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323 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the four major categories of the routine physical exam?
-signalment
-history
-hands-off exam
-hands-on exam
What characteristics comprise the signalment?
-age
-breed
-sex
-pregnancy status
-production status/stage of production cycle
-intended or current use
When collecting the history information, it is important to acknowledge who's perception of the problem?
The owner
What are the basal body functions?
-attitude/behavior
-appetite
-fecal/urine output
-activity
Give some examples of management factors.
-diet
-environment
-herd health
What factors are evaluated during the hands-off exam?
-attitude
-apparent body condition
-gait, lamness on the move
-respiratory rate
-muscle atrophy/symmetry
-distribution of lesions
-abnormal posture
Name the five F's of contour
-fat
-fluid
-fetus
-flatus
-food
A bilateral ventral distention (pear shaped) can be indicative of what?
-pregnancy
-uterine hydrops
-acties/peritoneal effusion
A bilateral dorsal distention (apple shape) can be indicative of what?
-ruminal gas
-severe gas distention of other viscera
What contour shape can indicate fore stomach emptying problems such as vagal indigestion?
Dorsal distention on left, ventral distention on right....papple shape (pear + apple)
A symmetrical, circular distention can indicate what condition?
Gas, fluid or feed accumulation in a large viscus or in several feet of intestine
Where should the hands-on exam begin?
At the rear
If a rectal exam is needed, when, during the PE, is it performed?
At the end
What PE information is gathered at the rear of the animal?
-temp
-feces on body (consistency)
-atresia ani
-ventral coccygeal artery for pulse
-vulvar discharge
-CRT
-mm color/character
-scrotum
-caudal aspect of mammary gland and supramammary lnn
-urine collection of females
What do you look for when examining the left hind limb?
-injection site swellings
-stifle, hock, fetlock
-coronary band
-between claws on hoof
-prefemoral (subiliac) lnn
What areas do you concentrate on when examining the left abdomen?
-left quarters of mammary glands
-CMT on milk
-prepuce/penis
-urine collection of males
-subcutaneous abdominal (milk) vein, palpate for distention, injection site abscess
-umbilicus of neonates
-bladder on small ruminants
When examaining the left paralumbar fossa how many ruminal contractions should be auscultated?
2-3/2 minutes
What technique is used to determine a displaced abomasum?
Pinging
What area gets "pinged?"
-entire abdomen from tuber coxae to olecranon, from tranverses process to flank...do in a Z shape
What sound does a fluid/gas interface make?
The sound of a basketball hitting the floor
What is succussion od the abdomen?
Ball up fist and push into abdomen while listening with a sethoscope, can hear fluid splashing within viscus
What test is performed to see if the animal id having any abdominal or thoracic pain?
Withers pinch test
(won't lordose with pain)
What is the skin examined for?
-hair coat condition
-ectoparasites
-alopecia/other lesions
What technique may be necessary to auscultate the lungs?
Re-breathing bag
Which heart valves are evaluated on the left?
-pulmonic
-aortic
-mitral
Distention of the jugular veins can be caused by what condition?
Cardiovascular disease
What is the purpose of checking the position of the eye within the globe?
Assess hydration status
A dry, dirty nose is usually indicative of what?
Disease
On a rectal exam, which kidney can be felt, and where?
The left kidney, felt towards the right side
What is the normal Bovine temp?
Pulse?
Resp?
101.5 - 102.5

pulse: 60-80 for adults

resp: 12-40/min
What is meant by extra-label drug use?
The use of a OTC or prescription drug in a fashion other than that specified on the manufacturer's label.
What is meant by antibiotic prophylaxis?
-to limit or prevent tissue infection subsequent to intraoperative contamination
What is metaphylaxis?
-administration of an antibiotic during the highest period of risk for development of disease
Aside from prophylaxis and metaphylaxis, what other rationale are considered for antibiotic therapy in food animals?
-infection of structures within the surgical field, or tissue of interest is infected

-concurrent infection from another organ system

-special considerations
Why would a more aggressive bactericidal therapy be indicated in a very young or very old animal?
They have relatively poor immune function
Why is an antibiotic sometimes necessary to control a concurrent infection?
There are only so many places the animal can successfully heal and fight infection at the same time
Which conditions make the animal's immune system more susceptible to infection during surgery?
-neutropenia
-hypoproteinemia
-severe physiological stress
-immunosuppressive drug therapy
What questions need to asked when considering the status of a surgical site?
-it it a contaminated wound
-can the wound be cleaned by debridement
-does the surgical site involve healthy tissue
-are you working on a contaminated organ?
What factors do you consider when selecting an appropriate antibiotic?
-required spectrum
-desired activity of antibiotic
-desired therapeutic regimine (dose, freq, duration, route)
-potentially unfavorable properties of the drug
The required spectrum of the selection of an antibiotic is based on what?
-the disease or source of contamination

-what type of organisms are likely to be involved?
Creamy, white pus in a ruminant is almost always which organism?
Archanobacter pyogenes
What is the presentation of Fusobacterium?
-malodorous brown watery exudates (anaerobe)
What is the gold standard for selecting the proper antibiotic?
Culture and sensitivity
What type of organisms require lipophilic antibiotics?
Intracellular organisms
salmonella, mycobacterium, listeria, staph, anaplasma, mycoplasma
Antibiotic prophylaxis is based on what information?
Consider the most likely source of contamination and probablr bacterial population
i.e. rumenectomy to remove a wire--what bacteria are in the rumen?
When can a bacteriostatic drug be used?
When the patient's cellular and humoral defenses are intact
What 3 classes of drugs are bacteriostatic?
-Macrolides
-Tetracycline
-Sulfonamide
When is a bactericidal drug used?
-if the patient's defenses are weakened or immature
-good for CNS infection (penetrate BBB)
-good if the infection is life threatening
Which classes of drugs are bactericidal?
-Beta Lactams
-Aminoglycosides
-Potentiated sulfas
-Fluoroquinolones
-Rifampin
-Isoniazid
-Vancomycin
Which classes of druges are bacteristatic and cidal?
Lincosamides
In order to give an antibiotic through the oral route, what question must first be answered?
Does the animal have adequate GI motility
What will happen to most antibiotic drugs given orally in adult ruminants?
They'll be metabolized by the rumen flora (except for chlortetracyclines, rifampin, sulfadimethoxine, some other sulfas, tylosin
IM injections can lead to what side effect?
Injection site lesions---major destruction of tissues
What are the disadvantages to a SQ injection of an antibiotic?
-slower absorption of the drug
-can't give a large volume in 1 location
An IV injection will give the most fastest peak concentrations, but has a greater risk of what?
Adverse reactions
Which drugs, if given IV, can cause severe reactions, sometimes fatal?
-tilmicosin
-erythromycin
-procaine pen G
-florenfenicol
-long acting tetracycline
How can a topical antibiotic sometime delay wound healing?
By inducing granulation formation
Which drugs are known to be potentially nephrotoxic?
-aminoglycosides
-tetracycline
What conditions increase the risk of nephrotoxicity?
-dehydration, hypovolemia, septic shock (decreased GFR)
-high doses for prolonged times
-young or old animals
-additive effect of other nephrotoxic drugs
What effect will tissue necrosis at an injection site have on a food animal?
Will decrease market price
What other unfavorable property of a drug must you consider in food animal medicine?
Withdrawal times
What is the function of an antibiotic?
Assist the immune system in controlling infection
What must you to do devitalized tissue before administering antibiotics?
Debride necrotic tissue and drain abscesses
What is a better method of reducing or controlling tissue infection other than using antibiotics?
-aseptic technique
-aggressive lavage
-careful closure of dead space
-reduction of surgical trauma
What class of drug are Penicillin and Cephalosporins in?
Beta Lactam
What is the mechanism of action of Pcn?
Inhibits the transpeptidase involved in the corss-linking of the bacterial cell wall....weakened cell wall ruptures resulting in death
Is Pcn bactericidal or static?
bactericidal
What type of bacteria does PCN affect?
Gram positive, rapidly growing bacteria
What effect do aminopenicillans have?
Increase penetrability (lipophilicity) of drug into Gram Negative cell wall
Which bacteria is usually resistant to beta lactams?
Staph aureus
When would you choose to use PCN?
-achieve high concentration in urine
-drug of choice for Clostridial infections in food animals
-rumenotomy, hardware dz
-post-parturient toxic metritis
-footrot
-pinkeye
-routine sz
What side effects can occur from PCN?
-allergic reactions (more common in cattle)
How should procain pcn be administered?
NEVER IV..can be fatal
Why should potassium pcn be administered slowly?
To avoid hyperkalemia
What is the spectrum of activity for 1st generation cephalosporins?
Gram postive aerobes--use for bone and soft tissue, penetrate tissues and body fluids
What is the spectrum of activity for 2nd generation cephalosporins?
Most Gram positive aerobes, minimal Gram negative aerobes
3rd generation cephalosporins target gram positive and most gram negative aerobes and are good for what use?
Good for meningitis...cross the BBB
Can cephalosporins target anaerobes?
yes, at the appropriate doses
What is the benefit of using cephalosporins in food animals?
Minimal meat and milk withdrawal time, less tissue reaction than with pcn
What is a potential side effect, in cattle given cephalosporins?
drug fever
What is the mechanism of action of Sulfonamides?
Competivetly inhibits the enzyme that catalyzes the incorporation of PABA into dihydrofolic acid
What is the importance of folic acid?
Folic acid is required for purine and DNA synthesis, without it bacterial growth is inhibited
What is the mechanism of a potentiated sulfa?
Sequential blockade of the folic acid pathway....makes the drug bactericidal
Are sulfonamides bactericidal or static?
Bacteristatic
What is the spectrum of activity of sulfonamides?
-broad spectrum
-antiprotozoal
Trimethoprim sulfa can be used in which age of food animals?
Young, pre-ruminant
When would you choose to use a sulfonamide?
-when u need concentration in urine
-footrot
-coccidiosis
What are the potential side effects to using sulfonamides?
-most sulfa drugs are illegal on dairy cattle
-renal crystalluria can occur with prolonged administration
What is the mechanism of Macrolides?
Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50s ribosome
Are macrolides bacteristatic or cidal?
Bacteristatic
What is the spectrum of activity of macrolides?
Gram positive aerobes and anaerobes
Mycoplasma species
When would you select a macrolide?
For good penetration into diseased tissue (pneumonic lung--has excellent lipid solubility
Why is Tilmicosin potentially fatal?
In injected into humans and non-ruminants, calcium blockage can lead to cardiovascular collapse
What potential side effect can Erythromycin (a macrolide) cause on horses?
Can uncouple oxydative phosphorlation to cause increased thermogenesis which can lead to hyperthermia
What is the mechanism of action of Tetracyclines?
Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30s ribosome..preventing the attachment of aminoacyl tRNA to the mRNA ribosome complex

They block the addition of amino acids to the growing peptide chains
Are Tetracyclines bacteristatic or bactericidal?
Bacteristatic
What is the spectrum of activity of Tectracyclines?
Broad spectrum
-gram positive and gram negative aerobes and anaerobes
-rickettsiae
-spirochetes
-chlamydiae
-mycoplasma
-protozoa such as anaplasma
For what conditions in food animals would you use Tetracycline?
-footbaths for topical digital dermatitis (Hairy Heel Warts)
-pneumonia
-anaplasmosis
-pinkeye
What side effect can occur if you inject more the 10 ml of Tetracylcine at 1 injection site?
Myonecrosis
What can cause Fanconi Syndrome when using tetracylines?
If using old, degraded products
What can happen if tetracycline is giving to a dehydrated patient?
Nephrotoxicity
What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?
Bind irreversibly to the 30s ribosome and inhibit the rate of protein synthesis and the fidelity of mRNS resulting in abnormal proteins
Are aminolgycosides bacteistatic or cidal?
Bactericidal
What is the spectrum of activity of aminoglycosides?
Gram negative aerobes
What factors greatly affect the efficacy of aminoglycosides?
Local tissue factors...
-low tissue pH limits uptake in bacteria (poor in necrotic tissue)
-uptake into bacterial cell is energy and oxygen dependent-ineffective anaerobe tissues
-inflammatory debris (esp free DNA) avidly binds to aminoglycosides rendering them unavailable for entry into the bacterial cell
-can not cross the BBB
When would you select an aminoglycoside in food animal med?
You wouldn't! Voluntary ban in food animals!
-but can be used for septicemia in neonates
-early bone, joint and blood borne gram neg infections in valuable animals
What are the 2 major drawbacks to using aminoglycosides?
-ototoxicity
-nephrotoxicity- accumulates in renal tubular epithelium and remains there for a long time
(check urine for blood and casts)
Which class of drugs inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase?
Fluoroquinolones
Are Fluoroquinolones bactericidal or static?
bactericidal
What is the spectrum of activity of Fluoroquinolones?
Gram negative and Gram positive aerobes
-Mycoplasma
When would you use Fluoroquinolones?
Used for established infections with bacteria that are resistant to conventional antibiotics
What is the potential side effect of Fluoroquinolones?
Potential erosion of the articular cartilage in young, growing animals
What should you keep in mind regarding Fluoroquinolones and food animals?
Illegal to use Fluoroquinolones in extra-label use
What class of antibiotic should not be used with macrolides since they both bind to the same site (50s)?
Lincosamides
Lincosamides are bacteristatic with what spectrum of activity?
Gram positive aerobes and anaerobes
-mycoplasma
-toxoplasma
When do you use lincosamides?
Swine dysentary
What is the potential side effect of Lincosamides?
Can cause severe enterocolitis in horses and cattle
What is the mechanism of action of Rifamycins?
Inhibit DNA dependent RNA polymerase, prevents RNA synthesis
Rifamycins are bactericidal and have what spectrum of activity?
Gram positive aerobes
-mycoplasma
What are the uses of Rifampin in food animals?
-highly lipid soluble and concentrates intracellularly
-excellent distribution into bone and soft tissue
-used for chronic granulomatous diseases such as corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis internal abscesses in valuable small ruminants
What are the potential side effects of Rifampin?
Hepatotoxicity may occur if animal has preexisting liver disease

Expensive
Florfenical is found in the same family of which other drug?
Chloramfenicol
What is the mechanism of action of Florfenicol?
Binds to 50s ribsome subunit
Is florfenicol bacteristatis or cidal?
bacteristatic
What is the spectrum of activity of florfenicol?
gram positive and gram negative aerobes and anaerobes
-mycoplasma
-chlamydia
When would you choose florfenicol?
-penetrates cells
-penetrates BBB
-good for pneumonia
What is the side effect of florfenicol?
diarrhea
Why not use chloramphenicol in food animals?
It's banned...has been associated with aplastic anemia in humans (florfenicol is ok)
What class of anitbiotics are developed by the Pleurotus mutilis mushroom?
Pleuromitilins
What is the mechanism of action of Pleuromitilins?
Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to prokaryotic 23 s rRNA ribosome
Are Pleuromitilins bactericidal or static?
bacteristatic
What is the spectrum of actvitivy of Pleuromitilins?
Gram positive aerobes and anaerobes
-mycoplasma species
When do you used Pleuromitilins?
-used exclusively in swine
-treat swine respiratory disease
-can be mixed with feed as an oral antibiotic
What is the mechanism of action of aspirin?
Irreversibly blocks cyclooxygenase
Why can aspirin be used to treat DIC and sepsis?
Because of its activity in inhibiting platelet aggregation
How does aspirin help in endotoxic shock?
As an adjunct therapy by decreasing the formation of prostaglandin mediators and inhibiting platelet aggregation
What are the potential side effects of aspirin?
-GI ulceration
-pulmonary edema formation in sheep
-toxicity at higher doses
How would you treat a case of aspirin toxicity?
Administer sodium bicarb to rasie urine pH to increase urinary excretion of aspirin
Flunixin meglumine has the same mechanism of action as aspirin. What are its therapeutic uses?
-alleviate pain
-reduce fever
-reduce inflammation
-bind endotoxin
What are the adverse effects of flunixin?
-GI ulceration
-CNS depression at higher doses
When would you choose to use Phenylbutazone?
-alleviate musculoskeletal pain
-long duration of action allows for extended dosing intervals
What are the adeverse effects of Phenylbutazone?
-GI ulceration
-protein losing enteropathy

extra label use id ILLEGAL!
What are the 4 main goals of fluid therapy?
-restore and maintain hydration
-restore and maintain osmolality
-correct electrolyte abnormalities
-correct acid-base abnormalities
What percentage of an animal's body weight is water?

Neonates?
60%

neonate = 80%
Which water compartment is the largest?
ICF (40%)
What 2 compartments comprise the ECF? (20% of body weight)
-blood volume (intravascular) (40% of ecf)
-extravascular (60% of ECF)
ICF is high in which electrolytes?
K, Ph, H+
ECF is high in which electrolytes?
Na, Cl, Ca, Mg
What is the normal osmolality of blood?
280-320 mOsm/L
How is blood osmolality maintained?
osmotic and oncotic forces
What is osmotic force?
attraction of a solute for water
Which electrolytes dictate the flow of osmotic force?
Intravascular Na and Cl
What causes the oncotic forces?
Force imposed by plasma protein
What phenomena regulates the movement of fluid through the capillaries?
Starling Forces
Which organ is responsible for maintaining the daily fluid balance, osmolality and concentration of electrolytes in the blood?
kidneys
What is the rate for maintenance fluid for a cow?

For a calf?
50 ml/kg (1-2ml/lb/hour)

70ml/kg
Dehydration must be at what level to be clinically detectable?
Above 5%
What are the clinical signs of an animal with 5-7% dehydration?
-depressed
-dry mm
-prolonged CRT
What are the clinical signs of an animal with 8-10% dehydration?
-depressed
-sunken eyes
-weakened pulse
-skin tenting
What are the clinical signs of an animal with 11-12% dehydration?
-recumbent
-cold extremities
-markedly sunken eyes
-skin stays tented
Why do the eyes look sunken in a dehydrated animal?
Loss of fat can cause eyes to look sunken
What urine SG would you expect with dehydration?
> 1.025
What happens to the heart rate with dehydration?
Lowers
What oral method of fluid administration takes 2 people to perform?
Orogastric tube
when would you consider using a rumen fistula?
-tetanus patients
-pharyngeal/esophageal trauma
-when you need feedings also
Whith a drench application, what should never be given?
Never give mineral oil...risk of aspiration
What are the drawbacks to intra rectal fluid administration?
-very slow rate of absorption
-can't give large volumes
How much NaCl is in hypertonic saline?
7.5%
When is hypertonic saline used?
Indicated in some shock states to pull water into the intravascular space by osmosis
What is the dose for hypertonic saline?
4 ml/kg
An infusion of hypertonic saline must always be followed by what?
isotonic fluids
Why is hypertonic saline NOT a good idea for dehydrated neonates?
Risk of hypernatremia
One gallon of water is equal to how many liters?
3.785 liters
1 gram of Na+ equals how many mEq in a liter?
17 mEq/liter
1 gram of K+ equals hoe many mEq in 1 liter?
14 mEq/liter
1 gram of NaHCOP3 equals how many mEq in 1 liter?
12 mEq/liter
What is the formula for calculating liters of fluid needed for a dehydrated patient?
Body weight (in kg) x % dehydrated = liters of fluid
What accounts for on-going, insensible, fluid losses?
-urine output
-diarrhea
-milk production
What are the conditions needed for oral fluid administration to be successful?
-normal GI motility
-gut perfusion
-intact mucosa
What is a drawback of oral fluid administration?
Slow absorption
What type of fluid is needed for subcutaneous administration?
isotonic
For intraperitoneal fluid administration, what type of fluid is needed?
Sterile isotonic
What are the potential complications of giving intraperitoneal fluids?
-risk of peritonitis
-bowel laceration
what is the benefit of IV fluid administration?
-immediate expansion of ECF fluid
What is a potential complication of IV fluid administration?
Can overhydrate
Which veins should NOT be used in cows?
Milk veins
When is intraosseous fluid administration used?
When you cannot get into a jugular or thromboses of the veins
What are the indications for fluid therapy?
-dehydration, acid-base imbalances, electrolyte disorders
-blood loss
-septic.endotoxic shock
-unable to drink
-disuresis to corect azotemia, toxins
What is the rate for shock dose fluids?
80-90 ml/kg for the first hour then 1-2 ml per hour
What physical exam parameters do you monitor while giving fluids?
-heart rate
-respiratory rate and effort
-body weight
-evidence of edema
-urine production
-cvp
What lab parameters do you monitor during fluid therapy?
-PCV/TA
-BUN, creatinine
-Acid/base status
-glucose
-calcium
-potassium
In ruminants, what 2 conditions cause acidosis?
Diarrhea
Esophageal choke
Metabolic acidosis requires treatment with what?
Bicarbonate
When would oral bicarb be given?
If acidosis is mild and GIT is functional
Why is sodium bicarb not given with calcium?
Will precipitate in IV line
What function must be monitored when giving bicarb?
Respiration
What is a normal measurement for bicarb on a blood gas analysis?
25
If you know the TCO2 on a serum chemistry, how would you calculate bicarb?
TCO2 - 1 = bicarb
What is the formula to calculate the bicarb needs of an acidotic patient?
BW x 0.6 (neonate, 0.3 adult) x base deficit= meq of bicarb needed
I gram of NaHCO3 = how many mEq of Na and HCO3?
12 mEq
what is the mEq of isotonic bicarb?
1.3%
What cardiac effect can hyperkalemia have?
Bradycardia- can have AV block
What effect does calcium have in treating hyperkalemia
Can stabilize resting membrane potential
How do most cows end up being potassium depleted?
No intake, continued loss through urine
What is given to move K into cells?
Bicarb, glucose
What is a cause of hyponatremia?
Chronic water deprivation +/- sodium ingestion
What is a common cause of hyponatremia in calves?
Milk replacer not mixed correctly +/- diarrhea
What happens to the tonicity of the ECF with hypernatremia?
Becomes hypotonic
How does the brain adjust for hypertonic ECF?
Increasing intracellular osmolality- breaks down peptides to free amino acids and phosphate-containing compounds to PO 4

idiogenic osmoles
What risk do you run if you give a hypernatremic calf free water too rapidly?
Cerebral edema----inside of brain would be hypertonic, water would move into cells
What signs would you see at the onset of fluid therapy giiven to rapidly for hypernatremia?
-papillary dilation, depression, convulsions
What steps would you follow in this case?
-stop fluids
-dexamethasone
-diazepam for seizures
-mannitol
-IV fluids tailored to lower Na by 1/2 -1 mEq per hour
-small frequent doses of oral water
What is Sick Cria Syndrome?
Cria with hypernatremia--crias do nt produce idiogenic osmoles as easily as neonate ruminants, can treat like any other small animal
The majority of cows that are dehydrated also have what condition?
Alkalosis
How are dehydrated/alkolotic cows treated?
Give chloride and potassium rich fluids
How is the alkalosis usually corrected?
By the kidneys, if they are well perfused..and the underlying cause eliminated
In mature cows, metabolic alkalosis is characterized by what 2 conditions?
-hypochloremia
-hypokalemia
In a mature core, hypochloremia and hypokalemia can cause what pardoxical condition?
Aciduria-- decreased blood volume leads to decreased aldosterone, increased sodium retention and increased potassium excretion, but distal nephron exchanges hydrogen for potassium
Does diarrhea in a cow lead to acidosis?
Yes but rarely
How does grain overload lead to acidosis in a cow?
Carb engorgement--large amounts of VFA and lactic acid are produced by bacterial fermentation
How does choke cause acidosis in a cow?
Cow saliva is hypertonic- rich in bicarb and phsophorus, produce 100-200 L per day
A defect in the distal tubules of the kidneys can produce an acidosis in a cow..in what way?
Defect in secretion of H+
Where would the renal failure be if there is a defect in the reabsorption of bicarb?
Proximal renal tubular necrosis
Which electrolytes are lost in diarrhea of calves..causing an acidosis?
Na, Cl, K, bicarb
How does the loss of bicarb exasperate the acidosis condition?
Lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism is not buffered-dehydration and poor tissue perfusion
What can cause endotoxic shock in an acidotic calf?
-Gram negative bacteria can liberate LPS
Endotoxic shock can lead to what conditions?
-cardiopulmonary dysfunction
-tissue hypoxemia and VQ mismatch
-hyperlactatemia (met. acidosis)
What are the signs of a calf in endotoxic shock?
-loss of suckle
-loss of menance
-unable to stand
When would you treat an acidotic calf with IV fluids?
-no suckle
-GIT not functioning
-greater than 8% dehydrated
-give shock rate
-bicarb
When would you choose to treat an acidotic calf with oral fluids?
-able to suckle
-esophageal feeder
-glucose can facilitate Na absorption through gut wall
Acute blood loss is rare in cows, but what steps would you take to treat it?
-hypetonic fluids w/ oral fluids
-IV if necessary
-followed by isotonic
Would you treat a hypoproteinemia with crystalloids or colloids?
Colloids
Plasma is used to treat what condition in calves?
Failure of passive transfer
Camelids are frequently hypoproteinemic. What types of fluids do they require?
Colloids along with crsytalloids to prevent edema
What caution must you take when giving hetastarch?
coagulopathies can occur at higer doses
What is a primary clinical sign of a sarcocystis infection in a cow?
Loss of tail switch- rat tail
What other clincal signs might be seen?
-anorexia
-anemia
-severe weight loss
-nervousness
-hypersailvation
-lameness
-hair loss on extremities
What conditin can sarcocystis cause in camelids?
Can embed in the esophagus and cause megaesophagus
How is sarcocystosis treated?
Little is known about the treatment
What is the intermediate host for Stephanofilaria stilesi?
Horn fly (Haemotobia irritans)
Where is the clinical sign of filarial dermatitis usually first noticed?
Single, hairless lesion on ventral midline
What treatment is used to Stephanofilariasis?
None--avermectin can be used
Strongyloides papillosus affects which species and penetrates the body where?
Lamb and kids- penetrates at the coronary band
-causes pustular erythematous dermatitis
What is the genus of biting lice?
Sucking lice?
biting = Mallophaga
sucking= Anoplura
In which season are lice more commonly found on cows?
Winter-summer body temp is too high for lice
What region of the cow is first affected by lice?
Neck and tail
How are sucking lice treated?

How are biting lice treated?
-sucking: ivermection

-biting: powdered insecticides
Cochliomyia hominovorax (screwworms) eggs are deposited where?
Near wounds, fresh blood or moist areas
How are screwworms treated?
Apply insecticides into the wounds
How can the risk of screwworms be decreased?
-avoid surgery (castration, dehorning) during fly season

-use fly spray on wounds to prevent larvae
What is the common name for Melophagus ovinus?
Sheep ked
Where does the sheep ked spend its entire life cycle?
On the sheep
What is the treatment for sheep ked?
same as for lice- powder after shearing
Hypoderma spp. are also known as what?
Warbles- grubs
Which hypoderma species migrate towards the spinal cord?

Towards the esophageal wall?
spinal cord: hypoderma bovis

esophagus: hypoderma lineatum
What is gadding?
A stampeding behavior exhibited by cows when chased by ovipositing female flies
How should the grubs be removed?
manually--dont rupture cyst, can cause a sever systemic reaction
How do you eliminate the migrating larvae?
Systemic insecticides
When should you NOT treat for hypoderma?
From Oct 1st - March 1st (in northern USA and Canada)..this is the time period the larvae are in the epidural space and esophagus
Which is the most common type of mange in cattle in the US?
Chorioptic
When is choriotic mange most prevalent?
During the winter
What is the preferred site for chorioptic mange to infest?
pastern of legs
How is chorioptic mange of cattle treated?
.25% crotoxyfos spray at high pressure
How is chorioptic mange in sheep in the US treated?
its not...has been eradicated
Which species does demodex bovis affect?
-cattle
-sheep
-goats
How is demodex usually transferred?
from dam to nursing animal
What is the clinical appearance of demodex?
-pruitis is absent
-follicular papules and nodules over the withers, neck, back and flanks
What must you do is you diagnose psoroptic mange in any ruminant?
report it
Is psoroptic mange seen more often in beef or dairy cattle?
beef
What is the appearance of psoroptic mange?
Intense prutitis on shoulders and rump which will progress until it covers the entire body
What is the cause of ear mange in goats?
Psoroptes cuniculi--esp in Angora

reportable in texas
What should you counsel owners on regarding sarcoptic mange?
Sarcoptes scabiei
Can be transmitted to humans
How is sarcoptic mange treated?
Avermectins
What are some of the common names given to Dermatophilosis?
-rain scald
-lumpy wool
-strawberry foot rot
-streptothricosis
Dermatophilosis is a superficial bacterial dermatitis characterized by what?
-exudation and crust formation
What is the characteristic microscopic appearance of dermatophilus congolensis?
Railroad tracks
Healing of an infection of dermatophilus requires what response from the body?
humoral and cell mediated
How do you treat Dermatophilosis?
PCN or oxytetracycline
Contagious ecthyma (orf) is caused by what type of vieus in sheep and goats?
Parapox virus
As a vet what is you concern with Orf?
Zoonosis
What are the clinical signs of orf?
proliferative lesions with scabs on the lips, muzzle, eyelids, oral cavity, udder, teats, feet
Are clinical cases of orf seen in older or younger animals?
Younger
How is orf treated?
treatment not necessary, lesions will heal
For neonates that have lesion on their mouth, what must you be aware of?
That they are nursing...can die from hypoglycemia very rapidly
Which virus species is responsible for bovine papillomas?
BPV 1-6
Are warts more common in older or younger animals?
Younger
Persistant mammary warts in Saanen goats may transform into what disease?
Squamous cell carcinoma
How are warts treated?
Crushing, pinch off, surgial removal, cryo
Pseudocow pox is related to what other disease?
Common parapox virus of contagious ecthyma of sheep and goats and bovine papular stomatitis
Lesions of pseudocowpox are usually found where?
on the teats
Dermatophytosis (ringworm) is caused in food animals by which organism?
Trichophyton
Trichophyton occurs mainly in cattle under what conditions?
Housed indoors in winter months
Is a wood's lamp helpful in detection of the ringworm species in cattle?
No

T verrucosum
T mentagrophytes
Does Trichophyton in animals affect the hair shaft more or the epidermal horny layer?
hair shaft--opposite is true in humans
What is the only sign of Dermatophytosis infection?
Alopecia with broken hair shafts
A deficiency of what mineral can cause parakerarosis in llamas and alpacas?
Zinc
On what areas does the parakeratosis occur?
Legs, neck, head, feet, scrotum
How do you treat the parakeratosis od llamas and alpacas?
Oral zinc supplements
What are the common causes of corneal ulceration in cattle?
-IBK (pinkeye)
-foreign body
-traumatic puncture
-IBR
-MCF
What is the causative agent of IBK or pinkeye in cattle?
Morexlla bovis
What is the cause of pinkeye in sheep?
Chlamydophila percorum and/or Mycoplasma
What is the cause of pinkeye in goats?
Mycoplasma
How can otitis media or interna lead of corneal ulceration?
Facial nerve paralysis can lead to exposure keratitis
How is Moraxella bovis spread?
By face flies (musca autumnalis)
Are older or younger animals affected with M bovis?
Younger
What are the primary clinical signs of IBK?
-blepharospasm
-epiphora
-photophobia
How are mild cases of IBk treated?
Systemic antibiotic may be enough
By what other route can antibiotics by administered to combat IBK?
Subconjunctival injection

(do not inject lipophilic compounds..oxytet, florfenicol)
What type of parenteral antibiotic are used to treat IBK?
Long acting lipid soluble
What type of surgery can be performed to protect against corneal ulceration/abrasions?
3rd eyelid flaps
-conjunctival flaps
-temporary tarsorrhaphy
What do you tell your client about fly control in regards to controlling pinkeye?
-manure mgt
-repellant ear tags
-dust/oil clothes
-cut tall grass
-premise spraying
-baits, traps for pedatory insects
A vaccines against Moraxella bovis effective?
Not really, bugs may switch pilus antigens
Pinkeye in sheep (Chlamydophila pecorum) nay occur in combination with what other disease?
Polyarthritis
What is the treatment of choice for the pinkeye and polyarthritis?
Parenteral oxytet
In neonatal lambs, along with pinkeye, its important to rule out what other condition?
Entropion
What other concurrent signs might you see in goats with pinkeye? (from Mycoplasma)
-polyarthritis
-septicemia
-mastitis
-abortions
What is cancer eye?
Ocular squamous cell carcinoma
most common and costly neoplastic dz of large animals
What are the risk factors associated with cancer eye?
-genetics
-uv exposure
-periocular lack of pigment
- > 4 years old
If left untreated what can happen to a OSSC lesion?
Can invade and destroy local tissue, can be massive and painful
What is the treatment for localized OSSC of the globe?
Debulk
Cryotherapy
Hyperthermia
What is the treatment for localized adnexal tumors of the 3rd eyelid?
removal of the entire 3rd eyelid
How do you treat localized adnexal tumors of the conjunctiva?
Debulk, cryo
What is the proper term for removal of the globe?
Exenterate