animals?
canicola, grippotyphosa, ponoma, autumnalis, bratislava
which species of Leptospira is non-pathogenic and what species is pathogenic?
- non: L. biflexa
- pathogenic: L. interrogans
what are some typical signalments for dogs at risk for leptospirosis?
- intact males
- herding, working, and gun dog breeds
what are three types of reservoir hosts for leptospirosis?
1. agricultural animals
2. wildlife
3. "urban friends" (rodents)
when in the year do leptospirosis outbreaks typically occur?
summer an early fall
what weather conditions are associated with leptospirosis outbreaks?
- high levels of rainfall
- stagnant water
what four syndromes are associated with acute/subacute leptospirosis?
1. ARF (Oliguria or polyuria) → CRF (50%)
2. combination of ARF and acute hepatic disease
3. acute hepatic disease → chronic active hepatitis?
4. hemorrhagic syndrome
which organs are most affected by leptospirosis?
liver and kidney
pathogenesis of leptospirosis:
- routes of transmission
- sites of replication
- what is the body's response to this replication site?
- urine: penetrates mucous membranes or abraded skin; venereal, placental, ingestion of tissues
- replication in the VASCULAR ENDOTHELIUM → liver, kidneys, muscles
- replication in the vascular endothelium initiates coagulation
what are four general clinical/historical signs of leptospirosis?
2. anorexia
3. depression
4. lethargy
what are five GI clinical signs of leptospirosis?
3. abdominal
4. hepatomegaly
5. icterus - mild to moderate
what are three renal signs of leptospirosis?
1. changes in urine volume (anuria, oliguria, polyuria)
2. discolored urine (blood, bilirubin)
3. painful, enlarged kidneys
besides liver and kidney, what are five other organ systems affected by leptospirosis, and what are clinical signs associated with them?
1. Respiratory: cough, respiratory distress, edema
2. Muscles - myalgia
3. Eye: anterior uveitis (red eye)
4. CNS - meningeal pain
5. Blood vessels: petechial hemorrhages of the mucous membranes
what is the major, general pathologic lesion caused by leptospirosis?
what are some specific CBC findings of leptospirosis?
leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, anemia
what are some specific blood chemistry/enzyme findings of leptospirosis?
- increased liver enzymes (SAP)
- increased bilirubin
- renal and pre-renal azotemia
- increased CK
what is what are two UA findings of leptospirosis?
1. isosthenuria
2. inflammatory urine sediment
what are the two main serological tests to diagnose leptospirosis?
- microscopic agglutination test (MAT)
- Rising titers
what are two disadvantages of using the microscopic agglutination test (MAT) to diagnose leptospirosis?
1. detects serogroup, but not individual serovar
2. does not detect naturally infected versus infected animals
titer for leptospirosis:
- what is a typical titer after vaccination and how long does it last?
- what is considered a positive titer?
- what is the best way to diagnose via titers?
- titers usually < 1:400 after vaccination and do not persist > 3 months
- >1:800 in one sample (1:3200*) is a positive test
- 4x rise in titer for acute and convalescent animals
what are four techniques to diagnose leptospirosis?
1. serology (microscopic agglutination test or rising titers)
2. culture the urine
3. PCR on blood and urine (IDEXX)
4. histopathology & silver stains
PCR on blood and urine to diagnose leptospirosis:
- comment on extent of scientific research
- specificity
- sensitivity
- only 1 published report on use
- number of false positives
- positive on blood early (high specificity)
what are the two basic ways in which leptospirosis is treated?
1. fluids
2. antibiotics
comment on why you should be careful with fluid therapy in a patient with leptospirosis.
don't overload the patient because they have compromised renal function (e.g. oliguric). They could get pulmonary edema.
what are two functions of antibiotics in the treatment of leptospirosis, and what are the antibiotics associated with each?
1. eliminate bacteremia: penicillin/ampicillin
2. eliminate carrier state: DOXYCYCLINE, macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin)
vaccination for leptospirosis:
- efficacy
- how does it offer protection from serovars not in the vaccine?
- duration
- schedule
- types
- up to 30% of dogs have no response to the vaccine
- there is some cross-protection from the same SEROGROUP
- short duration of 1 year (15 months)
- give 2-3 vaccines in series
- SUBUNIT, killed (inactivated whole), recombinant
zoonotic potential for leptospirosis:
- who is at most risk?
- how do you disinfect?
- what about other animals in the client's household?
- hospital personnel are at most risk
- use Povidine or bleach, don't use sprays or flush
- post-antibiotics recommended for other dogs in the household FOR 14 DAYS.
which serovar of Leptospira has only been found in dogs?
what causes RMSF?
Rickettsia rickettsii
what are three vectors that harbor R. rickettsii?
- Dermacentor variabilis - Wood
- Dermacentor andersoni - Dog
- Amblyomma americanum - Lone Star Tick
what are the wildlife reservoirs for RMSF?
wild rodents, rabbits, hares
what is the seroprevalence of RMSF in dogs?
how is RMSF transmitted
- in ticks?
- to dogs?
- how long must the tick be attached?
- transovarian in ticks
- tick bites in the dog
- 3-6 hours of attachment to transmit R. rickettsii
what months does RMSF occur most often?
April - September
what is the major pathological lesion of RMSF that causes disease?
endothelial cell replication and damage
what are six target organ systems for RMSF and the clinical signs associated with each?
1. respiratory: tachypnea, dyspnea
2. musculoskeletal: myalgia, arthralgia
3. lymphatics: mild lymphadenopathy
4. eye: conjunctivitis, scleral injection, uveitis
5. vasculature: ecchymosis, edema
6. CNS: vestibular signs, cervical pain, seizures
what are CBC findings of RMSF?
- mild anemia
what are four blood chemistry findings of RMSF?
- ↓TP due to hypoalbuminemia
- ↑ALT
- ↑SAP
- azotemia
what is found in a UA in a dog with RMSF?
inflammatory sediment
what are two major clinical signs of RMSF and what is found in samples of sites of these clinical signs?
1. polyarthritis: mild NON-SEPTIC purulent exudate
2. CNS: increased protein, neutrophilic pleocytosis
besides Rickettsia rickettsii infection, what else should be considered when diagnosing and treating RMSF?
co-infective organisms
what are five diagnostics signs and tests used for RMSF?
1. clinical signs and lab findings
2. serology
3. Direct FA
4. IHC
5. PCR
serology in diagnosing RMSF:
- what is a positive titer?
- what serological result will happen with acute and convalescent infections?
- what can cause a false-positive for R. rickettsii?
- one titer > 1:512 - 1:1024 with IFA is positive
- 4x rise in titer in acute and convalescent animals
- assay cross-reacts with other members of the "Spotted Fever Group"
what are four antibiotics used to treat RMSF?
1. tetracycline
2. doxycycline
3. chloramphenicol
4. enrofloxacin
what is the treatment protocol for RMSF?
- tetracycline, doxycycline, chloramphenicol, or enrofloxacin
- duration: 10-14 days
- supportive care
- prognosis with treatment
- recurrence
- control
- good to excellent prognosis with treatment
- permanent lifelong immunity
- tick control
hemobartonella is caused by what type of bacteria?
hemotropic mycoplasmas
are dogs or cats more susceptible to hemobartonella?
cats > dogs
what are the two old taxonomic names for hemotropic mycoplasmas?
1. Hemobartonella felis
2. Hemobartonella canis
what are the five agents (new species names) that cause hemobartonellosis in dogs and cats?
1. Mycoplasma haemofelis-most pathogenic
2. Mycoplasma haemominutum (more common*)
3. Mycoplasma turicensis
4. Mycoplasma haemocanis
5. Mycoplasma haematoparvum
what is the most pathogenic hemotropic mycoplasma? What is the most common?
- Mycoplasma haemofelis-most pathogenic
- Mycoplasma haemominutum (more common*)
what are the vectors for hemotropic mycoplasmas?
fleas and possibly ticks
what are four ways that hemotropic mycoplasma are transmitted?
1. oral
2. IV (from blood)
3. IP (from blood)
4. transplacental
what are six risk factors for cats acquiring hemotropic mycoplasma infection?
1. outdoors
2. males
3. stress
4. concurrent FeLV
5. concurrent FIV
6. abscesses
signalment for hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection:
- sex
- breed
- age
- males
- young animals
what time of year does hemotropic mycoplasma infection occur most frequently?
what are four clinical manifestations of hemobartonella/hemotropic mycoplasma infection?
1. asymptomatic
2. acute
3. chronic
4. carrier state
what are three general clinical signs of acute hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection?
1. fever
2. weight loss
3. regenerative anemia
what are five clinical signs, found on PE and lab, associated with the extravascular hemolytic disease associated with hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection?
1. regenerative anemia
2. positive Coombs' test
3. splenomegaly
4. icterus
5. bilirubinuria
characterize the anemia of chronic hemobartonellosis (hemotropic mycoplasma)
- anemia of chronic disease, usually associated with secondary infection
what are seven differential diagnoses for hemobartonella (hemotrophic mycoplasma) infection in the cat?
1. FeLV
2. FIV
3. FIP
4. Cytauxzoon
5. Heinz Body Anemia
6. PK Deficiency
7. Occult GI Hemorrhage
canine hemobartonella (hemotrophic mycoplasma) infection:
- presentation
- CBC findings
- what three secondary diseases could be present?
- what surgical procedure predisposes them?
- usually asymptomatic
- they may have regenerative anemia
- secondary diseases: ehrlichia, babesia, bartonella
- at risk post-splenectomy
what are three basic ways to diagnose hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection?
1. demonstration of organism
2. PCR (Heska Labs, U Illinois)
3. Response to treatment
demonstration of organism to diagnose hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection:
- what technique
- sample collected where?
- sensitivity
- peripheral blood smear
- fresh capillary blood from the ear veins is best
- poor yield, high numbers of false-negatives
what are five basic ways to treat and prevent hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection?
1. supportive - fluids, blood
2. antibacterials (doxycycline and enrofloxacin preferred)
3. glucocorticoids
4. control ectoparasites
5. neuter
what are four antibacterials used to treat hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) infection?
3. tetracycline
4. CHPC (Chloromycetin; chloramphenicol)
when are hemobartonella (hemotropic mycoplasma) carrier states established? How do you prevent iatrogenic transmission?
- carrier state established post-infection and post-treatment
- screen feline blood donors
what animals are susceptible to cytauxzoonosis?
Domestic cats and wild Felidae
what agent causes cytauxzoonosis?
Cytauxzoon felis
what type of organism is Cytauxzoon felis?
intraerythrotic parasite
where do Cytauxzoon felis schizonts reside in the tissues?
in macrophages
in what months is cytauxzoonosis most prevalent?
April - September
what is the vector for cytauxzoonosis?
Dermacentor variabilis ticks
what is the life cycle of Cytauxzoon?
1. Dermacentor tick bites cat
2. sporozoites enter mononuclear cells of BVs
3. they replicate into schizonts
4. cell ruptures
5. merozoites enter the RBCs
6. tick bites cat
- onset timeframe
- three general clinical signs
- acute onset of
1. fever
2. pale mucous membranes
3. respiratory distress
on palpation or radiography, what would you see with cytauxzoonosis?
what are CBC findings of cytauxzoonosis?
3. anemia
what are two lab results (besides CBC) of cytauxzoonosis?
1. icterus from extravascular hemolysis
2. coagulation disorder - ↑bleeding
what are three ways to diagnose cytauxzoonosis?
1. demonstration of organism from a fresh blood smear
2. compatible clinical/laboratory findings
3. PCR of whole blood in EDTA - IDEXX Lab; 1-3 day turnaround; ~$35
what does Cytauxzoon look like on a blood smear?
half-empty, half-full organisms in the RBCs
what do hemotrophic mycoplasmas look like on a blood smear?
round, basophilic "dots" on the outside of RBCs
what are six DDx for cytauxzoonosis?
2. Thrombocytopenia
3. Respiratory Distress - Pulmonary
4. Anemia (NR or Mild regenerative)
5. Splenomegaly/Hepatomegaly
6. icterus (Hepatic)
what are four basic ways to treat and prevent cytauxzoonosis?
1. supportive care
2. anti-protozoals
3. antibiotics
4. vector control
what are three aspects of supportive care for cytauxzoonosis?
1. fluids
2. blood transfusions
3. heparin therapy
what are six anti-protozoals/antibiotics used to treat cytauxzoonosis?
3. imidocarb
4. diminazene
5. fluoroquinolone antibiotics
6. doxycycline
what are four Ehrlichia and Anaplasma species that infect dogs? Which of the four infect cats? Which ticks are responsible for spreading each?
1. E. canis (dogs and cats): R. sanguineus and D. variabilis ticks
2. E. chaffeenis (dog): A. americanum and D. variabilis ticks
3. E. erwingii (dog): A. americanum
4. A. phagocytophilum (dogs, cats): Ixodes scapularis, pacificus, and ricinus
5. A. platys (dog): R. sanguineus
what is the common name for the:
- American Dog Tick?
- Deer Tick?
- Lone Star Tick?
- Brown Dog Tick?
- Dermacentor variabilis
- Ixodes scapularis
- Amblyomma americanum
- Rhipicephalus sanguineus
what is the Genus and species name for:
- Dermacentor variabilis?
- Ixodes scapularis?
- Amblyomma americanum?
- Rhipicephalus sanguineus?
- American Dog Tick
- Deer Tick
- Lone Star Tick
- Brown Dog Tick
what is the pathogenesis of ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis from tick bite → chronic phase. Comment on length of time.
1. tick bits salivary secretions
2. multiplication in macrophages
3. may have a 1-3 week incubation period
4. acute phase: 2-4 weeks
5. subclinical phase: unknown
6. chronic phase: bone marrow dysfunction
clinical manifestations of ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis:
- anaplasmosis?
- ehrlichiosis?
- anaplasmosis: acute, asymptomatic
- ehrlichiosis: acute to chronic, asymptomatic
are dogs or cats more predisposed to ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis?
dogs > cats
what are four things that determine the severity of clinical manifestations of ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis?
1. species and strain of organism
2. co-infecting agents
3. stage of disease
4. other disease processes
what are seven other parasites/bacteria that have been to co-infect with ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis?
1. Babesiosis
2. Borreliosis
3. Anaplasmosis
4. Bartonellosis
5. Rickettsia spp.
6. Hepatozoonosis
7. Mycoplasma
what species of parasite cause canine hepatozoonosis?
1. Hepatozoon canis***
2. Hepatozoon americanum
what vector transmits hepatozoonosis?
Amblyomma maculatum
how is Hepatozoonosis transmitted?
Ingestion of Amblyomma maculatum ticks and ingestion of prey infected with these ticks
what is the common name for Amblyomma maculatum?
Gulf Coast tick
where is hepatozoonosis particularly prevalent in the US?
Gulf Coast states
what are 7 clinical signs of hepatozoonosis?
1. Fever–Acute & Chronic
2. Inappetence–Acute & Chronic
3. DIARRHEA (Acute)
4. Weight loss
5. Muscle pain/atrophy
6. Lameness/bone pain
7. Ocular discharge
what are CBC findings of hepatozoonosis?
1. non-regenerative anemia (ACD)
2. mild to extreme leukocytosis
what will hepatozoonosis reveal on blood chemistry profile?
how does hepatozoonosis manifest in the kidney?
1. protein losing nephropathy
2. renal failure
what are three ways to diagnose hepatozoonosis?
1. demonstrate organism (blood - buffy coat; muscle biopsy)
2. PCR of blood (Auburn U.)
3. ELISA serology (OSU)
what drugs are indicated for use during the acute stage of hepatozoonosis? How long do you use them?
TMPS/Clindamycin/Pyrimethamine (use for 14 days)
what drug is used to prevent relapses of hepatozoonosis?
what drugs are used for treatment of hepatozoonosis in the:
- acute stage?
- to prevent relapses?
- other anti-protozoals
- other drugs
- prevention
- TMPS/clindamycin/pyrimethamine
- decoquinate
- ponazuril (Marquis™), toltrazuril
- anti-inflammatories
- tick control: adulticide/repellant
what is the most common agent that causes Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi sensu stricto
what are intermediate hosts for canine borreliosis?
Deer, birds, small mammals (mouse, rat, rabbit)
what are vectors for borreliosis?
Ixodes scapularis (east), I. pacificus (west)
what are three geographical locations in the US with the highest incidence of canine borreliosis?
1. Mid-Atlantic coast
2. upper Midwest
3. Pacific Northwest
what is the pathogenesis of canine borreliosis starting from the tick bite?
1. tick bite (attachment for at least 48 hours)
2. multiplication of the spirochete in the skin
3. dissemination/replication (through TISSUES or via blood) to Joints, Kidney, heart, and CNS**
4. persistence in extracellular tissues
what are the major target organ systems in canine borreliosis and what are the clinical signs associated with each?
1. Joints (mono- to polyarthropathy): pain on palpation, joint effusion, lameness
2. Kidney: acute progressive renal failure: proteinuria, glomerulonephritis
3. Cardiac: heart block, syncope, tachyarrhythmias
what are three general clinical signs that accompany the joint, renal, and cardiac signs of canine borreliosis?
1. fever
2. anorexia
3. lymphadenopathy
what severity of disease manifestations are found for canine borreliosis?
ASYMPTOMATIC, ACUTE, and possibly chronic
what will a joint fluid smear look like with canine borreliosis?
dogs predisposed to immune complex glomerulonephritis with canine borreliosis:
- age
- two breeds
- younger dogs
- Labradors and Golden Retrievers
immune complex glomerulonephritis associated with canine borreliosis:
- what type of glomerulonephritis?
- other renal damage (2)
- what immune proteins are involved in the complex formation?
- membranoproliferative GN
- tubulare necrosis and interstitial inflammation
- subendothelial IgG, IgM, and C3 involved in complex formation
what are seven ways to diagnose canine borreliosis?
1. Compatible history, geographic area
2. Compatible clinical manifestations
3. Positive C6 test (SNAP 4DX)
4. Positive ELISA C6 Quantitative Test
5. Multiplex Assay (ELISA/WB Combo)***
6. Western Blot - Immunoblot/Whole cell ELISA
7. Response to Treatment
what are four antibiotics used to treat canine borreliosis and what is the duration of treatment?
- amoxicillin, doxycycline, ceftriaxone, azithromycin
- duration: 30 days
how do you treat arthropathy in canine borreliosis?
how do you manage renal failure in canine borreliosis?
- Diet Change, ACE Inhibitors, phosphate binders
- Immunosuppressive therapy (glucocorticoids,
cyclophosphamide, mycophenolate)
what are three basic ways to prevent canine borreliosis?
1. Tick Repellents - Permethrins/amitraz
2. Tick Patrols – daily removals
3. Vaccination
canine borreliosis vaccination:
- core or non-core?
- which animals should receive it?
- what should you do before vaccinating?
- when should you start vaccinating?
- how often do you give boosters?
- non-core vaccine
- assess the animal's risk (e.g. geographic location, activity) to determine if vaccination is necessary
- negative C6 test before vaccination (i.e. dog is not already infected)
- start early (puppies)
- booster yearly
what species are susceptible to Leishmaniasis?
dogs and cats
what agent causes Leishmaniasis?
Leishmania infantum
what are two vectors for Leishmaniasis?
1. Phlebotomus spp. (sand fly)
2. Lutzomyia spp (sand fly)
how is Leishmaniasis transmitted?
direct contact or maternal
what severity of disease manifestations are found for Leishmaniasis?
asymptomatic and CHRONIC
what are 9 clinical signs of chronic Leishmaniasis?
1. Wt. Loss
2. Lymphadenopathy,
3. Abdominal Distension
4. Hepatosplenomegaly
5. Polyarthritis
6. Uveitis
7. Polyuria/Polydipsia
8. Seborrheic Skin
9. Draining Skin Lesions
what are CBC findings of Leishmaniasis?
1. anemia of chronic disease
2. thrombocytopenia
what will you find on blood chemistry and UA with Leishmaniasis?
- hyperproteinemia (↑ gamma-globulins)
- renal azotemia
- proteinuria
what are two target organ systems with Leishmaniasis and what lesions are associated with them?
1. kidney: renal failure (azotemia); glomerulonephropathy (proteinuria)
2. joints: suppurative polyarthritis
what are the two basic ways to diagnose Leishmaniasis?
1. demonstration of organism
2. serology/PCR
what are three ways to demonstrate the organism in diagnosing Leishmaniasis?
1. imprints from skin lesions
2. lymph node/splenic/bone marrow aspirates
3. joint taps
serology/PCR in Leishmaniasis:
- method and positive titer
- what tissues would you culture?
- IFA: titer > 1:64
- culture lymph node, bone marrow, blood
why might you not treat Leishmaniasis?
because the drugs are very toxic
what are three drugs used to treat Leishmaniasis?
1. antimony compounds
2. allopurinol with antimony
3. liposomal Amphotericin B
how is Leishmaniasis prevented?
insect/vector control
what is the characteristic cytological appearance of Leishmaniasis?
amastigotes of Leishmania infantum
in a kennel, what is the minimum distance you want between facing cages?
4 feet
kennel climate control
- temperature
- humidity (advantages of high and low)
- Temperature - 64-84 degrees Fahrenheit
- Humidity – 30-50% (higher advantageous for URI tx, lower advantageous for disease control)
how much air circulation should you have in a kennel?
Minimum of 10-12 air exchanges per hour; 20 is better
what are quaternary ammonium disinfectants effective and ineffective against?
- Effective against gram negative and gram positive bacteria (better against positive), enveloped viruses, and Giardia cysts
- Do NOT kill unenveloped viruses (Parvovirus, Panleukopenia), fungal spores (Microsporum), bacterial spores, Pseudomonas, or Cryptosporidium
what is sodium hypochlorite effective and ineffective against?
- Effective against all viruses (including nonenveloped), bacteria, bacterial spores and Microsporum spores
- No activity against Cryptosporidium
what are peroxymonosulfate disinfectants effective and ineffective against?
Effective against bacteria, viruses, bacterial and Microsporum spores and ± Cryptosporidium
what is the best disinfectant with concurrent organic debris?
introducing new dogs to a kennel:
- quarantine length
- preventative measures
- what do you do with whelping bitches?
- what do you do with puppies?
- Quarantine 14-28 days (28 days is better)
- Vaccinate when first arrives (or before)
- Isolate whelping bitches
- Isolate puppies until 2 weeks after fully vaccinated
introducing new cats to a kennel:
- quarantine length
- preventative measures
- what do you do with cats with URI?
- how do you separate them?
- what do you do with kittens?
- Quarantine 28 days
- Vaccinate when first arrives (or before)
- Do not introduce cats with history of recurrent Upper Respiratory Infections
- Separate according to age and breeding status
- Keep kittens isolated from main group until 2 weeks after final vaccine
what are six aspects of preventative veterinary care at kennels?
1. Physical Examination
2. Vaccines
3. Parasite Control
4. Spay/Neuter or Breeding/Parturition
5. Grooming needs
6. Health Issues: Periodontal disease, FeLV or FIV positive, osteoarthritis
generally, when do neonatal vaccines begin, and how often are they repeated?
Normally begin vaccines at 6-8 weeks and repeat at 3-4 week intervals
in high-exposure environments, how early can you vaccinate (and route of admin) for:
- parvo?
- feline panleukopenia?
- feline herpes?
- feline calicivirus
- canine ITB?
- parvo: 5 weeks with MLV
- 4 weeks for feline panleukopenia (may cause cerebellar hypoplasia)
- 8-10 days for feline herpes IN
- 8-10 days for feline calicivirus IN
- 3 weeks for canine ITB IN
vaccinating in in high-exposure environments:
- frequency of vaccinations
- route of administration
- type of vaccine
- q2 weeks rather than 3 or 4
- use route that provides fastest immunity (e.g. IN versus parenteral)
- use most efficacious vaccines (e.g. MLV/recombinant vs. killed)
what are six recommended vaccines for dogs in a shelter?
1. Canine Distemper Virus
2. Canine Parvovirus
3. Canine Adenovirus – 2
4. Bordetella
5. Parainfluenza
6. Rabies (+/- in shelter environment)
what are six vaccinations NOT recommended for shelter dogs (except under special circumstances)?
1. Canine Influenza
2. Lyme
3. Leptospirosis
4. Canine Adenovirus-1
5. Corona Virus
6. Giardia
canine parvo:
- envelope
- transmission
- what do you do with pregnant bitches and neonates?
- what do you do with new animals?
- Nonenveloped, stable virus
- Fomites and feco-oral contact
- Quarantine mom prior to delivery and pups until vaccinated
- Quarantine and vaccinate new animals immediately
canine parvo vaccine
- best type
- how early can you give it?
- schedule
- Use MLV (killed less effective)
- May vaccinate as early as 5-6 weeks (in outbreak, may vaccinate at 4 weeks)
- Repeat every 2-3 weeks until 16 weeks of age (in outbreak, q. 2 weeks)
canine parvo:
- what do you do with infected dogs? How long will they shed?
- what do you do with asymptomatic unvaccinated animals?
- what diagnostic do you use to detect it?
- how do you disinfect?
- Isolate infected dogs, will shed virus 4 weeks (possibly for 6 wks.) and use strict biosecurity measures
- Asymptomatic carriers exist, quarantine any non-vaccinated or incompletely vaccinated animal for at least 28 days
- May consider performing PCR for Parvo for new animals to determine if shedding virus in feces
- Disinfect - bleach, potassium peroxymonosulfate, steam cleaning
canine distemper:
- comment on shedding
- stability of virus
- when do you normally start vaccinating?
- in an outbreak, how early can you vaccinate and how often do you give boosters?
- Most virus shedding 1-2 weeks post acute infection in secretions; can shed up to 90 days
- Virus not stable in the environment at ambient temps and susceptible to disinfectants
- Vaccine ideally begun at 6 weeks of age
- In face of outbreak, vaccine may be administered as early as 2-3 weeks and repeated q. 2 weeks
what causes canine infectious hepatitis?
canine adenovirus-1
what is the canine adenovirus vaccine?
canine adenovirus:
- environmental stability
- how do you disinfect?
- reservoir host
- when do you vaccinate?
- Resistant to environmental inactivation
- Resistant to chemical inactivation – best iodine, phenol and sodium hydroxide or steam cleaning
- Wild canids are reservoir
- Vaccinate at 6-8 weeks, earlier in case of outbreak
what are side-effects of the CAV-1 vaccine (which is no longer used).
Anterior uveitis, persistent shedding of vaccine virus, interstitial nephritis
what are the primary pathogens in the canine ITB complex? What is the route of administration for the vaccines?
1. Canine Parainfluenza: IN
2. CAV-2: IN
3. Bordetella bronchiseptica: IN or parenteral
canine ITB:
- route of transmission
- susceptibility to disinfectants
- Very contagious oronasal contact, aerosolized droplets; fomites have limited role
- Susceptible to most disinfectants
canine ITB intranasal vaccination for Bordatella and parainfluenza:
- comment on age and vaccination schedule
- how long does it take to establish immunity?
- how early can you use these vaccines?
- dogs > 16 weeks: one vaccine; dogs < 16 weeks: two vaccines
- some immunity within 72 hours
- may vaccinate as early as 3 weeks
canine ITB:
- in highly infected areas, how often do you vaccinate?
- what do you do with the premises if there is an outbreak?
- In highly infected areas, vaccine q. 6 -9 months is recommended
- If outbreak occurs, may have to depopulate area for 2 weeks
canine herpes virus:
- presentation in adults
- what happens if bitch get infected while pregnant?
- how is the virus spread?
- Asymptomatic infection in adults then immune
- When bitch gets infection while pregnant or near parturition, becomes a fatal multi-systemic illness for the pups 1-3 weeks old
- Virus spread by contact, aerosol, and fomites
canine herpes virus:
- how is the virus shed?
- how does the virus affect multiparous bitches?
- Exposure due to passage through birth canal of infected bitch, maternal nasal secretions, infected littermates, other dogs in environment
- First Litters most often affected; subsequent litters protected by MDA
canine herpes virus
- type of vaccine
- how do you prevent puppies from being born with an agonizing death due to this virus?
- no vaccine
- check the antibody titer of the female before she is bred!
whelping with canine herpes virus in kennels with enzootic disease:
- when do you provide serum for immunity?
- what do you do if the bitch got no titer?
- what environment do you provide for the pups?
- give serum to pups < 3 days old
- isolate the bitch and pups if she has no titer
- keep the pups warn (101-103 °F) to make the virus less stable
canine brucellosis:
- three major routes of transmission
- clinical signs
- type of vaccine
1. Transmission by oropharyngeal or conjunctival contact from vaginal discharge, aborted fetuses, placental tissues, urine
2. Seminal fluid may spread it venereally
3. Carrier dogs also shed
- Clinical signs include reproductive disturbances (abortions, conception failures)
- No vaccine
what is the screening test for canine brucellosis?
ME-RSAT test
canine brucellosis:
- who should be screened by the ME-RSAT test?
- how often should you test in infected kennels?
- how often should you test in non-infected kennels?
- what clinical signs of the male dog are suspect and should be tested?
- what is the protocol for testing new arrivals?
- if a dog leaves the kennel, what should you do?
- if a dog is returned to the kennel, what should you do?
- All BREEDING dogs, both male and female
- Test monthly in infected kennels
- Test annually in non-infected kennels
- Test infertile males or those with testicular abnormalities
- New arrivals: test twice 30 days apart prior to adding to main kennel area
- Test before dog ships
- Re-test dogs returning to kennel
what should you do if a kennel is positive for brucellosis?
- with the confirmed positives?
- with the property?
- Eliminate confirmed positives
- If kept, neuter and antimicrobial treatment
- Disinfect property (susceptible to all disinfectants)
- disinfecting
- comment on zoonosis
- susceptible to all disinfectants
- Mild zoonotic disease (small animal usually not a problem vs. large animals)
canine influenza virus:
- transmission
- disinfecting
- clinical signs
- vaccine and efficacy
- Direct transmission – oronasal
- Fragile virus, easily inactivated
- clinical signs: Rapidly advancing viral pneumonia but not always fatal
- Vaccine available: Does not prevent infection or shedding; Mitigates clinical signs
what are the four recommended vaccines for the kennel cat?
- Panleukopenia
- Herpes Virus
- Calici Virus
- Rabies (only in long-term shelter situation)
what are the two "occasionally recommended" vaccines for the kennel cat?
- Chlamydophila
- Bordetella
what are the four vaccines for the kennel cat that are NOT recommended?
- Feline leukemia virus
- Giardia
feline herpes and calici virus:
- transmission
- stability in the environment
- what is a major source of infection?
- Transmission via oronasal, conjunctival secretions, ± fomites
- Labile in environment, <24 hours
- Latent carriers can be source of infection
feline herpes and calici virus vaccination:
- when do you give to queens?
- what type of vaccine do you give while the queen is pregnant?
- Booster queens BEFORE mating
- Use inactivated vaccines while pregnant
feline herpes and calici virus parenteral vaccine:
- how young do you give to kittens?
- kitten vaccination schedule
- how often do you booster in a high-risk situation?
- Kittens as early as 6 weeks
- Repeat every 3-4 weeks until 14-16 weeks of age
- Repeat every 2 weeks in high risk situation
feline herpes and calici virus MLV intranasal vaccine:
- pro and con
- when can you give to kittens in an outbreak?
- when is the vaccine normally given to kittens?
- vaccine schedule for kittens
- Provides faster immunity (with a price) – some cats may get sick from the vaccine (very stressed cats)
- May immunize kittens at 8-10 days in outbreak, usually done at 3 weeks of age
- Repeat every 3 weeks until 12 weeks of age
feline herpes and calici virus procedure in a shelter outbreak:
- what do you do with the kittens?
- what do you do with infected animals?
- what do you do with queens that produced infected kittens?
- what about suckling kittens?
- Quarantine kittens until fully vaccinated
- Remove infected animals from colony
- Remove queens which produce infected kittens
- Consider early weaning and removal from queen
feline Chlamydiophila
- transmission
- disinfection
- how is it kept enzootic?
- when do you vaccine?
- how early can you give the kitten the vaccine?
- Transmission is through direct contact
- Labile and easily inactivated
- Asymptomatic carriers
- Vaccine: Noncore; Consider in enzootic cattery; Administer as early at time of admission
- vaccinate as early as 9 weeks
feline Bordatella:
- where does it live in the cat?
- when does it cause disease?
- when is vaccination indicated?
- if you are going to vaccinate, by which route do you give it and when?
- May be present in nasopharynx of healthy cats
- May cause respiratory disease or be part of complex particularly with overcrowded, stressful conditions, with high exposure, and in young animals
- Vaccine for catteries or shelters with endemic disease may be indicated but is not generally recommended
- IN vaccine at time of admission
- transmission
- environmental stability
- Transmission via saliva or nasal secretions from prolonged intimate contact; kittens most susceptible
- Extremely labile virus – fomites do not play a role in transmission
what are the testing methods, interpretation of positive tests, and protocol for FeLV in a shelter?
- If positive on ELISA, retest in 6 and 16 weeks
- If positive on both, not likely to seroconvert but possible
- Retest any new cat upon presentation, then repeat in 30 days
FeLV vaccination in a shelter:
- if cats are isolated from each other
- if they are group housed
- Not recommended if cats are isolated
- Recommended if group housed
- transmission
- procedure for new/returning cats
- Transmission through bite wounds
- Test and quarantine new arrivals or returning cats. Consider retesting in 30 days after initial test.
FIV Testing:
- what does ELISA test for? What other test do you use and why?
- how do you test suckling kittens?
- what do you do with positive kittens?
- ELISA – detects Antibodies; confirm with IFA
'- MDA may be detected by ELISA
'- Retest positive kittens at 6 months of age
FIV vaccine:
- what does it protect against?
- why is this vaccine not recommended for individually housed cats?
- is it a core vaccine?
- Good preventable fraction against one strain; Not efficacious against all FIV strains
- Currently test is ANTIBODY test and once vaccinated will always test positive
- Not recommended as core because of these limitations
- causative agent
- etiopathogenesis
- Caused by ubiquitous coronavirus
- Non-mutated virus invades enterocytes and is shed in feces
- Mutated virus replicates in macrophages and causes systemic illness
what are some factors contributing to FIP outbreaks?
1. virulent strain of coronavirus
2. exposure to high load
3. age at exposure
4. genetic risk
FIP testing:
- what does the test detect?
- how do you interpret a positive test?
- Antibody
- Tests for exposure only
FIP epidemiology:
- in multi-cat households, what % of coronavirus infected cats will develop FIP?
- what % of cats in single-cat households test positive?
- what % of cats in catteries test positive?
- In multiple cat households, 5% of infected cats will develop FIP
- 50% of cats in single cat households
- 90% of cats in catteries exposed
FIP prevention in shelters:
- what do you do with new FIP-positive cats with known disease or with positive titers?
- how long should new cats be quarantined?
- what if a queen is seropositive?
- Do not bring in cats from cattery with known disease or positive titers
- Quarantine – 30 days
- If queen seropositive, wean kittens early and remove them from mom so as to reduce exposure
what are six ways to reduce the exposure of cats to fecal material to prevent FIP?
1. one litter tray per cat
2. Scoop trays daily
3. Disinfect trays weekly
4. Place litter trays away from food
5. Clean litter from around pans
6. Clip perineal area on long haired cats
FIP prevention:
- what should be the maximum number of cats per household or area?
- what is the optimal way to house cats?
- Limit number of cats to 8-10 per household or area
- In catteries, house cats individually
- House cats together with equal serologic tests
FIP control:
- when should kittens be tested?
- benefit of vaccination
- Exposed kittens may not seroconvert to 10 weeks of age, so don’t test sooner
- Vaccine – slight benefit if has negative titer - controversial
which Leptospira serovar is not part of the 4-way vaccine?
what are the two most common Leptospira serovars in dogs?
grippotyphosa, pomona
what is in a 4DX SNAP test?
Antibody: Lyme, Anaplasma, Ehrlichia
Antigen: Heartworm
what is a relatively good empirical, broad spectrum (G+, G-, aerobe, anaerobe) antibiotic combination for sepsis, severe infection, or an infection in an unknown location?
fluoroquinolone + ampicillin
what five antibiotics pass the intact BBB?
1. trimethoprim
2. chloramphenicol
3. sulfonamides
4. metronidazole
5. doxycycline
what four antibiotics that don't normally pass the BBB, do pass if the BBB is damaged?
1. penicillins
2. some cephalosporins (3rd gen)
3. fluoroquinolones
4. tetracyclines
which four antibiotics are always poor for the CNS?
1. 1st gen cephalosporins
2. aminoglycosides
3. clindamycin
4. erythromycin
what is the pH of prostatic fluid? What chemical properties of an antibiotic favor distribution into the prostate?
- acidic
- alkaline and/or lipid soluble are the best, especially with chronic prostatitis
what are five antibiotics that are good for chronic prostatitis?
1. TMS
2. chloramphenicol
3. quinolones
4. macrolides
5. doxycycline
comment on antibiotic use in acute prostatitis
in acute prostatitis, you may be able to use antibiotics that are otherwise good for UTI
which antibiotic that distributes to the skin is poor for staph infections?
what are five antibiotics that are good for infections in the integument?
1. cephalosporins
2. macrolides
3. potentiated penicillins (Clavamox)
4. TMS
5. Cefpodoxime (3rd gen oral cephalosporin)
what are four antibiotics that are good for UTI?
1. penicillins (amoxicillin excellent for staph)
2. quinolones
3. tetracycline (good for Pseudomonas)
4. cephalosporins
what is a good antibiotic for Staph UTI?
what is a good antibiotic for Pseudomonas UTI?
what chemical characteristics of an antibiotic are good for lung and airways?
lipophilicity and low MW
what are five good antibiotics for the lung and airways?
1. trimethoprim
2. clindamycin
3. fluoroquinolones
4. erythromycin
5. doxycycline
besides the MW and lipophilicity of an antibiotic, what else is important for an antibiotics to be good at treating a lung infection?
the susceptibility of the organism present
what type of bacteria infect the liver and bile?
- G+ and G-
- sometimes anaerobes from the gut
antibiotics for liver and bile:
- good combo
- what else may be good?
- what is best for anaerobes?
- which penetrates ischemic tissue the best?
- fluoroquinolone and ampicillin
- aminoglycoside could replace quinolone
- metronidazole or clindamycin may be better for anaerobes than penicillin
- metronidazole may penetrate ischemic tissue better
what is the worst antibiotics for abscesses?
sulfonamides (but nothing is really good for abscesses)
what is required of an antibiotic for staph infections of bone? What are two examples?
- must use β-lactamase resistant antibiotic
- Clavamox
- Cephalosporin
what are four antibiotics good for anaerobes?
1. penicillins
2. TMS
3. metronidazole
4. clindamycin
what is the main side-effect of aminoglycosides?
what are two side-effects of enrofloxacin?
1. cartilage growth defects in young dogs
2. blindness in cats
what are two side-effects of sulfonamides?
1. K-sicca (usually reversible)
2. blood dyscrasias
what are two side-effects of metronidazole?
1. nervous signs
2. hysteria
what are two side-effects of chloramphenicol?
1. aplastic anemia in humans (not dose dependent)
2. gastritis in cats
what are two side-effects of tetracycline?
1. fever in cats
2. stains teeth of young animals
what are two antibiotics that can cause esophageal strictures?
1. doxycycline
2. clindamycin in cats
what are four aspects of the patient with an infection that will affect the route of administration?
1. severity of infection (e.g. sepsis: IV)
2. location of infection (e.g. endocarditis: IV; hepatoencephalopathy: oral)
3. concurrent conditions (e.g. vomiting, diarrhea)
4. condition of patient (e.g. comatose)
how do you lower the cost of antibiotic dosing?
- use a less expensive a/b that IS EFFECTIVE
- don't compromise dose or frequency of administration for cost
generally, what is the MINIMUM days that an antibiotic should be administered?
5-7 days
how long is the duration of antibiotic therapy for the following conditions:
- pyelonephritis?
- cystitis in females?
- cystitis/prostatitis in males?
- pyoderma?
- bone infection?
- pyelonephritis: 6-8 weeks
- cystitis in females: 1-2 weeks
- cystitis/prostatitis in males: 4-6 weeks
- pyoderma: 6-12 weeks
- bone infection: 3-6 weeks
when do you switch antibiotics?
if not effective in 2-4 days
what should you do if your initial antibiotic treatment didn't work, you switched to another drug, and it still didn't work?
culture & sensitivity
what do you do if your antibiotics are not working and culture came up negative?
consider bacteria may not be the cause of disease
when is prophylactic antibiotic use generally considered to be acceptable
- "dirty" procedures:
- dental
- urinary tract procedures
how long do you give prophylactic antibiotics? What is a notable exception?
- usually short-term
- exception: recurrent UTI (controversial)
where on the body are dogs usually bitten by snakes?
- 80% on head
- 20% on legs
where on the body are cats usually bitten by snakes?
- 44% on front legs
- 35% on head
- 21% on body (shoulder/thorax)
what are the three functions of snake venom?
1. immobilize prey
2. pre-digest prey
3. defense
what four types of enzymes are in snake venom?
1. metalloproteinases
2. kininogenase
3. hyaluronidase
4. phospholipases
what is a common site of clinical signs of peptide-based snake venoms?
what is the function of hyaluronidase in snake venom?
increases spreading
what are four effects of phospholipase in snake venom?
1. disrupts membranes
2. uncouples phosphorylation
3. affects/inhibits cellular respiration
4. release of inflammatory mediators
what are five effects of metalloproteinases in snake venom?
1. myonecrosis
2. skin necrosis
3. hemorrhage
4. inflammation
5. digests ECM matrix proteins
what are three effects of kininogenase in snake venom?
1. bradykinins, potent vasodilators
2. stimulate production of prostaglandins
3. this promotes further vasodilation
what type of coagulation defects does pit viper venom cause?
a direct venom effect, not consumptive
what are the target organ systems of the polypeptides in pit viper venom?
1. cardiovascular
2. respiratory
what are five hemodynamic clinical signs of pit viper envenomation? (one is dog specific and one is cat specific)
1. DOG - splanchnic blood pooling
2. CAT - pulmonary blood pooling
3. edema
4. hypotension
5. shock
what are 8 factors affecting the severity of a snake bite?
1. Time of year
2. Age of snake (younger → more venom)
3. Time since last strike
4. Offensive vs. defensive strike (offensive → more venom)
5. Victim size
6. Location of bite
7. Time since bite
8. Activity of victim after bite (ideally, they should keep still)
what are six clinical presentations of an animal bitten by a pit viper?
1. puncture wounds
2. severe local swelling
3. pain
4. ecchymoses and discoloration at site
5. hypotension
6. shock
what four lab tests do you want done with a pit viper bite?
1. CBC
2. chem + CK
3. platelet count
4. coagulation profile
how do you monitor the progression of a snake bite? (3)
1. measure severity score
2. repeat in 6 hours
3. measure circumference of site above, below, and at site of bite
what are four lab abnormalities associated with a pit viper bite?
1. thrombocytopenia
2. severely elevated CK in the 1st 12 hours (indicates severity of envenomation)
3. hemoglobinuria
4. myoglobinuria
what are four steps in treating pit viper bite wounds?
1. immobilize
2. gently cleanse wounds
3. diphenhydramine for sedation (SC or IV)
4. IV fluids to combat shock and minimize pigment nephrosis
pit viper antivenin:
- cost
- acceptance in the vet world
- procedure
- expensive
- controversial
- do ID test first, treat even if positive, give slowly in diluted fluids
what are four indications for the use of antivenin in pit viper bites?
1. rapid progression of swelling
2. severe coagulopathy
3. neuromuscular toxicity
4. shock
what medications besides antivenin may be indicated in severe pit viper bites?
quinolone antibiotics
what is the prognosis of pit viper bites
most recover
what is the primary type of toxin in elapids (coral snakes)
neurotoxin that blocks the NMJ
coral snake bites:
- appearance of wounds
- onset of clinical signs
- how does it kill?
- very small puncture wounds
- onset: 30 min - 18 hours (mean 170 min)
- brainstem paralysis → respiratory collapse
what are 8 clinical signs of a coral snake bite?
1. Agitation
2. Ptosis
3. Dysphagia
4. Ptyalism
5. Vomiting
6. Aspiration pneumonia
7. Flaccid quadriplegia
8. Ventricular arrhythmias
what are three lab abnormalities of a coral snake bite?
1. mild to marked CK elevation
2. hemoglobinuria
3. hemolytic anemia
what does an EMG look like for a coral snake bite?
reduced M waves associated with neuromuscular blockade
comment on antivenin for coral snake bites
1. not available in the US
2. Australian Elapid antivenin is ineffective
3. not effective for the Sonoran coral snake
what are six steps in treating a coral snake bite?
1. ventilatory support
2. IV lidocaine for ventricular arrhythmias
3. general supportive care
4. IV fluids
5. nutritional support
6. neostigmine??
what is the prognosis of coral snake bites
most recover
what antibiotic can cause hysteria?
what antibiotic can cause gastritis in cats?
what antibiotic can cause fever in cats?
which antibiotics are nephrotoxic?
which antibiotics can cause blindness in cats?
which antibiotics can cause keratoconjunctivitis sicca?