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156 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
List the elements for transmission.
Agent
Reservoir
Portal to exit reservoir
Means of transmission
Direct or indirect contact
Droplet, vehicle, Portal of entry
List the process of infection.
Incubation
Growing; non specific symptoms
Prodromal; Specific symptoms
Full disease state; highly infectious
Convalescent or death
What does TNM stand for in staging of cancer?
T = size primary tumor
N = lymph node involvement
M = metasasis
When grading types of cancer a number 4 would be considered ________ and a number 1 would be considered _______.
number 4 = most malignant
number 1 = least malignant
Describe osteogenesis imperfecta.
a.k.a. Brittle Bone Disease; deficient and imperfect osseous formation, genetic mutations, often blue tint to sclera of eye, bone cortex is thin and porous, trabeculae are thin, delicate and separated
Describe achondroplasia.
Disturbance in endochondral bone formation. Cartilage at epiphyses of long bones does not convert to bone. May result in bone deformity and dwarfism. Most common inherited disorder of the skeletal system.
Describe osteopetrosis.
a.k.a. Marble Bone. Increased bone density with defective contour (skeletal modeling). Bones heavy, compact and brittle. Reduced marrow space, increased thickness of cortex, increased trabeculae.
Failure of osteoclasts to reabsorb bone.
Describe Albers-Schonberg disease.
osteosclerotic osteopetrosis;
increased bone density but normal contour (benign). General health unimpaired
Describe craniotubular dysplasia
Autosomal recessive hereditary disease causing abnormal cranium and long bones(group of diseases)
increase in bone density and abnormal bone modeling.
Generally does not impair health unless bony growth traps nerves.
Describe Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
Incomplete acetabular formation. Femoral head is displaced superiorly and posteriorly. Affects tendons and ligaments as well. Immobilization first step in treatment.
Describe spina bifida.
incomplete closure of vertebral canal
Describe craniosynostoses
premature suture closure (may alter shape of head)
Describe anencepahly
cranial vault absent
Describe tuberculosis
chronic inflammatory disease.
Infective agent is Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Most commonly affects hip, knee and spine. Long bones appear wormy: destroys epiphyses, may affect joints
(Spinal tuberculosis is called Pott’s Disease)
What is ganglion?
cyst in tendon sheath
Describe spondylolisthesis.
slippage of body of vertebra
Describe spondylolysis.
breakdown of superior and inferior articular processes
Describe osteomalacia.
spongy bone due to nutrient deficiency (rickets in children)
Describe hyperparathyroidism.
endocrine system disrupts calcium-phosphate ratio
Describe acromegaly
increase growth hormone disorder (endocrine disorder)
Describe Paget's Disease
(Osteitis Deformans) Unknown etiology. Affects more men. Usually no treatment however may administer medication to decrease bone resorption.
Two stages:
Osteolytic stage –destruction
Oseoblastic stage –replaces bone with soft, demineralized
Define exostosis.
excessive bone growth
Describe Osteochondroma
benign projection with cartilaginous cap. Often involving distal femur (knee). Exostosis(excessive bone growth) occurs in epiphysealplate (metaphysis) and grows laterally. The most common benign bone tumor. Multiple exostoses may evolve into malignant disease (chondrosarcoma)
Describe osteoma
less frequent, benign growth usually cranial. Dense, well circumscribed bone. Slow growing. Location may cause problem (pressing on optic nerve). Hyperostosis frontalisinterna(osteoma of skull)
Describe endochondroma
Slow growing benign cartilaginous tissue. Grows in marrow space by expansion. Most common in hands and feet. May cause thinning of cortical bone. May turn malignant.
Describe simple bone cysts.
Wall of fibrous tissue filled with fluid. Frequent in long bones of children. Well defined margins. Aneurysmal bone cysts consist of numberous blood filled arteriobenous anastomoses (not true neoplasm)
Describe osteoid osteoma
Usually develops in teenagers and young adults. Small round lucent center surrounded by large, dense, sclerotic cortical thickening. Arise in cortical bone, visualized as osteolytic.
Describe osteoclastoma
Giant cell tumors, characterized by numerous, multinucleated osteoclastic giant cells. 50/50 whether benign. Effects epiphysis of long bones, expands outward from medullary canal. Osteolytic.
Describe osteosarcoma (osteogenic sarcoma)
Very common primary malignancy. Arises from osteoblasts at metaphysis. Sunburst appearance and spiculated patterns of new bone growth. Elevates periosteum producing new bone. Highly malignant, often mets to lung. May be connected to radiation exposure.
Describe Ewing's Sarcoma
primary malignant tumor arising in bone marrow of long bones. Peak incidence in mid teens. Appearance is ill-defined area of bone destruction. Originates in medullary canal, tumor invades cortical bone and speard into soft tissue. Extremely malignant.
Describe chondrosarcoma
Destroys bone as it invades soft tissue. Originate in pelvis, shoulder, ribs but spread to long bones.
Define multiple myeloma
widespread malignancy of plasma cells, primary bone tumor which attacks intramedullary canal of diaphysis. classic appearance of radiolucent osteolytic lesions scattered throughout skeleton. Spine is most common site.
That condition which results in increased bone density by preventing medullary canal formation and may subsequently result in anemia is:
osteopetrosis
Which disorders would require a decrease in exposure factors due to demineralization or lack of calcium in bone:
osteoporosis & osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone disease)
Identify the pathology
osteochondroma
Most autoimmune disorders are categorized as :
inflammatory
Identify the term which describes an objective measurable condition of a pathology :
sign
As the body responds to acute infection there may be dilating of blood vessels to bring leukocytes and phagocytes to the area of injury. This increased blood flow results in:
redness, swelling, heat
Surgical excision of the nidus is common treatment for:
osteoid osteoma
Diagnosis of neoplastic pathology is dependent on:
1. location of tumor
2. pattern of bone destruction
3. position within the bone
4. patient's age
Define idiopathic
Cause unknown
True or false. Compact bone houses trabeculae.
False
Pathology related to extreme temperature is classified as:
Trauma
Epidemiological studies based on prevalence of disease are focused on:
Number of cases found in a given population
Rheumatoid Arthritis is classified as an inflammatory disease caused by:
autoimmune response
When patients suffer adverse effects to medical treatment (erythema and radiation therapy), how do we identify that category of reaction?
Iatrogenic
A function of the CDC utilizing physician and health care facility reporting is tracking:
morbidity rates
That inflammatory skeletal condition which may result from bacterial spreading from direct introduction is:
osteomyelitis
That two phase metabolic disease which involves both the destruction of bone and replacement of affected areas with demineralized bone is:
Paget's Disease
That term used to describe malignant neoplasm of connective tissues is:
sarcoma
Identify the pathology
osteomyelitis
Dysfunction within the endocrine system is a major contributing factor in:
metabolic disease
Identify the pathology
Gout
A benign growth most commonly located in the skull or facial area, which generally doesn't pose a problem unless pressing on nerves or vessels is called:
Osteoma
Identify the pathology
osteoma
Cells may respond to environmental conditions by altering or converting into other forms. An example of ________ is when esophageal cells convert to Barrett's cells (normally found in the stomach) due to acid reflux
Metaplasia
_________ of calcium loss is required before defects are visualized on x-rays.
30-50%
Treatment of malignant neoplastic disease which focuses on making the terminal patient comfortable is referred to as:
Palliative
Andylosing Spondylitis is also called:
Marie Strumpell disease
Identify the type of cell responsible for laying new bone around the periosteum.
Osteoblast
That membranous tissue which lines the medullary canal is:
endosteum
That condition which results in incomplete closure of the spinal canal is:
spina bifida
A degenerative form of arthritis, most commonly affecting large weight bearing bones is:
osteoarthritis
Premature closing of the sutures of the skull resulting in disfiguration is:
craniosynostoses
Discrete interruptions in the margin of _______bone helps to identify small fractures.
compact
Identify the pathology
Hip dysplasia
Sutures of the skull would be classified as _____ joints:
synarthrodial
Rickets which affects children, is a type of:
osteomalacia
Spinal TB is also called:
Pott's disease
Identify the anatomy
Pott's disease (spinal TB)
The most common inherited disorder affecting the skeletal system is ________. This disorder results shortened extremities and dwarfism.
Achondroplasia
That condition which results in increased bone density by preventing medullary canal formation and may subsequently result in anemia is:
Osteopetrosis
Most autoimmune disorders are classified as:
Inflammatory
Identify the term which describes an objective measurable condition of a pathology :
sign
As the body responds to acute infection there may be dilating of blood vessels to bring leukocytes and phagocytes to the area of injury. This increased blood flow results in:
Redness, swelling, heat
Surgical excision of the nidus is common treatment for:
Osteoid osteoma
Diagnosis of neoplastic pathology is dependent on:
location of tumor, pattern of bone destruction, postition within the bone, and patient's age
Cancellous bone found between the crainal plates of the skull is called:
diploe
True or false. Describing a disease process as idiopathic means no causative factor has been identified for this condition.
True
True or false. Compact bone houses trabeculae.
False
Pathology related to extreme temperature is classified as:
Trauma
Epidemiological studies based on prevalence of disease are focused on:
Number of cases in a given population
Rheumatoid Arthritis is classified as an inflammatory disease caused by:
autoimmune response
When patients suffer adverse effects to medical treatment (erythema and radiation therapy), how do we identify that category of reaction?
iatrogenic
A function of the CDC utilizing physician and health care facility reporting is tracking:
morbitity rates
That inflammatory skeletal condition which may result from bacterial spreading from direct introduction is:
osteomyelitis
That two phase metabolic disease which involves both the destruction of bone and replacement of affected areas with demineralized bone is:
Paget's disease
That term used to describe malignant neoplasm of connective tissues is:
Sarcoma
True or false. Chondrosarcoma is a benign neoplastic disease.
False
Dysfunction within the endocrine system is a major contributing factor in:
Metabolic disease
A benign growth most commonly located in the skull or facial area, which generally doesn't pose a problem unless pressing on nerves or vessells is called:
Osteoma
Cells may respond to environmental conditions by altering or converting into other forms. An example of ________ is when esophageal cells convert to Barrett's cells (normally found in the stomach) due to acid reflux
Metaplasia
Pathology is often not visible on diagnostic x-rays for a while after onset. As a matter of fact, _________ of calcium loss is required before defects are visualized on x-rays.
30-50%
Those anomalies which are present at birth as a result of environmental or other factors are called:
congenital
Treatment of malignant neoplastic disease which focuses on making the terminal patient comfortable is referred to as:
Palliative
Andylosing Spondylitis is also called:
Marie Strumpell disease
Identify the type of cell responsible for laying new bone around the periosteum.
Osteoblast
Treatment for cancer is considered curative when:
patient is disease free for five years
When seeking multiple sites of increased blood supply due to injury or spread of disease, the most logical choice in imaging modalities is:
Nuc med
That membranous tissue which lines the medullary canal is:
endosteum
That condition which results in incomplete closure of the spinal canal is:
spina bifida
The avian flu of 1918 which killed more than 25 million throughout the world is considered:
pandemic
When the pitutary distributes excessive amounts of human growth hormone, ________ may result. Radiographic findings usually include an enlarged sella turcia.
Acromegaly
A degenerative form of arthritis, most commonly affecting large weight bearing bones is:
osteoarthritis
Premature closing of the sutures of the skull resulting in disfiguration is:
Craniosynostoses
Discrete interruptions in the margin of _______bone helps to identify small fractures.
compact
True or false. Extreme temperatures will trigger an inflammatory response.
False
Sutures of the skull would be classified as _____ joints:
synarthrodial
That type of joint often imaged by injecting contrast into membranous sacs in radiology is:
synovial
Rickets which affects children, is a type of:
osteomalacia
That congenital/hereditary condition (sometimes referred to as brittle bone disease) which results in deficient calcium and blue tint to the sclera is:
osteogenesis imperfecta
Spinal TB is also known as:
Pott's Disease
That metabolic condition which results in the formation of crystalline uric acid in joint spaces is:
Gout
Skeletal system contains __% of body’s calcium and __% of phosphor
98 & 75
Describe cancellous bone.
Spongy and houses the trabeculae
Describe compact bone
Dense outer layer, matrix houses haversian system
What do osteoblasts do?
form new bone around outer layer located in periosteum
What do osteoclasts do?
Enlarge medullary cavity by removing bone (important in serum calcium and phosphorus equilibrium)
What part of bone contains the blood vessels?
Periosteum
What is the periosteum of bone?
fibrous membrane that covers the outside of the bone and contains the blood vessels
What is the diaphysis?
shaft
What is the epiphysis?
end of bone
What is the metaphysis?
where the diaphysis and epiphysis meet
What is the endosteum of bone?
lines the inner canal
What is the medullary canal?
Marrow - canal within the diaphysis
What type of joint is fibrous?
synarthrodial
What type of joint is cartilaginous?
amphiarthrodial
What types of joints are synovial?
diarthrodial
What is DDH?
Developmental dysplasia of the hip - incomplete acetabular formation in which the femoral head is displaced superiorly and posteriorly
What is Albers-Schonberg disease?
osteosclerotic osteopetrosis;
increased bone density but normal contour (benign)
General health unimpaired
What is osteopetrosis?
Marble Bone
increased bone density with defective contour (skeletal modeling)
Bones heavy, compact and brittle
Reduced marrow space, increased thickness of cortex
Increased trabeculae
Failure of osteoclasts to reabsorb bone11
What is Craniosynostoses?
premature suture closure
What is anencephaly?
absence of cranial vault
What is osteomyelitis?
infection of bone and bone marrow, not able to visualize on xray until 10-14 days post infection. 30% to 50% calcium loss required before visualized on x-ray
What is reactive arthritis?
A form of Reiter's syndrome
Variant of rheumatoid
Appears to occur after certain types of venereal or GI infections
Asymmetric involvement of feet
Primarily affecting young men
Usually nonsterodial antiinflammatory drugs are used in treatment
What is a ganglion?
Cyst in the sheath of the joint
What are contraindications for an arthrogram?
inflammation in the vein
contrast allergy?
What is Spondylolisthesis?
slippage of body of vertebra
What is Spondylolysis?
breakdown of superior and inferior articular processes
what is osteoporosis?
failure of osteoblasts to create new bone
what is Hyperparathyroidism?
endocrine system disrupts calcium-phosphate ratio
what is osteomalacia?
spongy bone due to nutrient deficiency (rickets)
Osteitis deformans is also known as:
Paget's disease
What are the two stages of Paget's disease and what occurs in each one?
Osteolytic stage –destruction
Oseoblastic stage –replaces bone with soft, demineralized bone
What is exostosis?
excessive bone growth
What is osteochondroma?
benign projection with cartilaginous cap
What is an osteoma?
less frequent, benign growth usually cranial
What is endochondroma?
slow growing benign cartilagous tissue, May cause thinning of cortical bone
What is an osteoid osteoma?
usually develops in teenagers and young adults
Giant cell tumor is also known as:
Osteoclastoma
What is an osteoclastoma?
characterized by numerous, multinucleated osteoclasticgiant cells (bubbles)
May be either benign or malignant (50/50)
35% recur after surgical excision
15% aggressively malignant
Effects epiphyses of long bones
Expands outward from medullarycanal
Osteolytic–reduce exposure
Pathologic fractures often don’t heal because osteoclasticnature of disease
Osteosarcoma is also known as:
Osteogenic sarcoma
What is osteosarcoma?
Very common primary malignancy
Arises from osteoblastsat metaphysis
75% occur in patients younger than 20 yrs old
Sunburst appearance and spiculated patterns of new bone growth
Elevates periosteum, producing new bone
Highly malignant, often metsto lung
May be a connection to radiation exposure14
What is Ewing's sarcoma?
primary malignant tumor arising in bone marrow of long bones
What is chondrosarcoma?
cartilaginous origin, destroys bone as invades soft tissue. Treatment is resection or amputation.
What is multiple myeloma
widespread malignancy of plasma cells
Primary bone tumor which attacks intramedullary canal of diaphysis