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323 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What are the four major categories of the routine physical exam?
|
-signalment
-history -hands-off exam -hands-on exam |
|
What characteristics comprise the signalment?
|
-age
-breed -sex -pregnancy status -production status/stage of production cycle -intended or current use |
|
When collecting the history information, it is important to acknowledge who's perception of the problem?
|
The owner
|
|
What are the basal body functions?
|
-attitude/behavior
-appetite -fecal/urine output -activity |
|
Give some examples of management factors.
|
-diet
-environment -herd health |
|
What factors are evaluated during the hands-off exam?
|
-attitude
-apparent body condition -gait, lamness on the move -respiratory rate -muscle atrophy/symmetry -distribution of lesions -abnormal posture |
|
Name the five F's of contour
|
-fat
-fluid -fetus -flatus -food |
|
A bilateral ventral distention (pear shaped) can be indicative of what?
|
-pregnancy
-uterine hydrops -acties/peritoneal effusion |
|
A bilateral dorsal distention (apple shape) can be indicative of what?
|
-ruminal gas
-severe gas distention of other viscera |
|
What contour shape can indicate fore stomach emptying problems such as vagal indigestion?
|
Dorsal distention on left, ventral distention on right....papple shape (pear + apple)
|
|
A symmetrical, circular distention can indicate what condition?
|
Gas, fluid or feed accumulation in a large viscus or in several feet of intestine
|
|
Where should the hands-on exam begin?
|
At the rear
|
|
If a rectal exam is needed, when, during the PE, is it performed?
|
At the end
|
|
What PE information is gathered at the rear of the animal?
|
-temp
-feces on body (consistency) -atresia ani -ventral coccygeal artery for pulse -vulvar discharge -CRT -mm color/character -scrotum -caudal aspect of mammary gland and supramammary lnn -urine collection of females |
|
What do you look for when examining the left hind limb?
|
-injection site swellings
-stifle, hock, fetlock -coronary band -between claws on hoof -prefemoral (subiliac) lnn |
|
What areas do you concentrate on when examining the left abdomen?
|
-left quarters of mammary glands
-CMT on milk -prepuce/penis -urine collection of males -subcutaneous abdominal (milk) vein, palpate for distention, injection site abscess -umbilicus of neonates -bladder on small ruminants |
|
When examaining the left paralumbar fossa how many ruminal contractions should be auscultated?
|
2-3/2 minutes
|
|
What technique is used to determine a displaced abomasum?
|
Pinging
|
|
What area gets "pinged?"
|
-entire abdomen from tuber coxae to olecranon, from tranverses process to flank...do in a Z shape
|
|
What sound does a fluid/gas interface make?
|
The sound of a basketball hitting the floor
|
|
What is succussion od the abdomen?
|
Ball up fist and push into abdomen while listening with a sethoscope, can hear fluid splashing within viscus
|
|
What test is performed to see if the animal id having any abdominal or thoracic pain?
|
Withers pinch test
(won't lordose with pain) |
|
What is the skin examined for?
|
-hair coat condition
-ectoparasites -alopecia/other lesions |
|
What technique may be necessary to auscultate the lungs?
|
Re-breathing bag
|
|
Which heart valves are evaluated on the left?
|
-pulmonic
-aortic -mitral |
|
Distention of the jugular veins can be caused by what condition?
|
Cardiovascular disease
|
|
What is the purpose of checking the position of the eye within the globe?
|
Assess hydration status
|
|
A dry, dirty nose is usually indicative of what?
|
Disease
|
|
On a rectal exam, which kidney can be felt, and where?
|
The left kidney, felt towards the right side
|
|
What is the normal Bovine temp?
Pulse? Resp? |
101.5 - 102.5
pulse: 60-80 for adults resp: 12-40/min |
|
What is meant by extra-label drug use?
|
The use of a OTC or prescription drug in a fashion other than that specified on the manufacturer's label.
|
|
What is meant by antibiotic prophylaxis?
|
-to limit or prevent tissue infection subsequent to intraoperative contamination
|
|
What is metaphylaxis?
|
-administration of an antibiotic during the highest period of risk for development of disease
|
|
Aside from prophylaxis and metaphylaxis, what other rationale are considered for antibiotic therapy in food animals?
|
-infection of structures within the surgical field, or tissue of interest is infected
-concurrent infection from another organ system -special considerations |
|
Why would a more aggressive bactericidal therapy be indicated in a very young or very old animal?
|
They have relatively poor immune function
|
|
Why is an antibiotic sometimes necessary to control a concurrent infection?
|
There are only so many places the animal can successfully heal and fight infection at the same time
|
|
Which conditions make the animal's immune system more susceptible to infection during surgery?
|
-neutropenia
-hypoproteinemia -severe physiological stress -immunosuppressive drug therapy |
|
What questions need to asked when considering the status of a surgical site?
|
-it it a contaminated wound
-can the wound be cleaned by debridement -does the surgical site involve healthy tissue -are you working on a contaminated organ? |
|
What factors do you consider when selecting an appropriate antibiotic?
|
-required spectrum
-desired activity of antibiotic -desired therapeutic regimine (dose, freq, duration, route) -potentially unfavorable properties of the drug |
|
The required spectrum of the selection of an antibiotic is based on what?
|
-the disease or source of contamination
-what type of organisms are likely to be involved? |
|
Creamy, white pus in a ruminant is almost always which organism?
|
Archanobacter pyogenes
|
|
What is the presentation of Fusobacterium?
|
-malodorous brown watery exudates (anaerobe)
|
|
What is the gold standard for selecting the proper antibiotic?
|
Culture and sensitivity
|
|
What type of organisms require lipophilic antibiotics?
|
Intracellular organisms
salmonella, mycobacterium, listeria, staph, anaplasma, mycoplasma |
|
Antibiotic prophylaxis is based on what information?
|
Consider the most likely source of contamination and probablr bacterial population
i.e. rumenectomy to remove a wire--what bacteria are in the rumen? |
|
When can a bacteriostatic drug be used?
|
When the patient's cellular and humoral defenses are intact
|
|
What 3 classes of drugs are bacteriostatic?
|
-Macrolides
-Tetracycline -Sulfonamide |
|
When is a bactericidal drug used?
|
-if the patient's defenses are weakened or immature
-good for CNS infection (penetrate BBB) -good if the infection is life threatening |
|
Which classes of drugs are bactericidal?
|
-Beta Lactams
-Aminoglycosides -Potentiated sulfas -Fluoroquinolones -Rifampin -Isoniazid -Vancomycin |
|
Which classes of druges are bacteristatic and cidal?
|
Lincosamides
|
|
In order to give an antibiotic through the oral route, what question must first be answered?
|
Does the animal have adequate GI motility
|
|
What will happen to most antibiotic drugs given orally in adult ruminants?
|
They'll be metabolized by the rumen flora (except for chlortetracyclines, rifampin, sulfadimethoxine, some other sulfas, tylosin
|
|
IM injections can lead to what side effect?
|
Injection site lesions---major destruction of tissues
|
|
What are the disadvantages to a SQ injection of an antibiotic?
|
-slower absorption of the drug
-can't give a large volume in 1 location |
|
An IV injection will give the most fastest peak concentrations, but has a greater risk of what?
|
Adverse reactions
|
|
Which drugs, if given IV, can cause severe reactions, sometimes fatal?
|
-tilmicosin
-erythromycin -procaine pen G -florenfenicol -long acting tetracycline |
|
How can a topical antibiotic sometime delay wound healing?
|
By inducing granulation formation
|
|
Which drugs are known to be potentially nephrotoxic?
|
-aminoglycosides
-tetracycline |
|
What conditions increase the risk of nephrotoxicity?
|
-dehydration, hypovolemia, septic shock (decreased GFR)
-high doses for prolonged times -young or old animals -additive effect of other nephrotoxic drugs |
|
What effect will tissue necrosis at an injection site have on a food animal?
|
Will decrease market price
|
|
What other unfavorable property of a drug must you consider in food animal medicine?
|
Withdrawal times
|
|
What is the function of an antibiotic?
|
Assist the immune system in controlling infection
|
|
What must you to do devitalized tissue before administering antibiotics?
|
Debride necrotic tissue and drain abscesses
|
|
What is a better method of reducing or controlling tissue infection other than using antibiotics?
|
-aseptic technique
-aggressive lavage -careful closure of dead space -reduction of surgical trauma |
|
What class of drug are Penicillin and Cephalosporins in?
|
Beta Lactam
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of Pcn?
|
Inhibits the transpeptidase involved in the corss-linking of the bacterial cell wall....weakened cell wall ruptures resulting in death
|
|
Is Pcn bactericidal or static?
|
bactericidal
|
|
What type of bacteria does PCN affect?
|
Gram positive, rapidly growing bacteria
|
|
What effect do aminopenicillans have?
|
Increase penetrability (lipophilicity) of drug into Gram Negative cell wall
|
|
Which bacteria is usually resistant to beta lactams?
|
Staph aureus
|
|
When would you choose to use PCN?
|
-achieve high concentration in urine
-drug of choice for Clostridial infections in food animals -rumenotomy, hardware dz -post-parturient toxic metritis -footrot -pinkeye -routine sz |
|
What side effects can occur from PCN?
|
-allergic reactions (more common in cattle)
|
|
How should procain pcn be administered?
|
NEVER IV..can be fatal
|
|
Why should potassium pcn be administered slowly?
|
To avoid hyperkalemia
|
|
What is the spectrum of activity for 1st generation cephalosporins?
|
Gram postive aerobes--use for bone and soft tissue, penetrate tissues and body fluids
|
|
What is the spectrum of activity for 2nd generation cephalosporins?
|
Most Gram positive aerobes, minimal Gram negative aerobes
|
|
3rd generation cephalosporins target gram positive and most gram negative aerobes and are good for what use?
|
Good for meningitis...cross the BBB
|
|
Can cephalosporins target anaerobes?
|
yes, at the appropriate doses
|
|
What is the benefit of using cephalosporins in food animals?
|
Minimal meat and milk withdrawal time, less tissue reaction than with pcn
|
|
What is a potential side effect, in cattle given cephalosporins?
|
drug fever
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of Sulfonamides?
|
Competivetly inhibits the enzyme that catalyzes the incorporation of PABA into dihydrofolic acid
|
|
What is the importance of folic acid?
|
Folic acid is required for purine and DNA synthesis, without it bacterial growth is inhibited
|
|
What is the mechanism of a potentiated sulfa?
|
Sequential blockade of the folic acid pathway....makes the drug bactericidal
|
|
Are sulfonamides bactericidal or static?
|
Bacteristatic
|
|
What is the spectrum of activity of sulfonamides?
|
-broad spectrum
-antiprotozoal |
|
Trimethoprim sulfa can be used in which age of food animals?
|
Young, pre-ruminant
|
|
When would you choose to use a sulfonamide?
|
-when u need concentration in urine
-footrot -coccidiosis |
|
What are the potential side effects to using sulfonamides?
|
-most sulfa drugs are illegal on dairy cattle
-renal crystalluria can occur with prolonged administration |
|
What is the mechanism of Macrolides?
|
Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50s ribosome
|
|
Are macrolides bacteristatic or cidal?
|
Bacteristatic
|
|
What is the spectrum of activity of macrolides?
|
Gram positive aerobes and anaerobes
Mycoplasma species |
|
When would you select a macrolide?
|
For good penetration into diseased tissue (pneumonic lung--has excellent lipid solubility
|
|
Why is Tilmicosin potentially fatal?
|
In injected into humans and non-ruminants, calcium blockage can lead to cardiovascular collapse
|
|
What potential side effect can Erythromycin (a macrolide) cause on horses?
|
Can uncouple oxydative phosphorlation to cause increased thermogenesis which can lead to hyperthermia
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of Tetracyclines?
|
Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30s ribosome..preventing the attachment of aminoacyl tRNA to the mRNA ribosome complex
They block the addition of amino acids to the growing peptide chains |
|
Are Tetracyclines bacteristatic or bactericidal?
|
Bacteristatic
|
|
What is the spectrum of activity of Tectracyclines?
|
Broad spectrum
-gram positive and gram negative aerobes and anaerobes -rickettsiae -spirochetes -chlamydiae -mycoplasma -protozoa such as anaplasma |
|
For what conditions in food animals would you use Tetracycline?
|
-footbaths for topical digital dermatitis (Hairy Heel Warts)
-pneumonia -anaplasmosis -pinkeye |
|
What side effect can occur if you inject more the 10 ml of Tetracylcine at 1 injection site?
|
Myonecrosis
|
|
What can cause Fanconi Syndrome when using tetracylines?
|
If using old, degraded products
|
|
What can happen if tetracycline is giving to a dehydrated patient?
|
Nephrotoxicity
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?
|
Bind irreversibly to the 30s ribosome and inhibit the rate of protein synthesis and the fidelity of mRNS resulting in abnormal proteins
|
|
Are aminolgycosides bacteistatic or cidal?
|
Bactericidal
|
|
What is the spectrum of activity of aminoglycosides?
|
Gram negative aerobes
|
|
What factors greatly affect the efficacy of aminoglycosides?
|
Local tissue factors...
-low tissue pH limits uptake in bacteria (poor in necrotic tissue) -uptake into bacterial cell is energy and oxygen dependent-ineffective anaerobe tissues -inflammatory debris (esp free DNA) avidly binds to aminoglycosides rendering them unavailable for entry into the bacterial cell -can not cross the BBB |
|
When would you select an aminoglycoside in food animal med?
|
You wouldn't! Voluntary ban in food animals!
-but can be used for septicemia in neonates -early bone, joint and blood borne gram neg infections in valuable animals |
|
What are the 2 major drawbacks to using aminoglycosides?
|
-ototoxicity
-nephrotoxicity- accumulates in renal tubular epithelium and remains there for a long time (check urine for blood and casts) |
|
Which class of drugs inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase?
|
Fluoroquinolones
|
|
Are Fluoroquinolones bactericidal or static?
|
bactericidal
|
|
What is the spectrum of activity of Fluoroquinolones?
|
Gram negative and Gram positive aerobes
-Mycoplasma |
|
When would you use Fluoroquinolones?
|
Used for established infections with bacteria that are resistant to conventional antibiotics
|
|
What is the potential side effect of Fluoroquinolones?
|
Potential erosion of the articular cartilage in young, growing animals
|
|
What should you keep in mind regarding Fluoroquinolones and food animals?
|
Illegal to use Fluoroquinolones in extra-label use
|
|
What class of antibiotic should not be used with macrolides since they both bind to the same site (50s)?
|
Lincosamides
|
|
Lincosamides are bacteristatic with what spectrum of activity?
|
Gram positive aerobes and anaerobes
-mycoplasma -toxoplasma |
|
When do you use lincosamides?
|
Swine dysentary
|
|
What is the potential side effect of Lincosamides?
|
Can cause severe enterocolitis in horses and cattle
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of Rifamycins?
|
Inhibit DNA dependent RNA polymerase, prevents RNA synthesis
|
|
Rifamycins are bactericidal and have what spectrum of activity?
|
Gram positive aerobes
-mycoplasma |
|
What are the uses of Rifampin in food animals?
|
-highly lipid soluble and concentrates intracellularly
-excellent distribution into bone and soft tissue -used for chronic granulomatous diseases such as corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis internal abscesses in valuable small ruminants |
|
What are the potential side effects of Rifampin?
|
Hepatotoxicity may occur if animal has preexisting liver disease
Expensive |
|
Florfenical is found in the same family of which other drug?
|
Chloramfenicol
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of Florfenicol?
|
Binds to 50s ribsome subunit
|
|
Is florfenicol bacteristatis or cidal?
|
bacteristatic
|
|
What is the spectrum of activity of florfenicol?
|
gram positive and gram negative aerobes and anaerobes
-mycoplasma -chlamydia |
|
When would you choose florfenicol?
|
-penetrates cells
-penetrates BBB -good for pneumonia |
|
What is the side effect of florfenicol?
|
diarrhea
|
|
Why not use chloramphenicol in food animals?
|
It's banned...has been associated with aplastic anemia in humans (florfenicol is ok)
|
|
What class of anitbiotics are developed by the Pleurotus mutilis mushroom?
|
Pleuromitilins
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of Pleuromitilins?
|
Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to prokaryotic 23 s rRNA ribosome
|
|
Are Pleuromitilins bactericidal or static?
|
bacteristatic
|
|
What is the spectrum of actvitivy of Pleuromitilins?
|
Gram positive aerobes and anaerobes
-mycoplasma species |
|
When do you used Pleuromitilins?
|
-used exclusively in swine
-treat swine respiratory disease -can be mixed with feed as an oral antibiotic |
|
What is the mechanism of action of aspirin?
|
Irreversibly blocks cyclooxygenase
|
|
Why can aspirin be used to treat DIC and sepsis?
|
Because of its activity in inhibiting platelet aggregation
|
|
How does aspirin help in endotoxic shock?
|
As an adjunct therapy by decreasing the formation of prostaglandin mediators and inhibiting platelet aggregation
|
|
What are the potential side effects of aspirin?
|
-GI ulceration
-pulmonary edema formation in sheep -toxicity at higher doses |
|
How would you treat a case of aspirin toxicity?
|
Administer sodium bicarb to rasie urine pH to increase urinary excretion of aspirin
|
|
Flunixin meglumine has the same mechanism of action as aspirin. What are its therapeutic uses?
|
-alleviate pain
-reduce fever -reduce inflammation -bind endotoxin |
|
What are the adverse effects of flunixin?
|
-GI ulceration
-CNS depression at higher doses |
|
When would you choose to use Phenylbutazone?
|
-alleviate musculoskeletal pain
-long duration of action allows for extended dosing intervals |
|
What are the adeverse effects of Phenylbutazone?
|
-GI ulceration
-protein losing enteropathy extra label use id ILLEGAL! |
|
What are the 4 main goals of fluid therapy?
|
-restore and maintain hydration
-restore and maintain osmolality -correct electrolyte abnormalities -correct acid-base abnormalities |
|
What percentage of an animal's body weight is water?
Neonates? |
60%
neonate = 80% |
|
Which water compartment is the largest?
|
ICF (40%)
|
|
What 2 compartments comprise the ECF? (20% of body weight)
|
-blood volume (intravascular) (40% of ecf)
-extravascular (60% of ECF) |
|
ICF is high in which electrolytes?
|
K, Ph, H+
|
|
ECF is high in which electrolytes?
|
Na, Cl, Ca, Mg
|
|
What is the normal osmolality of blood?
|
280-320 mOsm/L
|
|
How is blood osmolality maintained?
|
osmotic and oncotic forces
|
|
What is osmotic force?
|
attraction of a solute for water
|
|
Which electrolytes dictate the flow of osmotic force?
|
Intravascular Na and Cl
|
|
What causes the oncotic forces?
|
Force imposed by plasma protein
|
|
What phenomena regulates the movement of fluid through the capillaries?
|
Starling Forces
|
|
Which organ is responsible for maintaining the daily fluid balance, osmolality and concentration of electrolytes in the blood?
|
kidneys
|
|
What is the rate for maintenance fluid for a cow?
For a calf? |
50 ml/kg (1-2ml/lb/hour)
70ml/kg |
|
Dehydration must be at what level to be clinically detectable?
|
Above 5%
|
|
What are the clinical signs of an animal with 5-7% dehydration?
|
-depressed
-dry mm -prolonged CRT |
|
What are the clinical signs of an animal with 8-10% dehydration?
|
-depressed
-sunken eyes -weakened pulse -skin tenting |
|
What are the clinical signs of an animal with 11-12% dehydration?
|
-recumbent
-cold extremities -markedly sunken eyes -skin stays tented |
|
Why do the eyes look sunken in a dehydrated animal?
|
Loss of fat can cause eyes to look sunken
|
|
What urine SG would you expect with dehydration?
|
> 1.025
|
|
What happens to the heart rate with dehydration?
|
Lowers
|
|
What oral method of fluid administration takes 2 people to perform?
|
Orogastric tube
|
|
when would you consider using a rumen fistula?
|
-tetanus patients
-pharyngeal/esophageal trauma -when you need feedings also |
|
Whith a drench application, what should never be given?
|
Never give mineral oil...risk of aspiration
|
|
What are the drawbacks to intra rectal fluid administration?
|
-very slow rate of absorption
-can't give large volumes |
|
How much NaCl is in hypertonic saline?
|
7.5%
|
|
When is hypertonic saline used?
|
Indicated in some shock states to pull water into the intravascular space by osmosis
|
|
What is the dose for hypertonic saline?
|
4 ml/kg
|
|
An infusion of hypertonic saline must always be followed by what?
|
isotonic fluids
|
|
Why is hypertonic saline NOT a good idea for dehydrated neonates?
|
Risk of hypernatremia
|
|
One gallon of water is equal to how many liters?
|
3.785 liters
|
|
1 gram of Na+ equals how many mEq in a liter?
|
17 mEq/liter
|
|
1 gram of K+ equals hoe many mEq in 1 liter?
|
14 mEq/liter
|
|
1 gram of NaHCOP3 equals how many mEq in 1 liter?
|
12 mEq/liter
|
|
What is the formula for calculating liters of fluid needed for a dehydrated patient?
|
Body weight (in kg) x % dehydrated = liters of fluid
|
|
What accounts for on-going, insensible, fluid losses?
|
-urine output
-diarrhea -milk production |
|
What are the conditions needed for oral fluid administration to be successful?
|
-normal GI motility
-gut perfusion -intact mucosa |
|
What is a drawback of oral fluid administration?
|
Slow absorption
|
|
What type of fluid is needed for subcutaneous administration?
|
isotonic
|
|
For intraperitoneal fluid administration, what type of fluid is needed?
|
Sterile isotonic
|
|
What are the potential complications of giving intraperitoneal fluids?
|
-risk of peritonitis
-bowel laceration |
|
what is the benefit of IV fluid administration?
|
-immediate expansion of ECF fluid
|
|
What is a potential complication of IV fluid administration?
|
Can overhydrate
|
|
Which veins should NOT be used in cows?
|
Milk veins
|
|
When is intraosseous fluid administration used?
|
When you cannot get into a jugular or thromboses of the veins
|
|
What are the indications for fluid therapy?
|
-dehydration, acid-base imbalances, electrolyte disorders
-blood loss -septic.endotoxic shock -unable to drink -disuresis to corect azotemia, toxins |
|
What is the rate for shock dose fluids?
|
80-90 ml/kg for the first hour then 1-2 ml per hour
|
|
What physical exam parameters do you monitor while giving fluids?
|
-heart rate
-respiratory rate and effort -body weight -evidence of edema -urine production -cvp |
|
What lab parameters do you monitor during fluid therapy?
|
-PCV/TA
-BUN, creatinine -Acid/base status -glucose -calcium -potassium |
|
In ruminants, what 2 conditions cause acidosis?
|
Diarrhea
Esophageal choke |
|
Metabolic acidosis requires treatment with what?
|
Bicarbonate
|
|
When would oral bicarb be given?
|
If acidosis is mild and GIT is functional
|
|
Why is sodium bicarb not given with calcium?
|
Will precipitate in IV line
|
|
What function must be monitored when giving bicarb?
|
Respiration
|
|
What is a normal measurement for bicarb on a blood gas analysis?
|
25
|
|
If you know the TCO2 on a serum chemistry, how would you calculate bicarb?
|
TCO2 - 1 = bicarb
|
|
What is the formula to calculate the bicarb needs of an acidotic patient?
|
BW x 0.6 (neonate, 0.3 adult) x base deficit= meq of bicarb needed
|
|
I gram of NaHCO3 = how many mEq of Na and HCO3?
|
12 mEq
|
|
what is the mEq of isotonic bicarb?
|
1.3%
|
|
What cardiac effect can hyperkalemia have?
|
Bradycardia- can have AV block
|
|
What effect does calcium have in treating hyperkalemia
|
Can stabilize resting membrane potential
|
|
How do most cows end up being potassium depleted?
|
No intake, continued loss through urine
|
|
What is given to move K into cells?
|
Bicarb, glucose
|
|
What is a cause of hyponatremia?
|
Chronic water deprivation +/- sodium ingestion
|
|
What is a common cause of hyponatremia in calves?
|
Milk replacer not mixed correctly +/- diarrhea
|
|
What happens to the tonicity of the ECF with hypernatremia?
|
Becomes hypotonic
|
|
How does the brain adjust for hypertonic ECF?
|
Increasing intracellular osmolality- breaks down peptides to free amino acids and phosphate-containing compounds to PO 4
idiogenic osmoles |
|
What risk do you run if you give a hypernatremic calf free water too rapidly?
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Cerebral edema----inside of brain would be hypertonic, water would move into cells
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What signs would you see at the onset of fluid therapy giiven to rapidly for hypernatremia?
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-papillary dilation, depression, convulsions
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What steps would you follow in this case?
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-stop fluids
-dexamethasone -diazepam for seizures -mannitol -IV fluids tailored to lower Na by 1/2 -1 mEq per hour -small frequent doses of oral water |
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What is Sick Cria Syndrome?
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Cria with hypernatremia--crias do nt produce idiogenic osmoles as easily as neonate ruminants, can treat like any other small animal
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The majority of cows that are dehydrated also have what condition?
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Alkalosis
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How are dehydrated/alkolotic cows treated?
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Give chloride and potassium rich fluids
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How is the alkalosis usually corrected?
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By the kidneys, if they are well perfused..and the underlying cause eliminated
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In mature cows, metabolic alkalosis is characterized by what 2 conditions?
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-hypochloremia
-hypokalemia |
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In a mature core, hypochloremia and hypokalemia can cause what pardoxical condition?
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Aciduria-- decreased blood volume leads to decreased aldosterone, increased sodium retention and increased potassium excretion, but distal nephron exchanges hydrogen for potassium
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Does diarrhea in a cow lead to acidosis?
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Yes but rarely
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How does grain overload lead to acidosis in a cow?
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Carb engorgement--large amounts of VFA and lactic acid are produced by bacterial fermentation
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How does choke cause acidosis in a cow?
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Cow saliva is hypertonic- rich in bicarb and phsophorus, produce 100-200 L per day
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A defect in the distal tubules of the kidneys can produce an acidosis in a cow..in what way?
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Defect in secretion of H+
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Where would the renal failure be if there is a defect in the reabsorption of bicarb?
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Proximal renal tubular necrosis
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Which electrolytes are lost in diarrhea of calves..causing an acidosis?
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Na, Cl, K, bicarb
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How does the loss of bicarb exasperate the acidosis condition?
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Lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism is not buffered-dehydration and poor tissue perfusion
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What can cause endotoxic shock in an acidotic calf?
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-Gram negative bacteria can liberate LPS
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Endotoxic shock can lead to what conditions?
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-cardiopulmonary dysfunction
-tissue hypoxemia and VQ mismatch -hyperlactatemia (met. acidosis) |
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What are the signs of a calf in endotoxic shock?
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-loss of suckle
-loss of menance -unable to stand |
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When would you treat an acidotic calf with IV fluids?
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-no suckle
-GIT not functioning -greater than 8% dehydrated -give shock rate -bicarb |
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When would you choose to treat an acidotic calf with oral fluids?
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-able to suckle
-esophageal feeder -glucose can facilitate Na absorption through gut wall |
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Acute blood loss is rare in cows, but what steps would you take to treat it?
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-hypetonic fluids w/ oral fluids
-IV if necessary -followed by isotonic |
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Would you treat a hypoproteinemia with crystalloids or colloids?
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Colloids
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Plasma is used to treat what condition in calves?
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Failure of passive transfer
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Camelids are frequently hypoproteinemic. What types of fluids do they require?
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Colloids along with crsytalloids to prevent edema
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What caution must you take when giving hetastarch?
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coagulopathies can occur at higer doses
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What is a primary clinical sign of a sarcocystis infection in a cow?
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Loss of tail switch- rat tail
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What other clincal signs might be seen?
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-anorexia
-anemia -severe weight loss -nervousness -hypersailvation -lameness -hair loss on extremities |
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What conditin can sarcocystis cause in camelids?
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Can embed in the esophagus and cause megaesophagus
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How is sarcocystosis treated?
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Little is known about the treatment
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What is the intermediate host for Stephanofilaria stilesi?
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Horn fly (Haemotobia irritans)
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Where is the clinical sign of filarial dermatitis usually first noticed?
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Single, hairless lesion on ventral midline
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What treatment is used to Stephanofilariasis?
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None--avermectin can be used
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Strongyloides papillosus affects which species and penetrates the body where?
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Lamb and kids- penetrates at the coronary band
-causes pustular erythematous dermatitis |
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What is the genus of biting lice?
Sucking lice? |
biting = Mallophaga
sucking= Anoplura |
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In which season are lice more commonly found on cows?
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Winter-summer body temp is too high for lice
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What region of the cow is first affected by lice?
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Neck and tail
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How are sucking lice treated?
How are biting lice treated? |
-sucking: ivermection
-biting: powdered insecticides |
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Cochliomyia hominovorax (screwworms) eggs are deposited where?
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Near wounds, fresh blood or moist areas
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How are screwworms treated?
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Apply insecticides into the wounds
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How can the risk of screwworms be decreased?
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-avoid surgery (castration, dehorning) during fly season
-use fly spray on wounds to prevent larvae |
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What is the common name for Melophagus ovinus?
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Sheep ked
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Where does the sheep ked spend its entire life cycle?
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On the sheep
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What is the treatment for sheep ked?
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same as for lice- powder after shearing
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Hypoderma spp. are also known as what?
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Warbles- grubs
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Which hypoderma species migrate towards the spinal cord?
Towards the esophageal wall? |
spinal cord: hypoderma bovis
esophagus: hypoderma lineatum |
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What is gadding?
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A stampeding behavior exhibited by cows when chased by ovipositing female flies
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How should the grubs be removed?
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manually--dont rupture cyst, can cause a sever systemic reaction
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How do you eliminate the migrating larvae?
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Systemic insecticides
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When should you NOT treat for hypoderma?
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From Oct 1st - March 1st (in northern USA and Canada)..this is the time period the larvae are in the epidural space and esophagus
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Which is the most common type of mange in cattle in the US?
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Chorioptic
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When is choriotic mange most prevalent?
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During the winter
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What is the preferred site for chorioptic mange to infest?
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pastern of legs
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How is chorioptic mange of cattle treated?
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.25% crotoxyfos spray at high pressure
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How is chorioptic mange in sheep in the US treated?
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its not...has been eradicated
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Which species does demodex bovis affect?
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-cattle
-sheep -goats |
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How is demodex usually transferred?
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from dam to nursing animal
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What is the clinical appearance of demodex?
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-pruitis is absent
-follicular papules and nodules over the withers, neck, back and flanks |
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What must you do is you diagnose psoroptic mange in any ruminant?
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report it
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Is psoroptic mange seen more often in beef or dairy cattle?
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beef
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What is the appearance of psoroptic mange?
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Intense prutitis on shoulders and rump which will progress until it covers the entire body
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What is the cause of ear mange in goats?
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Psoroptes cuniculi--esp in Angora
reportable in texas |
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What should you counsel owners on regarding sarcoptic mange?
Sarcoptes scabiei |
Can be transmitted to humans
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How is sarcoptic mange treated?
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Avermectins
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What are some of the common names given to Dermatophilosis?
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-rain scald
-lumpy wool -strawberry foot rot -streptothricosis |
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Dermatophilosis is a superficial bacterial dermatitis characterized by what?
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-exudation and crust formation
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What is the characteristic microscopic appearance of dermatophilus congolensis?
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Railroad tracks
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Healing of an infection of dermatophilus requires what response from the body?
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humoral and cell mediated
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How do you treat Dermatophilosis?
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PCN or oxytetracycline
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Contagious ecthyma (orf) is caused by what type of vieus in sheep and goats?
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Parapox virus
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As a vet what is you concern with Orf?
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Zoonosis
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What are the clinical signs of orf?
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proliferative lesions with scabs on the lips, muzzle, eyelids, oral cavity, udder, teats, feet
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Are clinical cases of orf seen in older or younger animals?
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Younger
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How is orf treated?
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treatment not necessary, lesions will heal
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For neonates that have lesion on their mouth, what must you be aware of?
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That they are nursing...can die from hypoglycemia very rapidly
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Which virus species is responsible for bovine papillomas?
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BPV 1-6
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Are warts more common in older or younger animals?
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Younger
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Persistant mammary warts in Saanen goats may transform into what disease?
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Squamous cell carcinoma
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How are warts treated?
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Crushing, pinch off, surgial removal, cryo
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Pseudocow pox is related to what other disease?
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Common parapox virus of contagious ecthyma of sheep and goats and bovine papular stomatitis
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Lesions of pseudocowpox are usually found where?
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on the teats
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Dermatophytosis (ringworm) is caused in food animals by which organism?
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Trichophyton
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Trichophyton occurs mainly in cattle under what conditions?
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Housed indoors in winter months
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Is a wood's lamp helpful in detection of the ringworm species in cattle?
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No
T verrucosum T mentagrophytes |
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Does Trichophyton in animals affect the hair shaft more or the epidermal horny layer?
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hair shaft--opposite is true in humans
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What is the only sign of Dermatophytosis infection?
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Alopecia with broken hair shafts
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A deficiency of what mineral can cause parakerarosis in llamas and alpacas?
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Zinc
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On what areas does the parakeratosis occur?
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Legs, neck, head, feet, scrotum
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How do you treat the parakeratosis od llamas and alpacas?
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Oral zinc supplements
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What are the common causes of corneal ulceration in cattle?
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-IBK (pinkeye)
-foreign body -traumatic puncture -IBR -MCF |
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What is the causative agent of IBK or pinkeye in cattle?
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Morexlla bovis
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What is the cause of pinkeye in sheep?
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Chlamydophila percorum and/or Mycoplasma
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What is the cause of pinkeye in goats?
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Mycoplasma
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How can otitis media or interna lead of corneal ulceration?
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Facial nerve paralysis can lead to exposure keratitis
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How is Moraxella bovis spread?
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By face flies (musca autumnalis)
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Are older or younger animals affected with M bovis?
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Younger
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What are the primary clinical signs of IBK?
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-blepharospasm
-epiphora -photophobia |
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How are mild cases of IBk treated?
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Systemic antibiotic may be enough
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By what other route can antibiotics by administered to combat IBK?
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Subconjunctival injection
(do not inject lipophilic compounds..oxytet, florfenicol) |
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What type of parenteral antibiotic are used to treat IBK?
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Long acting lipid soluble
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What type of surgery can be performed to protect against corneal ulceration/abrasions?
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3rd eyelid flaps
-conjunctival flaps -temporary tarsorrhaphy |
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What do you tell your client about fly control in regards to controlling pinkeye?
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-manure mgt
-repellant ear tags -dust/oil clothes -cut tall grass -premise spraying -baits, traps for pedatory insects |
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A vaccines against Moraxella bovis effective?
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Not really, bugs may switch pilus antigens
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Pinkeye in sheep (Chlamydophila pecorum) nay occur in combination with what other disease?
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Polyarthritis
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What is the treatment of choice for the pinkeye and polyarthritis?
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Parenteral oxytet
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In neonatal lambs, along with pinkeye, its important to rule out what other condition?
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Entropion
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What other concurrent signs might you see in goats with pinkeye? (from Mycoplasma)
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-polyarthritis
-septicemia -mastitis -abortions |
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What is cancer eye?
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Ocular squamous cell carcinoma
most common and costly neoplastic dz of large animals |
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What are the risk factors associated with cancer eye?
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-genetics
-uv exposure -periocular lack of pigment - > 4 years old |
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If left untreated what can happen to a OSSC lesion?
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Can invade and destroy local tissue, can be massive and painful
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What is the treatment for localized OSSC of the globe?
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Debulk
Cryotherapy Hyperthermia |
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What is the treatment for localized adnexal tumors of the 3rd eyelid?
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removal of the entire 3rd eyelid
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How do you treat localized adnexal tumors of the conjunctiva?
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Debulk, cryo
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What is the proper term for removal of the globe?
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Exenterate
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