Skin Exam Review

Front 1

What is the cause of Albinism?

Back 1

Albinism
Autosomal recessive melanin synthesis protein gene defects
Type I: Tyrosinase -/-
Type II: P Gene/P Protein -/-
Type III: Tyrosinase Related Protein 1 -/-

Front 2

What is the cause of Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome? What are the associated clinical symptoms?

Back 2

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
Autosoma dominant STK11 tumor suppressor gene defect
Bluish, brown, and/or black macules on the lips, perioral skin, buccal mucosa

Front 3

Which two genodermatoses are associated with colon polyps? Which are benign? Which are pre-malignant?

Back 3

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
-benign colon polyps
-increased risk of ovarian, breast, pancreatic CA
Gardner Syndrome
-pre-malignant colon polyps
-very high risk of adenocarcinoma of the colon, increased risk of thyroid cancer
-treat with prophylactic colectomy

Front 4

Bluish, brown, and/or black macules on the lips, perioral skin, and buccal mucosa are associated with what syndrome?

Back 4

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
Autosomal dominant STK11 gene defect

Front 5

What is the cause of Gardner Syndrome? What are the associated clinical symptoms?

Back 5

Gardner Syndrome
Autosomal dominant APC tumor suppressor gene defect
Multiple epidermal cysts, fibromas, osteomas, congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium (CHRPE)

Front 6

Multiple epidermal cysts, fibromas, osteomas, and congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium (CHRPE) are associated with what syndrome?

Back 6

Gardner Syndrome
Autosomal dominant APC tumor suppressor gene defect

Front 7

What is the cause of Xeroderma Pigmentosa? What are the associated clinical symptoms?

Back 7

Xeroderma Pigmentosa
Autosomal recessive XPA, B, C, D, E, F, or G nucleotide excision repair gene defect
Acute sun sensitivity, pigmented macules, telangiectasias, actinic keratoses, 1000x increased risk for basal and squamous cell carcinomas and malignant melanomas

Front 8

Acute sun sensitivity, pigmented macules, telangiectasias, actinic keratoses, and 1000x increased risk for basal and squamous cell carcinomas and malignant melanomas are associated with what syndrome?

Back 8

Xeroderma Pigmentosa
Autosomal recessive XPA, B, C, D, E, F, G nucleotide excision repair gene defect

Front 9

What is the cause of Neurofibromatosis Type I? What are the associated clinical symptoms?

Back 9

Neurofibromatosis Type I (NF I)
Autosomal dominant neurofibromin gene defect on chromosome 17
Cafe-au-lait macules, neurofibromas, axillary freckling (Crowe's sign), Lisch nodules, optic glioma, sphenoid wing dysplasia, pseudoarthrosis

Front 10

Cafe-au-lait macules, neurofibromas, and axillary freckling (Crowe's sign) are associated with what syndrome?

Back 10

Neurofibromatosis Type I
Autosomal dominant neurofibromin gene defect on chromosome 17

Front 11

What is Crowe's sign? What is it associated with?

Back 11

Axillary freckling
Neurofibromatosis Type I

Front 12

Lisch nodules, optic glioma, sphenoid wing dysplasia, and pseudoarthrosis are associated with what syndrome?

Back 12

Neurofibromatosis Type I
Autosomal dominant neurofibromin gene defect on chromsome 17

Front 13

What is the cause of Neurofibromatosis Type II? What are the associated clinical symptoms?

Back 13

Neurofibromatosis Type II
Autosomal dominant scwannomin or merlin gene defect on chromosome 22
Bilateral acoustic neuromas on CN VIII, neurofibromas

Front 14

Bilateral acoustic neuromas on CN VIII and neurofibromas are associated with what syndrome?

Back 14

Neurofibromatosis Type II
Autosomal dominant schwannomin or merlin gene defect on chromosome 22

Front 15

What is the cause of Tuberous Sclerosis? What are the associated clinical symptoms?

Back 15

Tuberous Sclerosis
Autosomal dominant TSC-1 (hamartin, ch9) or TSC-2 (tuberin, ch16) gene defect
Adenoma sebaceum/angiofibromas, mental retardation, epilepsy, Shagreen patch, Koenen's tumors, hypomelanotic papules, fibrous plaques

Front 16

What are adenoma sebaceum/angiofibromas? What are they associated with?

Back 16

1-3mm red-brown papules on cheek, nose, and forehead
Tuberous Sclerosis

Front 17

What are Shagreen patches? What are they associated with?

Back 17

Connective tissue nevi commonly located in the lumbosacral area
Tuberous Sclerosis

Front 18

What are Koenen's tumors? What are they associated with?

Back 18

Small periungual fibromas
Tuberous Sclerosis

Front 19

Adenoma sebaceum/angiofibromas, shagreen patches, koenen's tumors, hypomelanotic macules, and fibrous plaques are associate with what syndrome?

Back 19

Tuberous Sclerosis
Autosomal dominant TSC-1 (hamartin, ch9) or TSC-2 (tuberin, ch16) gene defect

Front 20

What is the cause of Marfan Syndrome? What are the associated clinical symptoms?

Back 20

Marfan Syndrome
Autosomal dominant fibrillin gene defect
Tall stature, lankiness, arachnodactyly, loose-jointedness, ascending aoritc aneurysm, mitral valve prolapse

Front 21

Tall stature, lankiness, arachnodactyly, loose-jointedness, ascending aortic aneurysm, and mitral valve prolapse are associated with what syndrome?

Back 21

Marfan Syndrome
Autosomal dominant fibrillin gene defect

Front 22

Those with Dystrophic EB are at high risk of developing which form of cancer? Where?

Back 22

Squamous Cell Carcinoma in scars by age 20

Front 23

What is the cause of Ehler-Danlos Disease? What are the associated clinical symptoms?

Back 23

Ehler-Danlos Disease
Several genetically distinct connective tissue disorders
Excessive stretchability and fragility of the skin, hyperextensibility of the joints, paper-thin scarring, "fish-mouth" wounds, molluscum pseudotumors

Front 24

Excessive stretchability and fragility of the skin, hyperextendibility of the joints, paper-thin scarring, "fish-mouth" wounds, and molluscum pseudotumors are associated with what syndrome?

Back 24

Ehler-Danlos Disease
Several genetically distinct connective tissue disorders

Front 25

What is the cause of Fabry's Disease? What are the associated clinical symptoms?

Back 25

Fabry's Disease
X-linked recessive a-galactosidase A gene defect leading to an accumulation of neutral glycosphingolipids
Angiokeratomas, painful crises, acroparethesias, angina, myocardial infarction, proteinuria (maltese crosses)

Front 26

Angiokeratomas, painful crises, acroparathesias, angina, myocardial infarction, and proteinuria are associated with what syndrome?

Back 26

Fabry's Disease
X-linked recessive a-galactosidase A gene defect to an accumulation of neutral glycosphingolipids

Front 27

What are maltese crosses? What are they associated with?

Back 27

Birefringent characteristic lipid globules seen with polarized light in urine samples
Fabry's Disease

Front 28

Diffuse hyperpigmentation is associated with what endocrine syndrome? What is the mechanism of action?

Back 28

Addison's Disease
Adrenal cortex insufficiency causes the pituitary to release excessive ACTH which is cleaved into MSH

Front 29

Addison's Disease is associated with what cutaneous feature? What is the mechanism of action?

Back 29

Hyperpigmentation
Adrenal cortex insufficiency causes the pituitary to release excessive ACTH which is cleaved into MSH

Front 30

Yellow-orange nodules, often on the elbows, are associated with what disorder? What are they?

Back 30

Hyperlipidemia
Xanthomas

Front 31

Hyperlipidemia is associated with what cutaneous feature?

Back 31

Xanthomas

Front 32

What are seborrheic keratoses? Are they malignant?

Back 32

Darkly pigmented macules-->papules-->nodules which are benign

Front 33

What are actinic keratoses? Are they malignant?

Back 33

Erythematous, sandpapery, scaly macules which are pre-cancerous

Front 34

From which embryological layer are melanocytes derived?

Back 34

Neural crest

Front 35

From which embryological layer are Merckel cells derived?

Back 35

Neural crest

Front 36

From which embryological layer are Langerhans cells derived?

Back 36

Mesoderm

Front 37

Which UV radiation penetrates to the dermis?

Back 37

UVA

Front 38

Which UV radiation does not penetrate past the epidermis?

Back 38

UVB

Front 39

What mineral is required for the function of tyrosinase?

Back 39

Copper

Front 40

What are melanosomes?

Back 40

Tyrosinase-containing organelles which produce melanin

Front 41

What is TODA stage I?

Back 41

Clear, spherical membrane containing tyrosinase

Front 42

What is TODA stage II?

Back 42

Oval membrane with filament periodicity

Front 43

What is TODA stage III?

Back 43

Oval membrane with filament periodicity with some melanin

Front 44

What is TODA stage IV?

Back 44

Electron opaque organelle containing melanin

Front 45

What is the difference between melanosomes in whites and blacks?

Back 45

Melanosomes in whites are smaller, fragmented, and naked while melanosomes in blacks are larger, unified, and enveloped

Front 46

Each melanocyte is arborized to how many keratinocytes?

Back 46

35

Front 47

What is the immediate skin response to UV light?

Back 47

Immediate Pigment Darkening
-Occurs in seconds
-Dislocation of melanosomes to dendrites
-No increase in melanocyte #

Front 48

What is the delayed skin response to UV light? When does it occur?

Back 48

Delayed Pigment Formation (tanning)
-Occurs in 2-3 days
-Increased melanosomes in melanocytes
-Increased melanosomes in keratinocytes
-Increase in melanocyte numbers

Front 49

How does MSH lead to increased pigment?

Back 49

MSH activates adenyl cyclase which causes an increase in cAMP which activates tyrosinase and melanosome synthesis

Front 50

What is the role of MMP-9 in wound healing?

Back 50

Activated by inflammation, delays wound healing

Front 51

What is the role of TNFa in wound healing?

Back 51

Decreases activity in order to organize collagen

Front 52

What is the activity of TGFb in wound healing?

Back 52

Stimulates fibroblasts

Front 53

Which organism is responsible for infections from cat bites?

Back 53

Pasteurella multocida

Front 54

Which organism is responsible for infections from dog bites?

Back 54

Pasteurella canis

Front 55

Which organism is responsible for infections from human bites?

Back 55

Eikenella corrodens

Front 56

What is the treatment for bite wounds if occuring 8 hours after the injury?

Back 56

Fillet open wound, give antibiotics

Front 57

Edema extending beyond erythema, vesicles or bulla, subcutaneous gas, and an absence of lymphangitis or lymphadenitis could be what infection?

Back 57

Necrotizing Soft-Tissue Infection

Front 58

Is lymphangitis or lymphadenitis present in cellulitis or necrotizing soft-tissue infections?

Back 58

Yes in cellulitis
No in necrotizing soft-tissue infections

Front 59

What is Type 1 Necrotizing Soft-Tissue Infection?

Back 59

polymicrobial infection (including S. aureus)

Front 60

What is Type 2 Necrotizing Soft-Tissue Infection?

Back 60

monomicrobial Group A Strep infection

Front 61

What is Fournier's Necrotizing Soft-Tissue Infection?

Back 61

Scrotal infection

Front 62

What is Necrotizing Cellulitis? What is the causative agent?

Back 62

Infection with Vibrio vulnifus from raw oysters, mixture of aerobic and anaerobic/enterics from IV drug use

Front 63

What causes erysipelas? What are the features?

Back 63

Group A Strep
Bright red, edematous, indurated lesion (peau d'orange) with sharp raised border

Front 64

What causes folliculitis? What are the features?

Back 64

S. aureus or P. aeruginosa from hot tubs
Small erythemtous papules with a central pustule

Front 65

What causes cellulitis? What are the features?

Back 65

Group A Strep (sometimes S. aureus)
Subcutaneous tissue involvement with lymphadenitis and lymphangitis

Front 66

What causes Impetigo? What are the features?

Back 66

Group A Strep
Vesicopustular lesions with golden crusts

Front 67

What causes bullous impetigo? What are the features?

Back 67

S. aureus
Vescles become bullae which become light brown crusts

Front 68

Which skin infections are caused by Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Strep)?

Back 68

Impetigo
Erysipelas
Cellulitis (more often)
Type II Necrotizing Soft-Tissue Infection

Front 69

Which skin infections are caused by Staphylococcus aureus?

Back 69

Bullous impetigo
Folliculitis
Abscesses
Type I Necrotozing Soft-Tissue Infection

Front 70

Which layer of the skin do superficial mycoses infect?

Back 70

Stratum corneum

Front 71

What is tinea versicolor? What is the causative agent?

Back 71

White macules caused by M. furfur

Front 72

What is tinea negra? What is the causative agent?

Back 72

Black macules caused by Hortaea werneckii

Front 73

What does M. furfur cause?

Back 73

Tinea versicolor

Front 74

What does Hortaea werneckii cause?

Back 74

Tinea negra

Front 75

What is White Piedra? What is the causative agent?

Back 75

White hair nodules caused by Trichosporon beigelii

Front 76

What is Black Piedra? What is the causative agent?

Back 76

Black hair nodules caused by Piedraia hortae

Front 77

What is the most common cause of Tinea?

Back 77

Trichophyton rubrum

Front 78

What is tinea pedis?

Back 78

Dermtophytosis of the foot

Front 79

What is tinea cruris?

Back 79

Dermatophytosis of the groin caused by trichophyton rubrum

Front 80

What is tinea corporis?

Back 80

Dermatophytosis of the body caused by Triychophyton rubrum

Front 81

What is tinea manuum?

Back 81

Dermatophytosis of the hands by Trichophyton rubrum

Front 82

What is tinea capitis?

Back 82

Dermatophytosis of the scalp by trichophyton rubrum

Front 83

What is onchyomycosis?

Back 83

Dermatophytosis of the nails

Front 84

What is intertrigo? What is the causative agent?

Back 84

Intertrigo often affects skin folds and begins as vesciopustues that rupture into maceration and fissuring, evolving into an erythematous base with scalloped border and white rim of necrotic epidermis. This is a cutaneous Candida infection.

Front 85

What does Trichophyton rubrum cause?

Back 85

Tinea

Front 86

What does Candida cause?

Back 86

Intertrigo

Front 87

Which amino acid is melanin derived from?

Back 87

Tyrosine, an <i>aromatic</i> amino acid

Front 88

What causes Cowden's Disease? What are the clinical symptoms?

Back 88

PTEN gene defect
Cobblestone appearance, benign polyps

Front 89

A cobbestone appearance and benign polyps are associated with what syndrome?

Back 89

Cowden's Disease
PTEN gene defect

Front 90

Ehlers-Danlos Disease patients are at risk for what type of cancer?

Back 90

Squamous cell carcinoma

Front 91

Which UV light causes photo-aging?

Back 91

UVA

Front 92

What blocks UVA?

Back 92

ecamsule
avobenzene
zinc oxide

Front 93

What blocks UVB?

Back 93

ecamsule
oxygenzone
zinc oxide

Front 94

What is SPF?

Back 94

Time to burn with product/Time to burn without product

Front 95

What are erythematous, sandpapery, scaly macules often on sun damaged skin? Are they malignant or benign?

Back 95

Actinic keratoses
Pre-malignant

Front 96

What is the most common skin cancer?

Back 96

Basal cell carcinoma

Front 97

What are the clinical features of basal cell carcinomas?

Back 97

Pearly papule/nodules with telangiectasias and a central indentation or crater, sometimes evolving into a "rodent" ulcer nodule

Front 98

Where are basal cell carcinomas often found?

Back 98

Upper lip and higher

Front 99

What are pearly papules/nodules with telangiectasias and a central indentation or crater, sometimes evolving into a "rodent" ulcer nodule?

Back 99

Basal cell carcinomas

Front 100

Which skin cancers have a high propensity for metastasis? Which have a low propensity for metastasis?

Back 100

Melanomas = high
Squamous Cell Carcinoma = low-med
Basal Cell Carcinoma = low

Front 101

What are the clinical features of sqamous cell carcinomas?

Back 101

Ill-defined erythematous papule with rough, scaly surface

Front 102

Where are squamous cell carcinomas often found?

Back 102

Lower lip and lower

Front 103

Transplant patients are prone to what form of skin cancer?

Back 103

Squamous cell carcinoma

Front 104

What is an ill-defined erythematous papule with a rough, scaly surface?

Back 104

Squamous cell carcinoma

Front 105

What is the most common type of melanoma?

Back 105

Superficial Spreading Melanoma

Front 106

What is a junctional nevus?

Back 106

Proliferation of slightly altered melanocytes within the epidermis

Front 107

What is a compound nevus?

Back 107

Migration of slightly altered, proliferating melanocytes to the dermis

Front 108

What is an intradermal nevus?

Back 108

Loss of nevus cells in the epidermis, all are in the dermis

Front 109

Describe a superficial spreading melanoma? On what skin does it occur?

Back 109

Mixture of brown/tan, pink/white, irreguar borders, and biphasic growth occurring on intermittently sun damaged skin in the 4th to 5th decade

Front 110

What is a lentigo maligna melanoma?

Back 110

Dark, irregular ink spot arising on chronically sun damaged skin such as the head and neck with a very long radial growth phase

Front 111

What is a nodular melanoma? What sort of skin does it occur on?

Back 111

Aggressive dark nodule with monophasic growth, lacking a radial phase, on sun-exposed and non-exposed areas

Front 112

What is an acral lentiginous melanoma?

Back 112

Dark macule on non-sun-exposed skin common in non-white skin toned individuals

Front 113

What are ephelides?

Back 113

Freckles

Front 114

What is a solar lentigo?

Back 114

Liver spots, tan macues that develop due to sun exposure that are benign

Front 115

What is the best predictor of prognosis with melanomas? From where is it measured?

Back 115

Vertical tumor thickness measured from the stratum granulosum

Front 116

Nail clubbing is a sign of what clinical syndrome?

Back 116

Hypoxia

Front 117

What is koilonychia? What is it a sign of?

Back 117

Spoon nails
Sign of Fe deficiency

Front 118

What is the worrisome diameter for melanomas?

Back 118

<u>></u>6mm

Front 119

What are Terry's Nails? What are they a sign of?

Back 119

Proximal 2/3 white nails
Sign of cirrhosis

Front 120

What are Lindsay's Nails? What are they a sign of?

Back 120

Distal white half-and-half nails
Sign of renal failure

Front 121

What are Muehrcke's lines? What is it a sign of?

Back 121

Paired, transverse, narrow white bands parallel to the lunula
Hypoalbuminemia

Front 122

What are blue nails a sign of?

Back 122

Wilson's disease

Front 123

What are proximal splinter hemorrhages a sign of?

Back 123

Endocarditis

Front 124

How many hairs are there on the human head?

Back 124

100,000

Front 125

What is the growth rate of nails?

Back 125

.1mm/day
1mm/10days
3mm/month

Front 126

What does overactivation of Wnt cause? Inhibition?

Back 126

Overactivation: tumor formation
Inhibition: hairloss and small hair follicles

Front 127

What occurs when BMP is on? When BMP is off?

Back 127

On: Telogen, hair regeneration, tumor formation
Off: Anagen

Front 128

What are the phases of hair growth?

Back 128

Anagen: growth (2-8y, 80-90%)
Catagen: destruction (2-3w, 1-3%)
Telogen: resting (3mo, 10-15%)

Front 129

What is patchy hair loss with exclamation point hairs?

Back 129

Alopecia areata

Front 130

What is typical male-pattern baldness?

Back 130

Androgenic alopecia

Front 131

What is a psychiatric condition of pulling hairs out?

Back 131

Trichotillomania

Front 132

What is diffuse shedding often due to systemic insult or injury?

Back 132

Telogen effluvium

Front 133

What is generalized and complete hair loss affecting 90% of scalp hair? What is it caused by?

Back 133

Anagen effluvium
Caused by chemotherapy

Front 134

What is moth-eaten hair?

Back 134

Syphilitic alopecia

Front 135

What is hair loss due to hair braiding?

Back 135

Traction alopecia

Front 136

What is cicatricial alopecia with tufted hair and follicular based pustules with erythema and scaling in which S. aureus is often cultured?

Back 136

Folliculitis decalvans

Front 137

What is chronic suppurative nodules which undermine to form communicating sinuses often affecting adult black males and causing scarring alopecia?

Back 137

Dissecting cellulitis

Front 138

What is follicular papules/pustules which progress to firm nodules/plaques often on the occipital scalp of black males?

Back 138

Acne Keloidalis Nuchae

Front 139

What is PASTE (plugging, atrophy, scale/sclerosus, telangiectasia, and erythema) on the scalp?

Back 139

Discoid Lupus Erythematous

Front 140

What is polygonal patches of alopecia with pinpoint hyperkeratotic follicular papules commonly affecting women of 30-70 years of age?

Back 140

Lichen Planopilaris

Front 141

What is a large, boggy, erythematous plaque with papules, pustules, and crust found in the scalp? What is the causative agent?

Back 141

Kerion
Trichophyton mentagrophtes

Front 142

What hair disease is present when the hairs have intersections of splintery hair?

Back 142

Trichorrhexis nodosa

Front 143

What hair disease is present when the hairs have intersections of a hair shaft into another?

Back 143

Trichorrhexis invaginata

Front 144

What is twisted hair?

Back 144

Pili torti

Front 145

What is beaded hair? How does it appear on the scalp?

Back 145

Monilethrix
Hair remains short

Front 146

What is uncombable hair syndrome?

Back 146

Pili trianguli et canaliculi

Front 147

Geometric pitting in nails is a sign of what hair syndrome?

Back 147

Alopecia areata

Front 148

Longitudinal, subungual, red and/or white streaks are associated with what disease?

Back 148

Darier's disease

Front 149

Dorsal pterygium, anonychia, and thinning, fragility, and ridging of the nails are associated with what disease?

Back 149

Lichen planus

Front 150

What are the components of sebum?

Back 150

triglycerides, squalene, cholesterol and esters

Front 151

What sort of secretions do sebaceous cells perform?

Back 151

Holocrine

Front 152

What are the three mechanisms of pathogenesis of acne vulgaris?

Back 152

Sebum overproduction - estrogen treatment
Abnormal differentiation of follicular epithelium (accutane/isotretinoin/vitamin A derivative)
Bacterial infection by P. acnes - abx (tetracycline)

Front 153

How do retinoids exert their effect on target cells?

Back 153

Retinoids are lipid soluble and therefore cause nuclear signaling

Front 154

What are crusty, greasy lesions in oily areas of the skin that cause dandruff?

Back 154

Seborrheic dermatitis

Front 155

What is a non-pruritic, scaly, well-demarcated rash on extensural surfaces? Increased risk of what morbidities is this condition associated with?

Back 155

Psoriasis
Arthritis and increased risk of heart disease

Front 156

Oil-spots are the single greatest predictor of what skin disease?

Back 156

Psoriasis

Front 157

What are the three pathogenetic mechanisms (genetic, cellular, and immunological) of psoriasis?

Back 157

Genetic disposition (HLA-B)
Hyperproliferation of keratinocytes
Sustained Th1 immune response

Front 158

What sort of T cell response is induced in psoriasis?

Back 158

Th1

Front 159

What are linear lesions caused by psoriasis and trauma?

Back 159

Koebnerization

Front 160

What is purple, polygonal, papular, plaque, pruritic, and related to psorisis?

Back 160

Lichen planus

Front 161

When eczema is chronically scratched, it becomes what?

Back 161

Lichen simplex chronicus

Front 162

What is lichen simplex chronicus?

Back 162

Chronically scratched eczema

Front 163

T cells express which adhesion molecules to bind to which adhesion molecules on APCs?

Back 163

LFA-1 and CD2 to bind to ICAM-1 and LFA-3, respectively

Front 164

What surface marker targets T cells to the skin?

Back 164

CD45RO

Front 165

What is the prevalence of psoriasis?

Back 165

2%

Front 166

How many new cases of psoriasis are there per year?

Back 166

150,000

Front 167

Family history is positive in what percentage of psoriasis cases?

Back 167

30-50%

Front 168

Which form of psoriasis is related to strep throat?

Back 168

Guttate psoriasis

Front 169

Keratinocyte cell cycles in psoriasis exhibit what differences from normal keratinocytes?

Back 169

Greatly reduced cell cycle
Doubled proliferative cell population

Front 170

How many more keratinocytes are produced per day in psoriasis than in normal individuals?

Back 170

30

Front 171

What is the mechanism of action of Efalizumab?

Back 171

MAB against LFA-1 on T-cells which inhibits binding of T-cells to APC ICAM-1

Front 172

What is the mechanism of action of Alefacept?

Back 172

Fusion protein (LFA-3:IgG Fc)bocks CD2 on T cells, activating NK cells to kill this population

Front 173

What is the mechanism of action of Infliximab?

Back 173

MAB to TNF-a neutralizes free and bound TNF-a

Front 174

What is the mechanism of action of Adalimumab?

Back 174

MAB to TNF-a neutralizes free and bound TNF-a

Front 175

What is the mechanism of action of Etanercept?

Back 175

MAB to TNF-a neutralizes only free TNF-a

Front 176

From which embryonic layer are keratinocytes derived?

Back 176

Ectoderm

Front 177

From which embryonic layer are Langerhans cells derived from?

Back 177

Mesoderm

Front 178

From which embryonic layer are Merckel cells and Melanocytes derived from?

Back 178

Neural Crest

Front 179

In which layer is keratohyalin present?

Back 179

Stratum granulosum

Front 180

In which layer is eleidin present?

Back 180

Stratum lucidum

Front 181

In which layer are membrane-coating granules known as lamellar bodies found?

Back 181

Stratum spinosum

Front 182

In which layer is filaggrin found?

Back 182

Stratum granulosum

Front 183

In which layer is the glycolipid coating that serves as the water barrier for the epidermis formed?

Back 183

Stratum granulosum

Front 184

What is the cell surface marker associated with Langerhans cells?

Back 184

CD1a

Front 185

What is the cause of Bullous Pemphigoid? In which BMZ layer does it occur?

Back 185

IgG against BPAG-1/BP-230 or BPAG-2/BP-180/Collagen XVII in the plasma membrane layer

Front 186

What is the cause of EB Simplex? In which BMZ layer does it occur?

Back 186

Gene defects in Keratin 5 or 14 or Plectin in the plasma membrane layer

Front 187

What is the cause of Junctional EB? In which BMZ layer does it occur?

Back 187

Gene defects in Integrin or Laminin 5 in the lamina lucida

Front 188

Where is nidogen found?

Back 188

Lamina lucida

Front 189

What is the cause of Cicatricial Pemphigoid? In which BMZ layer does it occur?

Back 189

IgG against Laminin 5 IgG in the lamina lucida

Front 190

Where is heparan sulfate found?

Back 190

Lamina densa

Front 191

What is the cause of Dystrophic EB? In which BMZ layer does it occur?

Back 191

Gene defect in laminin VII in the sublamina densa

Front 192

What is the cause of EBA? In which BMZ layer does it occur?

Back 192

IgG against Collagen VII in the sublamina densa

Front 193

In which layer is fibrillin found?

Back 193

Sublamina densa

Front 194

In which layer is linkin found?

Back 194

Sublamina densa

Front 195

What is the cause of Cicatricial Pemphigoid? In which BMZ layer does it occur?

Back 195

IgG against Laminin 5 in the lamina lucida

Front 196

What is the cause of Linear IgA Bullous Dermatosis?

Back 196

IgA against Collagen VII in the sublamina densa

Front 197

What is the cause of Dermatitis Herpetiformis?

Back 197

IgA against transglutaminase in the lamina lucida

Front 198

What is the cause of Pemphigus Vulgaris? Where is it found?

Back 198

IgG against desmoglein-III in the deep epidermis, often found in the mouth

Front 199

What is the cause of Pemphigus Foliaceus? Where is it found?

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IgG against desmoglein-I in the superficial epidermis, not found in the mouth.

Front 200

In which layer are Meissner's corpuscles found? What is their purpose?

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Dermal papillary layer
Fine-touch receptors

Front 201

In what layer are Paccinian Corpuscles found? What is their purpose?

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Dermal reticular layer
Pressure receptors

Front 202

In what layer are Krause end-bulbs found? What is their purpose?

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Dermal reticular layer
Cold and Pressure receptors

Front 203

What results from increased collagen formation without an accompanying increase in fibroblasts?

Back 203

Keloids

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A Th1 response is mediated by what cytokines? Which disease is it associated with?

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TNF-b, IFN-g, IL-2
Psoriasis

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A Th2 response is mediated by what cytokines? Which disease is it associated with?

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IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10 Atopic Dermatitis

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What does IL-5 do?

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Stimulate eosinophil production

Front 207

What form of IgE receptors do eosinophils have? Is it strong or weak-affinity?

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FceRII
Weak

Front 208

What form of IgE receptors do basophils have? Is it srong or weak-affinity?

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FceRI
Strong

Front 209

What form of IgE receptors do mast cells have? Is it strong or weak affinity?

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FceRI
Strong

Front 210

What is the triad of atopy?

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Allergic rhinits (hay fever)
Atopic dermatitis
Atopic asthma

Front 211

Where does positive selection of T cells occur?

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Cortex

Front 212

Where does negative selection of T cells occur?

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Medulla

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Which immunoglobulin is the most potent activator of the classical complement pathway?

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IgM

Front 214

Which immunoglobulin is the most potent activator of the alternative complement pathway?

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IgA

Front 215

Which IgG immunoglobulins can activate the classical complement pathway?

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IgG1, IgG3

Front 216

Which immunoglobulins are often associated with autoimmunity?

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IgG4

Front 217

Which immunoglobulin is responsible for immediate allergic and anaphylactic reactions?

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IgE

Front 218

Which UV light suppresses the immune system?

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UVB

Front 219

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is Atopic Dermatitis/Eczema?

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Type I IgE mediated hypersensitivity

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What type of hypersensitivity reaction is Allergic contact dermatitis?

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Type IV Memory T Cell mediated delayed type hypersensitivity

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What histological spongiosis associated with?

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Eczema/Atopic Dermatitis

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Where does Atopic Dermatitis present during the infantile phase? When is this phase?

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0-2 years
Extensor surfaces

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Where does atopic dermatitis present during the childhood phase? When is this phase?

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2-12 years
Flexor regions

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Where does atopic dermatitis present during the adult phase? When is this phase?

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12+ years
Lichenified eczema in periorbital region and upper body

Front 225

Eosinophilia and IgE overproduction are associated with what skin condition?

Back 225

Atopic dermatitis

Front 226

What gene mutation is associated with atopic dermatitis?

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Filaggrin

Front 227

Which skin condition leads to a decrease in anti-microbial peptides? What organism is often found?

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Atopic dermatitis
Often colonized by S. aureus

Front 228

Which Th cell response is humoral?

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Th2

Front 229

Which Th cell response is cell-mediated?

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Th1